Step 2 CK

Question 1

(Glipizide, glyburide, glimepiride) What kind of medications are these and what do they do?

Answer 1

Insulin medications and they increase endogenous secretion of insulin

Question 2

How does metformin work?

Answer 2

Increases insulin sensitivity

Question 3

What are the side effects for glyburide, glipizide and glimepriride?

Answer 3

Hypoglycemia and weight gain

Question 4

How does rosiglitazone work?

Answer 4

Increase insulin sensitivity

Question 5

What is the side effect of rosiglitazone?

Answer 5

weight gain and edema

Question 6

How do they alpha glucosidase inhibitors work?

Answer 6

decrease intestinal absorption of carbohydrates

Question 7

Whats the symptomatic treatment for hyperthyroidism?

Answer 7

Propanolol

Question 8

Whats the main treatment for hyperthyroidisim?

Answer 8

Methimazole or PTU

Question 9

Whats the definitive treatment for hyperthyroidism?

Answer 9

radioactive thyroid ablation or surgery

Question 10

How do you treat thyroid storm?

Answer 10

IV propanolol and steroids

Question 11

What kind of thyroid nodules has an increase risk of malignancy?

Answer 11

Cold nodules

Question 12

Does increased uptake or decreased uptake hold an increase risk of malignancy?

Answer 12

decreased

Question 13

What condition gives you persistent serum hypercalcemia, low calcium in urine, and normal PTH and no symptoms?

Answer 13

Familial hypocalcuric hypercalcemia

Question 14

How do you treat hypercalcemia?

Answer 14

IV fluids and loop diuretics

Question 15

Which cushings is suppressed with high dose dexamethasone?

Answer 15

Cushing disease

Question 16

What is the treatment for a Prolactinoma?

Answer 16

Dopamine agonist (bromocriptine, cabergoline)

Question 17

What is the treatment for pheochromocytoma?

Answer 17

Alpha blockers and beta blockers

Question 18

What is the neuroimaging finding for schizophrenia?

Answer 18

Enlargement of cerebral ventricles

Question 19

What is the neuroimaging finding for panic disorder?

Answer 19

decreased volume of amygdala

Question 20

What is the neuroimaging finding for autism?

Answer 20

increased total brain volume

Question 21

What is the neuroimaging finding for obsessive compulsive disorder?

Answer 21

abnormalities in orbitofrontal cortex and striatum

Question 22

What is the neuroimaging finding for post traumatic stress disorder?

Answer 22

decreased hippocampal volume

Question 23

What drug is contraindicated in cocaine induced STEMI?

Answer 23

Beta blockers

Question 24

What is the test of choice for meconium ileus and hirschsprung disease?

Answer 24

contrast enema

Question 25

If a patient has recurrent nephrolithiasis what would be the best advice for prevention of stones?

Answer 25

decrease Protein in the diet

Question 26

What kind of hemangioma do you get in infancy?

Answer 26

Strawberry hemangioma (superficial hemangioma)

Question 27

What is the side effect for methimazole?

Answer 27

Agranulocytosis

Question 28

What is the side effect for PTU?

Answer 28

Hepatic failure

Question 29

What is the side effect for the calcium channel blocker amlodipine?

Answer 29

Peripheral edema

Question 30

How do you treat a scaphoid fracture?

Answer 30

immobilization

Question 31

What is the best test to diagnose stones?

Answer 31

CT scan without contrast or ultrasound

Question 32

What is the side effect for amiodarone?

Answer 32

Pulmonary toxicity

Question 33

What is plummer-vinson-syndrome?

Answer 33

Where you have esophageal webs, iron deficiency anemia and glossitis

Question 34

What is the musculature made out of in the upper 3rd of the esophagus?

Answer 34

Skeletal muscle

Question 35

What is the musculature made out of in the lower 3rd of the esophagus?

Answer 35

smooth muscle

Question 36

If you have painfull swallowing what imaging test would you do? (odonophagia)

Answer 36

Endoscopy

Question 37

If you had difficulty swallowing what imaging test would you do? (dysphagia)

Answer 37

Barium swallow then endoscopy

Question 38

What condition gives you chest pain, dysphagia and odynophagia after ingestion of hot or cold liquids?

Answer 38

Esophageal spasm

Question 39

What is the treatment for esophageal spasm?

Answer 39

Nitrates or CCB

Question 40

What muscle is affected in a Zenker diverticulum?

Answer 40

cricopharyngeus muscle

Question 41

What is the most common type of esophageal cancer worldwide?

Answer 41

Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 42

What is the most common esophageal cancer in the United States?

Answer 42

Adenocarcinoma

Question 43

What is the risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus?

Answer 43

Alcohol and smoking

Question 44

What is the risk factors for adenocarcinoma od the esophagus?

Answer 44

Barrets esophagus from Chronic GERD

Question 45

What is the location in the esophagus where you are most likely to find squamous cell carcinoma?

Answer 45

upper and middle 3rds of the esophagus

Question 46

What is the location in the esophagus where you are most likely to find adenocarcinoma?

Answer 46

lower 1/3 of the esophagus

Question 47

How would you diagnose gastritis?

Answer 47

upper endoscopy

Question 48

What is the triple therapy for H.pylori infection?

Answer 48

amoxicillin, clindamycin, omeprazole

Question 49

What are stress ulcers and how do you treat them?

Answer 49

Stress ulcers include curling ulcers from burn injuries and cushing ulcers from traumatic brain injury. Treat with prophylactic PPIs

Question 50

What is a krunkenberg tumor?

Answer 50

It is a gastric adenocarcinoma that metastasizes to the ovary

Question 51

What is MALT?

Answer 51

MALT is mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma which is a rare gastric tumor associated with chronic H. pylori infection that can be cured with triple therapy

Question 52

What cancer is associated with an enlarged left supraclavicular lymph node?

Answer 52

Gastric cancer

Question 53

What is the treatment for diarrhea caused by campylobacter?

Answer 53

Erythromycin

Question 54

What is the most common cause of bacterial diarrhea?

Answer 54

campylobacter

Question 55

What is the most common cause of pediatric diarrhea?

Answer 55

rotavirus

Question 56

Whats the most common complication of C. diff?

Answer 56

toxic megacolon

Question 57

What is the treatment for C.diff

Answer 57

metronidazole or vancomycin

Question 58

What is the treatment for entamoeba histolytica?

Answer 58

metronidazole

Question 59

How do you treat salmonella and shigella?

Answer 59

TMP-SMX

Question 60

What does lactose break down into and what enzyme facilitates this?

Answer 60

glucose and galactose facilitated by lactase

Question 61

What condition present with abdominal cramps, wheezing, cutaneous flushing, diarrhea, and right sided cardiac valvular lesions?

Answer 61

Carcinoid syndrome

Question 62

What is the treatment for carcinoid syndrome?

Answer 62

octreotide

Question 63

How do you diagnose carcinoid syndrome?

Answer 63

Urine levels of 5-HIAA

Question 64

What condition gives you periodic crampy abdominal pain, bilious vomiting, abdominal distention and tenderness, no passing of flatus or stools and hyperactive bowel sounds?

Answer 64

Small bowel obstruction

Question 65

What condition gives you continuous diffuse abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, abdominal distenstion and tenderness, hypoactive bowel sounds and no flatus or bowel movements?

Answer 65

Ileus

Question 66

What is the most common cause of acute lower GI bleeding in older patients?

Answer 66

Diverticulosis

Question 67

What is Charcot’s triad and what condition is it associated with?

Answer 67

1. RUQ pain
2. Jaundice
3. Fever/chills
   Associated with ascending cholangitis

Question 68

What condition is associated with an increased alkaline phosphatase level and increased direct bilirubin?

Answer 68

Choledocolithiasis

Question 69

What is the next step in management for acute ascending cholangitis and choledocolithiasis?

Answer 69

ERCP

Question 70

What are anti-smooth muscle antibodies associated with?

Answer 70

Autoimmune hepatitis

Question 71

What is the treatment for acute hepatitis?

Answer 71

supportive care

Question 72

What is the treatment for chronic hepatitis B?

Answer 72

interferon and lamivudine

Question 73

What is the treatment for chronic hepatitis C?

Answer 73

interferon and ribavirin

Question 74

What condition is associated with increased alkaline phosphatase, jaundice, pruritus, and positive antimitochondrial antibodies?

Answer 74

Primary biliary cirrhosis

Question 75

What is the treatment for primary biliary cirrhosis?

Answer 75

ursodeoxycholic acid

Question 76

What is the treatment for wilsons disease?

Answer 76

penicillamine

Question 77

What is the hallmark finding in pancreatic cancer?

Answer 77

nontender, palpable gallbladder

Question 78

What is the initial workup for a postmenopausal women with an adnexal mass?

Answer 78

transvaginal ultrasound and CA-125 level

Question 79

What is the treatment for a patient with WPW syndrome who is in atrial fibrillation?

Answer 79

Procainamide

Question 80

What is the test of choice for malrotation/volvulus?

Answer 80

upper GI series

Question 81

What medications can you use to drive potassium intracellularly?

Answer 81

1. Insulin
2. Glucose
3. Sodium bicarbonate
4. Albuterol

Question 82

What is the treatment for pseudotumor cerebri?

Answer 82

Acetazolamide

Question 83

If you have blood at the beginning of urination what should you think of?

Answer 83

urethral injury

Question 84

If you have blood at the end of urination what should you think of?

Answer 84

Bladder or prostate problems

Question 85

At what weight should an infant not get immunizations?

Question 86

Whats the mutation in Marfans syndrome?

Answer 86

Fibrillin 1 gene

Question 87

What are the treatments for BPH

Answer 87

Alpha blockers (terazosin, tamsulosin) or finesteride

Question 88

What is the treatment for bullous impetigo?

Answer 88

Oral antibiotics like clindamycin, cephalexin, dicloxcillian

Question 89

What is the treatment for non-bullous impetigo?

Answer 89

topical muciprocin

Question 90

What is the problem with giving lidocaine to a person who had a MI?

Answer 90

It can increase risk for asystole

Question 91

What is the treatment for measles?

Answer 91

vitamin A and supportive care

Question 92

What are the complications of bronchiolitis in infants?

Answer 92

apnea or respiratory failure

Question 93

What are the complications of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

Answer 93

1. Rebleeding after day 1
2. Vasospasm after day 3
3. increased ICP
4. Seizures
5. SiADH

Question 94

What in the spinal fluid and confirm the diagnosis of subarchnoid hemorrhage?

Answer 94

Xanthrochromia

Question 95

recurrent stones since childhood, hexagonal crystals on urnalysis and positive cyanide nitroprusside test is associated with what condition?

Answer 95

Cystinuria

Question 96

What is the abnormality in cystinuria?

Answer 96

Defective amino acid transport

Question 97

Pagets disease of the breast is associated with what kind of cancer?

Answer 97

Adenocarcinoma

Question 98

What biopsy finding are suggestive of bullous pemphigoid?

Answer 98

IgG and C3 deposits at the dermal-epidermal junction

Question 99

What are the autoantibodies targeting in pemphigus vulgaris?

Answer 99

desmoglein

Question 100

What are the autoantibodies targeting in bullous pemphigoid?

Answer 100

hemidesmosomes

Question 101

Pronator drift is associated with what type of brain abnormality?

Answer 101

upper motor neuron disease

Question 102

Which cause of direct hyperbilirubinemia gives you dark granular pigment in the hepatocytes?

Answer 102

Dubin johnson syndrome

Question 103

Leads 2, 3, AVF correlates with what kind of MI?

Answer 103

Inferior MI

Question 104

Whats the antidote to heparin?

Answer 104

Protamine sulfate

Question 105

What is cryoprecipitate?

Answer 105

More concentrated form of fresh frozen plasma. Contains factor 8 and fibrinogen

Question 106

What is the diagnostic test for vWD?

Answer 106

ristocetin cofactor assay

Question 107

What is the treatment for vWD?

Answer 107

DDVAP(desmopressin)

Question 108

What is the difference between the labs in vWD and hemophilia?

Answer 108

In vWD there is platelet dysfunction so the bleeding time and PTT is prolonged but in hemophilia PTT is prolonged

Question 109

What 3 things can give you microangiopathic hemolytic anemia that leads to schistocyted on peripheral blood smear?

Answer 109

1. HUS
2. DIC
3. TTP

Question 110

What is the treatment for TTP?

Answer 110

steroids and plasmapheresis

Question 111

What is the treatment for ITP?

Answer 111

Steroids and IVIG

Question 112

What is contraindicated in patients with HUS?

Answer 112

antibiotics

Question 113

What are some specific tests for iron deficiency anemia?

Answer 113

Increased RDW and low ferritin levels

Question 114

elevated MMA and elevated homocysteine is associated with what?

Answer 114

b12 deficiency

Question 115

Normal MMA and elevated homocysteine levels are associated with that?

Answer 115

folate deficiency

Question 116

What is indicative of a positive schilling test?

Answer 116

When a patient suspected of B12 deficiency is given radiolabed B12 and it comes out in the urine. Tell you there is a B12 deficiency

Question 117

When you have increased LDH levels and decreased haptoglobin what does that tell you?

Answer 117

Hemolysis

Question 118

The presence of auer rods are indicative of what condition?

Answer 118

AML

Question 119

What is the translocation for the philadelphia chromosome and what condition is it associated with?

Answer 119

t(9;22) associated with CML

Question 120

What is the preferred treatment for the M3 subtype of AML?

Answer 120

All trans-retnoic acid therapy

Question 121

What chromosome translocations are associated with M3 subtype of AML?

Answer 121

Chromosome 15 and 17

Question 122

Smudge cells are associated with what condition?

Answer 122

CLL

Question 123

What is the treatment for CML

Answer 123

imtinab

Question 124

Reed Sternberg cells are associated with what condition?

Answer 124

Hodgkins lymphoma

Question 125

Which type of hodgkins disease has the best prognosis?

Answer 125

Lymphocyte predominant

Question 126

What symptoms should raise suspicion for multiple myeloma?

Answer 126

anemia, renal failure and bone pain

Question 127

Dutcher bodies are characteristic of what disease?

Answer 127

Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia

Question 128

What is AL amyloid associated with?

Answer 128

multiple myeloma and Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia

Question 129

What is AA amyloid associated with?

Answer 129

chronic inflammatory diseases

Question 130

What is graft vs host disease?

Answer 130

Its a type of allogenic infection where donot T lymphocytes attack host tissues in the skin, liver and GI tract

Question 131

What is the treatment for graft vs host disease?

Answer 131

high dose steroids

Question 132

Whats the problem in hyperacute transplant rejection?

Answer 132

Preformed antibodies ABO incompatability

Question 133

When would you see a reaction in hyperacute transplant rejection and what would that reaction be?

Answer 133

within minutes and vascular thrombi or ischemia

Question 134

What is the problem in acute transplant rejection?

Answer 134

T cell mediated response

Question 135

What are the side effects of HCTZ diuretic?

Answer 135

hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, hyperuricemia, hypokalemia, hypomaganesium, hyponatremia

Question 136

What is bronchoalveolar lavage used for?

Answer 136

to evaluate for malignancy or opportunistic infections like PCP

Question 137

What is the single most important prognostic factor in breast cancer?

Answer 137

TNM staging

Question 138

Does central cord syndrome affect the lower extremeties or the upper extremeties?

Answer 138

upper extremeties

Question 139

What is the treatment of choice for syphillis?

Answer 139

Penicillin

Question 140

What is a patient is allergic to penicillin, what is the treatment for syphillis?

Answer 140

doxycycline

Question 141

What is a patient is pregnant with syphilis and they are allergic to penicillin, what is the treatment?

Answer 141

desensitized penicillin

Question 142

What is a patient has tertiary syphillis and they are allergic to penicillin, what is the treatment?

Answer 142

ceftriaxone

Question 143

Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with what eye condition?

Answer 143

ANterior uveitis

Question 144

What is the treatment for gastroparesis?

Answer 144

metoclopromamide

Question 145

What is the management of suspected spleen injury?

