Step Up - Fluids and Electrolytes Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the distribution of fluid in the body in terms of ICF, ECF, plasma, and interstitial fluid.

A

1) ICF - 2/3 of TBW
2) ECF - 1/3 of TBW
a) Plasma 1/3 of ECF
b) Interstitial fluid 2/3 of ECF

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2
Q

What is the best way of assessing volume status? What is expected? What else can be used to assess volume status?

A

1) Urine output 0.5-1.0ml/kg/hr in adults
2) Clinical picture is important
a) burns, fever, open wounds lead to greater insensible losses
b) Patients with liver failure, nephrotic syndrome, CHF, hypoalbuminemia third-space and are intravascularly deplete despite normal TBW
c) ESRD leads to hypervolemia

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3
Q

What are the causes of hypovolemia (5)?

A
GI loss (vomiting, diarrhea, NG suction)
third-spacing (ascites, effusions)
Low intake
Polyuria (DKA)
Sepsis and inflamatory processes
Trauma, open-wounds, burns
Insensible losses - diaphoresis, tachypnea
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4
Q

What are the clinical features of hypovolemia (5)?

A

1) CNS deficits - mental status change, sleepiness, apathy, coma
2) CV findings - orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, low pulse pressure, decreased CVP
3) Skin change - poor turgor, cold, pale
4) Oliguria
5) Ileus, weakness
6) AKI - azotemia

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5
Q

What is the rule for calculating maintenance fluids? What is typically used for maintenance fluid?

A

1) 4//2/1 - 4ml/kg first 10kg, 2ml/kg second 10kg, 1ml/kg for weight over 20kg (gives 110ml/hr for 70kg person).
2) D51/2NS with 20mEq/L KCL

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6
Q

What are the causes of hypervolemia (2)? What are the clinical features (5)? How is it treated (2)?

A

1) Causes: iatrogenic, fluid-retaining states (CHF, nephrotic syndrome, cirrhosis, ESRD)
2) Clinically: wt gain, peripheral edema/ascites/pulm edema, JVP elevated, High CVP, pulmonary rales, low hematocrit
3) Tx: fluid restrict, diuretics

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7
Q

What does hyper/hyponatremia represent? What does hyper/hypovolemia represent?

A

1) Too much or too little WATER

2) Too much or too little NA

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8
Q

Where does furosemide work in the kidney and what does it impair? Where do thiazides work in the kidney, what does it impair?

A

1) Furosemide - works on ascending loop, blocks Na/Cl/K transporter
2) Thiazides - works on early distal tubule, blocks Na/Cl transporter.

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9
Q

`How is serum osmolality calculated?

A

Sosmo = 2Na + Urea + Glc (all in mmol/L)

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10
Q

What is the first step in the work-up of hyponatremia? Briefly describe each category.

A

Check serum osmolality and classify hyponatremia as follows:

1) Osmo > 295: hypertonic hyponatremia (osmotic substances present - hyperglycemia, mannitol, glycerol)
2) Osmo 280-295: isotonic hyponatremia (pseudohyponatremia, increased plasma solids such as proteins or TGs)
3) Osmo less than 280: hypotonic hyponatremia - this is true hyponatremia

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11
Q

How is hypotonic hyponatremia further subclassified (3)? What are the causes of each?

A

1) Hypovolemic:
a) Low urine sodium: extrarenal losses (diarrhea, vomiting, diaphoresis, third-spacing, burns)
b) High urine sodium: renal losses (ATN, diuretics, low aldosterone (ACEi)).
2) Euvolemic: SIADH, psychogenic polydipsia, hypothyroidism, oxytocin use, excess free water administration, drugs (haldol)
3) Hypervolemic: water retaining states with more water than sodium retained. Cause: CHF, nephrotic syndrome, liver disease

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12
Q

What are the clinical features of hyponatremia (5)?

A

1) Neuro findings - cerebral edema, headache, delirium, irritability, muscle twitching, weakness, hyperactive DTR
2) Increased ICP - seizures, coma
3) GI - N/V, ileus, watery diarrhea
4) CV - hypertension 2nd to high ICP
5) Increased sallvation and lacrimation
6) Oliguria

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13
Q

Will the urine osmolality be high or low in true hyponatremia?

A

Depends on cause:

1) If kidneys are responding properly, then osmolality is low (dilute urine). Ex. primary polydipsia
2) Osmolality high if high ADH. Ex. CHF, SIADH

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14
Q

How is true hyponatremia treated (hypotonic hyponatremia)?

A

1) Mild (Na 120-130): water restrict
2) Moderate (Na 110-120): loop diuretics and saline (to prevent ADH activation)
3) Severe (under 110): hypertonic saline to correct
- Do not correct by more than 8mmol/L in 24hrs.

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15
Q

What is the first step in working-up hypernatremia? How is hypernatremia classified? What are the causes of each type?

A

1) Assess clinical ECF volume
2) types:
a) Hypovolemic hypernatremia
- low Na and low water (more so)
- Renal loss: diuretics, osmotic diuresis (glucose), renal failure
- Extrarenal loss: diarrhea, diaphoresis, respiratory
b) Euvolemic hypernatremia
- normal Na, low water
- DI, insensible respiratory (tachypnea)
c) Hypervolemic hypernatrmia
- Gain of water and gain of Na (more so)
- Iatrogenic (TPN, NaHCO3), exogenous glucocorticoids, cushing’s syndrome
- rare.

