Step 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

pain, redness, vision loss, constricted and irregular pupil

A

anterior uveitis (iritis)

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2
Q

severe photophobia with difficulty keeping eye open

A

infectious keratitis

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3
Q

corneal foreign body tx most common staph /contacts pseudomonas

A

erythromycin, cipro

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4
Q

drusen spots with central vision loss

A

dry macular degeneration

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5
Q

blood vessels from choroid grow behind retina causing detachement

A

wet macular degeneration

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6
Q

chronic gradual loss of peripheral vision and tx

A

open angle glaucoma, latanoprost, timolol, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors -zolamide meds

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7
Q

acute eye pain, headache, injection and tx

A

close angle glaucoma. acetazolamide, timolol, pilocarpine, mannitol

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8
Q

sudden, severe with temporal sparring, amarosis fugax. pale fundus with cherry red spot

A

central retinal artery occlusion. ocular massage and acetazolamide

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9
Q

subacute, blood and thunder

A

central retinal vein occulusion

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10
Q

floaters, viterous hemorrhage and retina elevation

A

retinal detachement, surgery

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11
Q

visual haze floaters, dark streaks, decreased red reflex

A

vitreous hemorrhage, bed rest with elevation 30-45%

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12
Q

posterior nose bleed occurs where

A

sphenopalatine artery

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13
Q

bone greater than air, weber louder in affected

A

conductive most commonly caused by otosclerosis

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14
Q

air greater than bone, weber louder in normal

A

sensorineural

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15
Q

pruritic, lichenified plaques on flexor surfaces

A

atopid dermatitis (eczema) topical steroids or topical tacrolimus

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16
Q

immune mediated Type IV hypersensitivity rash acute causing papular lesions, vesicles, weeping erosions. chronically causes hyperkeratosis and lichenification

A

contact dermatitis, steroids

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17
Q

immune mediated skin disease , nails with pitting and onychiolysis classically involves the distal interphalangeal joints

A

psoriasis, steroids, light exposure, methotrexate

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18
Q

tender red or violet nodules common in women, sarcoidoisis, inflammatory bowel disesae typically after recent URI or diarrheal illness. red nodules without ulceration on the shins

A

erythema nodosum , nsaids, potassium iodide

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19
Q

looks like acne without pimples, flushing from spicy food, rhinophyma

A

rosacea - cleansers, metronidazole. potentally doxycycline, tretinoin

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20
Q

acute inflammatory disease type IV hypersensitity, occures after sulfa drugs, rapidly progressive, symmetric lesions, targetoid papules on hands and palms

A

erythema multiforme - histamne blockers, prednisone

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21
Q

autoimmune disease targeting desmoglein with oral lesions and nikolsky sign. flaccid bullae

A

pemphigus vulgaris - steroids

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22
Q

autoimmune disease against basement membrane with large tense bullae

A

bullous pemphigoid, steroids

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23
Q

pearly papules with central depression that is ulcerated on sun exposed areas

A

basal cell carcinoma

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24
Q

annular plaques with a thin scale and central clearing

A

tinea corporis, griseofulvin, itraconazole

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25
Q

red, scaly soles with maceration and fissuring bwtween toes

A

tinea pedis - friseofulvin, terbinafine

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26
Q

hypopigmented macules in areas of sun , reddish brown in winter

A

tinea versicolor - itraconazole

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27
Q

hyperkeratosis and yellowing of the nail plate

A

onychomycosis, terbinafine

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28
Q

erythema and scaling of the scalp with thickened, broken off hairs and scalp kerion

A

tinea capitis - griseofulvin, itraconazole

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29
Q

pink plaques with scale or eroision spread to lymph nodes, arsenic exposure

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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30
Q

typical substernal chest pressure or shortness of breath that is exacerbated by exertion and relieed by rest or nitroglycerin

A

stable angina

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31
Q

any new angina in previously asymptomatic patients or accelerating or new angina at rest

A

unstable angina

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32
Q

true or false DM is a CAD risk equivalent

A

true

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33
Q

what determines the difference between unstable angina and NSTEMI

A

presence of elevated troponin

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34
Q

s4, crackles, venous destension after acute MI

A

Heart failure, dont give b-blocker give MONA BASH if stable and no signs of heart failure

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35
Q

what drugs improve mortality after MI

A

aspirin, b-blockers, ACEI, statins, anti platelet agents

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36
Q

post TPA in MI with decreased EF and prolonged QRS

A

cardiac resynchronization

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37
Q

post MI with symptoms and decreased EF <35%

A

give ICD

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38
Q

symptoms of HF, diastolic murmur heard best at apex with an opening snap associated with rheumatic fever

A

mitral stenosis, HR control

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39
Q

blowing systolic murmur at the apex and radiates to the axilla if acute leads to rapid pulmonry edema, cardiogenic shock, ruptured chordae tendinae due to MI usually and ultimately leads to AF

A

mitral regurgitation
acute needs surgery
chronic needs repair EF <60

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40
Q

midsystolic click, increased by valsalva maneuvers presents with palpitations or dyspnea

A

mitral valve prolapse

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41
Q

systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur radiating to the carotids along the right sternal border, parvus et tardus presents with chest pain, syncope, HF, shortness of breath

A

aortic stenosis avoid overdiuresis do surgery

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42
Q

diastolic murmur along left sternal border with wide pulse pressure radiate to apex

A

aortic regurgitation - afterload reduction with ACE and hydralazine

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43
Q

systolic crescendo and decrescendo murmur at the left sternal boarder that is worse on standing and valsalva

A

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

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44
Q

caused by alcohol or tachycardia presents with ischemia, tachycardia, HTN, or chagas

A

dilated cardiomyopathy - ACE, ARB, B-blockers, spironolactone, digoxin

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45
Q

findings show LVDH and low voltage on EKG caused by sarcoid, amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, cancer, and glycogen storage

A

restrictive cardiomyopathy

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46
Q

ventricular septum hypertrophy that is not symmetric that is generally due to autosomal cardiac sarcomere in a dominant pattern associated with sudden cardia death

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy give b-blocker, verapmil or dysopyramide

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47
Q

distant or muffled heart sounds, incrased JVP, and pulsus paradoxus

A

pericardial effusion

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48
Q

postprandial abdominal pain, food fear, bloody diarrhea

A

mesenteric ischemia

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49
Q

gemfibrozil and nictoinic acid do what

A

increase HDL and decrease triglycerides

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50
Q

fever, rigors, HF, neurologic impairment, back pain, roth spots (white hemorrhages on retina), osler nodes, janeway lesions, pulmonary symptoms, (systemic emboli)

A

acute endocarditis, needs surgery for hemodynamic istability, heart failure, valve destruction
give prophylaxsis with PCN for dental procedures

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51
Q

strep bovis associated with

A

gi malignancy

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52
Q

any patient with s aureus bacteremia needs

A

evaluation for endocarditis , dukes criteria

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53
Q

hip pain preceded by URI

A

toxic synovitis

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54
Q

ulnar shaft fracture with radial head dislocation

A

Monteggia fracture

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55
Q

distal 1/3 radius fracture with a distal radioular dislocation

A

galeazzi fracture

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56
Q

FOOSH injury - distal radial fracture with dorsal displacement

A

colles fracture

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57
Q

this fracture needs splinting even if there is tenderness in the area due to frequent development of avascular necrosis

A

scaphoid fracture

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58
Q

proximal fibula injury aka

A

maisonneuve fracture

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59
Q

shoulder disloaction typically causes

A

axillary nerve injury

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60
Q

supracondylar fractures lead to what

A

radial nerve injury

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61
Q

narrow regular complex tachycardia is typically, tx

A

SVT, adenosine

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62
Q

narrow irregular complex is typically, tx

A

AF, rate control metoprolol or diltiazem

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63
Q

wide complex tachycardia is typically , tx

A

VT, amiodarone

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64
Q

develops slowely over 24 hours and freatures rigidity rather than clonus (due to drugs)

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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65
Q

indication for emergent dialysis - AEIOU

A
acidosis - can be fixed with bicarb
electrolytes - hyperkalemia
Ingestion - lithium or aspirin
overload - kidney failure
uremia - encephalopathy, serositis, pericarditis
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66
Q

herb used for BPH, causes

A

saw palmetto, increased bleeding

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67
Q

herm used for anxiety and insomnia, causes

A

kava kava, liver toxicity

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68
Q

herb used for depression, causes

A

st. johns wart, serotonin syndrome, decreased INR, digoxign toxicity, HTN crisis

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69
Q

Herb used for HLD

A

Garlic

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70
Q

Herb used for High triglycerides

A

fish oil

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71
Q

herb used for osteoarthritis

A

glacosamin and chondritin

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72
Q

used after menopause, causes

A

black cohosh, liver toxicity

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73
Q

herb used for memory enchancement, causes

A

ginko biloba, bleeding and intracranial bleeding

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74
Q

herb used for ulcers and virus, causes

A

licorice, HTN, hypokalemia

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75
Q

herb used for weight loss, causes

A

ephedra, HTN, sudden death, stroke, seizure

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76
Q

herb used for weight loss in china, causes

A

aristolochic acid, nephrotoxicity (RTA)

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77
Q

toxidrome presents with diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchorrhea, bronchospasm, bradycardia, emesis, lacrimation, salivation, examples

A

cholinergic , mushrooms, organophosphates, pilocarpine, pyridostigmine

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78
Q

toxidrome presents with fever, flushing, dry mucous membranes, psychosis, mydraisis, tachycardia, and urinary retension, examples

A

anticholinergic - antihistamines, antipsychotics, atropine, jimson weed, scopolamine, TCA

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79
Q

toxidrome presents with coma, respiratory depression, and miosis, examples

A

opiods, heroin, morphine, oxycodone

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80
Q

toxidrome presents with CNS depression, respiratory depression, and coma, examples

A

sedative hypnotic , alcohol, barbs, benzo

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81
Q

toxidrome presents with disorientation, panic, seizures, hypertension, tachycardia, tachypnea, examples

A

sympathomimetics, amphetamines, cocaine, PCP

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82
Q

toxidrome presents with tremor, torticollis, trismus, rigidity, oculogyric crisis, opisthotonos, dysphonia, and dysphagia