Answer 145

If hemodynamically unstable do exploratory laparatomy. If hemodynamically stable do a CT scan and decide if surgery is needed

Question 146

If you suspect endometriosis what is the best way to test for it?

Answer 146

Laparascopy

Question 147

What is the treatment for Printzmetal angina?

Answer 147

Nitrates or CCB

Question 148

What are the contraindications to rotavirus vaccination?

Answer 148

1. History of intussusception
2. History of GI abnormalities
3. Anaphylaxis
4. SCID

Question 149

After diagnosing a patient with Guillain-Barre syndrome what is the most important next step in management?

Answer 149

Assess pulmonary function with spirometry

Question 150

What receptors are affected in Lambert Eaton syndrome?

Answer 150

Presynpatic voltage gated calcium channels

Question 151

What receptors are affected in Myasthenia gravis?

Answer 151

Postsynaptic acteylcholine receptors

Question 152

Whats unique about blastomycosis?

Answer 152

Endemic in Wisconsin, Mississippi, Ohio. Has pulmonary, skin, and lytic bone lesion findings

Question 153

What conditio can give you these findings; pericardial calcifications, prominent x and y descents, fatigue and dyspnea and fluid overload?

Answer 153

Constrictive pericarditis

Question 154

Where are the endemic areas for tuberculosis constrictive pericarditis?

Answer 154

Africa, India and China

Question 155

What is the treatment for tinea capitis?

Answer 155

Oral Griseofulvin

Question 156

How do you treat uric acid stones?

Answer 156

Alkinaztion of the urine with potassium citrate

Question 157

What is the management for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

Answer 157

Diagnostic paracentesis

Question 158

What are the most likely cultured bacteria in spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

Answer 158

E.coli and Klebsiella

Question 159

Malabsorption, increased alk phos and PTH, decreased calcium and phosphorus are associatef with what condition?

Answer 159

Osteomalacia

Question 160

What is the problem in osteomalacia?

Answer 160

Vitamin D deficiency and impaired osteoid matrix mineralization

Question 161

What is the treatment for hairy cell leukemia?

Answer 161

Cladribine

Question 162

What kind of gait do you get with parkinson disease?

Answer 162

hypokinetic gait

Question 163

Malabsorption, increased alk phos and PTH, decreased calcium and phosphorus are associatef with what condition?

Answer 163

Osteomalacia

Question 164

What is the problem in osteomalacia?

Answer 164

Vitamin D deficiency and impaired osteoid matrix mineralization

Question 165

What is the treatment for hairy cell leukemia?

Answer 165

Cladribine

Question 166

If i have a patient with increased serum iron, decreased TIBC and normochromic and hypochromic RBCs what condition should i be thinking of?

Answer 166

Sideroblastic anemia

Question 167

What is the treatment for sideroblastic anemia?

Answer 167

Pyridoxine

Question 168

What is the next step in treatment of a patient who is having an acute excerbation of COPD who has been given short acting beta agonists, steroids and antibiotics and still isnt responding to treatment?

Answer 168

Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation

Question 169

What is the treatment for stable angina?

Answer 169

1. Beta blockers
2. CCB
3. Nitrates

Question 170

Menniers Disease affects which part of the ear?

Answer 170

Inner ear

Question 171

What is the treatment for SVT?

Answer 171

Adenosine

Question 172

What is the treatment for Ventricular tachycardia?

Answer 172

Amiodarone or lidocaine

Question 173

What are the metabolic abnormalities in tumor lysis syndrome?

Answer 173

1. Hyperuricemia
2. Hyperkalemia
3. Hyperphosphatemia
4. Hypocalcemia

Question 174

What is the most common cause of pneumonia from 6wks-18yrs?

Answer 174

RSV

Question 175

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in the elderly?

Answer 175

Strep pneumo

Question 176

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in young adults (18-40)?

Answer 176

Mycoplasma pneumonia

Question 177

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in adults?

Answer 177

Strep pneumo

Question 178

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in hospital setting?

Answer 178

Gram negatives

Question 179

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in neonates?

Answer 179

Group B strep

Question 180

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in COPD?

Answer 180

H. Flu

Question 181

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis?

Answer 181

kids-Staph aureus

Adults- psuedomonas

Question 182

What is the most common cause of aspiration pneumonia?

Answer 182

Anaerobes

Question 183

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in alcoholics/IV drug abusers?

Answer 183

Strep pneumo then klebsiella

Question 184

What is the treatment for a patient with active TB?

Answer 184

2 months of isoniazide, rifampin, ethambutol and pyrazinamide then 4 months of isoniazide and rifampin.

Question 185

What should you always give with isoniazide to prevent peripheral neuritis?

Answer 185

Vitamin B6

Question 186

What is the treatment for latent TB with a positive PPD test?

Answer 186

9 months of isoniazide

Question 187

What is the side effect of ethambutol?

Answer 187

optic neuritis

Question 188

What is the side effect of rifampin?

Answer 188

turns body fluids orange

Question 189

What is the side effect of isoniazide?

Answer 189

Peripheral neuropathy and hepatitis

Question 190

What is the treatment for strep throat?

Answer 190

Penicillin

Question 191

What can give you odynophagia, trismus, muffled voice, and deviated uvula away from lesion?

Answer 191

Peritonsillar abscess

Question 192

What is the test of choice for sinus imaging?

Answer 192

CT scan

Question 193

What is the treatment for acute bacterial sinusitis?

Answer 193

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

Question 194

What is the treatment for coccidioidomycosis?

Answer 194

Fluconazole

Question 195

What is the most common cause of postviral pneumonia?

Answer 195

Staph aureus

Question 196

What is the prophylactic treatment for meningitis?

Answer 196

Rifampin

Question 197

What is the most common cause of meningitis for elderly patients?

Answer 197

Strep pneumo

Question 198

What is the most common cause of meningitis for patients 6-60yrs?

Answer 198

N. meningitidis

Question 199

What is the most common cause of meningitis for neonates?

Answer 199

Group B strep

Question 200

What is the most common cause of meningitis for kids from 6months-6yrs?

Answer 200

Strep pneumo

Question 201

If you find RBCs in CSF without a history of trauma what should you start to think of?

Answer 201

HSV encephalitis

Question 202

What is the treatment for HIV encephalitis?

Answer 202

IV acyclovir

Question 203

What is the treatment for CMV encephalitis?

Answer 203

IV ganciclovir

Question 204

What type of infection gives you CSF with elevated proteins, low glucose, and elevated WBCs?

Answer 204

Bacterial meningitis

Question 205

What type of condition gives you CSF with high elevated opening pressure?

Answer 205

Pseudotumor cerebri

Question 206

If you have a patient with a triad of headache, fever, and focal neurological deficit what should you be suspicious of?

Answer 206

Brain abscess

Question 207

What is the treatment for a pregnant HIV+ patient who is not currently being treated?

Answer 207

zidovudine for mom and baby

Question 208

What is the only live vaccine you can give HIV+ patients?

Answer 208

MMR

Question 209

What is the treatment for cryptococcal meningitis?

Answer 209

IV amphotericin B

Question 210

An HIV+ patient from Ohio presents with low grade fever, dry cough, malaise, weight loss, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia, hilar lymphadenopathy and palatal ulcers. What condition is this?

Answer 210

Disseminated TB

Question 211

What is the treatment for PCP?

Answer 211

TMP-SMX

Question 212

What organs does CMV hit?

Answer 212

eyes, brain, GI, lungs

Question 213

Foamy macrophages with acid fast bacilli?

Answer 213

mycobacterium avium

Question 214

How do you treat mycobacterium avium?

Answer 214

Clarithromycin

Question 215

If i have an HIV+ patient with a CD4 cell count

Answer 215

Azithromycin

Question 216

What is the treatment for toxoplasmosis?

Answer 216

pyrimethamine+sulfadiazine

Question 217

What is the prophylactic treatment for toxoplasmosis?

Answer 217

TMP-SMX or pyrimethamine+dapsone

Question 218

If i have HIV and a CD4 cell count

Answer 218

PCP

Question 219

If i have HIV and a CD4 cell count

Answer 219

Toxoplasmosis

Question 220

If i have HIV and a CD4 cell count

Answer 220

Mycobacterium avium

Question 221

What condition gives you these 3 stages….1. painless transient papule or ulcer, 2. painfull swelling of inguinal nodes, 3. anal pruritus with discharge, rectal strictures, elepantiasis?

Answer 221

Lymphogranuloma venereum

Question 222

What is the treatment for chlamydia?

Answer 222

doxycycline

Question 223

What is Reiters syndrome?

Answer 223

conjunctivitis, urethritis, arthritis

Question 224

What is the treatment for gonorrhea?

Answer 224

ceftriaxone

Question 225

If i have a patient with a suspected UTI and increased urine pH what should i think of?

Answer 225

infection with proteus mirabilis

Question 226

What is the treatment for an uncomplicated UTI?

Answer 226

Nitrofurantoin or TMP-SMX 3-5days

Question 227

What is the treatment for a UTI in a pregnant woman?

Answer 227

Nitrofurantoin 3-7days

Question 228

What is the treatment for complicated UTI?

Answer 228

TMP=SMX or nitrofurantoin for 7-14days

Question 229

What is first line therapy for pyelonephritis?

Answer 229

Fluoroquinolones

Question 230

What is the first line chemoprophylaxis for chloroquine resistant malaria?

Answer 230

Mefloquine

Question 231

What happens if you give a patient with mono ampicillin?

Answer 231

They develop a maculopapular rash

Question 232

What rash starts on the wrists and ankles and spread centrally?

Answer 232

Rocky mountain spotted fever

Question 233

What is the imaging test of choice for osteomyelitis?

Answer 233

MRI

Question 234

Which immunosuppressant can cause gum hypertrophy?

Answer 234

cyclosporine

Question 235

What is the treatment for dermatitis herpatiformis?

Answer 235

Dapsone

Question 236

What condition could give you proximal muscle weakness in the lower extremities, difficulty ascending or descending stairs or rising from a seated position?

Answer 236

Polymyositis

Question 237

What condition gives you recurrent pyogenic infections at 6 months of age with decreased concentrations of IgG, IgA, IgM, and IgE along with decreased B cells?

Answer 237

Brutons agammaglobinemia

Question 238

What is the treatment for malignant otitis externa?

Answer 238

Ciprofloxacin

Question 239

What can give you envelope shaped crystals?

Answer 239

ethylene glycol poisoning

Question 240

What back condition is excerbated by exstension of the spine (standing and walking downhill) and relieved by flexion (sitting and walking uphill)?

Answer 240

Lumbar spinal stenosis

Question 241

What are the serious side effects associated with cyclophospamide?

Answer 241

hemorrhagic cystitis, bladder carcinoma, sterility and myelosuppression

Question 242

How can you prevent the toxic affects of cyclophosphamide?

Answer 242

hydration and MESNA

Question 243

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in nursing home residents?

Answer 243

Strep pneumo

Question 244

What is the treatment for bacterial meningitis in immunocompromised patients?

Answer 244

Vancomycin, ampicillin, cefepime

Question 245

What is the treatment for bleeding esophageal varices?

Answer 245

octreotide

Question 246

If you have a patient in pre-term labor and it is determined that her baby has bilateral renal agenesis what is the next step in management of the patient?

Answer 246

Allow spontaneous vaginal delivery because the condition is incompatible with life

Question 247

What condition can present after travel or being on a cruise ship and give you a pneumonia like illness with high fever, watery diarrhea, headache, confusion, and hyponatremia?

Answer 247

Legionella

Question 248

How do you treat legionella?

Answer 248

Fluoroquinolone

Question 249

What is advanced sleep phase disorder?

Answer 249

Inability to stay awake in the evening after 7pm. Leads to early morning insomnia

Question 250

What is delayed sleep phase syndrome?

Answer 250

Inability to fall asleep at normal bedtimes (10pm-midnight)

Question 251

What condition can give you acne with monomorphous erythematous papules distributed over the face, arms, and trunk with no open or closed comedones?

Answer 251

Sterid acne

Question 252

what is the main pathopysiologic mechanism underlying acne vulgaris?

Answer 252

Androgen excess

Question 253

When do you do hip ultrasound in a baby with hip dysplasia?

Answer 253

2wks-6months

Question 254

When do you do hip x-ray in a baby with hip dysplasia?

Answer 254

4-6months

Question 255

Which medication is contraindicated in cocaine induced chest pain?

Answer 255

Beta blockers

Question 256

What is the drug of choice for cocaine induced chest pain?

Answer 256

Nitrates or calcium channel blockers

Question 257

What condition can give you an IgM spike and hyperviscosity?

Answer 257

Waldenstroms macrogliobinemia

Question 258

Patient has difficulty reading fine print and has to hold reading material at an arms length in order to read them. What condition does he have?

Answer 258

Presbyopia

Question 259

What is the abnormality in presbyopia?

Answer 259

Loss of elasticity in the lens

Question 260

What eye problem gives you central visual field loss in a patient over age 50?

Answer 260

Age related macular degeneration

Question 261

What eye condition has increased lens opacity and difficulty with night vision and driving at night?

Answer 261

Cataracts

Question 262

What eye condition has elevated intraocular pressure, peripheral visual field defects followed by central visual loss?

Answer 262

Open angle glaucoma

Question 263

If a patient is determined to be legally brain dead do you need permission to take him off life support?

Answer 263

NO!

Question 264

What radiologic finding is associated with pseudogout?

Answer 264

Chondrocalcinosis

Question 265

What is the most common ear pathology in patient with HIV?

Answer 265

Serous otitis media

Question 266

What kind of shoulder injury give you an abducted arm that externally rotated?

Answer 266

Anterior shoulder injury

Question 267

What kind of shoulder injury gives you an adducted arm thats internally rotated?

Answer 267

Posterior disclocation

Question 268

What kind of injury do you get when you fall on an outstretched hand?

Answer 268

Colles fracture (distal radius)

Question 269

If you have a positive valgus stress test what does that tell you?

Answer 269

Medial collateral ligament tear

Question 270

If you have a positve varus stress test what does that tell you?

Answer 270

Lateral collateral ligament

Question 271

In a motor vehicle accident when you have a dashboard injury what conditions does that predispose you to?

Answer 271

Posterior disclocation of the hip and PCL injury

Question 272

What nerve can cause wrist drop?

Answer 272

Radial nerve

Question 273

What nerve can cause foot drop?

Answer 273

Peroneal nerve

Question 274

What nerve can cause claw hand?

Answer 274

ulnar nerve

Question 275

What nerve can be injured in a anterior shoulder disclocation?

Answer 275

Axillary nerve

Question 276

What condition causes pain with reptitive stress and resisted strength testing?

Answer 276

Tendinitis

Question 277

What condition can cause bowel or bladder dysfunction, impotence, and saddle area anesthesia?

Answer 277

cauda equina syndrome

Question 278

What is the treatment for a herniated disk?

Answer 278

NSAIDS

Question 279

What condition gives you lower back pain that radiates to the arms, buttocks, and legs and improves upon flexion at the hips?

Answer 279

Spinal stenosis

Question 280

What condition can give you a soap buble appearance x-ray?

Answer 280

Giant cell tumor of bone

Question 281

What is the treatment for an acute attack of gout?

Answer 281

NSAIDS

Question 282

Whats a side effect of hydroxychloroquine?

Answer 282

retinal toxicity

Question 283

What condition gives you splenomegaly, rheumatoid arthritis and neutropenia?

Answer 283

Felty syndrome

Question 284

Which joint is spared in RA but is present in OA?

Answer 284

DIP joint

Question 285

What endocarditis is associated with lupus?

Answer 285

libman Sacks endocarditis

Question 286

What is the treatment for Raynauds phenomenon?

Answer 286

Calcium channel blockers

Question 287

What is the treatment for fibromyalgia?

Answer 287

Antidepressant

Question 288

What condition causes pain and stiffness in the shoulder and pelvic girdles?

Answer 288

polymalgia rheumatica

Question 289

What is the treatment for polymalgia rheumatica?

