STEP 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Bacterial Prostetitis- symptoms- diagnosis- treatment

A

Sypmtoms: Fever, chills, myalgia, pelvic pain (diffuse) Diagnosis: Pyuria, tender prostate, urine cultures + E.coli. Mid-stream urine sampleTreatment: TPM-SMX or fluoroquinolones

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2
Q

Adjustment Disorder

  • Etiology
  • Treatment
A

Caused by an identifiable stressor, within the past 3 monthsRarely lasts more than 6 monthsTreatment: Cognitive or psychodynamic psychotherapy

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3
Q

Anorexia Nervosa vs. Bulimia

A

Anorexia nervosa - Clinical BMI

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4
Q

Reye Syndrome

  • Epidemiology
  • Presentation
  • Blood Labs
A

Children

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5
Q

Trisomy 18- MSAFP- beta-hCG- Estriol- Inhibin A

A

LOW MSAFP- LOW beta-hCG- LOW Estriol- NORMAL Inhibin A

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6
Q

Trisomy 21- MSAFP- beta-hCG- Estriol- Inhibin A

A

LOW MSAFP- HIGH beta-hCG- LOW Estriol- HIGH Inhibin A

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7
Q

Neural Tube or Abdominal wall defect- MSAFP- beta-hCG- Estriol- Inhibin A

A

HIGH MSAFP- NORMAL beta-hCG- NORMAL Estriol- NORMAL Inhibin A

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8
Q

Postpartum blood loss- Etiology (most common)- Treatment

A

Etiology - Uterine AtoniaTreat- bimanual uterine massage, fluid resuscitation, uterine atonic agents: oxytocin, methylergometrine, carboprost

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9
Q

Uremia- Blood concentration causing symptoms- Complication and treatment

A

Symptoms appear at level of 100mg/dL- uremic encephalopathy = indication for hemodialysis

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10
Q

Mitral Stenosis- Auscultation

A

Auscultation: S1 loud, opening snap after S2 @ apex, low pitched diastolic rumble @ apex

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11
Q

Torticollis- epidemiology- presentation- What (lab, scan, procedure) do you order on this patient?

A
  • common condition in children- upper respiratory infection, minor trauma, cervical lymphadenitis, retropharyngeal abscess- x-rays must be obtained
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12
Q

Beta 2 Adrenoceptors- what drug acts on this receptor AND stimulates the release of a metabolic hormone

A

Albuterol - cause release of insulin via activation of beta cells in pancreas

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13
Q

Scaphoid bone fracture- define displaced vs. non-displaced- treatment for each

A

Non-displaced fracture = wrist immobilization

Displaced fracture = surgery

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14
Q

Minimal change disease- pathogenesis

A

Pathogenesis: T-cell mediated injury to podocytes

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15
Q

Acute coronary syndrome- atypical presentation- what lab/scan/procedure do you order?

A

atypical presentation = abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting = women, ELDERLY, diabetes, hx of smokingorder ECG

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16
Q

For Chlamydia and Gonorrhoeae- treatment when nucleic acid amplification test +/– treatment when gram stain +/-

A

if nucleic acid amplification test (+) you don’t have to treat for both if only (+) for 1but if a gram stain (+) for 1 then treat for both

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17
Q

Legionnaires Disease- Presentation- Labs

A

atypical community acquired pneumonia also you get diarrhealabs: hyponatremia, hepatic dysfunction, hematuria, proteinuria, neutrophils, no organisms in sputum stain

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18
Q

Jervell-Lange-Nielsen Syndrome- Genetics- History- Presentation

A

Autosomal recessive, pt. hx, family hx, sudden death, congenital sensorineural deafness, QT prolongation

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19
Q

In elderly pts w/anemia taking NSAIDS or aspirin- Etiology of anemia

A

most common cause = iron deficiency anemia from blood loss in GI tract

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20
Q

Sarcoidosis- Epidemiology - Presentation

A

Most common African American woman 3rd and 4th decade life. Most common effects lungs hilar adenopathy and reticular opacities xray.Symptomatic cough, erythema nodosum, ANTERIOR UVEITIS, and arthritis.