A

extrapyramidal - haloperidol, metoclopramide, phenothiazines

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83
Q

opiate overdose tx

A

naloxone - may cause pulmonary edema

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84
Q

anticholinergic overdose treatmetn

A

benzo for symptom control

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85
Q

sympathomimetic toxidrome tx

A

benzodiazepine

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86
Q

organophasphate tx

A

atropine

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87
Q

hallucinogenic toxidrome tx

A

benzodiazepine

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88
Q

ethylene glycol ingestion tx

A

fomepizole or ethanol

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89
Q

monkey bites transmit this which has 80% fatality rate

A

Herpes B virus, treat with valacyclovir

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90
Q

anaphylactic - igE mediated

A

type I

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91
Q

cytotoxic antibody mediated

A

type II

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92
Q

immune complex mediated

A

Type III

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93
Q

type IV Delayed (CD4 mediated)

A

Type IV

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94
Q

difference between heat exhaustion and stroke

A

temperature dysregulation, AMS, and paradoxical shivering

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95
Q

associated with explosive exit wound, causes VF and due to household or commercial electricity

A

alternating current, worst kind

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96
Q

electricity causes discrete exit wound and asytole due to batteries, industry, and lightning

A

direct c urrent

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97
Q

traume and loss of vision with vitreous humor leak and teardrop shaped pupil, tx

A

puptured glove, eye shield

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98
Q

dental avulsion treatment

A

reimplant, rinse but dont scrub

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99
Q

polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia

A

DM

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100
Q

aspart

A

novolog

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101
Q

lispro

A

humalog

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102
Q

regular

A

humulin

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103
Q

glargine

A

Lantus

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104
Q

acidemia causes potassium to shift where to cause what

A

extracellulary, hyperkalemia

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105
Q

hyperglycemia with neurolgic symptoms

A

HHS

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106
Q

hyperglycemia with hyperventilation and abdominal pain

A

DKA

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107
Q

presents with fatigue, weight gain, constipation (ileus), dry skin with increased TSH and decreased T4

A

primary hypothyroidism, levothyroxine

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108
Q

altered mental statues, hypothermia, and hemodynamic instability

A

myxedema coma, levothyroxine

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109
Q

weight loss, tachycardia, anxiety, diarrhea, afib, tremor

A

primary hyperthyroidism, PTU or methimazole

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110
Q

high fever, tachycardia, cardiac failure, dehydration, altered mental statues

A

thyroid storm,
propranolol for tachycardia
glucocorticoids to block t4 conversion
methimazole or PTU

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111
Q

presents like primary hyperthyroidism but has increased TSH and T4 due to adenoma usually

A

2nd hyperthyroidism, remove tumor, b-blockers

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112
Q

atibody against TSH receptor, diffuse pailness goiter, proptosis, pretibial myxedema

A

graves disease, ptu or methimazole prior to ablation

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113
Q

tender thyroid usually hyperthyroidism folled by hypothyroidism in setting of viral illness

A

subacute thyroiditis, NSAIDS

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114
Q

painless thyroid enlargement with anti TPO antibody present

A

hashimoto thyroditis

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115
Q

what trimester do you gie methimazole

A

2-3rd

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116
Q

wat trimester do you give PTU

A

1st

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117
Q

what is the difference between hot nodule and cold nodule

A

hot noduels are rarely malignant

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118
Q

cervical lymphadenopathy, dysphagia, dyspnea, and hoarseness

A

thyroid cancer

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119
Q

most common thyroid cancer

A

papillary spreads lymphatically

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120
Q

thyroid cancer spreads through blood to bone and lungs

A

papillary

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121
Q

tumor of parafollicular c cells that secrete calcitonin and assoicated with MEN 2A or 2B

A

medullary

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122
Q

undifferentiated thyroid cancer with poor prognosis

A

anaplastic

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123
Q

this is the best marker to determine if thyroid tissue remains or cancer of the thyroid has returned

A

thyroglobulin

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124
Q

presents at fatigue, constipation, polyuria, polydipsia and abdominal pain with increase in PTH and Calcium

A

priamry hyperparathyroidism tx acutely with IV hydration and furosemide

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125
Q

presents as fatigue, constipation, polyuria, polydipsia and abdominal pain with decreased or normal PTH and increased calcium

A

secondary hyperparathyroidism

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126
Q

presents with altered mental statues, polyuria, short QT syndrome, and dehydration in the setting of high calcium

A

hypercalcemic crisis >13, dialysis

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127
Q

t score > -1

A

normal

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128
Q

tscore -1 to -2.5

A

osteopenia

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129
Q

tscore

A

osteoporosis, tx -dronate drugs then raloxifene

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130
Q

presents as skin atrophy, proximal muscle weakness, moon face, buffalo hum, psychiatric disturbances, hypertension, hyperglycemia, growth retardation, hisutisim, what is the best test

A

hypercortisolism (cushings), dexamethasone test to mesaure cortisol excess

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131
Q

for dexamethsone cortisol testing if
cortisol is normal
cortisol is high

A

not cushing

do high dose dexamethasone supression test

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132
Q

on high dose dexamthasone supression testing
acth undectectable
acth no suppression
acth supressed

A

adrenal tumor
ectopic acth syndrome
pituitary tumor (cushing disease)

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133
Q

hypotension, postural dizziness, syncope, hyponatremia and hyperkalemia, hyperpigmentation with increased ACTH and decreased aldosterone

A

addison disease or primary adrenal insufficiency, steroids, fluudrocortisone

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134
Q

fatigue, generalized weakness and weight loss with decreased ACTH and normal electrolytes

A

secondary adrenal insufficiency

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135
Q

hypernatremia and hypokalemia presents with hypertension, metabolic alkalosis

A

primary hyperaldosteronism

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136
Q

malignant hypertension with edema causes by renin secreting tumores

A

secondary hyperaldosteronism

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137
Q

causes of hyperaldosteronism include
adrenal adenoma
bilateral adrenal hyperplasim
what are the treatments

A

1 - adrenalectomy

2- spironolactone

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138
Q

wome get falactorrhea and amenorrhea in the absence of pregnancy with osteopenia

A

prolactinoma

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139
Q

men get decreased libido, CN III palsy, temporal field visual loss

A

prolactinoma, dopamine agonist like cabergoline or bromocriptine

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140
Q

DM and htn with increased hat and ring size

A

acromegaly, somatostatin analogues like octreotide or lanreotide

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141
Q

presents with HTN, headache, palpitations, and sweating

A

pheochromocytoma, phenoxybezamine followed by propranolol to prevent htn crisis
measure 24 hour metanephrines

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142
Q

parathyroid hyperplasia, pancreastic islet cell tumor, pituitary adenoma

A

wermer syndrome or MEN 1

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143
Q

parathyroid hyperplasia, thyroid medullary cancer, pheochromocytoma

A

sipple syndrome or MEN 2A

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144
Q

thyroid medullary cancer, pheochromocytoma, mucocutaneous neuromas, marfan habitus

A

MEN 2B

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145
Q

esophageal issue associated with hiatal hernia

A

schatzki ring

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146
Q

dysphagia, cervical esophageal webs, and iron deficiency anemia

A

plummer vinson syndrome

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147
Q

cancer of esophagus at the top

what about the bottom

A

scc, smoking alcohol

adenocarcinoma, gerd

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148
Q

birds beak on barium swallow

A

achalasia

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149
Q

intermittent symtpoms with chest pain triggered by hot and cold liquids, corkscrew esphagus on barrium swallow

A

esophageal spasm

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150
Q

calcinosis cutis, raynaud syndrome, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia

A

CREST syndrome

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151
Q

ulcers
relieved by eating
worse with eating

A

duodenal
gastric
triple therapy - amoxicillin, clarithromycin or metronidazole, PPI

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152
Q

abdominal pain, chronic diarrhea, and ulcer disease with elevated serum gastrin or secretin

A

zollinger ellison syndrome associated with MEN1

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153
Q

abdominal pain associated with altered bowel function with relief after defecation, pain is migaratory, variable and poorly localized

A

IBS, high fiber diet

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154
Q

diarrhea that severe and often bloody with fever at times

A

bacterial diarrhea, avoid abx unles invasive or c diff
invasive give bactrim
c diff give oral vanc

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155
Q

diarreha that friends and family have, no fever

A

viral diarrhea , loperamide

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156
Q

diarrhea outbreatk in
day care
travel

A

parasitic diarrhea
giardia
entamoeba
give metronidazole

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157
Q

acute diarrhea duration

chronic

A

<2 weeks

>4-6 weeks

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158
Q

small bowel villous atrophy and crypt hypertropy resulting in malabsorption and iron deficiency anemia associated with dermatitis herpetiformis and gi malignancy

A

celiac sprue

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159
Q

tx or varacele bleed

prevention of vaacele bleed

A

ocretotide

propranolol

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160
Q

mid epigastric pain that radiates to the back and relieved by sitting forward. ocassionaly has jaundice and fever

A

pancreatitis

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161
Q

tx for necrotizing pancreatitis

A

imipenem or fluoroquinolone plus metronidazole

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162
Q

post prandial abdominal pain for 30 minutes with RUQ pain

A

biliary colic, rocephin plus metronidazole

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163
Q

fever, jaundice, and RUQ pain

A

cholangitis, ciprofloxacin

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164
Q

Fever, jaundice, RUQ pain, shock, and altered mental status aka reynolds pentad

A

suppurative cholangitis

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165
Q

high transaminase should make you think of

A

hepatitis

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166
Q

SAAG (serum ascities albumin gradiet) >1.1

A

portal htn –> cirrhosis, HF, budd chiari

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167
Q

SAAG <1.1

A

no HTN –> peritonitis, cancer, pancreatitis, trauma, nephroti csyndrome

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168
Q

tx of hepatic encephalopathy

A

rifaximin and lactulose, TIPS procedure predisoses you to this

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169
Q

SBP tx

A

rocephin or fluoroquinolone

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170
Q

fatigue, DM, arthritis, skin pigmentation, infertility, transaminitis, cardiomyopathy with increased FE saturation, ferritin and transferrin levels

A

hereditary hemochormotosis, phlebotomy

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171
Q

liver disease with neurophychiatric symtpoms and kayser fliesher rings. decreased copper and ceruloplasmin

A

wilson disease, penicillamine, trientine, oral zinc

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172
Q

young nonsmoker with panacinar emphysema

A

alpha 1 antitrypsin disorder, give antitrypsin and liver transplant

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173
Q

transamintis with ana, asmam, lkma and igG

A

autoimmune hepatitis, steroids and azathioprine

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174
Q

fatigue, pruritic, jaundice, fat malabsorption, osteoporosis

A

primary biliary chirrosis, ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine, fat soluble vitamins

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175
Q

fatigue, pruritus, RUQ pain, ana, anti smooth muscle antibody, p-anca, associated with gi maligancy

A

primary sclerosisng cholangitis, ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine, fat soluble vitamines