Answer 289

Steroids

Question 290

What condition presents in a kid with arthritis and evanescent salmon colored rash?

Answer 290

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Question 291

What is the time frame to use tPA in a stroke?

Answer 291

within 3hrs from onset of symptoms

Question 292

How do you treat increased ICP?

Answer 292

Mannitol and hyperventilation raising the head of the bed

Question 293

In the setting of severe hypertension or hemorrhagic stroke what is the treatment?

Answer 293

IV labetalol or nicardipine

Question 294

If you have 100% occlusion of a carotid artery should you do a carotid endarterectomy?

Answer 294

NO!!!!

Question 295

What is the single greatest risk factor for stroke?

Answer 295

HTN

Question 296

What kind of condition can cause pseudodementia in the elderly?

Answer 296

subdural hematoma

Question 297

If you have an intracerebral hemorrhage and start to develop a fixed dilated pupil that goes down and out what should you think of?

Answer 297

Uncal herniation

Question 298

What neurotransmitter is associated with migraine headaches?

Answer 298

Serotonin

Question 299

red wine in a young female is a trigger for what condition?

Answer 299

migraine

Question 300

How do you prophylactically treat a migraine headache?

Answer 300

Anticonvulsants, beta blockers, CCB, TCA’s

Question 301

If you have already developed a migraine headache what is the treatment?

Answer 301

NSAIDS or triptans

Question 302

What bacteria is the most common cause of carvernous sinus thrombosis?

Answer 302

Staph aureus

Question 303

What is the imaging test of choice for cavernous sinus thrombosis?

Answer 303

MRI

Question 304

What kind of seizure has progressive jerking of body regions, hallucinations, but no loss of consciousness?

Answer 304

Simple partial seizure

Question 305

What kind of seizure has episodes of lip smacking associated with impaired level of consciousness followed by confusion?

Answer 305

Complex partial seizure

Question 306

What is the treatment of choice for partial seizures?

Answer 306

phenobarbital

Question 307

What is the treatment for acute seizures lasting longer than 2 minutes?

Answer 307

benzodiazepine

Question 308

What is the treatment for generalized tonic clonic seizures?

Answer 308

Phenytoin

Question 309

What condition gives you a 3 second spike and wave discharge pattern?

Answer 309

Absent seizure

Question 310

What is the first line treatment for an absent seizure?

Answer 310

Ethosuximide

Question 311

What is the second line treatment for an absent seizure?

Answer 311

Valproic acid

Question 312

How do you induce an absent seizure?

Answer 312

hyperventilation

Question 313

What conditions gives the following EEG finding…. hypsarrhythmia?

Answer 313

infantile spasm

Question 314

What is the treatment for infantile spasm?

Answer 314

ACTH

Question 315

What condition gives you an EEG finding of slow spike and wave complexes?

Answer 315

Lenox-Gastaut syndrome

Question 316

What is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?

Answer 316

Condition where you get episodic short lived vertigo and nystagmus induced by postitional head changes. Not associated with nausea or vomiting

Question 317

What is the abnormality in benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?

Answer 317

dislodged otolith

Question 318

What is the treatment for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?

Answer 318

Modified Epley maneuver

Question 319

What condition can give you recurrent vertigo with auditory symptoms?

Answer 319

Menieres disease

Question 320

What condition can give you acute onset of severe vertigo, gait instability, nausea, vomiting and nytstagmus?

Answer 320

Acute vestibular neuritis or labyrinthitis

Question 321

What condition causes recurrent vertigo without auditory symptoms?

Answer 321

Vestibular migraine

Question 322

What condition gives you proximal muscle weakness that gets worse as the day progresses. Also has dysarthria, dysphagia, ptosis and double vision?

Answer 322

Myasthenia Gravis

Question 323

What are some associated finding with mysthenia gravis?

Answer 323

thyrotoxicosis and thymoma

Question 324

What is the diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis?

Answer 324

Edrophonium (tensilon) test

Question 325

What is the treatment for myasthenia gravis?

Answer 325

pyridostigmine

Question 326

What type of multiple sclerosis gives you the best prognosis?

Answer 326

relapsing and remitting

Question 327

What is the treatment for multiple sclerosis?

Answer 327

interferon

Question 328

What is the treatment for acute excerbations for multiple sclerosis?

Answer 328

Corticosteroids

Question 329

How do you diagnose guillian-barre syndrome?

Answer 329

nerve conduction studies and CSF with elevated proteins

Question 330

What is the treatment for guillian-barre syndrome?

Answer 330

Plasmapheresis and IVIG

Question 331

What is the most common cause of death in alzheimers patients?

Answer 331

aspiration pneumonia or other infections

Question 332

How do you definitively diagnose alzheimers disease?

Answer 332

autopsy

Question 333

What condition causes significant changes in behavior and personality?

Answer 333

Picks disease

Question 334

Whats abnormal in Picks disease?

Answer 334

Atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes

Question 335

What condition gives you myoclonic jerks, ataxia and dementia?

Answer 335

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Question 336

What is the inheritance for hungtington disease?

Answer 336

Autosomal dominant

Question 337

bilateral hand tremor is associated with what condition?

Answer 337

Essential tremor

Question 338

What is the inheritance for neurofibromatosis?

Answer 338

Autosomal dominant

Question 339

What chromosomes can you find defect on for neurofibromatosis 1 and 2?

Answer 339

Chromosome 17 and 22

Question 340

What are some symptoms of neurofibromatosis type 1?

Answer 340

cafe au lait spots, optic glioma, lisch nodules, neurofibromas

Question 341

Bilateral acoustic neuromas are associated with what condition?

Answer 341

Neurofibromatosis type 2

Question 342

What condition is associated with ash-leaf spots, mental retardation and convulsive seizures?

Answer 342

Tuberous sclerosis

Question 343

What heart condition is associated with tuberous sclerosis?

Answer 343

Rhabdomyoma

Question 344

What is the dominant hemisphere?

Answer 344

left hemisphere

Question 345

Where is broca’s area located?

Answer 345

posterior inferior frontal gyrus

Question 346

In Brocas aphasia what happens to repetition?

Answer 346

Repetition is impaired

Question 347

Where is the defect in Wernickes’s aphasia?

Answer 347

posterior superior temporal gyrus

Question 348

A hard dilated painful red eye is associated with what condition?

Answer 348

closed angle glaucoma

Question 349

What medication should you avoid in closed angle glaucoma?

Answer 349

Atropine

Question 350

Headaches triggered by darkness is associated with what condition?

Answer 350

closed angle glaucoma

Question 351

A fundoscopic exam that shows cupping of the disc and loss of peripheral vision is associated with what condition?

Answer 351

open angle glaucoma

Question 352

What is the diagnostic test for open angle glaucoma?

Answer 352

Tonometry

Question 353

What condition is associated with a cherry red spot and sudden painless unilateral blindness?

Answer 353

Central retinal artery occlusion

Question 354

When should you hear fetal heart tones?

Answer 354

10-12wks

Question 355

When should you appreciate fetal movement?

Answer 355

17-18wks

Question 356

When is ultrasound most reliable to determine gestational age?

Answer 356

first trimester

Question 357

When can you start to see a intrauterine pregnancy on ultrasound?

Answer 357

B-hCG of 1000-1500

Question 358

When should you get a B-hCG level?

Answer 358

1. Diagnose pregnancy
2. Diagnose and follow ectopic pregnancy
3. monitor trophoblastic disease
4. Screen for fetal aneuploidy

Question 359

How is the renal flow and GFR affected in pregnancy?

Answer 359

Both increases

Question 360

How much folic acid is needed to prevent neural tube defects in a lady with history of neural tube defects in previous pregnancy?

Answer 360

4mg

Question 361

How much folic acid is needed in pregnant women?

Answer 361

0.4mg

Question 362

On your initial OB visit what test are you ordering?

Answer 362

CBC, Rh factor, type and screen, UA and culture, rubella antibody titer, HBsAg, RPR/VDRL, gonorrhea and chlamydia, PPD, HIV, Pap smear, tay-sachs and cystic fibrosis

Question 363

When should the Quad screen be offered?

Answer 363

15-22wks

Question 364

When do you do the glucose tolerance test in pregnancy?

Answer 364

24-28wks

Question 365

When do you do the RhoGAM for Rh- women?

Answer 365

28wks

Question 366

When do you do the GBS culture?

Answer 366

35-40wks

Question 367

What does the QUAD screen consist of?

Answer 367

1. MSAFP
2. Inhibin A
3. B-hCG
4. Estriol

Question 368

What is the QUAD screen useful for?

Answer 368

Detecting chromosomal abnormalities

Question 369

What things can cause an elevated AFP level?

Answer 369

neural tube defects, incorrect dating, abdominal wall defects, fetal death, multiple gestation, placental abruption

Question 370

What things can cause a reduced AFP?

Answer 370

Trisomy 21 and 18, incorrect dating, fetal demise

Question 371

What is PAPP-A?

Answer 371

This is an associated pregancy protein that is screened for at 9-14wks that can detect trisomy 18 and 21

Question 372

What would the quad screen show for a patient with down syndrome?

Answer 372

1. AFP decreased
2. Estriol decreased
3. B-hCG increased
4. Inhibin A increased

Question 373

What would the quad screen show for a patient with edwards syndrome?

Answer 373

1. AFP decreased
2. Estriol decreased
3. B-hCG decreased
4. Inhibin A decreased

Question 374

What is chorionic villus sampling?

Answer 374

Test done around 10-12wks gestation where you aspirate placental tissue for genetic diagnosis.

Question 375

What is amniocentesis?

Answer 375

Test done around 15-20wks gestation where you aspirate amniotic fluid for genetic diagnosis.

Question 376

When is an amniocentesis indicated?

Answer 376

1. Advanced maternal age(>35)
2. RH sensitized pregnancy
3. Abnormal quad screen
4. determine fetal lung maturity

Question 377

What is a spontaneous abortion?

Answer 377

Loss of pregnancy prior to 20th wk of pregnancy

Question 378

What is the most common cause of first trimester spontaneous abortion?

Answer 378

chromosomal abnormalities

Question 379

What torch infection gives you periventricular calcifications?

Answer 379

CMV

Question 380

What torch infection gives you blueberry muffin purpuric rash, hearing loss and cataracts?

Answer 380

Rubella

Question 381

What torch infection gives you hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, and intracranial calcifications?

Answer 381

Toxoplasmosis

Question 382

What torch infection gives failure to thrive, bacterial infections and increase incidence of upper and lower respiratory tract infections?

Answer 382

HIV

Question 383

What torch infection gives you snuffles, saddle nise, maculopapular rash, and hepatomegaly?

Answer 383

Syphilis

Question 384

What is the treatment for an incomplete spontaneous abortion?

Answer 384

manual aspiration or a D&C

Question 385

What is the treatment for intrauterine fetal demise?

Answer 385

Induce labor

Question 386

What is the management of HSV in a pregnant women in the third trimester?

Answer 386

If the patient has active lesions upon delivery then perform a C-section

Question 387

How many cm is the active stage of labor?

Answer 387

4cm-10cm

Question 388

What are the stages of labor?

Answer 388

1. Onset of cervical dilation
2. Complete cervical dilation until the delivery of the baby
3. Delivery of baby until the delivery of placenta

Question 389

What are some reasons for fetal bradycardia on heart rate monitor?

Answer 389

Cord prolapse, uterine hyperstimulations, and rapid fetal descent

Question 390

What are some reasons for fetal tachycardia on heart rate monitor?

Answer 390

maternal fever, hypoxia, fetal anemia

Question 391

What is a normal reactive non stress test?

Answer 391

Greater than 2 accelerations of 15bpm above baseline lasting for 15 seconds over a period of 20minutes

Question 392

If you have a nonreactive stress test what is the next step in management?

Answer 392

Biophysical profile

Question 393

What is a biophysical profile?

Answer 393

A test that uses a real time ultrasound to assign a score measuring fetal tone, fetal breathing, amniotic fluid, movement, and NST

Question 394

What is the amniotic fluid value for oligohydramnois?

Answer 394

AFI

Question 395

If morning sickness persists beyond the first trimester what condition should you think of?

Answer 395

hyperemesis gravidarum

Question 396

What are some causes of hyperemesis gravidarum?

Answer 396

Multiple gestations, first pregnancy, or molar pregnancy

Question 397

What is the next step in management if you suspect a patient to have hyperemesis gravidarum?

Answer 397

rule out molar pregnancy with ultrasound and BhCG

Question 398

What is considered abnormal for a 50gram glucose tolerance test performed at 24-28wks gestation?

Answer 398

> 140mg/dL

Question 399

If you have an abnormal 50gram glucose tolerance test what is the next step in management?

Answer 399

Confirm with a 3hr 100gram oral glucose tolerance test

Question 400

What are the abnormal valies for a 3hr 100 gram oral glucose tolerance test?

Answer 400

1. Fasting >95
2. 1hr >180
3. 2hr >155
4. 3hr> 140

Question 401

What are the goal glucose numbers for a patient with gestational diabetes?

Answer 401

Fasting

Question 402

What is the most common complication for a pregnant women with uncontrolled pregestational diabetes?

Answer 402

congenital malformations

Question 403

What if a patient is a prediabetic and is pregnant what are her glucose goals?

Answer 403

Fasting is

Question 404

What is the cutoff to be diagnosed as gestational HTN?

Answer 404

HTN that develops >20wks gestation

Question 405

What are the appropriate HTN medications to use in pregnancy?

Answer 405

Methyladopa, labetalol, nifedipine

Question 406

What is preeclampsia?

Answer 406

Condition in pregnancy occurring after 20wks gestation where the patient develops HTN, proteinuria and edema

Question 407

What is the cutoff to be determined to have proteinuria associated with preeclampsia?

Answer 407

> 300mg

Question 408

What are the characteristics of severe preeclampsia?

Answer 408

1. BP >160/110
2. proteinuria >5g
3. headache
4. blurred vision
5. HELLP syndrome
6. RUQ pain
7. Clonus

Question 409

What are some signs of magnesium toxicity?

Answer 409

Loss of DTRs, respiratory paralysis and coma

Question 410

How do you treat magnesium toxicity?

Answer 410

IV calcium gluconate

Question 411

What is the karotype for a complete molar pregnancy?

Answer 411

46XX

Question 412

Which molar pregnancy contains fetal tissue?

Answer 412

Incomplete molar pregnancy

Question 413

What is the karotype for incomplete molar pregnancy?

Answer 413

69XXY

Question 414

Which molar pregnancy does not contain fetal tissue?

Answer 414

complete molar pregnancy

Question 415

A snowstorm appearance on pelvic ultrasound is characteristic of what condition?

Answer 415

Molar pregnancy

Question 416

What is considered postpartum hemorrhage?

Answer 416

> 500ml for vaginal deliveries

>1000ml for C-section

Question 417

What is the management for severe postpartum hemorrhage?

Answer 417

uterine artery embolization

Question 418

What condition causes hypogonadotropin deficiency and anosmia?

Answer 418

Kallman syndrome

Question 419

What is the age for premature menopause

Answer 419

before age 40

Question 420

What is the diagnostic test sequence for a patient with suspected secondary amenorrhea?

Answer 420

1. pregnancy test
2. TSH/prolactin
3. progestin challenge

Question 421

What is the meaning of a progestin challenge test coming back positive?

Answer 421

Means there is anovulation.

Question 422

What is the meaning of a progestin challenge test coming back negative?

Answer 422

Means there is estrogen deficiency

Question 423

The classic triad of pain, menorrhagia, and enlarged uterus is associated with what condition?

Answer 423

Adenomyosis

Question 424

What is the test of choice for endometriosis?

Answer 424

Laparoscopy or laparotomy

Question 425

What is the treatment for endometriosis?

Answer 425

OCPs

Question 426

What is the most common complication of endometriosis?

Answer 426

Infertility

Question 427

What is treatment for menorrhagia?