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21
Q

Kleptomania

A

Rare impulse control theft were stolen items have no value or use to the person.Treatment Cognitive behavioral psychotherapy

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22
Q

Syringomyelia- Definition- Associated w/ other disease- Presentation

A

Fluid filled cavity located within the cervical and thoracic spinal cord. Associated with Arnold Chairi malformationtype (1). Presents areflexic weakness in the upper extremities and dissociated sensory loss following a “cape”distribution.

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23
Q

Cyanide toxicity- Occurs in patients treated with too much _________- Or patients who can’t clear that drug because they have this problem _________- How does the drug turn into cyanide?- Presentation

A

Can occur in patients treated with nitroprusside who receive prolonged infusions, higher doses or have underlyingrenal insufficiency. Metabolism nitroprusside releases nitric oxide and cyanide. Cyanide causes altered mental status,lactic acidosis, seizures, and coma.

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24
Q

Chronic Granulomatous disease:- Pathogenesis- Diagnosis

A

Dysfunction of phagocytic cells NADPH oxidase enzyme complex. Diagnosis is made by nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT)slide test.

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25
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS):- Etiology- Presentation- Labs

A

X-linked recessive. Defect in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome protein (WASP). Presentation: young boy with eczema, thrombocytopenia, and recurrent infections with encapsulated organisms. At birth may have petechiae, bruises, bleeding from circumcision. or bloody stools. Low IgM, high IgA, and IgE levels. Poor response to polysaccharide antigens, and moderately reduced T-cells and platelets.

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26
Q

Chediak-Higashi syndrome:- Labs- Presentation

A

Characterized by decreased degranulation, chemotaxis, and granulopoiesis. Partial oculocutaneous albinism,neuropathy, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia. Labs neutropenia, and giant lysosomes confirm diagnosis.

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27
Q

Leukocyte adhesion defect (LAD):- Pathogenesis- Pathology- Presentation

A

Defective tethering, adhesion, and targeting of myeloid leukocytes to sites of microbial invasion. Neutrophilia without PMNs in pus. Loss of baby and adult teeth.

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28
Q

Hyper- IGE (Job’s) syndrome:- Presentation- Labs

A

Chronic pruritus dermatitis, recurrent staph infections, elevated IgE levels, eosinophilia and coarse facial features.

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29
Q

Chronic Hepatitis B: - Best treatment

A

Treatment of choice: Tenofovir and then Entecavir.

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30
Q

Hepatitis C- Treatment

A

Treatment: Pegylated interferon plus ribavirin

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31
Q

Systemic Lupus erythematosus (SLE):- Pathogenesis of pancytopenia

A

SLE can cause pancytopenia due to concurrent peripheral immune-mediated destruction of all 3 cell lines.

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32
Q

Management of Psychosis:

A

Second generation antipsychotics such as quetiapine, risperidone, olanzapine, aripiprazole, ziprasidone, andpaliperidone. Clozapine is a second generation antipsychotic that is considered the gold standard treatment for treatment resistantschizophrenia. Cause agranulocytosis.

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33
Q

Acute abnormal uterine bleeding:- If patient is stable, what is the first line treatment?

A

If stable first line treatment is hormonal medication high dose estrogen (conjugated equine estrogen).

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34
Q

Cystic fibrosis- Describe the pathophysiology leading to excess bleeding in these patients

A

Fat malabsorption common leading to vitamin K deficiency. Leads to deficiency in coagulation factors II, VII, IX, andX. also C and S. 1972

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35
Q

Lichen sclerosus(lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, LS & A): Define- Epidemiology- Presentation- Physical exam findings- Labs/scans/tests- Treatment

A

Chronic inflammatory condition of the anogenital region that most commonly affects postmenopausal women andmanifests with vulvar pruritus and discomfort. Exam shows porcelain white atrophic. Must obtain biopsy to R/O vulvar SCC. Treatment is high potency topical corticosteroids.