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176
Q

determines if antibodies are bound to the RBC membrane and is indicative of hemolytic anemia

A

direct coombs test

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177
Q

determines if there is antibodies to Rh factor in a mothers blood

A

indirect cooms test

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178
Q

can present with pica, low ferritin with wide RDW

A

iron deficiency anemia, iron supplementation

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179
Q

chronic hemolytic andemia and splenomegaly with increase in hemoglobin a and hemoglobin 4

A

hemoglobin H disease

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180
Q

growth retardation, heaptosplenomegaly, jaundice, and bony deformations as infant. normal RDW and basophilic stippling on smear

A

b- thalasemia major

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181
Q

causes HF, hepatic dysfunction, glucose intolerance, and secondary hypogonadism requiring chelation therarpy

A

iron overload secondary to repeat blood transfusions

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182
Q

always consider this cancer in microcytic anemia

A

colon cancer

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183
Q

low iron, low TIBC, normal transferrin with increased hepcidin

A

anemia of chronic disease, treat underlying issue

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184
Q

seen in mycoplasma and mono infection with sings of intravascular lysis, spherocytes and positive coombs test

A

cold agglutinin autoimmune hemolytic anemia

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185
Q

jaundice, spleenomegaly, spherocytes, cooms test positive, lysis in spleen

A

warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

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186
Q

hemolysis during infection or sulfa drugs with bite cells

A

g6pd deficency

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187
Q

schistocytes and helmet cells caused by shearing through coagulated capillaryes

A

microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

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188
Q

hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and AKI with no neurological sign typically associated with gastroenteritis in children and shiga toxin

A

HUS

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189
Q

hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, aki, fever, and neurological signs due to vWF and autoantibody against ADAMTs13

A

thrombotic thromcocytopenic purpura

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190
Q

chronic hemolysis caussing gallstones, poorly healy ulcers, jaundice, splenomegalsy, and heart failure, vaso-occulsive crisis

A

sickle cell anemia

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191
Q

sudden decrease in hemoglobin and reticulocyte cound caused by parvovirus b19

A

aplastic crisis, transfuse

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192
Q

fever, chest pain, cough, wheezing, tachypnea, new pulmonary infiltrate on CXR in sickle cell patinet

A

acute chest syndrome, oxygen, transfusion, rocephin, erythromycin

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193
Q

defect in ankryin or spectrin, speelomegaly, incresed RDW and MCHC, jaundice, confirmed by osmotic fragility test and howell jolly bodies

A

hereditary spherocytosis, vacinate against encapuslated organisms

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194
Q

shortness of breath with normal CXR, dizziness, confusion, headache, and seizures after exposure to benzocaine, dapsone, sulfa

A

methemoglobinemia, methylene blue

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195
Q

major difference in symptoms between folate and b12 deficiency

A

neurological symtpoms are found in b12 deficiency and b12 deficiency will have increased is methylmalonic acid

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196
Q

headache, blurry vision, fatigue, itching after a hot shower, Jak2 mutation

A

polycythemia vera, phlebotomy

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197
Q

visual complaints, headaches, or erythromelalgia (pain in hands and feet)

A

essential thrombocytosis, hydroxyurea

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198
Q

fever, sweats, weight loss, and hepatosplenomegaly, dry tap

A

primary myelofibrosis, transfusion, hydroxyurea, and splencetomy

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199
Q

plateletes <90,000

A

thrombocytopenia

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200
Q

eleveted PT or PTT

A

coagulopathy, give FFP to normalize

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201
Q

petechiae is a sign of

A

platelet deficiency

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202
Q

cavity or joint bleeding is a sign of

A

clotting factor deficiency

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203
Q

petechiae and easy brusising with igG antibodies

A

idiopathic throbocytopenic purpura (ITP) aka autoimmune thrombocytopenia, steroids

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204
Q

petechiae and easy brusing after heparin

A

HIT, platelet factor 4 antibodies found on serotonin release assay

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205
Q

recurrent spontaneous bleeding with increased PTT

A

intrinsic pathway likely hemophilia A (8) or hemophilia B (9)

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206
Q

recurrent sponteneous bleeding with inceased PT

A

extrinsic pathyway factor 7 disease

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207
Q

increased in both PTT and PT with recurrent sponteneous bleeding

A

common pathway factor 5, 10, 2

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208
Q

mucocutaneous bleeds, increased bleeding time, joint bleeds due to inability to form hemostatic plug

A

von Willebrand Disease, desmopressin (antidiuretic hormone)

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209
Q

mutation that disrupts activated protein C with slows the breakdown of factor 5 to 8

A

factor 5 leiden

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210
Q

issue with mutation that stabilized and increased prothrombin

A

prothrombin g20210a

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211
Q

warfrin is a resk of skin necrosis with this

A

protein c or s deficiency

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212
Q

inability to inhitib thromin and factor 10 resulting in heparin resistance

A

anti-thrombin II deficiency

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213
Q

found in any thrombosis and >3 miscarriages before 10 weeks or 1 after 10 weeks with postive anticardiolipin or lupus anticoagulant

A

antiphospholipid syndrome

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214
Q

fever, chills, and malaise after blood product

A

febrile reaction, leukocyte reduced RBC

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215
Q

fever, chills, pain, hypotension, flushing after blood produce due to ABO incompatibility

A

acute hemolytic reaction, supportive plus furosemide

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216
Q

jaundice, anemia, hemoglobinuria, fever

A

delayed hemolytic reaction, tylenol for fever

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217
Q

urticaria, itching, fives after blood product

A

allergic reaction, benadryl

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218
Q

shortness of breath, hypoxemia, bilateral chest infiltrates, 1-6 hours post transfusuion, ARDS

A

TRALI , ventilation support

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219
Q

shortness of breath, edema, fluid overload

A

TACO, furosemide

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220
Q

myeloblast and lymphoblast overgrowth, what is it called if this is <20 %

A

acute leukemia, meylodysplastic syndrome

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221
Q

overgrowth of metamyelocytes and lymphocytes

A

chronic leukemia

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222
Q

overgrowth of any lymphocyte, b cell is generally more than T cell

A

lymphoma

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223
Q

viral like syndrome with bone pain, pallor, petechiae, adenopathy, testicular and CNS involvement, anterior mediastinal mass typically in children with down syndrome

A

acute lymphocytic leukemia

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224
Q

fever, brusising, fatuge, infection, gingival hyperplasica, seen in people with previous chemo or radiation, increased urice acide, auer rods

A

acute myelogenous leukemia 15:17 gene translocation, 7+3 anthracycline based chemo or in AML M3 given all trans retinoic acide

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225
Q

lymphagenopathy and hepatosplenomegally often incidental finding on CBC, smudge cells on smeart, cyclin d1, CD5 and 23+. can be associated with ITP

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia or mantle cell lymphoma t:11-14 translocation, fludarabine based regimen

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226
Q

b symptoms but in blastic phase has bone pain, bleeding, purpura, splenomegaly with CD11, trap and CD103, cbc shows 150000 wbc

A

chronic myelogenous leukemia , hairy cell leukemia has all the postiive cd things, philadelphia chromosome bcr-abl gene t9:22
give imatinib

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227
Q

cervical or mediastinal lymphadenopathy with b symptoms. has reed sternberg cells, mediastinal mass, contiguous speread

A

hodgkin lymphoma, ABVD adriamycin (doxorubicin), bleomycin, vinblastine, cacarbazine

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228
Q

assoicated with EVC, HTLV, MALToma, b symptoms, non-continguous spread

A

non-hodgkin lymphoma, r-chop which is rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, presdnisone

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229
Q

occurs afte radiation resulting in hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, hypocalcemia, leading to renal failure, gout, and stones

A

tumor lysis syndrome, hydration, allopurinol

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230
Q

CRAB, hypercalcemia, renal failure, anemia, bone lesions

A

multiple myeloma, bortezomib or lenalidomide

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231
Q

low plasma cells, low M protein, no crab symtpoms

A

MGUS

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232
Q

difference between smoldering myeloma and multiple myeloma

A

CRAB symptoms

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233
Q

bone pain, abdominal pain, kidney stones, delerium, fatiuge, bone lesions, decreased urine output

A

multiple myeloma

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234
Q

ductal carcinoma in situ or infavsive cancer of the nipple with unilateral itching, burning, and nipple erosion

A

paget disease

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235
Q

cancer treatment
premenopausal
postmenopausal
her2-neu

A

tamoxifen and raloxefene
anastrozole
traztuzumab/herceptin

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236
Q

chornic cough, hemoptysis, weight loss, or postobstructive pneumonia in smoker, , radon, or asbestos

A

lung cancer

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237
Q

shouder pain, miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis and lower brachial pexopathy

A

pancoast syndrome

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238
Q

lung cancer in periphery

A

adenocarcinoma

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239
Q

lung cancer in central area

A

squamous cell

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240
Q

paraneoplastic syndromes of lung cancer

A
CLASH
carcinoid -small cell
lambert eaton - small cell
ACTH - small cell
SIADH - small cell
hypercalcemia - squamous cell
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241
Q

painless jaundice, palpable gallbladder, migratory thrombophlebitis, venous thrombosis, b symptoms, abdominal and lumbar back pain, DM new onset

A

pancreatic cancer, whipple

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242
Q

admonimal pain with transamonitis and increase bilirubin

A

hepatocellular cancer

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243
Q

flushing, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and new tricuspid regurgitation

A

carcinoid tumors (increased seritonin or chromogrann A), give octreotide

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244
Q

hypoglycemia that is recurrent with relief on glucose adminsitration

A

insulinoma

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245
Q

profuse watery diarrhea that causes hypokalemia

A

VIPoma

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246
Q

persistent hyperglycemia with necrolytic erythema

A

glucagonoma

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247
Q

gross painless hematuria

A

bladder cancer

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248
Q

urinary frequency, anemia, hematuria, low back pain

A

prostate cancer

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249
Q

testicular cancer difference between seminoma and nonseminoma

A

seminoma has a normal a-fetoprotein, nonseminoma has increased alphfetoprotein

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250
Q

heamturia, flank pain, mass, b symptoms, paraneoplastic effects (erythrocytosis, hypercalcemia)

A

renal cell carcinoma
vegf tyrosine kinase inhibitors pazopanib
nivolumab, atezolizumab
rapamycin inhibitor everolimus

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251
Q

menorrhagia, postcoital bleeding, pelvic pain, vaginal discharge

A

cervical cancer

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252
Q

progressive headache or focal neurologic deficit, spacsitc paresis, urinary incontinence, seizure