Answer 427

OCPs or mirena IUD

Question 428

A young female presents with a fever and abdominal pain with a positive chandelier sign what condition are these symptoms associated with?

Answer 428

Tubo-ovarian abscess

Question 429

What is the most common complication of tamoxifen therpay?

Answer 429

Endometrial cancer

Question 430

If your pap smear shows ASCUS what is the next step in management?

Answer 430

HPV test

Question 431

If your pap smear shows ASCUS and you do a HPV test and it comes back negative what is the next step in management?

Answer 431

repeat pap smear in 1yr

Question 432

If your pap smear shows ASCUS and you do a HPV test and it comes back positive what is the next step in management?

Answer 432

Colposcopy

Question 433

What is urinary incontinence caused by coughing, sneezing or lifting?

Answer 433

Stress incontinence

Question 434

What is the treatment for urinary stress incontinence?

Answer 434

Pessary, kegal exercises and vaginal vault suspension surgery

Question 435

What kind of urinary incontinence is caused presented by a strong urge to void?

Answer 435

Urge incontinence

Question 436

What is the treatment for urge incontinence?

Answer 436

Anticholinergics or TCAs

Question 437

What type of urinary incontinence is presented by chronic urinary retension?

Answer 437

Overflow incontinence

Question 438

What is the treatment for overflow incontinence?

Answer 438

Urethral catheter

Question 439

What breast condition causes bloody nipple discharge?

Answer 439

Intraductal papilloma

Question 440

What is the screening test for a female under 30 who presents with a breast mass?

Answer 440

Ultrasound

Question 441

If you have a HER2/neu positive cancer what is the treatment?

Answer 441

Trastuzumab

Question 442

If you have a estrogen and progesterone positive breast cancer what is the treatment?

Answer 442

Tamoxifen

Question 443

What is the prophylactic treatment for a transplant patient against opportunistic infections?

Answer 443

TMP-SMX

Question 444

What are the PFT finding is COPD?

Answer 444

1. decreased FEV1/FVC ratio
2. normal-decreased FVC
3. normal -increased TLC
4. decreased DLco

Question 445

What drugs can cause interstitial lung disease?

Answer 445

Amiodarone, bleomycin, and nitrofurantoin

Question 446

What is the treatment for sarcoidosis?

Answer 446

steroids

Question 447

eggshell calcifications are associated with what condition?

Answer 447

silicosis

Question 448

What is a complication of silicosis?

Answer 448

TB

Question 449

What is the treatment for ARDS?

Answer 449

PEEP

Question 450

popcorn calcification are associated with what?

Answer 450

benign lung nodule

Question 451

What condition can cause hypovolemia and a high normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure in a MVA and after fluid resusciation the PCWP increases but does not correct the blood pressure?

Answer 451

Myocardial contusion

Question 452

What are the lab results for polymalgia rheumatica?

Answer 452

Elevated ESR and CRP

Question 453

What is the treatment for vaginal canidiasis?

Answer 453

Fluconazole

Question 454

If you have a patient with abnormal quad screen results suggesting down syndrome, what is the next step in management of the patient?

Answer 454

Ultrasound to assess amniotic fluid and fetal growth or malformations

Question 455

What is cell free dna testing?

Answer 455

Used for patient with abnormal quad screen results

Question 456

What test are good for fetal karotyping in pregnancy?

Answer 456

CVS and amniocentesis

Question 457

Where are medulloblastomas located?

Answer 457

cerebellar vermis

Question 458

What are some complications of PEEP therapy?

Answer 458

1. alveolar damage
2. tension pneumothorax
3. hypotension

Question 459

What affect does PEEP therapy have on FRC?

Answer 459

increases FRC

Question 460

If you have mildly elevated TSH levels and normal circulating thyroid hormones what condition should you be worried about?

Answer 460

subclinical hypothyroidism

Question 461

If you have elevated thyroid hormones with normal TSH levels what condition should you be worried about?

Answer 461

Generalized resistance to thyroid hormones

Question 462

If you have high levels of TSH and low levels of circulating thyroid hormones what condition should you be worried about?

Answer 462

Primary hypothyroidism

Question 463

If you have low or inappropriately normal levels of TSH and low levels of thyroid hormones what condition should you be worried about?

Answer 463

secondary/tetriary hypothyroidism

Question 464

If a patient has a chronic scar with a nonhealing painless bleeding ulcer what condition should you think of?

Answer 464

Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 465

What is the next diagnostic step for sqamous cell carcinoma of the skin?

Answer 465

Punch, shave, or excisional biopsy

Question 466

What eye condition presents with loss of fundus details a sudden loss of vision and onset of floaters?

Answer 466

Vitreous hemorrhage

Question 467

What is the most common cause of vitreous hemorrhage?

Answer 467

Diabetic retinopathy

Question 468

What cardiac enzyme is useful to detect reinfarctions?

Answer 468

CK-MB

Question 469

Target sign of x-ray/ultrasound is associated with what condition?

Answer 469

intussusception

Question 470

If you have a newborn with feeding intolerance, lethargy abdominal distension and bloody stools what condition should you suspect?

Answer 470

necrotizing enterocolitis

Question 471

If a patient has symptoms suggestive of BPH what is the diagnostic test that should be ordered?

Answer 471

urinalysis

Question 472

What is a normal rhinne test?

Answer 472

AC>BC

Question 473

What does it suggest if you have an abnormal rhinne test?

Answer 473

BC>AC and you have conductive hearing loss

Question 474

With a webber test how do you determine if the test is normal?

Answer 474

If the sound is equal in both ears

Question 475

With a webber test how do you determine if you have conductive hearing loss?

Answer 475

The sound lateralizes to the affected ear

Question 476

With a webber test how do you determine if you have a sensineural hearing loss?

Answer 476

The sound is heard louder in the opposite ear

Question 477

What is the most common pathogen implicated in a subacute (>3months) prosthetic joint infection?

Answer 477

Staph epidermis

Question 478

What is the most common pathogen implicated in a acute (

Answer 478

Staph aureus

Question 479

What condition presents with a patient who has a history of normal skin at birth that gradually progresses to dry scaly skin?

Answer 479

ichthyosis vulgaris

Question 480

What causes vitiligo?

Answer 480

Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes

Question 481

What exam finding can still be observed in a patient who is brai dead?

Answer 481

Deep tendon reflexes

Question 482

What are the inhalation injuries you should suspect in house fires?

Answer 482

carbon monoxide and cyanide posioning

Question 483

What is the antidote for cyanide poisoning?

Answer 483

hydroxocobalamin or sodium thiosulfate

Question 484

Vesicles and erosions on the dorsum of the hands are characteristic of what condition?

Answer 484

Porphyria cutanea tarda

Question 485

If you have a patient with porphyria cutanea tarda what disease should you be screening for?

Answer 485

Hepatitis C

Question 486

Essential mixed cryoglobulinemia is associated with what underlying disease?

Answer 486

Hepatitis C

Question 487

What is the most likely cause of edema when a patient has edema while the leg is dependent but improves when the leg is elevated?

Answer 487

Venous valve incompetence

Question 488

What affect does antipsychotics have on prolactin?

Answer 488

Antipsychotics are dopamine blockers and dopamine blockers cause increase prolactin

Question 489

What is the treatment for stress incontinence?

Answer 489

Kegal exercises and urethropexy

Question 490

What is the treatment for urge incontinence?

Answer 490

Oxybutynin therapy

Question 491

What is the abnormality in urge incontinence?

Answer 491

detrusor hyperactivity

Question 492

What is the abnormality in stress incontinence?

Answer 492

dysfunction or urethral sphincter

Question 493

What is the treatment for overflow incontinence?

Answer 493

Bethanechol or alpha blockers

Question 494

If you have a patient in a MVA who has chest pain and once you give IV fluids there hpoxemia worsens what condition should you suspect?

Answer 494

Pulmonary contusion

Question 495

What is the treatment for sarcodosis?

Answer 495

steroids

Question 496

Loss of pain and temperature sensation in a cape-like distribution and upper extremity weakness is associated with what condition?

Answer 496

Syringomyelia (fluid filled cavity in spinal cord)

Question 497

Between folate and B12 which one depletes faster if it is lacking in the diet?

Answer 497

Folate

Question 498

What is the treatment for lactation suppression?

Answer 498

Tight fitting bra and ice packs and pain medication

Question 499

Delayed closure of anterior fontanelle, bony prominences of costochondral junctions, genu varum, and pliable skull bones without step offs are associated with what condition?

Answer 499

Rickets

Question 500

What are some risk factors for rickets?

Answer 500

exclusive breastfeeding, increased skin pigmentation and decreased sun exposure

Question 501

The term cor pulmonale refers to what?

Answer 501

Right heart failure

Question 502

HIT predisposes you to what complication?

Answer 502

arterial thrombosis

Question 503

Clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina and cervix are associated with what?

Answer 503

In utero exposure to DES

Question 504

bite cells and heinz bodies are associated with what condition?

Answer 504

glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

Question 505

Doughy skin is a symptom of what condition?

Answer 505

Hypernatremia

Question 506

Which electrolyte abnormality can cause hypokalemia?

Answer 506

Hypomagnesemia

Question 507

Which electrolyte abnormality has a characteristic prolonged QT interval?

Answer 507

hypocalcemia

Question 508

What are some characteristic symptoms of hypomagnesemia?

Answer 508

hyperactive reflexes, seizures, arrhythmias

Question 509

What is the treatment for RTA type 1?

Answer 509

replace bicarbonate

Question 510

What is the treatment for RTA type 2?

Answer 510

thiazide diuretic

Question 511

What is different about RTA type 4?

Answer 511

Its caused by aldosterone defciency or resistance, you get acidic urine and you get hyperkalemia

Question 512

If you have white cells and eosinophils in your urine what condition should you think of?

Answer 512

acute interstitall nephritis

Question 513

If you have red blood cell casts or dysmophic red blood cells in your urine what condition should you think of?

Answer 513

glomerulonephritis

Question 514

If you have granular casts, renal tubular cells or muddy brown casts in your urine what condition should you think of?

Answer 514

Acute tubular necrosis

Question 515

If you have white cells and white cell casts in your urine what condition should you think of?

Answer 515

pyelonephritis

Question 516

If you have hyaline cast in your urine what should you think of?

Answer 516

normal urine sediment or volume depletion

Question 517

What are these values for someone with prerenal azotemia? BUN/CR, Fractional Na, urine sodium, urine osmality

Answer 517

1. BUN/Cr- >20:1

2. fractional Na- 500

Question 518

What are these values for someone with acute tubular necrosis? BUN/CR, Fractional Na, urine sodium, urine osmality

Answer 518

1. BUN/Cr- 1%
2. Urine Na- >20
3. Urine osmolality-

Question 519

Which glomerular disease gives you a low C3 level?

Answer 519

post strep glomerulonephritis

Question 520

What is the treatment for Wegeners granulomatosis?

Answer 520

steroids

Question 521

Histology shows linear anti-GBM deposits?

Answer 521

Goodpastures syndrome

Question 522

Prescence of c-ANCA?

Answer 522

wegners granulomatosis

Question 523

Histology shows fusion of epithelial foot processes?

Answer 523

minimal change disease

Question 524

What is the treatment for minimal change disease?

Answer 524

steroids

Question 525

What nephrotic syndrome is associated with IV drug abuse and HIV?

Answer 525

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

Question 526

Histology shows spike and dome pattern and associated with hep B virus?

Answer 526

Membranous nephropathy

Question 527

Histology shows tram track appearance?

Answer 527

membranoproliferative nephropathy

Question 528

Staghorn calculi are associated with what kind of stones and whats the etiology?

Answer 528

Struvite stones from proteus

Question 529

Which kind of stones do you want to alkalinize the urine for?

Answer 529

uric acid and cystine stones

Question 530

Which stones are radiolucent?

Answer 530

uric acid stones

Question 531

Which stones have hexagonal crystals and positive urinary cyanide nitroprusside test?

Answer 531

cystine stones

Question 532

What is the imaging test of choice for adult polycystic kidney disease?

Answer 532

Ultrasound

Question 533

What is the diagnostic test for hydronephrosis?

Answer 533

ultrasound

Question 534

If you have a male infant with a distended palpable bladder and low urine output what condition should you suspect?

Answer 534

Posterior urethral valves

Question 535

When should you order a VCUG?

Answer 535

1. Any boy presenting with first UTI

2. Any girl

Question 536

What is cryptorchidism?

Answer 536

Failure of 1 or both testes to descend into the scrotum

Question 537

Does cryptorchidism have an increased risk for testicular malignancy?

Answer 537

YES!!!

Question 538

What is the treatment for cryptorchidism?

Answer 538

Orchiopexy by 6-12months

Question 539

Does bringing the testes into the scrotum decrease the risk of testicular cancer in cryptorchidism?

Answer 539

NO!!!

Question 540

Patient comes in with painless scrotal swelling and the scrotum transilluminates. Whats the diagnosis?

Answer 540

Hydrocele

Question 541

Patient comes in with painless scrotal swelling and the scrotum has a bag of worms appearance. It does not transilluminate. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 541

Varicocele

Question 542

Patient comes in with painful scrotal swelling and the pain is relieved by elevating the scrotum. What condition is this?

Answer 542

Epididymitis

Question 543

Patient comes in with painful scrotal swelling and the pain is not relieved by elevating the scrotum. What condition is this?

Answer 543

Testicular torsion

Question 544

Which scrotal swelling condition give you loss of the cremasteric reflex?

Answer 544

testicular torsion

Question 545

What medications can cause erectile dysfunction?

Answer 545

Beta blockers, SSRIs, TCA, diuretics

Question 546

What is the recommended screening method for prostate cancer?

Answer 546

Annual DRE after age 50

Question 547

What kind of cancer is bladder carcinoma?

Answer 547

Transitional cell carcinoma

Question 548

What is the imaging test of choice for bladder cancer?

Answer 548

cystoscopy

Question 549

Older man presents with hematuria, flank pain and a flank mass. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 549

renal cell carcinoma

Question 550

B-hCG in a male is characteristic of what?

Answer 550

testicular choriocarcinoma

Question 551

What is the treatment for a seminoma?

Answer 551

Chemotherapy

Question 552

What fracture are pathognemomic for child abuse in kids?

Answer 552

Spiral fracture of humerus and femur, bucket fracture (jerking arms), posterior rib fracture (squeezing chest)

Question 553

What can you find on opthalmologic exam that can point you towards child abuse?

Answer 553

retinal hemorrhages

Question 554

Which congenital heart defect presents with severe cyanosis within the first few hours of life?

Answer 554

Transposition of the great vessels

Question 555

What is the most common cause of congenital heart disease?

Answer 555

VSD

Question 556

What is the most common cyanotic congenital heart lesion in the newborn?

Answer 556

Transposition of the great vessels

Question 557

What has to happen for transposition of the great vessels to be compatible with life?

Answer 557

Have to have a PDA and VSD or ASD

Question 558

What are the risk factors for transposition of the great vessels?

Answer 558

diabetic mother and digeorge syndrome

Question 559

What is digeorge syndrome?

Answer 559

1. Cardiac anomlies
2. abnormal facies
3. Thymic aplasia
4. cleft palate
5. hypocalcemia
6. 22q11 deletion

Question 560

What is the most common cyanotic congenital heart disease in children?

Answer 560

Tetralogy of fallot

Question 561

What would you see on CXR for a newborn with transposition of the great vessels?

Answer 561

egg on the side

Question 562

What is the treatment for transposition of the great vessels?

Answer 562

prostaglandin to keep the PDA open

Question 563

What are the 4 anomalies of tetralogy of fallot?

Answer 563

1. Pulmonic stenosis
2. Overriding aorta
3. right ventricular hypertrophy
4. VSD

Question 564

What is the normal growth pattern for infants?

Answer 564

1. Double weight by 4-5months
2. Triple weight by 1yr
3. Quadruple weight by 2yrs

Question 565

What is the age of onset of puberty in girls?

Answer 565

10-12yrs

Question 566

What is the age of onset of puberty in boys?

