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family medicine general > step 3 > Flashcards

step 3 Flashcards

1
Q

interval for FIT testing

A

3 years

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2
Q

characteristic of male breast cancers

A

Estrogen +

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3
Q

abx choice for dog bite

A

augmenting

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4
Q

Abx for epidydimitis in mms

A

Levo and ceftriaxone

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5
Q

Usual 2 pathogens for epidydimitis

A

Gc

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6
Q

Favorable bishop score

A

Greater than 7

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7
Q

1st and 2nd line drugs for pruritis during ESRD. (non-drowsy)

A
  1. topical moisturizers

2. gabapentin

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8
Q

agent to reduce prutitis in end stage liver dz

A

cholestyramine

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9
Q

quick test for ketoacidosis

A

urine beta-hydroxybutyrate

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10
Q

most common presenting sign of MM

A

anemia

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11
Q

BRCA associated w/triple negative breast ca and significantly increased ovarian cancers

A

BRCA1

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12
Q

vancomycin just treats (IV)

A

MRSA

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13
Q

alternative to vanco (2nd line choice)

A

linezolid

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14
Q

amp and amox are best for

A

gram -

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15
Q

to treat gram - , including pseudomonas

A

piperacillin

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16
Q

pip-tazo is good for

A

anaerobes, gram - (esp pseudomonas), gram + BUT NOT MRSA

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17
Q

a decent alternative to pip-tazo

A

carbapenem

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18
Q

4th generation ceph for pseudomonas

A

cefepime

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19
Q

good quinolone for +, and some -

A

moxifloxacin

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20
Q

2 lab tests to monitor for lamotrigine

A

CBC, hepatic

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21
Q

treatment for PFAPA

Periodic Fever with Aphthous Ulcer Pharyngitis and Adenitis

A

steroids

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22
Q

obesity risk vascular risk with pregnancy (besides macrosomia, DM)

A

preeclampsia

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23
Q

interval for weeks of pregnancy for steroid administration

A

24 to 34

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24
Q

preferred treatment for tinea capitis

A

oral griseofulvin

SE: GI, rash, HA.

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25
Q

2nd line tx tinea capitis

A

terbinafine (shorter course, cheaper, not effective against some species)

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26
Q

newborn systolic murmur

greater in axillae

A

PPS

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27
Q

musical murmur
in kid, 3-5 yo
greater lying down than standing up

A

Still’s murmur

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28
Q

low-pitched murmur in kid
below clavicles.
stops when you have them turn head

A

venous hum

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29
Q

1st line tx for hemangioma

A

propranolol

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30
Q

Mongolian spots

A

dermal melanosis

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31
Q

course of dermal melanosis

A

most reolve by 1 year

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32
Q

estimating contagion for breakthrough varicella

A

> 50 papules = equally contagious to wild type/

<50 papules = 1/3 as contagious

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33
Q

lifetime prevalance of zoster if exposed to varicella

A

33%

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34
Q

best agent for acute severe pain control zoster

A

tramadol

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35
Q

age cutoff for vaccinating for zoster

A

60 years

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36
Q

postexposure treatment for varicella/HZ in a nonimmune pregnant woman

A

variz IG

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37
Q

SENS=

A

TP/DISEASE

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38
Q

SPEC=

A

TN/HEALTHY

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39
Q

PPV=

A

TP/ALL P

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40
Q

NNT=

A

1/ARR

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41
Q

NPV=

A

TN/ALL N

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42
Q

NNH=

A

1/AR

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43
Q

relationship between prevalence and PPV, NPV

A

prevalence increases

PPV increases
NPV decreases

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44
Q

Likelihood ratio=

A

sen/1-spec

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45
Q

OR=

A

ad/bc

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46
Q

RR=

A

a(a+b)/c(c+d)

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47
Q

abx for fever of unknown origin in infant

A

ampicillin, cefotaxime

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48
Q

bias if study is not double-blinded

A

observer bias

49
Q

joint side effect of cyclosporine

A

causes gout

50
Q

treatment of gout if renal failure

A

intra-articular glucocorticoids

51
Q

Most common variety of CAH

A

21 hydroxylase deficiency

52
Q

Length of DAPT for stable ischemic heart dz and:

Bare metal stents
Des

A

1month

6months

53
Q

Length of DAPT if cabg, nstemi or stemi

A

1yr

54
Q

1st and 2nd line tx for post infectious cough

A 
Inhaled ipratroprium (atrovent)
Inhaled corticosteroid
55
Q

tx keloids

A

intralesional steroids

56
Q

tx of cocaine-induced CP

A

ativan

57
Q

tx botulism in infants

A

human derived IgG

58
Q

heberden’s vs bouchard’s nodes

A 
heberden = DIP - OA
bouchard's = PIP - OA, RA
59
Q

trastuzumab toxicity (HER2 tx)

A

reversible cardiotoxicity

60
Q

PPV=

A

TP/ALL P

61
Q

SEN =

A

TP/All sick

62
Q

SPEC=

A

TN/all healthy

63
Q

What changes with prevalance?