A

meningioma, resection

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253
Q

headache, wakes patient form sleep, vomiting, worse with valsalva, butterfly lesion

A

glioblastoma multiforme, resection

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254
Q

ca125

A

ovarian cancer

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255
Q

ca15-3

A

breast

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256
Q

ca19-9

A

pancrestic

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257
Q

CEA

A

GI cancer, colon

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258
Q

AFP

A

liver, yolk sac (testicular) cancer

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259
Q

hCG

A

choriocarcinoma

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260
Q

PSA

A

prostate cancer

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261
Q

LDH

A

lymphoma

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262
Q

calcitonin

A

medullary thyroid cancer

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263
Q

chromogranin A

A

carcinoid

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264
Q

b2 microglobulain

A

multiple myeloma

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265
Q

drug causes dilated cardiomyopathy

A

doxorubicin

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266
Q

drug causes renal and ostotoxiciy with neuropath

A

cisplatin

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267
Q

drug cuases hemorrhagic cystitis

A

cyclophosphamide

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268
Q

drug causes myelosuprression resulting in pancytopenia and needs folate supplementation with what

A

methotrexate, leucovorin

269
Q

causes restrictive cardiomyopathy in cancer patients

A

radation

270
Q

causes extrapyramidal symptoms

A

metoclopramide

271
Q

MRSA coverage

A

bactrim or doxy or clindamycin, or vancomycin

272
Q

well demarcated, edematous area of erythema of the face

A

erysipelas, PCN, keflex, bactrim

273
Q

orbital infection with erythema and pain

A

preseptal cellulitis, treat like normal cellulits

274
Q

orbital infection iwth oculomotro dysfunction, proptosis, chemosis, worse pain with movement, decreased visual acuity

A

septal cellulits, vanc and ceftriaxone

275
Q

vizarre behavior, speech disorders, olfactory hallucinations or acute hearing impairment, MRI shows lesions of temporal lobes

A

HSV encephalitis, acyclovir

276
Q

fever with altered mental statues in season change, extrapyramidal symtpoms, flaccid paralisys, IgM antibody

A

west nile encephalitis, supportive care

277
Q

what do you have to add for coverage in people with meningitis who are over 50?
what about if you suspect s pneumoniae

A

ampicillin for listeria

dexamethasone

278
Q

tap shows PMNs which elevated opening pressure

A

bacterial meningitis give ceftriaxone due to increased neuro penetration

279
Q

tap is normal

A

viral meningtisi

280
Q

tap is just a little off

A

TB

281
Q

pseudomonas treatment

A

ciprofloxacin

282
Q

unilateral hearting loss and ear pain with lack of ormal light relex and is bulging

A

otitis media, amoxicillin

283
Q

painful ear with foul smelling drainage

A

otitis externa, ofloxacin

284
Q

fever, arthritis, carditis, chorea, rash

A

rheumatic fever, strep throat treatment is penicillin

285
Q

trest strep throat to prevent what

A

rheumatic fever, can still get glomerulonephritis

286
Q

acute fever, productive cought, dyspnea, pleuritic chest pian

A

pna, dont forget curb 65

287
Q

low grade fever, nonproductive cough, myalgia

A

walking pneumonia

288
Q

smoker with pna, diarrhea, hyponatremia and elevated lactate dehydrogenase

A

legionella

289
Q

dysphagia, right lower infiltrate 1-5 days after event

A

aspiration PNA, clinda or augmentin

290
Q

decreased LOC, symptoms 2-5 hours after aspiration, infiltrates everywhere

A

aspiration pneumonitis , supportive care

291
Q

PCP tx

A

bacrim

292
Q

cough +/- sputum production, dyspnea, fever, chills with no infiltrate. Cough >5 days

A

bronchitis, supportive care

293
Q

TB treatiment

A
RIPE
rifampin
isoniazide
pyrazinamide
ethambutol
these casue neuropathy and hepatitis
294
Q

fever, chills, dysruia, cloudy urine, obstructive urine symptoms

A

prostatisis, fluoroquinolone or zosyn

295
Q

painless, indurated, superfuical ulcerations

A

syphilis, doxycycline 14 days

296
Q

chlamydia tx

A

azithromycin

297
Q

gonorrhea tx

A

ceftiaxone

298
Q

what does azt cause
tenofovir?
efavirenze

A

bone marrow supression
renal toxicity
CNS toxicity

299
Q

prevention of malria

A

chloroquine –> mefloquine

daily doxy or atovaquone for short trip

300
Q

HIV infection prophylaxsis

A

bactrim

301
Q

blood in stool, fever, abdominal pain

A

infectious diarrhea, fluoroquinolon or azithromycin other than in EHEC this will cause hemolytic uremic syndrome

302
Q

causes of bloody diarrhea

A
YEESSC
yersinia
ecoli
entamoeba
shigella
salmonella
campylobacter
303
Q

presents after antimicrobial use, PPI with abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and ttp

A

needs CT for toxic megacolon workup. oral vanc is tx

304
Q

aedes mosquitio, fever, polyarthralgia, maculopapular rash

A

chikungunya , supportive

305
Q

anopheles mosquito causes jaundice, anemia, transminitis, thrombocytopenia, cyclical fver

A

malaria

306
Q

fecal -oral route causing diarrhea, hepatosplenomegaly, rose sports

A

typhoid fever, fluoroquinolones

307
Q

aedes mosquito, bone break fever, maculopapular rash, thrombocytopenia, hemorrhage

A

dengue fever, supportive

308
Q

temperature >101.3F of sustained >100.4F for >1 hour in (ANC = PMN + bands <500)

elderly people on chronic steroids my not mount fever

A

neutropenic fever
pseudomonas - cefepime or carbapenem

if not improved in 4-7 days consider fungus start amphotericin B, micafungin, or voriconazole

309
Q

what do you not perform on neutropenic fever

A

rectal exam

310
Q

erythema migrans, arthralgia, myalgia, myocarditis with av block, bell palsy, ixodes deer tic

A

lyme disease give doxy >9
amoxicillin <9 or pregnancy
ceftriaxone if cardiac or neurologic symtpoms present

311
Q

rash on plams and soles that spread to trunk, hyponatremia, transaminitis

A

rocy mountain spotted fever, doxy

312
Q

cotransmitted with lyme disease, nonspecific symptoms

A

human monocytic ehrlichiosis, doxy

313
Q

hemolytic anemia with maltese cross formation

A

babesiosis clindamycin and quinine or atovaquone and azithromycin

314
Q

encapsulated yeast from pigeon droppings, silver stain, india ink show halo and capsul

A

cyptococcosis, fluconazole

315
Q

narrow based budding yeast, bat or bird guano, ohio-mississippi river valley, flu like illness, palatal ulcerations, bone marrow suppresion

A

itraconazole if sever amphotericin

316
Q

spherules with endospores, arizone or san joaquin valley, pna with dry cough and fever on silver stain

A

coccidiomycosis, fluconazole or itraconazole

317
Q

broad based budding yeast, great lakes, ohio mississippi river valleys, PNA, verrucous rash, subcutaneous nodues, osteomyelitis, lytic leasion

A

blastomycosis itraconazole, amphotericin

318
Q

mold, sepatted branched hyphae. fever, pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis

A

aspergillosis, voriconazole

319
Q

medications associated with SLE

A
SHIPP EM
sulfa
hydralazine
isoniazid
phenytoin
procainamide
interacept
minocyline
320
Q

noninfectious, granular, pea sized masses near the edge of a valve or valve ring

A

libman sacks endocarditis or verrucous endocarditis

321
Q

needed for SLE diagnosis

A
4 of 11 
Dopamine rash
Discoid rash
oral ulcers
photosensitive rash
arthritis
malar rash
immuno criteria + anti dsDNA or antiSM
neurologic symptoms
renal disease
ANA+
serositis
hematologic disorder
322
Q

highly specific for lupus

A

anti dsDNA and Anti Sm

323
Q

seein in drug related lupus

A

Antihistone antibodies

324
Q

boutonniere and swan neck deformities with anti CCP, long morning stiffness that improves with activity

A

RA, nsaids, sulfasalazine, hydroxychloroquine, methotrexate, infliximab, etanercept

325
Q

joint stiffness, cartilage hypertrophy, morning stiffness for less than 30 minutes that worsens with activity, heberden nodes and bouchard nodes

A

osteoarthritis, weight loss, PT, NSAIDs

326
Q

calcium pyrophosphate crystal with positive birefringent rhomboid crystal

A

pseudogout

327
Q

needle shaped, negatively birefringent yellow crystals

A

gout,
acute indomethasine, steroids, colchicine
chronic - allopurinol

328
Q
tap based on WBC
<200
<3000
<50,000
>50,000
bloody
A
normal
noninflammatory
inflammatory
infectious
bloody
329
Q

up going babinski sign is a ?

A

upper motor neuron sign

330
Q

bowel and bladder incontinence/retention with saddle anesthesia

A

cauda equina syndrome, surgery

331
Q

lower back pain with worsens with standing and walking but improves with sitting or leaning forward, easier to walk uphill rather than down

A

neurgenic claudication from degenerative disk disease

332
Q

young man with chronic LBP that is worse in the morning with anterior uveities and HLA B27

A

ankylosing spondylitis, anti TNF inhibitors

333
Q

deltoid and biceps with anterior shoulder sensation deficit and decreased biceps reflex

A

C5

334
Q

biceps and wrist extensiors with decreased brachioradialis and decreased biceps and triceps reflex

A

C6

335
Q

affects tricpes, wrist flexors, and finger extensors, decreased sensation of triceps with decreased reflex

A

C7

336
Q

problems with rising from a chair and heel walking with decreased sensation over knee and medial calf causing decreased knee jerk reflex

A

L3-4

337
Q

problems with heel walking, extension of big toe, or dorsiflexion of ankle

A

L5

338
Q

problems with toe walking or plantar flexing the ankle, decreased ankle jerk reflex

A

S1

339
Q

progressive stiffness of the spine, uveitis, aortitis, psoriasis and IBD

A

anylosing spondylitis, nsaids, TNF inhibitors

340
Q

joint pain, nail pitting, sacrolitis and spondylitis

A

psoriatic arthtis

341
Q

aka reiter syndrome

A

reactive arthritis

342
Q

new headache and scalp tenderness with pain on combing the hair, temporal tenderness, jaw claudication and monocular blindness

A

temporal arteritis, prednisone and eye eval

343
Q

fatigue, weight loss, fever, mononeuritis multiplex seen in HEP B and C

A

polyarteritis nodosa, glucocorticoid , cyclophasphamide and rituximab

344
Q

bilateral aching and morning stiffness lasting >30 minutes for at leasdt 2 weeks, pain of shoulder and pelvic girdle, fever, malaise, weight loss , difficulty getting out of the chair or lifitng arms above head, no weakness