Answer 566

12-14yrs

Question 567

What is the age of precocious puberty for boys?

Question 568

What is the age of precocious puberty for girls?

Question 569

What is klinefelters syndrome?

Answer 569

Condition of hypogonadism in males with a 47XXY that presents with testicular atrophy, gynecomastia, tall stature, and female hair distribution

Question 570

What is the most common cause of primary amenorrhea?

Answer 570

Turners syndrome

Question 571

What is the abnormality in PKU?

Answer 571

decreased phenyalanine hydroxylase

Question 572

What is the abnormality and symptoms in Nieman-Pick disease?

Answer 572

deficiency in sphingomyelinase with symptoms of cherry red spot and hepatosplenomegaly

Question 573

What is the abnormality in Tay-Sachs disease and what are the symptoms?

Answer 573

Lysosomal storage disease caused by a deficiency in hexosaminidase presents with slowed development and regression and cherry red spot

Question 574

little kid presents with colicky abdominal pain, vomiting and bloody stool. What condition are you thinking of?

Answer 574

Intussusception

Question 575

What is the test of choice for intussusception?

Answer 575

Ultrasound

Question 576

What would the ultrasound show for intussusception?

Answer 576

target sign

Question 577

What is the pathognemonic physical exam finding for intussusception?

Answer 577

sausage shaped abdominal mass in the RUQ

Question 578

What is the treatment for intussusception?

Answer 578

Air constrast enema

Question 579

What medication can cause pyloric stenosis?

Answer 579

erythromycin

Question 580

What is the imaging test of choice for pyloric stenosis?

Answer 580

ultrasound

Question 581

A little kid presents with sudden intermittent painless rectal bleeding…what condition are you suspecting?

Answer 581

Meckels diverticulum

Question 582

What is the imaging test of choice for meckels diverticulum?

Answer 582

Technitium 99 scan

Question 583

What is the imaging test of choice for hirschsprung disease?

Answer 583

Barium enema

Question 584

How do you definitively diagnose hirschsprung disease?

Answer 584

rectal biopsy

Question 585

Baby presents in the first month of life with bilious vomiting and crampy abdominal pain, distention and passage of bloody stool. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 585

Malrotation

Question 586

What is the imaging test of choice for malroation?

Answer 586

upper GI series

Question 587

Pneumatosis intestinalis on abdominal x-ray is pathognomonic for what condition?

Answer 587

necrotizing enterocolitis

Question 588

What is the enzyme deficiency in SCID?

Answer 588

adenosine deaminase

Question 589

What is the treatment for chronic granulomatous disease?

Answer 589

TMP-SMX

Question 590

What condition can cause delayed separation of the umbilical cord?

Answer 590

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

Question 591

What immunodeficiency causes albinism, peripheral neuropathy, and neutropenia?

Answer 591

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

Question 592

What immunologic condition causes hyper IgE, eczema, and abscesses of the skin?

Answer 592

Job syndrome

Question 593

What is the treatment for kawasaki disease?

Answer 593

aspirin and IVIG

Question 594

What is the treatment for acute otitis media?

Answer 594

High dose amoxicillin

Question 595

What is laryngotracheobronchitis?

Answer 595

croup

Question 596

Patient comes in leaning forward in tripod position and has their neck hyperextended and the chin protruding…What condition are you suspecting?

Answer 596

epiglottis

Question 597

What is the management of epiglottis?

Answer 597

endotracheal intubation in the OR and IV antibiotics like ceftriaxone

Question 598

What is the gold standard for diagnosing pertussis?

Answer 598

culture

Question 599

What is the treatment for pertussis?

Answer 599

erythromycin

Question 600

Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis and koplik spots goes with what condition?

Answer 600

Measles

Question 601

Kid presents with high fever. After the fever subsides a maculopapular rash appears. What is the dianosis?

Answer 601

Roseola

Question 602

What causes roseola?

Answer 602

HHV-6 and 7

Question 603

What causes hand foot and mouth disease?

Answer 603

coxsackie A virus

Question 604

What APGAR score requires rescucitation?

Answer 604

0-3

Question 605

What causes RDS in infants?

Answer 605

surfactant deficiency

Question 606

Retained amniotic fluid and prominent perihilar streaking in interlobular fissures is associated with what condition?

Answer 606

transient tachypnea of the newborn

Question 607

Air bronchograms and ground glass appearance on CXR is characteristic of what condition?

Answer 607

RDS

Question 608

Double bubble sign on abdominal x-ray is associated with what condition?

Answer 608

duodenal atresia

Question 609

Child comes in with an abdominal mass that is painless and does not cross the midline, aniridia and hemihypertrophy. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 609

Wilms tumor

Question 610

Child comes in with a abdominal mass that crosses the midline, opsoclonus/myoclonus. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 610

neuroblastoma

Question 611

What is the best diagnostic step after suspecting neuroblastoma?

Answer 611

24hr urine VMA and HVA

Question 612

If a patient has leukocoria what does that suggest?

Answer 612

1. Retinoblastoma
2. Retinopathy of prematurity
3. Cataracts

Question 613

Strabismus becomes a problem after what age?

Answer 613

3months

Question 614

If you have a egg allergy what vaccine cant you receive?

Answer 614

MMR and influenza

Question 615

What are the live vaccines you should avoid in pregnant and immunocompromised patients?

Answer 615

1. Polio
2. Varicella
3. MMR

Question 616

What lives vaccines are okay to give HIV patients?

Answer 616

1. Varicella

2. MMR

Question 617

Abdominal pain, vomiting and wrist or foot drop are associated with what?

Answer 617

lead poisoning

Question 618

What does the peripheral blood smear show for lead poisoning?

Answer 618

microcytic hypochromic anemia and basophilic stippling

Question 619

What glascow coma scale number warrants intubation?

Question 620

Patient presents with absent breath sounds on one side, hypotension, distended neck veins, hypoxemia, and tracheal deviation. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 620

tension pneumothorax

Question 621

What is the next step in management after tension pneumothorax is suspected?

Answer 621

Needle decompression

Question 622

If you suspect urethral injury what is the test of choice?

Answer 622

retrograde urethrogram

Question 623

If a previously stable chest trauma patient suddenly dies what should you suspect?

Answer 623

air embolism

Question 624

If a new diastolic murmur presents after chest trauma what should you suspect?

Answer 624

aortic dissection

Question 625

What should you suspect if a patient comes in from a MVA and CT shows blurring and punctate hemorrhaging along the gray-white matter junction?

Answer 625

Diffuse axonal injury

Question 626

Patient presents with paradoxical movement of his chest upon inspiration. What condition should we suspect?

Answer 626

flial chest

Question 627

What is the treatment for flial chest?

Answer 627

oxygen and narcotics

Question 628

What is a positive kehrs sign?

Answer 628

This is when you have shoulder pain due to diaphragmatic irritation from a splenic rupture

Question 629

A burn that is painless, white and charred is what kind of burn?

Answer 629

third degree burn

Question 630

What layers are involved in a 3rd degree burn?

Answer 630

epidermis and full thickness dermis

Question 631

What layers of the skin are involved in a first degree burn?

Answer 631

epidermis

Question 632

A burn that is painful and has blisters present is what kind of burn?

Answer 632

second degree burn

Question 633

What layer of the skin is involved in a second degree burn?

Answer 633

epidermis and partial thickness of the dermis

Question 634

What is the parkland formula for burns?

Answer 634

fluids for the first 24hrs= 4xWeight in kg x %BSA

Question 635

What is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia?

Answer 635

dantrolene

Question 636

What are the cause of postop fevers?

Answer 636

1. WInd
2. Water
3. Walking
4. Wounds
5. Wonder drugs
6. Womb

Question 637

What is the treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

Answer 637

dantrolene

Question 638

What animals contain rabies?

Answer 638

skunks, racoons, foxes, bats

Question 639

What can induce malignant hyperthermia?

Answer 639

halothane

Question 640

What happens with cardiac output, PCWP, and PVR in hypovolemic shock?

Answer 640

1. CO= decreased
2. PCWP=decreased
3. PVR=increased

Question 641

What happens with cardiac output, PCWP, and PVR in cardiogenic shock?

Answer 641

1. CO= decreased
2. PCWP= increased
3. PVR= increased

Question 642

What happens with cardiac output, PCWP, and PVR in obstructive shock?

Answer 642

1. CO= decreased
2. PCWP= increased
3. PVR= increased

Question 643

What happens with cardiac output, PCWP, and PVR in septic shock?

Answer 643

1. CO=increased
2. PCWP= decreased
3. PVR= decreased

Question 644

What happens with cardiac output, PCWP, and PVR in anaphylactic shock?

Answer 644

1. CO= increased
2. PCWP decreased
3. PVR= decreased

Question 645

Which way does carbon monoxide move the hemoglobin-dissociation curve?

Answer 645

to the left

Question 646

What is the lab test you should look for if you are suspecting carbon monoxide poisoning?

Answer 646

carboxyhemoglobin

Question 647

Patient presents with ataxia, frquent falls, dysarthria, scoliosis and “hammer toe deformity”. What condition are you suspecting?

Answer 647

Friedreich ataxia

Question 648

What is the most common cause of death in Friedreich ataxia?

Answer 648

Cardiomyopathy

Question 649

What test can compare two means?

Answer 649

two-sample t test

Question 650

What test can compare three means?

Answer 650

ANOVA

Question 651

What is the recommendation for exercise in a pregnant patient?

Answer 651

moderate intensity exercise for atleast 30min 5-7days a week

Question 652

What exercise activities are unsafe in pregnancy?

Answer 652

1. contact sports
2. high risk falls
3. scuba diving
4. hot yoga

Question 653

Which antipsychotic has been implemented in cause high prolactin levels?

Answer 653

risperdone

Question 654

What is the karotype for a patient with complete androgen insensitivity?

Answer 654

46XY

Question 655

What is absent in a patient with complere androgen insensitivity?

Answer 655

uterus, vagina, axillary and pubic hair

Question 656

What is the karotype for mullerian agenesis?

Answer 656

46XX

Question 657

What is absent in mullerian agensis?

Answer 657

uterus and vagina

Question 658

In a patient with cryptorchid gonads, when should they undergp gonadectomy?

Answer 658

After puberty

Question 659

What kind of drug is odansetron and what is it useful for?

Answer 659

serotonin antagonist and its useful for chemotherapy induced nausea and vomiting

Question 660

What is the first step in management for a patient who presents with a stroke within 4hrs?

Answer 660

tPA

Question 661

What is the first step in management for a patient who presents with a stroke after 4hrs?

Answer 661

Aspirin

Question 662

What is the next step in management for a patient who presents with a recurrent stroke who is already taking aspirin?

Answer 662

give aspirin + dypyridamol or clopidogrel

Question 663

How do you calculate the anion gap?

Answer 663

Na- (bicarb+Cl)

Question 664

Pulsus paradoxus is associated with what heart condition?

Answer 664

cardiac tamponade

Question 665

Bounding pulses are associated with what heart condition?

Answer 665

aortic regurgitation

Question 666

Pulsus parvus et tardus is associated with what heart condition?

Answer 666

aortic stenosis

Question 667

What is the prophylactic treatment for rheumatic heart disease and how long should they be treated?

Answer 667

Penicillin. treatment should be for 10yrs or until the patient is 21

Question 668

If you have an elavated WBC count and elevated leukocyte alkaline phosphatase(LAP) what should you suspect?

Answer 668

Leukemoid reaction

Question 669

Whar causes molluscum contagiosum?

Answer 669

Poxvirus

Question 670

What are some ways you can prevent recurrent kidney stones?

Answer 670

1. reduce sodium intake
2. reduce protein intake
3. normal calcium intake
4. thiazide diuretic
5. alkalinization of urine
6. reduce oxalate
7. increase fluids
8. allopurinol

Question 671

What is the managment for pheochromocytoma?

Answer 671

First give alpha blocker then beta blocker

Question 672

What is the mutation for the most severe form of neurofibromatosis type 2?

Answer 672

nonsense mutation

Question 673

What is the mutation for the milder form of neurofibromatosis type 2?

Answer 673

missense

Question 674

What is the treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

Answer 674

Carbamazepine

Question 675

What is the imaging test for suspected shaken baby syndrome?

Answer 675

nonconstrast CT scan

Question 676

What condition can cause a abdominal succussion splash?

Answer 676

pyloric stricture

Question 677

What is a risk factor for pyloric stricture?

Answer 677

acid ingestion which leads to fibrosis and formation of pyloric stricture

Question 678

Patient presents with early satiety, nausea, vomiting and weight loss with a history of acid ingestion. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 678

Pyloric stricture

Question 679

What is the treatment for acute decompensated heart failure?

Answer 679

1. Oxygen
2. loop diuretic
3. Nitrates

Question 680

What causews edema of the hands and feet in Turners syndrome?

Answer 680

dysgenesis of the lymphatic network

Question 681

What organism is partially acid fast with filamentous branching rods?

Answer 681

Nocardia

Question 682

What is the test of choice after myasthenia gravis has been confirmed and why do you perform that test?

Answer 682

CT scan of chest looking for thymoma

Question 683

How does tamoxifen affect osteoporosis?

Answer 683

decreases the risk of osteoporosis

Question 684

What condition of ulcerative colitis requires regular surveillance?

Answer 684

colorectal carcinoma

Question 685

She asymptomatic gallstones be treated?

Answer 685

NO!!!

Question 686

What is the ankle brachial index test useful for?

Answer 686

Peripheral artery disease

Question 687

What is an abnormal ankle-brachial index?

Question 688

What is the most common side effect of levodopa/carbidopa?

Answer 688

hallucinations

Question 689

What is the treatment for Guillian-barre syndrome?

Answer 689

IVIG or plasmapheresis

Question 690

What is the preferred method of contraception in a postpartum women who is breastfeeding?

Answer 690

progestin only oral contraceptives

Question 691

A pulmonary nodule with a “halo sign” is characteristic of what?

Answer 691

Aspergillosis

Question 692

What is the staging modality in gastric adenocarcinoma?

Answer 692

CT scan

Question 693

Do you find crypt abscess in crohns or UC?

Answer 693

UC

Question 694

Do you find abdominal pain and bloody stools in crohns or UC

Answer 694

UC

Question 695

Do you find pseudopolyps in crohns or UC?

Answer 695

UC

Question 696

Do you find granulomas in crohns or UC?

Answer 696

crohns

Question 697

What is Kussmauls sign?

Answer 697

increase in JVD with inspiration

Question 698

Patient presents with inferior MI, hypotension, JVD, kussmauls breathing and clear lung sounds. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 698

right ventricular infarct

Question 699

What is the treatment for a right ventricular infarct?

Answer 699

IV fluids

Question 700

What is the most common cause of endocarditis in IV drug abusers?

Answer 700

Staph aureus

Question 701

What is the treatment for infective endocarditis in IV drug abusers?

Answer 701

Vancomycin

Question 702

A gardener presents with a painless ulcer on their finger that spreads along their forearm. What are you thinking of?

Answer 702

Sporotrichosis

Question 703

Patient presents with a tick bite from the south like arkansas with confusion and no rash. What are you suspecting?

Answer 703

ehrlichiosis

Question 704

Patient presents with recurrent oral ulcers and genital ulcers, eye lesions, and skin lesions. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 704

Behcet’s syndrome

Question 705

bone age

Answer 705

constitutional growth delay

Question 706

If you have a patient under 65 with chronic liver disease what pneumococcal vaccine should they receive?

Answer 706

PCV23 only

Question 707

If a patient is over 65 yrs old what pneumococcal vaccine should they receive?

Answer 707

PVC13 followed by PCV23

Question 708

When a patient has sickle cell anemia when do you do blood transfusion instead of hydroxyurea therapy?

Answer 708

1. Acute stroke
2. Acute chest syndrome
3. aplastic crisis
4. anemia

Question 709

What is the next best step after electrical burn?

Answer 709

EKG

Question 710

What topical burn medication cannot penetrate an eschar but causes hypokalemia and hyponatremia?