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16
Q

What are the clinical features of hypernatremia? How is each type treated?

A

1) Neurological findings - altered mental status, restless, weak, confusion, seizure, coma. Mucous membranes dry
2) Treatment
a) Hypovolemic - give isotonic NaCl to restore volume, replace free water deficit later
b) Euvolemic - Vasopressin for DI. Oral fluids
c) Hypervolemic - diuretics (furosemide) and D5W to replace water deficit

17
Q

What are the causes of hypocalcemia (5)? What are the clinical features (5)? How is it treated?

A

1) Causes: hypoparathyroidism, acute pancreatitis, renal insufficiency (low vit D), hyperphosphatemia, pseudohypoparathyroidism, hypomagnesemia, vit D def, malabsorption
2) Clinical: can be asymptomatic, rickets/osteomalacia, neuromuscular irritability (brisk DTR, Chvostek sign, Trousseau sign), basal ganglia calcifications, Cardiac (prolonged QT and arrhythmias)
3) Tx: treat underlying cause

18
Q

Comment on the serum Phos and PTH in the following causes of hypocalcemia: hypoparathyroidism, vitamin D deficiency, pseudohypoparathyroidism

A

1) Hypoparathyroidism: high phos, low PTH
2) Vitamin D def: low phos, high PTH
3) Psuedohypoparathyroidism: - , very high PTH

19
Q

What are the causes of hypercalcemia (5)? What are the clinical features (5)?

A

1) Causes:
a) Endo - hyperparathyroidism, Paget’s, acromegaly
b) Malignancies - metastatic, multiple myeloma, tumors that secrete PTH-like hormone
c) Pharma - vit D intoxication, milk, thiazide diuretics
2) Clinical
a) Stones
b) Bones - bone pain
c) Groans - muscle pain, pancreatitis, gout
d) Psych overtones - depression, fatigue, anorexia
e) Other - HTN, wt loss, shortened QT

20
Q

How is hypercalcemia treated (4)?

A

1) IV fluids and loop diuretics
2) Inhibit bone resorption in malignancy - bisphosphonates
3) Glucocorticoids if vit D-related mechanism
4) Hemodialysis if renal failure.

21
Q

Provide a differential diagnosis for hypokalemia.

A

1) Redistributive - insulin excess, metabolic alkalosis, epinephrine
2) Renal loss - RTA, DKA, ureterosigmoidostomy
3) Extra-renal losses - low intake, laxative abuse, perspiration, diarrhea, fistula
4) Spurious - lab error

22
Q

What are the clinical features of hypokalemia (5)? How is it treated (3)?

A

1) Clinical: arrhythmias, muscle weakness, low DTR, paralytic ileus, flat T waves with U-waves
2) Tx:
a) Oral or IV K - 10mEq corrects by 0.1
b) IV infusion rate no more than 10mEq/hr
c) Correct Mg deficit if present

23
Q

What are the causes of hyperkalemia (5)?

A

1) Redistribution - acidosis, insulin deficiency, B-blockers
2) Renal failure
3) Renal impairment
a) Low aldosterone - ACEi, Addison’s disease
b) N or high aldosterone - potassium sparing diuretics, tubular disorders
4) Spurious - lab error, hemolysis

24
Q

What are the clinical features of hyperkalemia (5)? How is it treated (4)?

A

1) Clinical: arrhythmias - peak T waves, widened QRD, PR prolongation, loss of P waves, VFib. Muscle weakness, low DTR, resp failure
2) Tx (severe): IV calcium, glucose and insulin or bicarb to shift K into cells, remove K with Kayexalate, dialysis, or diuretics

25
Q

Provide a differential for AG metabolic acidosis (4).

A

1) Ketoacidosis - Dm, prolonged starvation, prolonged alcohol abuse
2) Lactic acidosis - low perfussion, shock states
3) Renal failure - low NH4 excretion
4) Intoxication - salicylate, methanol, ethylene glycol

26
Q

Provide a differential for non-AG metabolic acidosis (2)/

A

1) Renal loss of bicard - prox or distal tubule acidosis

2) GI loss of HCO3

27
Q

What is the anticipated PaCO2 response to a metabolic acidosis (Winter’s formula)?

A

expect that PaCO2 = 1.5*HCO3 + 8 +or-2

  • if response appropriate, then met acidosis
  • if response to little, then met acidosis and resp acidossis
  • if response to high, then met acidosis, and resp alk
28
Q

Describe the 2 categories of metabolic alkalosis and what causes each.

A

1) Saline-sensitive met alk
a) Ucl less than 10
b) Cause: ECF contraction (diuretics) or H loss with vomiting
c) Tx: Saline
2) Saline-resistant met alk
a) Ucl > 10, hypervolemic
b) Cause: adrenal disorders (primary hyperaldosteronism)
c) Tx underlying cause

29
Q

What is the renal adaptation to a respiratory acidosis in terms of adjustment to HCO3 for every 10mmHG increase in PCO2

A

Anticipate HCO3 increase of 4mmol/L (in chronic setting)