A

polymyalgia rheumatica, prednisone

345
Q

myalgia, insomnia, weakness, fatiuge, trigger pints, depression, anxiety , IBS with no swelling

A

fibromyalgia, gabapentin, SSRI

346
Q

proximal mucle weakness without pain

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

347
Q

proximal muscle weakness with pain

A

ploymyositis

348
Q

progressive proximal muscle weakness , pain, difficulty rising form chair, trouble swallowing, difficulty speaking and breathing with increased CK and aldolase. muscle inflammation and fiber necrosis

A

polymyositis, corticosteroids, methotrexate or azathioprine

349
Q

heliotropic rash, gottron papules associated with internal malignancy

A

dermatomyositis

350
Q

symmetirc thickening of skin, tight face, telangiectasias

A

scleroderma

351
Q

form of scleroderm assocaited with raynaud, barret esophagus, reflux, pulmonary htn and anticentromere antibody

A

crest syndrome

352
Q

anti SCL 70 antibody associated with pulmonary interstitial fibrosis

A

diffuse scleroderma

353
Q

dysmorphin RBCs and RBC cast on UA

A

acute glomerulonephritis (post strep or IgA nephropathy)

354
Q

eosinophils and WBC cast

A

Acute interstitial nephritis ( meds)

355
Q

pigmented granular “muddy brown” cast

A

acute tubular necrosis

356
Q

issues with sodium cause

A

nausea/vomiting, fatigue, seizure

357
Q

issues with potassium cause

A

muscle weakness and paralysis

358
Q

correcting hypernatremia to fast causes

A

cerebral edema

359
Q

correcting hyponatremia to quicly causes

A

osmotic demylination syndrome

360
Q

tx for hypervolemic hyponatremia

A

loop diuretic

361
Q

tx for euvolemic hyponatremia

A

fluid restriction 1L/day, loop diuretic, high salt diet

362
Q

tx for hypovolemic hyponatremia

A

NS

363
Q

two causes for euvolemic hypernatremia are

A

central DI, desmopressing

nephrogenic DI, remove medication

364
Q

causes for hypovolemic hypernatremia

A

dehydration

365
Q

causes for hypervolemic hypernatremia

A

iatrogenic or hyperaldosteronism

366
Q

vomiting associated with

A

hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

367
Q

24 hour urine K >30
acidosis
alkalosis

A

RTA I or II, DKA

or hyperaldosteronism, sushing, bartter, gitelmann

368
Q

24 hourr urine K <30
acidosis
alkalosis

A

laxitive abuse
or
vomiting/NG suction

369
Q

acidosis causes what in relationship to potassium

A

hyperkalemia

370
Q

alkalosis causes waht in relationship to potassium

A

hypokalemia

371
Q

loss of glomerular basement membrane funtion causing large plasma protein loss into urine

A

nephrotic syndrome, ACE or ARB, loop diuretic, statin,

372
Q

inflammation of the glomerulus causing a loss of RBC and large plasma proteins in the urine

A

nephritic syndrome, treat underlying condition

373
Q

large protein loss with podocyte epithelial foot process effacement in young children

A

minimal change disease, steroids and cyclophosphamide

374
Q

large protein loss with glomerular sclerosis associated with HIV and heroin use

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, steroids then cyclosporine

375
Q

large protein loss, capillary wall thickening, spike and dome appearance, subepithelia deposists associated with HBV

A

membranous nephropathy, steroids pluse cyclophosphamide

376
Q

large protein loss, subendothelial deposists associated with HCV and SLE

A

membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, antiviral therapy

377
Q

large protein loss with nodular glomerulosclerosis (kimmelstiel wilson lesions)

A

diabetic nephropathy, glucose control , ACE/ARB

378
Q

large protein loss in african americans with SLE

A

lupis nephritis, mycophenolate

379
Q

large protein loss with apple green birefringence seen in multiple myeloma

A

renal amyloidosis, steroids plus melphalan

380
Q

purpura and hemoptysis with blood and protein loss on UA with necrotizing vasculitis

A

microscopic polyangitis, steroids plus cyclophosphamide.rituximab

381
Q

oral ulcers, saddle nose, necrotizing vasculitis with granuloma formation, blood and protein on UA

A

granulomatosis with polyangitis, steroids and cyclophsphamide/rituximab

382
Q

asthma, nasal polyps, blood and protein on UA, necrotizing vasculitis with polyangitis

A

eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis

383
Q

pulmonary hemorrhage, hematuria and proteinuria with IgG depositis along GBM with crescentic glomerulonephritis, +anti GBM

A

goodpasture syndrome, steroids plus cyclophosphamide, plus plasma exchange

384
Q

hematuria 3 weeks following URI or skin infection, crescentic glomerulonephritis, +ASO antibody

A

poststreptococcal glomerulonephtitis, supportive care

385
Q

hematuria 1-2 days following URI or GI infections with mesangial IGA immune deposition

A

IgA nephropathy, supportive, ACE

386
Q

sensorineural hearing loss , ocular defects, hematuria and proteinuria, GBM thickening with tubular foam cells

A

alport syndrome, ACE or ARB

387
Q

envelope shaped crystals in urine

A

calcium oxalate stones

388
Q

coffin lid shaped crystals

A

struvite stone, uti prevention

389
Q

diamond shaped crystals

A

uric acid, alkalinize urine, xanthine oxidase inhibitor

390
Q

hexagonal shaped crystals

A

cystine, penicillamine, alkalinize urine

391
Q

RTA with Hydrogen hypersecretion

A

type 1 (distal), give bicarb

392
Q

RTA with difficulty in HCO reabsorption

A

type 2 (proximal), give bicarb

393
Q

RTA with aldosterone deficiency or esistance (high potassium)

A

type 4 depends on causative agent

394
Q

if you give bisphosphonates to people with CKD what will happen

A

osteomalacia

395
Q

increased in calcium, soft tissue calcinonis with necrosis, intractible bone pain in CKD patient

A

metabolic bonde disease , parathyroidectomy

396
Q

what happeds to CKD patients over time in regards to Ca?

which causes what? and this leads to autonomous PTH secreation with increased Calcium which is termed ?

A

decreased
elevated PTH causing secondary hyperparathyroidism
over time leads to tertiary hyperparathyroidism and metabolic bone disease

397
Q

in upper motor lesions everything is ____

A

up except fasciculations are absent. LMN lesions are opposite

398
Q

contralateral sensory deficits with hemineglect

A

right MCA stroke

399
Q

contralateral sensory deficiets with language deficits

A

left MCA stroke

400
Q

aphasia where comprehension is intact but they have nonfluenct speech

A

broca aphasia (expressive)

401
Q

poor comprehension, word salad

A

wernicke aphasia (receptive)

402
Q

contralateral leg weakness

A

ACA stroke

403
Q

homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

A

PCA stroke

404
Q

nystagmus, horner syndrome, loss of pain and temperature on ipsilateral face and contralateral body

A

posterior inferior cerebellar artery (medulla) Wallenberg syndrome

405
Q

ipsilateral limb ataxia

A

anterior inferior cerebellar artery (pons)

406
Q

ipsilateral cranial nerve II palsy and contralateral arm and leg weakness

A

Posterior cerebral artery (midbrain) Weber syndrome

407
Q

pure motor stroke

A

internal capsule

408
Q

pure sensory stroke

A

thalmus

409
Q

locked in syndrome

A

basilar artery (pons)

410
Q

lucid interval with biconvex hyperdensity

A

epidural hematoma

411
Q

headache, altered mental status, cresentric that crosses suture lines

A

subdural hematoma, bridging veins

412
Q

ipsilateral miosis (contriction) ipsilateral ptosis (eyelid droop), and ipsilateral anhidrosis of face

A

horner syndrome

413
Q

bandlike headache

A

tension, NSAIDS

414
Q

unilateral throbbing pain, aura, scotoma, famililal

A

migraine

prophylaxis: amitriptyline, propranolol
abortive: triptain, nsaid
severe: IV hydration, antiemetics, antihistamine, steroid, ergotamine

415
Q

breig, severe, unilateral, periorbital, same time each day, ipsilateral lacrimation, horner syndrome,

A

cluster, oxygen or triptan

prevention - verapamil

416
Q

overweight female with elevated opening pressure and evidence of papilledema

A

pseudotumor cerebri, weight loss, acetazolamide

417
Q

mimics migraine with family history of sudden stroke after symptoms

A

aneurysm

418
Q

progressively worse headache particularly in morning, seizure, or personality changes

A

tumor headache

419
Q

progressive jerking that spreads form one limb to the next on ipsilateral side

A

jacksonian march seizure

420
Q

intermittent , positional, tinnitus, hearing loss, nystagmus is rotary, fixation of gase stops vertigo

A

peripheral vertigo, epley maneuver for BPPV then do PT or give scopolamine

421
Q

neurologic signs, nystagmus changes direction with gaze, vertical nystagmus is highly specific

A

central vertigo, MRI

422
Q
peripheral vertigo that lasts
seconds
min-hr
>1 day
variable
A

BPPV
TIA or meniere disease , MRI
vestibular neuronitis
unknown, MRI

423
Q

bilateral pain, numbness, and weakness below level of a lesion

A

spinal cord compression

424
Q

neurologic signs, back pain, and fever,

A

epidural abscess, cephalosporin and vanc

425
Q

pain relieved by bending over and improved when walking uphill, negative straight leg raise

A

spinal stenosis - nsaids, pt, steroids, lamincetomy

426
Q

weakness, numbness, and autonomic dysfunciton below level of lesion

A

transverse myelitis, MRI spine, high dose glucocorticoids

427
Q

loss of pain and temperature in cape distribution followed by weakness of the arms

A

central cord

428
Q

ipsilateral weakness with loss of light touch and vibration with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

A

brown sequard syndrome

429
Q

motor paralysis and loss of pain below lesion

A

anterior cord syndrome

430
Q

bilateral loss of light touch, vibration, proprioception seen with b12 deficiency or tabes dorsalis

A

posterior cord syndrome

431
Q

progressive muscular weakness and wsasting with combination of upper and lower motor signs

A

ALS, supportive with riluzole and edaravone

432
Q

extenign and rotating neck to the side of pain and applying prssure reproduces symptooms and straight leg raise is postive

A

herniated disk, NSAIDS, steroids, pt, surgery

433
Q

loss of forehead and brow movements, inability to close eyes and drooping of eyelids, loss of nasolabial folds and drooping of lower lip