likelihood, sensitivity or specificity

A

none of the above

64
Q

what is external validity

A

generizability

65
Q

tx of opioid withdrawl (opioid and non-opioid - one each)

A

methadone

clonidine

66
Q

Anti Ro, Anti-La

A

Sjogren’s syndrome

67
Q

Risk of sjogren’s

A

B-cell lymphoma

68
Q

prophylactic tx cluster headaches

A

verapamil

69
Q

bilateral deafness

hypopigmented cafe au lait spots

A

NF2

70
Q

time to discontinue estrogens or SERMs prior to surgeyr

A

4 weeks

71
Q

tx for ABPA allergic bronchogenic pulmonary aspergillosis

A

oral steroids

72
Q

tx for PAD, and additional therapy

A

statins and then antiplatelet therapy

73
Q

med to add if claudication after exercise therapy

A

cilostazol

74
Q

difference between bell’s palsy and stroke

and anatomy

A

bp = entire half of face affected
stroke - central facial weakness (lower face only)

upper face both hemisphere innervation
lower face contralateral hemisphere only

75
Q

SAAG > 1.1 means

A

portal hypertension present

76
Q

age cutoff for US vs mammo eval of breast mass

A

30

77
Q

tx diff cutoff for cdiff

A

mild/mod = ora metronidazole

severe (WBC 15 or otherwise) = oral vanc

78
Q

test of choice for diagnosing active TB

A

sputum microscopy

79
Q

criteria for TB smears -

A

noninfectious if three smears negative

80
Q

follow up study for positive pediatric lead screen

A

venous lead study

81
Q

tx (3) for CF PNM

A

tobra, tic-clav and vanco

82
Q

OR =

A

probability event/(1-probability)

83
Q

delivery in woman with condyloma accuminata (VD vs C/S)

A

vaginal delivery OK

84
Q

thyroid ranges in pregnancy

A

1.5x normal for T3, T4

85
Q

patient given nitroprusside for hypertension, then AMS and metabolic acidosis

A

cyanide toxicity

86
Q

tx for methanol or ethanol poisoning

A

fomepizole

87
Q

appropriate steps after a healthcare worker was exposed to TB

A

PPD now (evaluates current status) and then in 3 months (to diagnose exposure)

88
Q

Anti histone ab

A

Drug induced lupus

89
Q

Side effect hydralazine, procainamide, minocycline

A

Drug induced lupus

90
Q

lab test for anaphylaxis

A

triptase (elevated with anaphylaxis)

91
Q

patient story like bipolar 1, but with schizophrenia-like sx

A

schizoaffective disorder

92
Q

light’s criteria for exudate (2)

A

protein pleural:serum > .5

LDH pleural:serum > .6

93
Q

in event of transfusion in pt with shock or hypothermia, administer

A

10 cc 10% calcium gluconate per unit pRBC

due to high citrate in blood cells

94
Q

tx for mallory-weisz tear

A

observation and supportive

95
Q

CSF protein reduced with narcolepsy

A

hypocretin-1

96
Q

tx for cataplexy

A

SNRIs

97
Q

administer in TCA overdose (and reason)

A

bicarb (prevent arrythmias)

98
Q

treatment for dumping sydrome after a gastrectomy

A

high protein diet (in small, frequent portions)

99
Q

tx FUO in infant (2)

A

amp and cefotaxime

100
Q

tx Guillain Barre Syndrome (2 options)

A

plasmapharesis

IVIG

101
Q

sarcoid MOA for hypercalcemia

A

Promotes hydroxylation vitamin D

102
Q

tx (2) of postpartum endometritis

A

clinda and gent

103
Q

tx (2) of hepatorenal syndrome

A

octreotide and midodrine

104
Q

tx for malignant otitis externa

A

IV clinda (or other anti-pseudomonal)

105
Q

management for acute hepatitis B (without severe comorbitities)

A

supportive only

106
Q

anti-centromere ab

A

scleroderma

107
Q

initial tx for SLE arthralgia (2)

A

steroids and hydroxychloroquine

108
Q

tx plantar wart

A

topical salicylic acid

109
Q

AIDS patient with cutaneous erythematous papules with centeral umbilication

A

cutaneous cryptococcus

110
Q

standard mortality rate (SMR)

A

deaths/expected deaths

111
Q

BP goal after tpa

A

less than 185/105

112
Q

Elevated tsh, t3, t4

A

Tsh secreting pituitary adenoma

113
Q

Cardiac index, def and normal range

A

Co/body surface area

Normal is 2.6-4.2

114
Q

2 labs to check if someone has subclinical hypoTH

A

anti-TPO ab

lipids

115
Q

virus that presents like RA

A

parvovirus

116
Q

abx causing pyloric stenosis in a kid

A

erythromycin

117
Q

most common extrarenal manifestation of ADPKD

A

hepatic cysts

118
Q

lead level cutoff where a kid should be treated

A

45

family medicine general (2 decks)

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