Answer 710

silver nitrate

Question 711

What topical burn medication can penetrate an eschar and hurts bad?

Answer 711

mefadine

Question 712

What topical burn medication cannot penetrate an eschar but causes leukopenia?

Answer 712

silver sulfadiazine

Question 713

What is the work-up for a penetrating injury to the neck in zone 1?

Answer 713

Aortagraphy

Question 714

What is the work-up for a penetrating injury to the neck in zone 3?

Answer 714

Aortagraphy and triple endoscopy

Question 715

What is the work-up for a penetrating injury to the neck in zone 2?

Answer 715

exploratory surgery

Question 716

If you have a chest x-ray showing free air under the diaphram what is the next step in management?

Answer 716

Surgery

Question 717

If you have a patient with a stab wound but they are stable what is the next step in management?

Answer 717

FAST scan

Question 718

If you perform a FAST scan and it comes back equivocal what is the next step in management?

Answer 718

Diagnostic perotineal lavage

Question 719

If you have a positive FAST scan or diagnostic peritoneal lavage what is the next step in management?

Answer 719

exploratory laparotomy

Question 720

Patient has blunt abdominal trauma with a handle bar sign. What is the most likely injured organ?

Answer 720

pancreas

Question 721

Patient presents with blunt abdominal trauma and is in stable condition. What is the next best step?

Answer 721

Abdominal CT

Question 722

Patient presents with shoulder pain following a seizure or electrical shock, what is the diagnosis?

Answer 722

Posterior shoulder dislocation

Question 723

Patient presents with a outwardly rotated arm and numbness over the deltoid, what is the diagnosis?

Answer 723

Anterior shoulder dilocation

Question 724

What is the genetic defect in malignant hyperthermia?

Answer 724

Ryanodine receptor gene defect

Question 725

What bugs can cause necrotizing fascitis?

Answer 725

strep and clostridium perfingens

Question 726

What are common cause of fever on Post-Op day 1?

Answer 726

1. atelectasis
2. Necrotizing fascitis
3. Malignant hyperthermia

Question 727

What is lights criteria?

Answer 727

Tells you if a pleural effusion is transudative or exudative. If protein ratio

Question 728

WHat is the characteristic effusion seen with adenocarcinoma of the lung?

Answer 728

exudative effusion with high hyaluronidase

Question 729

What are the 3 diagnostic criteria for ARDS?

Answer 729

1. bilateral fluffy infiltrates on x-ray

2. PaO2/FiO2

Question 730

What is the treatment for symptomatic hypercalcemia?

Answer 730

Short term-IV hydration and calcitonin

Long term- bisphosphanates

Question 731

What is the enzyme deficiency in Lesch_Nyhan syndrome?

Answer 731

Hypoxanthine-guanine phosporibosyl tranferase

Question 732

How does antipsychotics induce hypothermia?

Answer 732

inhibiting the body shivering mechanism and inhibiting autonomic thermoregulation

Question 733

What kind of cancer does OCPs increase your risk of getting?

Answer 733

cervical cancer

Question 734

What kind of cancer does OCPs decrease your risk of getting?

Answer 734

endometrial and ovarian cancer

Question 735

How does antipsychotics induce hypothermia?

Answer 735

inhibiting the body shivering mechanism and inhibiting autonomic thermoregulation

Question 736

What kind of cancer does OCPs increase your risk of getting?

Answer 736

cervical cancer

Question 737

What kind of cancer does OCPs decrease your risk of getting?

Answer 737

endometrial and ovarian cancer

Question 738

PAD increases your risk for what complication in the future?

Answer 738

myocardial infarction

Question 739

What is the therapeutic INR range for an idiopathic DVT?

Answer 739

2-3

Question 740

What is the therapeutic INR range for patients with prothetic valves?

Answer 740

2.5-3.5

Question 741

What type of heparin causes HIT?

Answer 741

unfractionated heparin

Question 742

What is the treatment for HIT?

Answer 742

leuprilide or argotraban

Question 743

If you are suspecting diverticulitis in a patient but the patient is not improving with antibiotic therapy what is your next step in management?

Answer 743

CT scan

Question 744

If you are suspecting a patient to have glaucoma what medication do you want to avoid?

Answer 744

atropine

Question 745

What is the antidote for iron intoxication?

Answer 745

deferoxamine

Question 746

kid presents with andominal pain hematemesis and metabolic acidosis after pills were found scattered on the floor. and abdominal films show small opacities in the stomach and duodenum. What did they ingest?

Answer 746

iron

Question 747

What is the pathology of pseudotumor cerebri?

Answer 747

impaired CSF absorption by arachnoid villi

Question 748

What is the treatment for pseudotumor cerebri?

Answer 748

weight reduction and acetazolamide

Question 749

What is the most significant complication in psedotumor cerebri?

Answer 749

blindness

Question 750

Patient has a tender mass palpated in the popliteal fossa, what do you suspect?

Answer 750

Baker cyst

Question 751

What causes a baker cyst?

Answer 751

excessive fluid production from inflamed synovium

Question 752

What is the reason for hypotension after giving a pregnant lady and epidural?

Answer 752

the sympathetic nerve fibers can become blocked and cause vasodilation and venous pooling

Question 753

Patient presents with unilateral transient loss of vision and says it felt like a curtain was falling down in my eye, what is the diagnosis?

Answer 753

Amaurosis fugax

Question 754

What causes Amaurosis fugax?

Answer 754

retinal emboli that are displaced

Question 755

Patient falls on an outstretched arm then the patient is unable to abduct their arms and they are also unable to adduct their arms smoothly without the arm falling quickly to the side. What kind of injury is this?

Answer 755

rotator cuff injury

Question 756

What is the defect in osteogenesis imperfecta?

Answer 756

Mutation in type 1 collagen

Question 757

What mechanism is employed in myocardial perfusion scanning when dipyridamole is given?

Answer 757

coronary steal phenomenon

Question 758

An x-ray finding of the knee with an expansile and eccentric lytic area describes what and is related to what condition?

Answer 758

soap bubble appearnace related to giant cell tumor of bone

Question 759

What things can trigger meniere’s disease?

Answer 759

1. Alcohol
2. Caffeine
3. nicotine
4. Salt

Question 760

If you have a patient with a solid testicular mass and ultrasound suggest that it is a testicular tumor what is the next step in management?

Answer 760

orchiectomy

Question 761

If you change the cutoff point to a higher cutoff point what happens to sensitivity and specificity?

Answer 761

sensitivity decreases and specificity increases

Question 762

What part of the brain is affected in hemi-neglect syndrome?

Answer 762

parietal lobe

Question 763

Whats elevated in seminomas

Answer 763

BhCG

Question 764

What is the most common vitamin deficiency in the US?

Answer 764

folic acid

Question 765

Patient presents with night blindness and dry skin what vitamin are they deficient in?

Answer 765

vitamin A

Question 766

What vitamin deficiency causes neonatal hemorrhage and increased PT and PTT?

Answer 766

vitamin K

Question 767

Patient presents with diarrhea, dermatitis and dementia, what is the diagnosis?

Answer 767

Pellegra

Question 768

What vitamin deficiency cause stomatitis and cheilosis? (crusting of the lips and mouth)

Answer 768

Vitamin B2(riboflavin)

Question 769

Patient presents with swollen gums, bruising, anemia and poor wound healing. What vitamin is deficient?

Answer 769

Vitamin C

Question 770

Selenium deficiency causes?

Answer 770

cardiomyopathy

Question 771

Magnesium deficiency causes?

Answer 771

muscle weakness and cramps, worsened hypocalcemia, tremor

Question 772

What are the symptoms of beri-beri?

Answer 772

polyneuritis, dilated cardiomyopathy, high cardiac output failure, edema

Question 773

What are the side effects of loop diuretics?

Answer 773

hypokalemia and ototoxcitiy

Question 774

What is the side effect of phenytoin?

Answer 774

gingival hyperplasia

Question 775

What is the defect in syringomelia?

Answer 775

central canal defect that causes impaired drainage of CSF (fluid filled cavity)

Question 776

What kind of accident commonly is associated with syringomyelia?

Answer 776

cervical whiplash accident

Question 777

What kind of bacteria is gram positive, anaerobic filamentous branching and colonizes the oral cavity?

Answer 777

actinomyces

Question 778

What is the preferred therapy for a patient with an actinomyces infection?

Answer 778

Penicillin

Question 779

What is chemoprophylaxis for HIV patients with a positive PPD test?

Answer 779

isoniazide and pyridoxine for 9months

Question 780

What is the biggest risk factor for raloxifene therapy?

Answer 780

DVT

Question 781

What is the difference between raloxifene therapy and tamoxifen therapy?

Answer 781

Tamoxifen therapy gives an increase risk for endometrial cancer and Raloxifene gives an increase risk for DVT

Question 782

Chondrocalcinosis is associated with what condition?

Answer 782

hemachromatosis

Question 783

What is the mechanism for SVT?

Answer 783

reentry into the AV node

Question 784

How does vagal maneuvers or medical therapy decrease SVT?

Answer 784

decrease AV node conductivity

Question 785

What is the picture for club foot?

Answer 785

calcaneum is in the varus position, midfoot is in the varus position and forefoot is in adduction

Question 786

What is the treatment for a child suspected of clubfoot?

Answer 786

immediate stretching, manipulation, followed by casting

Question 787

What chromosome abnormality is most consistent with cri-du-chat syndrome?

Answer 787

Chromosome 5

Question 788

What is the problem in pagets disease of bone?

Answer 788

disorganized bone remodeling

Question 789

How are osteoclast and osteoblast affected in paget disease of bone?

Answer 789

Osteoclast activity is increased

Osteoblast activity is increased

Question 790

What is the treatment for Giant Cell Arteritis?

Answer 790

High dose steroids

Question 791

What are the symptoms of bells palsy?

Answer 791

1. Inability to raise eyebrow or close the eye
2. drooping of the corner of the mouth
3. Disappearance of the nasolabial fold

Question 792

What is the genetic inheritance for hemophilia?

Answer 792

X-linked recessive

Question 793

What condition do you use the D-xylose test to confirm?

Answer 793

celiac disease

Question 794

Which TORCH infection can cause anemia and hyperbilirubinemia?

Answer 794

syphilis

Question 795

What are the screening test for syphillis?

Answer 795

1. RPR

2. VDRL

Question 796

What is the confirmatory test for syphilis?

Answer 796

FTA-ABS

Question 797

Periventricular calcifications in a newborn is characteristic of what?

Answer 797

CMV infection

Question 798

What is metoclopramide?

Answer 798

Its a dopamine antagonist drug used to treat nause, vomiting and gastroperesis

Question 799

What is the treatment for dystonic reactions,dyskinesia and parkinsonism?

Answer 799

benztropine

Question 800

If a patient obtains a needle stick from a known Hepatitis B person and the patient doesnt know their vaccination status, what is the next step in management?

Answer 800

Hepatitis B immunoglobin and Hepatitis B vaccination

Question 801

If a patient obtains a needle stick from a known Hepatitis B person and the patient is Hepatitis B immune, what is the next step in management?

Answer 801

Reassurance

Question 802

Patient presents with severe headache and vomiting. Patient is also seeing halos around lights. On physical exam she has a nonreactive dilated pupil what is the diagnosis?

Answer 802

acute angle closure glaucoma

Question 803

Which pulmonary renal syndrome requires plasmapheresis?

Answer 803

Goodpastures syndrome

Question 804

What is the treatment for Wegeners syndrome?

Answer 804

Cyclophospamide and steroids

Question 805

What is the treatment for uremic pericarditis?

Answer 805

Hemodialysis

Question 806

What is the bacteria that cuases infection from cat and dog bites?

Answer 806

Pasteurella multocida

Question 807

What is the treatment for a cat or dog bite?

Answer 807

Amoxicllin/clavulanate

Question 808

What is the treatment for narcolepsy?

Answer 808

Modafinil

Question 809

In a HIV positive person what opportunistic infection are you worried about with a CD4 cell count less than 50

Answer 809

Mycobacterium avium

Question 810

In a HIV positive person what opportunistic infection ae you worried about with a CD4 cell count less than 200

Answer 810

Pneumocystis jirovecii and oral candidiasis

Question 811

In a HIV positive patient what opportunistic infection are you worried about with a CD4 cell count less than 100

Answer 811

Toxoplasma gondii

Question 812

In a HIV positive patient with a CD4 count less than 150

Answer 812

Histoplasma

Question 813

What is the prophylactic treatment in a HIV positive patient with a CD4 count less than 150

Answer 813

itraconazole

Question 814

What is the prophylactic treatment in a HIV positive patient with a CD4 count less than 50

Answer 814

azithromycin

Question 815

What is the prophylactic treatment in a HIV positive patient with a CD4 count less than 200

Answer 815

TMP-SMX

Question 816

What is the prophylactic treatment for a HIV positive patient with a CD4 cell count less than 100

Answer 816

TMP-SMX

Question 817

What are some causes of non-anion gap metabolic acidosis?

Answer 817

1. Diarrhea

2. RTA

Question 818

NSAIDS and lymphoma are associated with what kind of nephrotic syndrome?

Answer 818

minimal change

Question 819

African americans and HIV is associated with what kind of nephrotic syndrome?

Answer 819

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

Question 820

Hepatitis B and C are associated with what kind of nephrotic syndrome?

Answer 820

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

Question 821

Lupus and Hepatitis B is associated with what kind of nephrotic syndrome?

Answer 821

Membranous nephropathy

Question 822

2month old baby presents with eczema, regurgitating of his milk, and painless bloody stools are associated with what condition?

Answer 822

Milk-protein induced entercolitis

Question 823

Patient presents with progressive vision loss in one eye and when looking at a set of parallel lines they appear wavy and bent to them, what is the diagnosis?

Answer 823

macular degeneration

Question 824

What is the primary risk factor for macular degeneration?

Answer 824

age

Question 825

Lens opacification is associated with what condition?

Answer 825

cataracts

Question 826

What is the inheritance pattern for myotonic muscular dystrophy?

Answer 826

autosomal dominant

Question 827

What is the inheritance pattern for duchenne and becker muscular dystrophy?

Answer 827

X-linked recessive

Question 828

Patient presents with facial weakness, dysphagia, myotonic handgrip and testicular atrophy, what condition should you be thinking of?

Answer 828

Myotonic muscular dystrophy

Question 829

Patient has irregular heavy vaginal bleeding, what is the next step in management to stop the bleeding?

Answer 829

1. High dose estrogen
2. High dose OCPs
3. High dose progestin pills

Question 830

Patient presents with severe local lower back pain thats worse at night, lower extremity weakness, decreased spincter tone, and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, what is the diagnosis?

Answer 830

Spinal cord compression

Question 831

What is the treatment for spinal cord compression?

Answer 831

steroids

Question 832

What condition causes severe itching after bathing?

Answer 832

Polycythemia vera

Question 833

What is the treatment for pertussis in a child less than 1month?

Answer 833

Azithromycin

Question 834

What is the treatment for pertussis in people greater than 1month?

Answer 834

Erythromycin

Question 835

Pelvic ultrasound shows enlarged ovary with decreased blood flow, what is the diagnosis?

Answer 835

Ovarian torsion

Question 836

Pelvic ultrasound shows free fluid near an ovarian cyst, what is the diagnosis?

Answer 836

Ruptured ovarian cyst

Question 837

What should you be thinking of when separating arterial thrombosis from arterial embolus?

Answer 837

Arterial thrombosis is a gradual process and Arterial embolus is a sudden process

Question 838

What are the side effects of ACE inhibitors?

Answer 838

cough, angioedema and hyperkalemia

Question 839

What are the side effects of loop diuretics?

Answer 839

Ototoxicity and hypokalemia

Question 840

What is the treatment for ITP?

Answer 840

IVIG or steroids

Question 841

When do you treat vs. observe an adult patient with ITP?

Answer 841

Observe: platelets>30,000
Treat: Platelets

Question 842

When do you observe vs treat children with ITP?