A

peripheral facial palsy CN 7

434
Q

loss of nasolabial folds and drooping of lower lip with preservation of forehead and brow movement

A

cental facial palsy

435
Q

disorder of antibodies agianst post synaptic ACh receptors presents with worsening symptoms with physical acitivy, assocaited with thymoma, positive edrophonium test

A

myasthenia gravis, pyridostigmine, azathioprine

single fiber EMG shows jitter

436
Q

ptosis and diplopia toward end of the day

A

ocular myasthenia

437
Q

respiratory muscle fatigability leading to respiratory failure

A

myasthenic crisis, plasmapheresis and/or IVIG

438
Q

antibody to presyaptic calcium channel receptors, symptoms improve with acitivy, small cell lung cancer association

A

lambert eaton syndrome

439
Q

toe walking, waddling gait, inability to run or climb stairs, death due to dilated cardiomyopathy, gower sign present

A

duchenne muscular dystropy, x-linked dystrophin gene, give prednisone

440
Q
present with traped symptoms
tremor - pill rolling 
rigidity (cogwheel)
akinesia
postural instability
masked face
A

parkinson (substantia nigra) carbidopa levodopa

benztropine for tremor

441
Q
progressive involuntary movements, demential, and psychosis
choreiform movements
eye slowing
hyperreflexia
dementia, depression
A

huntington disease
caudate and putamen atrophy CAG repeats

symptomatic treatment
SSRI
benzos
carbidopa/levodopa
second generation antipsychotic
442
Q

lhermitte sign (shooting pain down spine with flexion), optic neuritis (decreased visual acuity, pain with eye movements), marcus gunn pupil, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, mri shows dawson fingers

A

multiple sclerosis, copaxone or interferon
second line dimethyl fumarate

exacerbation - steroids

443
Q

decreased depth perception, loss of short term memory, decresaed speech, personality changes, depression

A

dementia

444
Q

b-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

A

alzheimer disease, donepezil, rivastigmine, memantine

445
Q

socially inappropriate, poor decisions, pick bodies

A

frontotemporal dementia

446
Q

parkinsonian features, visual hallucinations, REM sleep disorder, mood disturbance

A

lewy body dementia

447
Q

acute onset of dementia accociated with myoclonic jerks and periodic sharp waves on EEG,

A

creutzfeldt-jakob disease

448
Q

stepwise worsening of symptoms with lacunar strokes

A

vascular dementia

449
Q

ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, and confusion

A

wernickey encephalopathy give thiamine before glucose

450
Q

impaired short term memory loss, confabulation

A

korsakoff psychosis

451
Q

delivery >37 weeks

A

full term

452
Q

between 20 weeks and 36w6d

A

preterm

453
Q

pregnancy ending before 20 weeks

A

abortion

454
Q

weight gain during pregnancy
underweight
normal
obese

A
28-40
25-35
11-20
additional intake is only 300 cal per day
500 while breast feeding
455
Q

pregnancy screening

10-14 weeks

A

non-invasive prenatal testing if positiv due amniocentesis which carries risk of hemorrhage and fetal loss

456
Q

what pregnancy test is done at 24-28 weeks

A

glucose challenge

457
Q

what do mothers get at 28 weeks

A

rhogam if Rh negative

458
Q

what test at 35-37 weeks

A

GBS

459
Q

increased maternal serum alpha fetal protein

A

neural tube defect

460
Q

increased inhibin A

A

trisomy 21

461
Q

everything is decreased

A

trisomy 18

462
Q

NST shows
absent variability
minimal
moderate

A

acidemia
sleep or drug
normal

463
Q

non reactive NST meaning no or only 1 acceleration in 20 minute period means what

A

have to do biophysical profile or contraction stress test

464
Q
biophysical profile (test the baby man)
tone
breathing
movement
amniotic fluid
nst
either get a 2 or 0 in each category
A

> 8 good

<6 deliver

465
Q
painful contractions iwth cervical change
slow changed up to 20 hours
rapid change >1 cm/hr starting at 6 cm
10 cm to delivery
delivery to placenta
A
labor
latent labor
active  labor
2nd stage of labor
3rd stage of labor
466
Q

variable decel indicates what
early
late

A

cord compression
head compression
fetal hypoxia and uteroplacental insufficieny

467
Q

fetal heart tracing
110-160, moderate variability, no decelerations
absent variability with late or variable decelerations, fetal bradycardia <110

A

category 1, normal

category 3, delivery

468
Q

vitamin A and derivatives like isotretinoin cause

A

heart and great vessel defects, craniofacial dysmorphism, deafness

469
Q

tetracyline causes

A

tooth discoloration

470
Q

quinolones cause

A

cartilage damage

471
Q

streptomycin causes

A

ototoxicity

472
Q

bactrim causes

A

neural tube defects

473
Q

lithium causes

A

ebstien anomaly

474
Q

methylene blue causes

A

jejunal and ileal atresia

475
Q

ssri cause

A

pulmonary HTN

476
Q

NSAIDS cause

A

oligohydramnios, closure of ductus arteriosus

477
Q

ACE cause

A

renal damage and oligodydramnios

478
Q

methimazole causes

A

aplasia cutis

479
Q

valproic acid causes

A

craniofacial defects

480
Q

phenytoin causes

A

dysmorphic faces, microcephaly, nail and finger hypoplasia

481
Q

carbamazepine causes

A

craniofacial defects

482
Q

phenobarbitol causes

A

cleft palate and cardiac defects

483
Q

warfarin causes

A

fetal nasal hypoplasia

484
Q

rupture of membranes before onset of labor

A

premature rupture of membranes, if this occures before 37 weeks is preterm premature rupture of membranes

485
Q

GBS unknow patients with fever and prolonged rupture of membranes

A

give PCN or ampicillin

486
Q

labor at 34-36 weeks

A

give betamethasone

487
Q

labor at 24-34 weeks

A

give betamethasone, magnesium, ampicillina nd erythromycin

488
Q

maternal fever, leukocytosis, fetal tachycardia, purulent amniotic fluid

A

chorioamnionitis, ampicillin and gentamicin

489
Q

what do you give prior to doing external cephalic version

A

rhogam

490
Q

forearm supinated, wrist extension, MCP extended, DIP flexed

A

klumpke palsy (claw hand)

491
Q

shoulder internal rotation, elbow extended, forearm pronation, wrist flextion

A

erb-duehenne palsy (waiter tip)

492
Q

gestational HTN pluse proteinuria

A

preeclampsia

493
Q

preeclampsia with elevated creatinine, transammonities, thrombocytopenia, pulmonary edema, headache

A

preeclampsia with severe features

494
Q

preeclampsia plus seizure

A

eclampsia

495
Q

increased LDH, uric acid, decreased hemoglobin, transammonitis, throbocytopenia

A

HELLP syndrome

496
Q

hyperthyroid tx in pregnancy

A

1st trimester PTU

2-3rd methimazole

497
Q

failure to lactate after postpartum hemorrhage with lethargy, anorexia, weight loss, amenorrhea, and loss of sexual hair

A

sheehan syndrome (postpartum hypopituitarism) corticosteroids, levothyroxine, estrogen, and progesterone

498
Q

mastitis treatmetn

A

dicloxacillin or erythromycin

499
Q

soft, enlarged boddy uterus during postpartum hemorrhage

A

uterine atony, massage, oxytocin infusion methylergonovine

500
Q

difference between
postpartum blues
depression
psychosis

A

mild resolves in 2 weeks
MDD within 12 months of birth
psychotic symptoms within 2 weeks
SSRI

501
Q

postpartum fever with fundal tenderness within 24 hours of delivery

A

endometritis

502
Q
pregnant
closed cervix with bleeding
dilated no products expelled
cervix closed with no HR
open with some products of conception
closed with empty uterus
A
threatened abortion
inevitable abortion
missed abortion
incompleted abortion
complete abortion
503
Q

fever, severe abdominal and cervical tenderness, purulent and malodorous discharge on exam, products of conception visualized

A

septic abortion

504
Q

abdominal pain, persitent vaginal bleeding, hx HTN, trauma, tobacco, or cocaine use in pregnant pt

A

placental abruption, mild bed rest, severe deliver

505
Q

painless vaginal bleeding particularly in 3rd trimester

A

placenta previa, c-section

506
Q

severe abdominal pain during labor, abdomen change in shate, loss of fetal station

A

uterine rupture, c-section

507
Q

abnormal uterine bleeding causes

A
palm coein
polyps
adenomyosis
leiomyomas
malignancies (check biopsy anyone >45)
coagulopathy
ovulatory dysfunciton
endometrial
iatrogenic
not classified

tx NSAIDS, ocp, iud, txa, artery embolization and hysterectomy

508
Q

absence of menses by age 15 or absence of menses within 5 years of breast development

A

primary amenorrhea

509
Q

absence of menses for three cycles if previously regulaor for 6 months if irregular

A

secondary amenorrhea

510
Q

for primary amenorrhea first check to see if they have secondary secual characteristics, if yes then is the uterus present?

yes?

no?