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36
Q

Aortic dissection- Classic presentation- Highest risk factor

A

Causes chest pain that classically described as sudden, tearing, and radiating to the back. Hypertension is the mostcommon predisposing factor.

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37
Q

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS):- Can be a complication of acute ________- Pathogenesis of ARDS caused by acute _______

A

Can be caused by acute pancreatitis with increase in serum phospholipase A2 from pancreas. This enzyme leaks intoalveoli and damages surfactant.

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38
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome:- Characterized by a triad of signs & symptoms

A

Characterized by triad of thrombocytopenia seen in over 90% of patients at diagnosis, eczema, and recurrentinfections.

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39
Q

Mid Cycle pain (mittelschmerz):- Presentation- What causes the pain?

A

Abdominal pain in a young female in the middle of her cycle with a benign history and clinical examination. The painis due to ovulation itself and tends to occur on the side that produces the mature ovum.

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40
Q

Duodenal ulcer disease/Peptic ulcer disease:- How does the pain react to eating?- How many % have H.pylori?- Treatment

A

Epigastric pain relieved with eating as food causes alkali solution to released into the duodenum. Over 90 have H.pylori. Treatment omeprazole and antibiotics amoxicillin plus clarithromycin.

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41
Q

Gastric Ulcers- How does the pain react to eating?

A

Pain is worse with eating

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42
Q

Physiologic shunting (V/Q mismatch):- Auscultation- Physical exam = Effect on oxygen saturation with consolidated left lobe hypothetically

A

Normal upright person ventilation and perfusion greatest at the lung bases and least at apices. In a consolidated leftlobe. A patient will become hypoxic when lying on left side, but have normal O2 sats when lying on right because ofthis principle.

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43
Q

Viral Arthritis- Presentation- Labs- Treatment

A

Presents with symmetric small joint inflammatory arthritis. Distinguished by that fact it tends to resolve within twomonths. Positive inflammatory markers such as ANA and rheumatoid factor may occur. Treatment NSAIDS.

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44
Q

Diabetic foot ulcer- Risk factor (most important)- Physical exam

A

Risk factors diabetic neuropathy is most important contributing factor and can be accessed using a 10g monofilament.Ankle-brachial index (ABI) primarily a measure of large vessel PAD.

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45
Q

Renal artery stenosis- Triad of signs/symptoms

A

Systolic-diastolic abdominal bruit in a patient with hypertension and atherosclerosis is strongly suggestive.

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46
Q

Osteomalacia- Pathogenesis- Can be caused by this disease ________- Labs

A

Due to defective mineralization of organic bone matrix. Can be caused by celiac sprue. Labs show elevated alkalinephosphatase, elevated PTH, hypophosphatemia and hypocalcemia.

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47
Q

Emphysematous cholecystitis:- Epidemiology- Pathogenesis

A

Common form of acute cholecystitis in elderly diabetic males. It arises due to infection of gallbladder wall with gas-forming bacteria.

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48
Q

Paget’s disease of the breast:- Presentation- Histopathology

A

No prior history of skin disease who presents with eczematous rash near the nipple that does not improve with topicaltreatments. Most have underlying adenocarcinoma which show large cells surrounded by a halo-like area.

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49
Q

Beta blocker overdose- Presentation- Complications- Treatments

A

Presents with bradycardia, hypotension, wheezing, hypoglycemia, delirium, seizures, and cardiogenic shock.Intravenous fluids and atropine are first line treatment options. Intravenous glucagon should beadministered in patients with profound or refractory hypotension.