Answer 842

observe: only skin manifestations
Treat: Bleeding

Question 843

Patient presents with a recent upper respiratory infection and an enlarged mediatinum on chest x-ray. CT scan shows a mass in the “middle mediastinum” what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 843

Bronchogenic cyst

Question 844

A popping sound in the knee followed by pain and swelling is associated with what kind of injury?

Answer 844

Meniscus tear

Question 845

What are the parameters assessed in a glascow coma scale?

Answer 845

1. Eye opening
2. Verbal response
3. Motor response

Question 846

What is another name for Lynch syndrome?

Answer 846

Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer

Question 847

What other condition is associated with Lynch syndrome?

Answer 847

endometrial carcinoma

Question 848

Patient presents with a systolic-diastolic abdominal bruit, what is the diagnosis?

Answer 848

renal artry stenosis

Question 849

How do you get a radial head subluxation? (nursemaid elbow)

Answer 849

pulling child arm or swinging child by the arms

Question 850

What is the treatment for nursemaid elbow?

Answer 850

hyperpronate the forearm

Question 851

MEN type 1?

Answer 851

1. Primary hyperparathyroidism
2. Pancreatic tumor
3. Pituitary tumor

Question 852

MEN type 2A?

Answer 852

1. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
2. Pheochromocytoma
3. Parathyroid hyperplasia

Question 853

MEN type 2B?

Answer 853

1. Medullary thyroic cancer
2. Pheochromocytoma
3. Mucosal & intestinal neuroma
4. Marfanoid habitus

Question 854

What are characteristics of lung consolidation?

Answer 854

1. Dullness to percussion
2. Bronchial breath sounds(louder)
3. Prominent expiratory phase
4. Egophony
5. Crackles

Question 855

If you have mono how long should you refrain from playing sports?

Answer 855

> 3wks

Question 856

What is the most modifiable risk factor in osteoarthritis?

Answer 856

weight reduction

Question 857

Where is the most likely source for a DVT?

Answer 857

Proximal deep veins (iliac, femoral, popliteal)

Question 858

The symptoms of diffuse telangiectasias, recurrent epistaxis and AV malformations are associated with what condition?

Answer 858

Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome

Question 859

What is the inheritance pattern for Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome?

Answer 859

Autosomal dominant

Question 860

anti-topoisomerase 1 antibodies are associatd with what condition?

Answer 860

scleroderma

Question 861

Hydatid cyst come from which parasite?

Answer 861

Echinococcosis

Question 862

What animals carry Echinococcosis?

Answer 862

Sheep

Question 863

What organs can be affected by Echinococcosis?

Answer 863

Liver and lung

Question 864

What does infection with Echinococcosis cause?

Answer 864

Hydatid cysts

Question 865

What occupation is at hish risk for neurocysticercosis?

Answer 865

Pig farmers

Question 866

Kid presents with headache vomiting and visual distubances. They have limited ability of upward gaze with a tendency for downward gaze. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 866

Pinealoma

Question 867

What are the vaccinations for adults post-splenectomy?

Answer 867

Either 2weeks before or 2weeks after you need to get Meningococcal, PCV13, and H.flu

Question 868

Kid complains of progressive bone pain that occurs at night without relation to physical activity. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 868

Osteoid osteoma

Question 869

What is the treatment for osteiod osteoma?

Answer 869

NSAIDS

Question 870

What is the side effect of olanzapine?

Answer 870

weight and sedation

Question 871

Patient presents with a history of a whistling noise during respiration after undergoing a rhinoplasty, what is the diagnosis?

Answer 871

nasal septal perforation

Question 872

What kind of patient do you see with nasal polyps?

Answer 872

asthma or allergy patients

Question 873

What is the side effect of clozapine?

Answer 873

agranulocytosis and weight gain

Question 874

Patient presents with a history of smoking, shoulder pain, weakness in the hands and miosis and ptosis, what is the diagnosis?

Answer 874

pancoast tumor

Question 875

What is the treatment for pericarditis?

Answer 875

NSAIDS

Question 876

If a patient is 21-24yrs of age with a ASCUS pap smear what is the next step in management?

Answer 876

Repeat pap smear in 1 yr

Question 877

If a patient is 25 and older and has a pap test showing ASCUS what is the next step in management?

Answer 877

HPV test

Question 878

If a patient is 21-24 and has a pap test showing ASC-H what is the next step in management?

Answer 878

colposcopy

Question 879

If a patient is 21-24 yrs and has had 2 consecutive ASCUS pap smears what is the next step in management?

Answer 879

pap smear in 1 yr

Question 880

If you are a vegetarian what vitamin deficiency are you prone to?

Answer 880

B12

Question 881

What is the most common side effect of hydroxychloriquine?

Answer 881

retinopathy

Question 882

If you suspect breath holding spells what test should you run?

Answer 882

CBC and ferritin

Question 883

If the patient CSF contains EBV DNA what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 883

Primary CNS lymphoma

Question 884

What are 3 primary risk factors for acute otitis media?

Answer 884

1. Upper respiratory infection
2. exposure to smoke
3. formula feedings

Question 885

Boot shaped heart on x-ray is diagnostic of what condition?

Answer 885

Tetralogy of fallot

Question 886

What is the most common cause of viral arthrtitis?

Answer 886

Parvovirus B19

Question 887

What is the typical picture of a patient with viral arthritis?

Answer 887

Person who works in a daycar with arthrtitis that worse in the MCP, PIP and wrist joints

Question 888

Prolonged therapy with a PPI can increase your risk for what?

Answer 888

C.diff and osteoporosis

Question 889

What is the management for fibromyalgia?

Answer 889

1. Exercise
2. Good sleep hygiene
3. Antidepressants

Question 890

What is the preferred treatment for hepatitis B infection?

Answer 890

tenofovir

Question 891

What are the indications for treatment in a patient with hepatitis B?

Answer 891

1. Liver failure
2. Infectious (HBe)
3. High viral load (> 20,000)
4. Cirrhosis
5. Immunosuppressed

Question 892

Pale patches on the back that scale on scraping, what is the diagnosis?

Answer 892

Tinea versicolor

Question 893

What is the treatment for tinea versicolor?

Answer 893

ketoconazole

Question 894

What type of an environment is prone to grow tinea versicolor?

Answer 894

Hot and humid environments

Question 895

What is dark field microscopy?

Answer 895

confirmatory test for syphilis

Question 896

What is the most common bacteria in febrile neutropenia?

Answer 896

Psuedomonas

Question 897

What is the treatment for febrile neutropenia?

Answer 897

pipercillin-tazobactam

Question 898

Patient presents with a history of lupus for which she takes steroids and hip pain for the last 2 weeks. The pain has been increasing and there is no tenderness or warmth around the hip. Range of motion is normal and x-rays are normal. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 898

Avascular necrosis

Question 899

How do you confirm the diagnosis of avascular necrosis?

Answer 899

MRI

Question 900

What are the symptoms of anticholinergic toxicity?

Answer 900

dry mouth, dry skin, constipation, urinary retention, flushing, vision changes and confusion

Question 901

What is the first indicator of hypovolemia?

Answer 901

pulse rate

Question 902

What are the comorbidities of panic disorder?

Answer 902

1. Depression
2. Agoraphobia
3. Substance abuse

Question 903

What is the management for kleptomania?

Answer 903

psychotherapy

Question 904

What is the imaging test of choice for fibroids?

Answer 904

ultrasound

Question 905

If a patient has an MI and a few hours late develops hypotension and kussmaul sign what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 905

Right ventricular failure

Question 906

If a patient had an MI 3-5 days ago and develops severe pulmonary edema and a new systolic murmur what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 906

Papillary muscle rupture

Question 907

If a patient had an MI 1 wk ago and develops hypotension and chest pain, jvd and distant heart sounds what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 907

Ventricular free wall rupture

Question 908

If a patient had an MI 3-5 days ago and develops hypotension, chest pain, and new systolic murmur and failure of both ventricles, what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 908

Interventricular septal defect

Question 909

What medications should be prescribed after an MI with PCI?

Answer 909

aspirin, clopidogrel, ACE, beta blocker, simvistatin

Question 910

What is the treatment for cervical adenitis?

Answer 910

Clindamycin

Question 911

What is the etiology of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

Answer 911

Cuased by deletion of the dystrophin gene

Question 912

What is the etiology of beckers muscular dystrophy?

Answer 912

Reduced dystrophin gene with milder disease in older kids

Question 913

What are the complications of muscular dystrophy?

Answer 913

Cardiomyopathy

Question 914

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

Answer 914

1. Post-menopausal
2. low vitamin D/calcium intake
3. steroid use
4. lack of weight bearing exercises
5. smoking
6. alcohol

Question 915

What is the most common cause of non-melanoma skin cancer?

Answer 915

Basal cell carcinoma

Question 916

What is the single most important risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma?

Answer 916

sunlight exposure

Question 917

Which metal in jewelry most commonly causes contact dermatitis?

Answer 917

nickel

Question 918

Symptoms of hypokalemia?

Answer 918

muscle cramps, muscle weakness, hyporeflexia, fatigue, arrhythmias, flat T waves

Question 919

Patient presents with a sharpley demarcated, erythematous, edematous, tender skin lesion on their face with raised borders, what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 919

Erysipelas

Question 920

What the causative organism for erysipelas?

Answer 920

Group A strep

Question 921

What is the defect in osteogenesis imperfecta?

Answer 921

Defect in type 1 collagen

Question 922

Blue sclerae and pathological bone fractures are associated with what condition?

Answer 922

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Question 923

What is the treatment for norcardia?

Answer 923

TMP-SMX

Question 924

A rash that consists of firm dome-shaped flesh colored papules with central umbilication is associated with what condition?

Answer 924

molluscum contagiosum

Question 925

What bug causes bacillary angiomatosis?

Answer 925

Bartonella

Question 926

What is the treatment for bacillary angiomatosis?

Answer 926

erythromycin

Question 927

What is the most common side effect of ECT therapy?

Answer 927

amnesia

Question 928

Patient with Turners syndrome are most at risk of developing what condition?

Answer 928

osteoporosis

Question 929

Pain between the third and fourth toes on the plantar surface with a clicking sensation, is likely what?

Answer 929

Mortons neuroma

Question 930

Point tenderness on the plantar aspect of the foot with burning pain in the morning that decreases with activity is likely what?

Answer 930

Plantar fascitis

Question 931

What is the treatment for a specific phobia?

Answer 931

behavioral therapy

Question 932

What pathogens are responsible for endometritis?

Answer 932

polymicrobial infection

Question 933

What is the treatment for endometritis?

Answer 933

clindamycin and gentamicin

Question 934

What are the pathogens that cause acute bacterial sinusitis?

Answer 934

1. Strep pneumo
2. non typaeable H. flu
3. Moraxella catarrhalis

Question 935

What is the earliest renal abnormality present in patient with diabetes?

Answer 935

Glomerular hyperfiltration

Question 936

Patient presents with optic disc hyperemia, what did they ingest?

Answer 936

Methanol

Question 937

Which statistical test assess associations?

Answer 937

Chi square test

Question 938

What tremor likely occurs during rest and improves with activity?

Answer 938

Resting tremor of parkinsons

Question 939

What is Trihexyphenidyl?

Answer 939

An anticholinergic parkinson drug

Question 940

What is a common association with dermatomyositis?

Answer 940

malignancy

Question 941

When do you resort to imaging in a patient with uncomplicated pyelonephritis?

Answer 941

if no improvement after 2-3days

Question 942

High LAP levels are associated with what?

Answer 942

leukemoid reaction

Question 943

Low LAP levels are associated with what?

Answer 943

CML

Question 944

Nocturnal chest pain should alert you to what?

Answer 944

GERD

Question 945

In regards to methylmalonic acid and homocysteine what are the values in B12 and folate deficiency?

Answer 945

B12- elevated homocysteine and methylmalonic acid

Folate- elevated homocysteine and normal methylmalonic acid

Question 946

What is a risk factor for nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

Answer 946

EBV virus

Question 947

Which anemia gives you absent thumbs?

Answer 947

Fanconi anemia

Question 948

What is the difference between fanconi anemia and diamond-blackfan anemia?

Answer 948

DIamond-blackfan anemia is a red cell aplasia that gives you weird thumbs while fanconi anemia is a pancytopenia that gives you absent thumbs

Question 949

How does the knee to chest position help patient with tetraology of fallot?

Answer 949

Increases systemic vascular resistance

Question 950

Patient presents with a CD4 count less than 50 and eye exam shows yellow-white patches of retinal opacification and retinal hemorrhages, what is the diagnosis?

Answer 950

CMV retinitis

Question 951

What is the treatment for CMV retinitis?

Answer 951

ganciclovir or foscarnet

Question 952

What is the most common complication of vesicoureteral reflux disease?

Answer 952

renal scarring

Question 953

What is the imaging test of choice for diagnosing vesicouretal reflux disease?

Answer 953

VCUG

Question 954

If a kid has their first UTI what is the imaging test?

Answer 954

Renal bladder ultrasound

Question 955

If a kid has recurrent UTI’s what is the imaging test? w

Answer 955

VCUG

Question 956

What is the accepted treatment for ALS?

Answer 956

Riluzole

Question 957

What is a side effect of hydroxychloroquine?

Answer 957

retinopathy

Question 958

What are two complication of nephrotic syndrome?

Answer 958

Hyperlipidemia and hypercoagulablity

Question 959

What causes ebstein anomaly?

Answer 959

Lithium

Question 960

What are the side effects of isoretretinoin?

Answer 960

cranifascial defects, heart defects, and deafness

Question 961

What are the symptoms of HUS?

Answer 961

1. microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
2. Uremia
3. Thrombocytopenia

Question 962

What are the three things that predispose diabetic patients for foot ulcers?

Answer 962

1. neuropathy
2. microvascular insufficency
3. immunosuppression

Question 963

What are the risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysm expansion and rupture?

Answer 963

1. Active smoking
2. growing in size
3. Large diameter

Question 964

What are the risk factors for an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

Answer 964

1. Age (>60)
2. Family history
3. athersclerosis
4. caucasian
5. smoking

Question 965

What are the indications to repair an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

Answer 965

1. Symptomatic
2. greater than 5.5cm
3. rapidly expanding

Question 966

What is salvage radiation therapy?

Answer 966

therapy used when the original therapy failed and there is recurrence of disease

Question 967

hat does valsalva do to preload?

Answer 967

decreases preload because it decreases venous return to the heart

Question 968

What does standing do to preload?

Answer 968

Standing decreases preload and decreases venous return to the heart

Question 969

What does squatting do?

Answer 969

increases venous return and increases afterload and regurgitation

Question 970

What does handgripping do?

Answer 970

increases afterload and increases blood pressure and regurgitation

Question 971

Which murmurs get loader with valsalva

Answer 971

HOCM and MVP

Question 972

Which murmurs get loader with squatting?

Answer 972

aortic regurgitation, mitral regurgitation and VSD

Question 973

What is the difference between illness anxiety disorder and somatic symptom disorder?

Answer 973

In somatic symptom disorder a patient has anxiety about atleast 1 symptom that is unexplained while illness anxiety disorder has anxiety about having an illness when few or no symptoms are present and constant negative evals

Question 974

Patient presents with a long history of OCP use and a solid mass in the liver, what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 974

Hepatic adenoma

Question 975

Multiple hepatic nodules of varying sizes is characteristic of what?

Answer 975

Liver metastasis

Question 976

Patient presents with liver problems who have been exposed to vinyl chloride and arsenic compounds, what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 976

Hepatic angiosarcoma

Question 977

Patient presents with cafe au lait spots, precocious puberty and multiple bone defects, what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 977

McCune-Albright syndrome

Question 978

What condition can give you altered mental status, gait instability, nystagmus, and conjugate gaze palsy?

Answer 978

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

Question 979

What is the cause of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

Answer 979

Thiamine deficiency

Question 980

What is the drug of choice for osteoarthritis?

Answer 980

Acetaminophen

Question 981

If you develop HIT what is the managment?