A

outflow obstruction either imperforate hyman or evalute for secondary amenorrhea

no - karyotype analysis

511
Q

primary amenorrhea with 46, xy

A

androgen insensitivity syndrome

512
Q

primary amenorrhea with 46 xx

A

mullerian agenisis

513
Q

primary amenorrhea with no sexual characteristics you need to measure FSH and LH

if they are low

if they are high

A

hypo-gonadotropic hypogondadism

hypergonadotropic hypogonadism, do karyotype

514
Q

hypergonadotropic hypogonadism

46, xy
46 , xx

A

either saywer syndorme or turner syndrome

premature ovarian failure

515
Q

pain with menstrual periods that requires medication and prevents normal activity

with no clinically detectable pelvic pathology

with detectable pelvic pathology

A

primary dysmenorrhea due to increased uterine prostaglandin production

secondary dysmenorrhea due to endometriosis, adenomyosis, or leiomyomas

516
Q

irregular menstrual bleeding, unwanted hair growth, acne, insulin resistance, weight gain with difficulty concieving

A

PCOS

DM tx, clomiphene / metformin, OCPS ro spinronolactone

517
Q

cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, dysparenunia, and infertility

A

endometriosis, gold standard is direct visualization

nsaids, ocp, removal of endometrial implants, lastly total abdominal hysterectomy

518
Q

first trimester uterine bleeding with excessive nausea and vomiting

69, xxx or xxy with fetal parts

46 xx or xy without fetal parts

A

gestational trophoblastic disease

partial mole

complete mole

d and c, serial b-hcg weekly until negative, then monthly for 6 months

519
Q

most common cause of vaginal discharge in pediatric patients

A

retained foreign body

520
Q

gray or white fishy discharge, clue cells, whiff test

A

BV, metronidazole

521
Q

strawberry cervix, yellow, green, frothy

A

trichomonas, metronidazole x1 dose

522
Q

tachydardia, fever, diffuse abdominal tenderness, CMT, chandelier sign

A

pelvic inflammatory disease

cefoxitin and doxycycline or clinda and gent then transition to PO doxycycline 24 hours after clinical improvement treat for 14 days

outpatient management is for 14 days as well

523
Q

amenorrhea, abdominal pian, nausea, vomiting, adenexal mass or fullness can present with crashing patient positive bHCG

A

extopic pregnancy

fetal heart motion can be seen 5-6 weeks into gestation

unstable need surgery

b-hcg <1500 with no visible baby
repeat bhcg in 48 hours with repeat US in 1 week

ectopic
medical
-no fetal cardiac motion
-bhcg <5000
-gestational sac <3.5cm and reliable follow up

dont forget rhogam

524
Q

these are all contraindications to what

pregnancy, migraines with aura, previous DVT, smokers >35, genital bleeding, estrogen neoplasms, HCC, liver dysfuntion, HTN

A

OCPs

525
Q

cessation of menstruation for 12 consecutive months causes increased risk of osteoporosis and heart disease

A

menopause, suggest by incresae FSH

526
Q

premature menopause occurs before age 40 and is often due to what

A

idopathic premature ovarian insufficiency

527
Q

loss of urine with coughing, running, laughing, sneezing

A

stress incontinence (poor function of sphincter)

kegel exercises, weight loss, pessaries, suburethral sling

528
Q

loss of urine with urge to void due to involuntary detrusor muscle contration

A

urge incontinence, behavior modification, bladder training, anticholinergics, sacral neurostimulator

529
Q

urgency to void with or without urge incontinence and often with nocturia and frequency due to involuntary detrusor mucle contraction

A

overactive bladder syndrome, behavior modification, bladder training, anticholinergics, sacral neurostimulator

530
Q

bilateral breast discharge is concerning for what

A

prolactinoma

531
Q

multifocal and bilateral nodulatiry with pain in breasts with premenstrual lumps

A

fibrocytic changes, OCPs

532
Q

small , firm, unliateral, nontender mass that is freely movable and slow growing on breast

A

fibroadenoma, 30% with disappear on their own

533
Q

blear, bloody, or discolored fluid form a single duct opening of breath

A

intraductal papilloma, drainage and exploration

534
Q

seen in breastfeeding, hard, red, tender, swollen area

A

mastitis, continue breast feeding, NSAIDS and abx

535
Q

mastitis with fluctuant mass

A

abscess

536
Q

firm, tender, and ill definced with surrounding erythema related to trauma or ischemia of breast

A

fat necrosis, analgesia

537
Q

used for anxiety, agitation, catatonia, alcohol withdrawl, insominal, seizure and muscle spams

risk of respiratory depression, decreases carbamazepine and rifampin

A

benzodiazepines

538
Q

nonbenzo used for insomnia

A

zolpidem

539
Q

used for GAD in patients with history of substance abuse. dont use with MAOIs

A

buspirone

540
Q

first line therapy for depression , OCD and anxiety disorders

can increase warfarin levels and causes sexual dysfuntion

A

SSRI

541
Q

antidepressants can provoke mania in patients with

A

undiagnosed bipolar disorder

542
Q

first line therapy for depression and smoking cessation

lowers seizure threshold

A

buproprion - dopamine and norepi reuptake inhibitor

543
Q

used for MDD, GAD that causes HTN, insomnia and sexual dysfunction

A

venlafaxine, serotonin and norepi inhibition

544
Q

alpha 2 antagonist that enhances norepi and serotonin causes weight gain

A

mirtazapine

545
Q

serotonin antagonism that is used for insomnia and causes priapism

A

trazodone

546
Q

used for chronic pain and migraines and neuropathic pain causes dry mouth, blurry vision, constipation, urinary retention, orthostatic hypotension and heart block reflected by prolonged PR and QRS interval

A

tricyclic antidepressant

547
Q

second line agenst due to tyramine induced hypertensive crisis due to aged chees, chocolate, alcohol and pickled foods. causes serotonin syndrome if mixed with almost any other drug

A

MAOI (selegiline, phenylzine)

fluoxetine takes 5 weeks to wash out

548
Q

antipsychotic that is safe for acute mania or psychosis in pregnancy

A

haloperidol

549
Q

used for psychotic disorders and acute agitation causes extrapyramidal symptoms from excessive cholinergic effect, hyperprolactinemia, NMS, arrhthmia, and wight gain

A

first generation typical antipsychotis (domapine receptor blocker)

550
Q

antipsychoics used for only positive symptoms of psychosis associated with more extrapyramidal symptoms

A

haloperidol and fluphenazine (high potency agents)

551
Q

antipsychoics used for sedation, associated with anticholinergic effecs and hypotension

A

lower potency agents like chlorpromazine

552
Q

first line therapy for schizophrenia and tic disorders fewer extrapyramidal symptoms and anticholinergic effects but does cause metabolic syndrome, dry outh, blurry vision, urinary retension, QT prolongation

A

second generation atypical antipsychotics

553
Q

second generation atypical antipsychotics used for treatment refractory psychosis

causes sialorrhea (drooling), agranulocytosis, myocardiits, seizures

A

clozapine

554
Q

involuntary muscle contraction or spasm (torticollis, oculogyric crisis)

A

acute dystonia, give benztropine (cogentin) or diphenhydramine

555
Q

parkinsonism within weeks of starting anticholinergic

A

dyskinesia, benztropine or diphenhydramine

556
Q

subjective restlessness

A

akathisia, benadryle or propranolol

557
Q

oral-facial movmeents often irreversible

A

tardive dyskinesia

558
Q

long term use of this drug causes hypothyroidsim, DI, nephrotoxicity

A

Lithium

559
Q

used for long term maintenance or prophlaxiss of bipolar disorder and for both depression and mania

causes thirst, polyuria, hypothyroidism

A

lithium

560
Q

tremor, ataxia, vomithing, confusion, seizures, and arrhythmias. risk of ebstein anomaly

A

lithium toxicity

561
Q

first line agent for acute mania and bipolar disorder. can cause pancreatitis, hepatotoxicity

A

valproic acid

562
Q

secondy line agent for acute mania and bipolar disorder. causes hepatic toxicity, SIADH, bone marrow suppression

A

carbamazepine

563
Q

CGG repeat disorder, long face, large body size, macro-orchidism. most common inheritied cause of intellectual disability

A

fragile x syndrome, SBT, risperidone and aripiprazole

564
Q

x-linked genetic disorder that affects only girls, normal development until 18 months with development of especially language and motor skills, microcephaly, epilepsy

A

rett disorder, SBT, risperidone and aripiprazole

565
Q

six or morth symptoms for 6 months of inattention, hyperacitivity in 2 or more settings

A

ADHD, stimulants and nonstimulant

stimulants dont lead to substance abuse issues

566
Q

multiple motor and vocal tics

A

tourette syndrome, CBT , haloperidol, pimozide

567
Q

disorder of dopamine due to increased positive symptoms from limbic system and negative symptoms from frontal cortex, increased risk of substance abuse and suicide

two or more positive or negative symptoms for at least 1 months and must result in impairment of functioning. must include delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech and must persist for at least 6 months

A

scizophrenia, antipsychotics

568
Q

symptoms of schizophrnia less than 1 month

A

breif psychotic disorder

569
Q

schizophrenia with symptoms of 1-6 months

A

schizophreniform disorder

570
Q

mood symptoms but psychotic symptoms present for at least 2 weeks without a mood episode

A

schizoaffective disorder

571
Q

SIG E CAPS

sleep, interest, guilt, energy, concentation, appetite, psychomotor issues, suicidal ideation

A

MDD

sertraline –> fluoxetine –> paroxetine –> venlafaxine –> buproprion

572
Q

two symptoms of MDD, chornically depressed for 2 or more years

A

dysthmia

573
Q

doesnt involve severe impairment, anhedonia, or suicidality lasting 2 months to 1 year, visual and auditory hallucinations are common and normal

A

bereavement

574
Q

doesnt meet criteria for MDD but occures within 3 months of a stressor and lasts <6 months

A

adjustment disorde with depressed mood

575
Q

used for psychotic or catatonic depression

A

ECT

576
Q
digs far
distractibility
insomina
grandiosity
pessured speech
flight of ideas
psychomotor agitiation
recklessness
A

bipolar disorder, manic episode

577
Q

bipolar symptosm last for 4 days with no functional impairment

A

hypomania

578
Q

periods of hypomanic symptoms over 2 or moe years that never meet biploar criteria or mdd

A

cyclothymic disorder

579
Q

one manic episode determies diagnosis

A

bipolar I disorder

580
Q

one hypomanic episode alternating with one MDD episode

A

Bipolar II disorder

581
Q

tx of acute mania

A

lithium, antipsychotics, benzo, ECT

582
Q

bipolar depression stabilizer

A

lithium or lamotrigine

583
Q

persistent, excessive, or unrasonable fear or avoidance of an object or situation

in relation to social performance

A

phobia, CBT, SSRI, benzo

social anxiety disorder, propranolol

584
Q
PANICS
palpitations
abdominal distress
numbness
intese fear of death
choking, chills, chest pain
sweating, shaking, sob
A

panic disorder

CBT and SSRI then do benzo

585
Q

excessive and pervasive worry on most days for at least 6 months

A

GAD, venlafaxine

586
Q

persistent, intrusive thoughts, impulses, or images that lead to anxiety and interfere with daily life

A

obsession

587
Q

conscious , repetitive behaviors reactions to obessions

A

compulsions

588
Q

difference between OCD and obsessive compulsive personality disorder

A

ocpd doesnt cause distess

tx OCD with ssri

589
Q

results from exposue to a traumatic event that involved actual or threatened death or serious injury, nightmares and flashbacks are common

A

PTSD, SSRI

590
Q

PTSD symptoms <1 month and occur within 1 month of a trauma

A

acute stress disorder

591
Q

emotional or behavior symptoms occuring within 3 months of stressor and lasting <6 months

A

adjustment disorder with anxiety

592
Q

emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to an identifiable stressor occuring within 3 months of the stressor, distress out of proportion to stressor and resolves by 6 months