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50
Q

Hereditary telangiectasia (Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome):- Genetics- Pathology- Pathophysiology- Presentation

A

Autosomal dominant disorder. Characterized by diffuse telangiectasia, recurrent epistaxis, and widespread AVmalformations (AVM). AVM in lungs cause shunt of blood right to left side of heart, leading to chronic hypoxia andreactive polycythemia. Digital clubbing. Possible fatal hemoptysis with recurrent nose bleeds and oral lesions.

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51
Q

Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML):- Genetics- Pathophysiology- Describe leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity

A

Low levels of leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) activity due to abnormal fusion gene t(9;22) (BCR/ABL1) causesdysregulation of tyrosine kinase activity. Leads to decreased apoptosis of myeloid cells and they accumulate highnumbers. They are functionally inactive, so low LAP activity.

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52
Q

Primary dysmenorrhea:- Pathophysiology- Treatment

A

Examination is normal and pain is during the first few days of menses. Pain pathophysiology release of prostaglandinsfrom endometrium causes uterine contractions. Treatment NSAIDS.

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53
Q

Cirrhosis- Etiology (most common)

A

Chronic alcohol abuse and viral hepatitis ( think B and C infection) are the most common underlying cause of cirrhosis.

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54
Q

Primary adrenal insufficiency:- Most common Etiology- Cortisol high or low?- ACTH high or low?- Aldosterone high or low?

A

Most common cause Autoimmune. Cortisol = decreased; ACTH = increased; Aldosterone = decreased

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55
Q

Secondary adrenal insufficiency:- Most common Etiology- Cortisol high or low?- ACTH high or low?- Aldosterone high or low?

A

Most common cause chronic glucocorticoid therapy. Cortisol = decreased; ACTH = decreased; Aldosterone = Normal

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56
Q

Lyme disease- Treatment in young children and pregnant/lactating women- Treatment in normal people

A

Oral amoxicillin is treatment of choice in pregnant and lactating women as well as children age

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57
Q

Aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD):- Epidemiology- Pathogenesis- Treatment

A

Seen patients with history of asthmatic or chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyposis. Non-IgE mediated reaction thatresults from aspirin induced prostaglandin/leukotriene misbalance. Treatment stop NSAIDS use leukotriene antagonistmontelukast.

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58
Q

Acute cardiac tamponade:- Etiology - Presentation- chest x-ray findings

A

Patient presents with hypotension (UNRESPONSIVE to IV FLUID bolus), tachycardia, and elevated jugular pressure after blunt thoracic trauma. Only takes 100-200mL of fluid, so chest X-ray can sometimes be normal.

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59
Q

Criteria for HIV patient vaccinations:- MMR?- Contraindications?

A

Patients with HIV should receive vaccination for MMR if their CD4 cell count is >200/uL, they have no history ofAIDS-defining illness, and they have no evidence of immunity.Lack of current ART is not a contraindication.Otherwise all other live vaccines are contraindicated.

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60
Q

Bacterial sinusitis- Biggest risk factor

A

The most common predisposing factor for acute bacterial sinusitis is a viral respiratory infection.

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61
Q

Primary CNS lymphoma:- Epidemiology- Presentation- Labs, CSF, MRI

A

Suspect primary CNS lymphoma in an HIV-infected patient with an altered mental status, ((EBV DNA in the CSF)), and asolitary, weakly ring-enhancing periventricular mass on MRI.

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62
Q

Viral conjunctivitis- Treatment

A

Self-limited condition associated with adenovirus and other URI. Treat symptomatic with COOL, MOIST COMPRESSES.

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63
Q

Antithyroid drugs propylthiouracil (PTU) and methimazole (MMI):- Complication- Presentation of complication- Treatment- Labs

A

Can cause agranulocytosis: Patient will complain of fever and sore throat. STOP MEDICATIONS IMMEDIATELY. Recheck WBC count.

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64
Q

Chronic beclomethasone use in asthma:- most common adverse effect

A

Most common adverse effect of inhaled corticosteroid therapy is oropharyngeal thrush.