Answer 981

Stop the heparin and give argatroban

Question 982

What is the manegement for uncomplicated diverticulosis?

Answer 982

increase dietary fiber intake

Question 983

How does diabetes affect cranial nerve 3?

Answer 983

If causes nerve ischemia of cranial nerve 3 which affects the somati fibers and causes ptosis and a down and out pupil

Question 984

What pancreatic complication is present 4 wks after an acute onset of pancreatitis?

Answer 984

pancreatic pseudocyst

Question 985

What is the imaging modality for pseudocyst?

Answer 985

ultrasound

Question 986

What is the management for a pancreatic pseudocyst?

Answer 986

observation

Question 987

If you have bilirubin in the urine what does that tell you?

Answer 987

That you have a build up of conjugated bilirubin

Question 988

What drugs can cause esophagitis?

Answer 988

1. tetracyclines
2. nsaids and aspirin
3. potassium chloride
4. aledronate
5. iron

Question 989

What is the etiology of herpangina?

Answer 989

Coxsackie A virus

Question 990

What is the treatment for herpangina?

Answer 990

ice cream

Question 991

Patient presents with clusters of small vesicles on anterior oropharynx and lips, what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 991

Herpetic gingivostomatitis

Question 992

What is the treatment for herpetic gingivostomatitis?

Answer 992

acyclovir

Question 993

Patient presents with gray vesicles/ulcers on tonsillar pillars, what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 993

herpangina

Question 994

What is the etiology of endocarditis in patient with prosthetic valves, catheters, implanted devices, IV drug use?

Answer 994

Staph aureus

Question 995

What is the etiology of endocarditis in patients with dental procedures and biopsy of respiratory tract?

Answer 995

strep viridans

Question 996

What is the etiology of endocarditis in patients with UTIs?

Answer 996

enterococci

Question 997

What is the etiology of endocarditis in patients with colon cancer or IBD?

Answer 997

Strep bovis

Question 998

What is rivaroxaban?

Answer 998

It is a factor 10a inhibitor used in the managment of acute DVT or PE

Question 999

gallbladder wall thickening and pericholecystic fluid is associated with what condition?

Answer 999

Acalculous cholecystitis

Question 1000

What are the antiphospholipid antibodies associated with Lupus that are associated with thromboembolic disease?

Answer 1000

lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin

Question 1001

What is the treatment for pinworms?

Answer 1001

mebendazole

Question 1002

What is the treatment for limb ischemia?

Answer 1002

Heparin bolus and vascular surgery consult

Question 1003

A patient with COPD presents with increased dyspnea, increased cough and increased sputum production, what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 1003

Acute COPD exacerbation

Question 1004

What is the management for a patient with COPD exacerbation?

Answer 1004

1. Oxygen
2. Bronchodilator
3. Steroids
4. Antibiotics
5. Positive pressure ventilation

Question 1005

What is indinavir?

Answer 1005

Protease inhibitor for AIDS treatment

Question 1006

What is the side effect of indinavir?

Answer 1006

crystal induced nephropathy

Question 1007

Classic triad of pain, jaundice, and palpable mass is most likely what?

Answer 1007

biliary cyst

Question 1008

Patients with renal faiure who are on hemodialysis, what is the most common cause of death?

Answer 1008

Cardiovascular disease

Question 1009

Which part of the bladder is most susceptible to rupture and peritoneal signs?

Answer 1009

Bladder dome

Question 1010

What is Lights criteria for an exudative effusion?

Answer 1010

1. fluid protein/serum protein > 0.5
2. fluid ldh/serum ldh >0.6
3. fluid ldh > 2/3 upper limit

Question 1011

What conditions will you find a high amylase pleural effusion?

Answer 1011

esophageal rupture or pancreatitis

Question 1012

What are the best markers indicating resolution of DKA?

Answer 1012

serum anion gap and beta hydroxybutyrate levels

Question 1013

What is malignant hypertension?

Answer 1013

1. BP > 180/120

2. retinal hemorrhages, exudates, papilledema

Question 1014

What is a hypertensive emergency?

Answer 1014

severe hypertension associated with malignant hypertension or hypertensive encephalopathy

Question 1015

What is hypertensive encephalopathy?

Answer 1015

cerebral edema

Question 1016

What is the medical management for primary hyperaldosteronism?

Answer 1016

aldosterone antagonist

Question 1017

descrescendo early dialstolic murmur?

Answer 1017

Aortic regurgitation

Question 1018

What is the treatment for acute pancreatitis?

Answer 1018

NPO, nasogastric tube suction, IV fluids, analgesics, antibiotics

Question 1019

What is the management for a patient presenting with placental abruption?

Answer 1019

Stable patient- trial of vaginal delivery

unstable patient- C section

Question 1020

What is the most common cause of a nonreactive NST?

Answer 1020

fetal sleep cycle

Question 1021

If you suspect a fetal sleep cycle causing a nonreactive NST what is the next step in management?

Answer 1021

vibroacoustic stimulation

Question 1022

What are the complications of cryptorchidism?

Answer 1022

1. inguinal hernia
2. subfertility
3. testicular cancer
4. testicular torsion

Question 1023

What is the management for cryptorchidism?

Answer 1023

orchiopexy by 6-12months

Question 1024

For sickle cell anemia what will you see on peripheal blood smear?

Answer 1024

sickle cells and howell jolly bodies

Question 1025

If you suspect a stillbirth because of absent fetal movement what is the next step in diagnosis?

Answer 1025

ultrasound

Question 1026

Once a stillbirth is diagnosed what is the next step in management?

Answer 1026

counsel the patient about delivery options

Question 1027

If you suspect central precocious puberty what is the next step in management?

Answer 1027

MRI then GnRH agonist therapy

Question 1028

IV drug user presents with progressive lower back pain. On exam there is severe tenderness to gentle percussion over the vertebrae, what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 1028

vertebral osteomyelitis

Question 1029

What is the initial workup for vertebral osteomyelitis?

Answer 1029

CBC, blood cultures, ESR, CRP and x-ray. Then do MRI

Question 1030

What two lab values can give you the best picture of acid base status?

Answer 1030

pH and PaCO2

Question 1031

If you are suspecting a patient has Amaurosis fugax what is the next step in management?

Answer 1031

Duplex study of neck

Question 1032

What is the most common complication of peptic ulcer disease?

Answer 1032

hemorrhage

Question 1033

Atopic dermatitis is another word for what?

Answer 1033

eczema

Question 1034

What are some things that can cause acute pancreatitis?

Answer 1034

1. Gallstones
2. Alcohol
3. Drugs (antibiotics, seizure meds, diuretics)

Question 1035

What part of the spine is most commonly affected in rheumatoid arthritis?

Answer 1035

cervical spine

Question 1036

What are the test to run for a patient who comes in with suspected strep throat?

Answer 1036

Rapid antigen test and throat culture

Question 1037

What are the side effects of methotrexate therapy?

Answer 1037

oral ulcers, hepatotoxicity, pulmonary toxicity, bone marrow suppression, and alopecia

Question 1038

What can you give a patient to reduce the incidence of adverse effects of methotrexate?

Answer 1038

folic acid

Question 1039

What is the management for a patient with suspected ventilator associated pneumonia?

Answer 1039

First get a chest x-ray if its abnormal then do a lower respiratory tract sampling then empiric antibiotics

Question 1040

What bugs are associated with ventilator associated pneumonia?

Answer 1040

Pseudomona, e.coli, klebsiella, MRSA

Question 1041

What causes viral myocarditis?

Answer 1041

coxsackie B virus

Question 1042

What is the management for acute severe pain in a current or former addict?

Answer 1042

IV morphine

Question 1043

What are upper motor neuron findings?

Answer 1043

hyperreflexia and spascitity

Question 1044

What are lower motor neuron findings?

Answer 1044

fasciculations

Question 1045

Contralateral hemiparesis and gaze palsy is a hemorrhage in what part of the brain?

Answer 1045

basal ganglia

Question 1046

Occipital headache ataxia and nystagmus is a hemorrhage in what part of the brain?

Answer 1046

cerebellum

Question 1047

Contralateral hemiparesis, constricted pupils and upgaze palsy is a hemorrhage in what part of the brain?

Answer 1047

thalamus

Question 1048

contact lens keratitis is caused by what?

Answer 1048

Pseudomonas

Question 1049

when do you give PCV23 alone?

Answer 1049

When a patient is under 65 and has chronic heart, lung or liver condition or diabetes or smoker

Question 1050

In DKA what is your body most likely to be depleted of?

Answer 1050

Potassium

Question 1051

What is the most likely cause of pneumonia in a HIV patient?

Answer 1051

strep pneumo

Question 1052

What causes acute unilateral lympadenitis?

Answer 1052

Staph aureus and group A strep

Question 1053

What causes the pruritis and flushing in niacin?

Answer 1053

prostaglandin induced peripheral vasodilation

Question 1054

What is the cause of fanconi anemia?

Answer 1054

Chromosomal breaks

Question 1055

What benign lesions of the eye are associated with primary biliary cirrhosis?

Answer 1055

Xanthelasma

Question 1056

What can confirm the diagnosis of CLL?

Answer 1056

Flow cytometry of the peripheral blood

Question 1057

What are the symptoms of zinc deficiency?

Answer 1057

bad taste in mouth, rash, and poor wound healing

Question 1058

delayed fontanelle closure and bowing of the legs are associatd with what condition?

Answer 1058

Rickets

Question 1059

Hemorrhagic disease of the newborn is caused by what?

Answer 1059

vitamin K deficiency

Question 1060

An elderly patient presents with bleeding gums and bone pain who is on a tea and toast diet, what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 1060

vitamin C deficiency

Question 1061

Is hypospadias or epispadias associated with exstrophy of the bladder?

Answer 1061

epispadias

Question 1062

Describe epispadias?

Answer 1062

Penile anomaly where the urethra opens on the top side of the penis

Question 1063

Describe hypospadias?

Answer 1063

Penile anomaly where the urethra opens on the bottom side of the penis

Question 1064

What is Potters syndrome?

Answer 1064

Bilateral renal agenesis, abnormal facies, limb deformities, and lung hypoplasia

Question 1065

Patient describes a shade being pulled over their eye, what should you think of?

Answer 1065

Amaurosis fugax

Question 1066

What is a indicator in the question stem that you are dealing with carotid stenosis?

Answer 1066

TIA or Amaurosis fugax

Question 1067

What is the next step in mangement if you ae dealing with carotid stenosis?

Answer 1067

duplex scan of the carotids

Question 1068

What is the management if you find 50% or less stenosis of the carotid artery?

Answer 1068

Aspirin and/or clopidogrel

Question 1069

WHat is the management if you have greater than 70% stenosis of the carotid artery?

Answer 1069

Carotid endarterectomy

Question 1070

Patient presents with a pulsatile abdominal mass and hypotension, what is the next best step?

Answer 1070

exploratory laparotomy

Question 1071

What is the management of an acute dissection in the ascending aorta?

Answer 1071

Surgery

Question 1072

What is the management of an acute dieesction in the descending aorta?

Answer 1072

b-blockers

Question 1073

What is the classic presentation for chronic mesenteric ischemia?

Answer 1073

Postprandial abdominal pain, a fear of food, and weight loss. Patient usually has a history of athersclerosis

Question 1074

A superficial palpbale cord is a specific sign for what?

Answer 1074

Superficial thrombophlebitis

Question 1075

Patient presents with arm problems during exercise and CNS problems what is the diagnosis?

Answer 1075

subclavian steal syndrome

Question 1076

What is the most common type of testicular cancer?

Answer 1076

seminoma

Question 1077

What is the imaging test of choice for renal cell carcinoma?

Answer 1077

abdominal CT scan

Question 1078

What is the size of a stone that is unlikely to pass on its own?

Answer 1078

10mm

Question 1079

What is pulseless disease?

Answer 1079

Takayasu arteritis

Question 1080

What is the treatment for Takayasu arteritis?

Answer 1080

steroids

Question 1081

What is the treatment for Behcet syndrome?

Answer 1081

steroids

Question 1082

What is the trreatment for polymyositis?

Answer 1082

steroids

Question 1083

What could cause recurrent pneumonia in the same spot in a kid?

Answer 1083

foreign body aspiration

Question 1084

Can you use oral hypoglycemics in pregnancy?

Answer 1084

NO!!!!

Question 1085

If a patient has an abnormal NST and abnormal Biophysical profile, what is the next step in managment?

Answer 1085

COntraction stress test

Question 1086

What is the treatment for a hydatiform mole?

Answer 1086

D&C with serial B-hCG levels

Question 1087

When should you give the infant varicella zoster immunoglobin?

Answer 1087

If the mother contracts varicella zoster within the last 5 days of the pregnanct or within 2 days post delivery

Question 1088

What is the order of fetal positions during normal labor and delivery?

Answer 1088

1. descent
2. flexion
3. internal rotation
4. Extend
5. external rotation
6. expulsion

Question 1089

What antibodies can cross the placenta?

Answer 1089

IgG

Question 1090

When do you give rhogam to treat RH imcompatability?

Answer 1090

at 28wks and within 72hrs after delivery

Question 1091

What is the treatment for chorioamniotis?

Answer 1091

ampicillin and gentamicin

Question 1092

What is the prophylaxis for group B strep?

Answer 1092

Penicillin

Question 1093

What is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrage?

Answer 1093

uterine atony

Question 1094

What is the treatment for scabies?

Answer 1094

Permethrin cream

Question 1095

What is the treatment for lice?

Answer 1095

Permethrin cream

Question 1096

WHat causes skin colored smooth waxy papules with a central umbilicated depression that are roughly 0.5cm?

Answer 1096

Molluscum contagiosum

Question 1097

What is the treatment for pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid?

Answer 1097

Steroids

Question 1098

Between pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid which one gives you oral lesions?

Answer 1098

Pemphigus vulgaris

Question 1099

flesh colored lesion that grows rapidly with a central crater that contains keratinous material, what is the likely diagnosis?

Answer 1099

Keratoacanthoma

Question 1100

What is the management for keratoacanthoma?

Answer 1100

observation

Question 1101

What is bowen disease?

Answer 1101

squamous cell cancer in situ

Question 1102

From what lesion does squamous cell cancer classically develop?

Answer 1102

Actinic keratoses

Question 1103

What determines the prognosis of malignant melanom?

Answer 1103

Depth of invasion

Question 1104

WHat is actinic keratoses?

Answer 1104

premalignant lesion to squamous cell cancer where you get a red scaly plaque in chronic sun exposed areas

Question 1105

A unilateral red oozing or crusting nipple in an adult woman is what?

Answer 1105

Paget disease of the nipple

Question 1106

What can cause stomatitis?

Answer 1106

riboflavin, niacin, pyridoxine, vitamin C

Question 1107

What is the treatment for gonorrheal conjunctivitis?

Answer 1107

ceftriaxone

Question 1108

WHat is the treatment for closed angle glaucoma?

Answer 1108

pilocarpine

Question 1109

Catatracts in a neonate should suggest what?

Answer 1109

TORCH infection or galactosemia

Question 1110

What changes in the retina are seen in diabetics?

Answer 1110

1. hemorrgaes
2. microaneurysms
3. neovascularization

Question 1111

What changes in the retina are seen in hypertension?

Answer 1111

1. artery narrowing
2. wiring
3. cotton wool spots

Question 1112

What are the most common bugs causing preseptal and orbital cellulitis?

Answer 1112

1. Strep pneumo
2. H.Flu
3. Staph aureus

Question 1113

What is the difference between a stye and a chalazion?

Answer 1113

A stye is a painful red lump near the lid margin whereas a chalazion is a painless red lump away from the lid margin

Question 1114

classic dendritic keratitis on fluorescin stain is what?

Answer 1114

Herpes simplex keratitis

Question 1115

What should be avoided in herpes simplex keratitis?

Answer 1115

steroids

Question 1116

What condition is temporal arteritis associated with?

Answer 1116

polymalgia rheumatica