A

adjustment disorder, supportitve therapy, CBT

593
Q

temporary amnesia from ones own identiy. they will come out of it living a new life and never remember the stressor or the new life

A

dissociative amnesia

594
Q

symptoms are acoompanied by disproportionate thoughts, feelign, or behaviors regarding symptoms. pain or pain profile that is inconsistent with physiologic processes

A

somatic symptom disorder, psychotherapy and SSRI

595
Q

preoccupation for >6 months with fear of having serious disease based on misinterpretation of symptoms

A

illness anxiety disorder, PT, psychotherapy, antidepressants

596
Q

symptoms that ae not volitionally produced and cant be explained by a known organic etiology example is alterations in voluntary motor or sensory function

A

conversion disorder, reassurance, psychotherapy

597
Q

symptoms are consciously produced but the reason may be unconscious. falsification of physical or psychological symptoms or inducitn injury or illness

A

factitious disorder

598
Q

conciously producign illness for secondary reward

A

malingering

599
Q

refusal to maintain normal body weight <85% ideal body weight, intense fear of weight gain, distorted body image. lanugo, dry skin, lethargy, bradycardia, hypotension, peripheral edema

what are the two types

A

restricting type and binge-eating purging type
anorexia nervosa

amenorrhea is no longer required for diagnosis

600
Q

normal weight or are overweight but engage in binge eating without self control with compensatory behavior to attempt to control weight

poor dentition, enlarged parotid glands, dorsal hand surfaces, metabolic alkalosis

A

bulimia nervosa

CBT

601
Q

child has never achieved continence

A

primary enuresis

602
Q

child achieves night tome continence for 6 months but then begins bedwetting again

A

secondary enuresis, behavioral therapy, desmopressin

603
Q

difficulty falling or staying asleep associated with nonrestorative sleep 3+ times per week for 3 months

A

insomnia, CBT

604
Q

excessive daytime sleepiness occuring 3x per month for 3+ months with hallucinations associated with sleep and decreased levels of hypocretin

A

narcolepsy, modafinil plus methylphenidate if needed

605
Q

loss o fmuscle tone leading to collapse associated with strong emotions or excitement

A

cataplexy, SSRI

606
Q

urge to move legs at night and relieved by movement associated with iron deficiency, uremia, DM, MS

A

restless leg syndrome

607
Q

angry irritable mood with hostile and defiant attitude toward authority figures of >6 months

A

oppositional defiant disorder, parent manegement training, CBT

608
Q

patietn repeatedly and significantly violates societal norms and the rights of others for 1 or more years

A

conduct disorder

609
Q

disinhibition, slurred speech, ataxia, aggression

A

alcohol intoxication

610
Q

euphoria, CNS depression, miosis, respiratory depression

A

opioid intoxication, naloxone

611
Q

psychomotor agitation, tachycardia, mydriasis, fevr, HTN, paranoia, angina, sudden death

A

amphetamine overdose (cocaine), sedatives

612
Q

aniety or deprrsion, delusions visual hallucinations, mydriasis

A

LSD, benzodiazepine

613
Q

euphoria, slowed sense of time, increased appetite, dry mouth, conjunctival injection, anxiety paranoia

A

marijuana intoxication

614
Q

respiratory depression, low safety margin

A

barbiturates OD

615
Q

respiratory depression exacerbated with alcohol use

A

benzo OD

616
Q

restlessness, insomnia, diuresisi, muscle twitchign, psychomotor aggitation

A

caffiene OD

617
Q

restlessness, insomnia, anxiety

A

nicotine

618
Q

tremor, tachycardia, diaphoresis, HTN, DT

A

alcohol withdrawal

619
Q

anxiety, insomnia, anorexia, mydriasis, fever, goosebumps, stomach cramps, very concomfortable

A

opioid withdrawal

620
Q

post use crash, nightmares, depression, severe craving

A

cocaine withdrawal

621
Q

anxiety, seizures, life threatening cardiovascular collapse

A

barbiturate withdrawal

622
Q

rebound anxiety, seizures, tremor, insomnia, hyperension, tachycardia

A

benzo withdrawal

623
Q

headache, lethargy, depression, weight gain, irritability, craving

A

caffiene withdrawal / nicotine withdrawal

624
Q

acute onset of lethargy, agitation, perception (hallucinations) altered cognition that wax and wane during the day

A

discontinue any meds that could cause that, frequent reorientation, haloperidol or risperdol

625
Q

chronic degradation of the mind, alert, intact consciousness, disrupted memory, orientation, language

A

dementia

626
Q

pt is distrustful and suspicious

A

paranoid personality

627
Q

distant, isolated, detached

A

schizoid personality

628
Q

odd behavior/appearance, magical thinking

A

schizotypal personality

629
Q

unstable mood/relationships and feelings of emptiness, impulsive, high risk of suicide or self harm

A

borderline personality

630
Q

excessively emotional and attention seeking, sexually provocative

A

historionic personality

631
Q

grandiose, need admiration, sense of entitilement, lack empathy

A

narcissistic personality

632
Q

violate the rights of others, social norms, and laws, develops from conduct diosrder

A

antisocial personality

633
Q

preoccupided iwth perfectionism, order, control. inflexable morals and values

A

obessive compulsive personality

634
Q

socialy inhibited, sensitive to rejection

A

avoidant personality

635
Q

submissive, clingiy, need to be taken care of

A

dependent personality

636
Q

complication of antipsychotic treatment and can occur at any time. cogwheel if tremor otherwise leadpipe rigidity, dystonia, akinesia, fever, deiphoresisi, tachy, HTN, rhabdo

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome, stop offending agen and give dantrolene or bromocriptine

637
Q

starts shortly after medication is given, delirium, agitation, tachycardia, diaphoresis, diarrhea, myoclonus, hyperreflexia, hyperthermia, seizures, rhabdomyolysis, renal failure

A

serotonin syndrome, serotonin antagonist or cyproheptadine

638
Q

major difference between serotonin syndrome and NMS is that

A

serotonin syndrome has myoclonus with hyperreflexia

639
Q

decreased FEV/FEV1 ratio

preserved ratio

A

obstructive

restrictive

640
Q

what does dclo stand for

what process is characterized by this due to alveoloi being destroyed and unavailable for gas exchanged

A

diffusion capacity of lungs

COPD

641
Q

treatment course for chronic asthma

A

albuterol then inhailed corticosteroid, then salmeterol

642
Q

chronic cough with sputum production due to destruction of lung parenchyma

A

COPD

stable - LABA (ipratropium) then oxygen

643
Q

chronic productiv ecought for 3 or more months in each of 2 consecutive years

A

chronic bronchitis

644
Q

young COPD patient with emphysematous changes that have an apical pedominance

A

alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

645
Q

clinical cyanosis with normal PaO2

A

methemoglobinemia, methylene blue

646
Q

hypoxia workup after hypoxia is found then do what?

if normal ?

if increased its what two things and what do you do for it

A

A-a gradient

give O2 - high altitude or low Fio2

shunt - increase pressure with ventilation (lobar pneumonia, ards)

v/q mismatch - give oxygen

647
Q

pleural effusion

calculate what?

A

lights criteria

low is transudative

0.5/0.6/66% protein ratio /ldh ratio/ldh pleural

high is exudative

648
Q

tracheal deviation away from side of injury

A

tension pneumothorax

649
Q

associated with higher mortality in pulmonary embolism

A

elevated troponin

650
Q

noncaseating granulomas in various organs, fever, cough, weight loss, arthritis

grueling features
granulomas, RA, uveities, erythema nodosum, lymphadenitis, intersitial fibrosis, negative PPD, gammaglobulinemia, parotid gland swelling

A

sarcoidosis, corticosteroids or methotrexate

651
Q

neurocognitive impairment, morning hedache, poor sleep or impotence, obese, HTN

STOP BANG
snorring
tired
apnea
HTN
BMI
AGE
neck
gener is male
A

sleep apnea, bipap

652
Q

cheyne stokes breathing - deep rapid breathing followed by decreased ventilation and apnea is often cause by stroke or HF

A

central sleep apnea

653
Q

recurrent pulmonary infectiosn, sinusitis, meconium ileus, intussusception, DM, malabsorption, infertility, nasal polyps, clubbing of nails

A

cystic fibrosis

654
Q

severe headache, throbbing left temporal pain, flashes of light in right visual field, weakness and numbness on the right side of her body, nausea and vomiting

A

migraine , IV hydration, promethazine, metoclopramide, caffeine, sumatripatain or ergotamine

655
Q

bilateral band-like throbbing pain, pain and stiffiness in neck and shoulder

A

tension headache

656
Q

intermittent headache in right temporal lobe with blurred viison in right eye and pain in jaw during mastication

A

temporal arteritis, steroids

657
Q

high fever, severe headache, photophobia, lives in college dorms

A

meningitis, ceftriazone, vanc, dexamethasone

658
Q

severe headache, nausea, vomiting, stopped talking metoprolol hx of HTN

A

hypertensive emergency, restart meds

659
Q

forgetfulness (phone numbers, way home), difficulty performing daily activitys, gradually progressed

A

alzheimer disease, donepezile, rivastigmine, or memantine

660
Q

difficulty walking, memory loss, urinary incontinece,

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus, shunt

661
Q

seizure after being admitted 2 days ago for emergency trauma surgery, anxious, agitated, irritable, tachycardic, nausea, diarrhea, sweating, and insomnia, tremors, hallucinations

A

alcohol withdrawal

662
Q

drowsy, stiffened, fell backward, lost consciousness, no respiration for 1 minute, jerking motion of all four limbs

A

tonic clonic seizure

663
Q

syncope, fatigue, dizziness for 5 days, loss of consciousness, prodrome of lightheadedness, medications include propranolol, digxin, and diltiazem

A

complete heart block

664
Q

2 yo childsudden onset of shortness of breath and cough, had URI 4 days ago. earlier today was playing with peanuts

A

forgien body ingestion

665
Q

HIV postivie patietn with shortness of breath, malaise, droy cough, fatiuge, and fever

A

PCP, bacrim

666
Q

generalized weakness, left flank discomfort, nausea, constipation with 20 lb weight loss over 4 months

A

renal cell carcinoma

667
Q

alcoholic with epigastric pain that radiated to his back, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, no PUD

A

acute pancreatitis

668
Q

newborrn bilious vomiting, irritability, poor feeding, lethargy, acute episode of rectal bleeding

A

malrotation with volvulous

669
Q

new born baby, mom had DM presents with tachypnea, hypoxia, failure to thrive, nasal flairing and retractions. heart murmur present breath sounds are clear

A

HOCM, should resolve on its own