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65
Q

Uterine fibroids- Diagnosis

A

Work up: Pelvic ultrasound is the prefered initial imaging modality for suspected gynecological tumors. It has a highsensitivity for diagnosing uterine fibroids and ovarian pathology.

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66
Q

Brain death- Define- Legal authority

A

Brain death refers to a total loss of brain function and is legally acceptable definition of death. Family permission is not legally required to discontinue mechanical ventilation in a patient with brain death.

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67
Q

Acute coronary syndrome:- How can lidocaine affect the heart?

A

Although it can decrease the risk of ventricular fibrillation, it may increase the risk of asystole.

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68
Q

Glascow Coma scale:- Is determined by measuring what?

A

Eye Opening; Verbal Response; Motor Response.

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69
Q

Endometriosis- Fertility prognosis

A

At increased risk of impaired fertility or infertility due to chronic inflammation and adhesion formation.

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70
Q

Endometriosis- Treatment- Diagnosis (when to diagnose?)

A

Laparoscopy with visualization and biopsy of implants is the only definitive way to diagnose endometriosis. It isindicated when NSAIDS and hormonal contraceptive therapy have failed.

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71
Q

Atypical antipsychotics:- side effects- treatment of side effects

A

Example: risperidone can cause extrapyramidal side effects and can be treated with anticholinergic medication likebenztropine.

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72
Q

Acute pharyngitis children and adolescent:- Diagnosis (gold standard)

A

Diagnose with rapid streptococcal antigen test (RAST) or throat culture which is gold standard. Antistreptolysin Oantibody is useless for acute infection because antibodies do not present for one month.

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73
Q

Premature ovarian failure:- Presentation- Diagnosis - FSH/LH ratio - FSH & LH up or down - Estrogen up or down

A

Women under age 40 with elevation in FSH for greater than or equal to 3 months of amenorrhea. FSH increased; LH increased; FSH/LH ratio >1.0; estrogen decreased.

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74
Q

Anterior cerebral artery stroke:- Presentation

A

Characterized by contralateral motor or sensory deficits, which are more pronounced in the lower limb than the upperlimb. Urinary incontinence can also be seen occassionaly.

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75
Q

What bone problems do immobilized patients have?

What’s the treatment?

A

With high bone turnover as seen in young people and Paget’s disease can have increased osteoclast activity leadingto hypercalcemia. Hydration and bisphosphonates are effective treatments.

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76
Q

Osteoarthritis 3 criteria

A

In the setting of knee pain: age >50; crepitus; bony enlargement, bony tenderness, and a lack of warmth/morning stiffness. If three criteria met specificity is 69%.

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77
Q

Statin medication recommendation:

A

Primary prevention in patients age 40-75 with a 10-year risk of atherosclerotic disease ≥7.5%.

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78
Q

Anticholinergic toxicity:

  • Presentation
  • Common causes
A

Classic findings are dry skin, dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, flushing, vision change, and confusion. Often seen in the treatment of Parkinson disease due to treatment of EPS. Trihexyphenidyl and bromocriptine are common culprits.

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79
Q

Cushing syndrome:

A

High- dose dexamethasone does not suppress plasma cortisol levels in patients with ectopic ACTH syndrome.

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80
Q

Cushing’s Disease

A

ACTH-producing pituitary adenoma. Partially inhibited by high- dose dexamethasone.

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81
Q

Potassium sparing diuretics:

A

triamterene and amiloride

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82
Q

Ascites treatment

A
1. Sodium and water restriction. 2. Spironolactone. 3. Loop diuretics (not more than 1L/day of diuresis) 4. Frequent
abdominal paracentesis (2-4 L/day, as long as the renal function is okay)
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83
Q

“Fight bite”:

A

Clenched fist injury to hand from person fist hits opponents teeth. Treatment of choice for prophylaxis is amoxicillin-clavulanate since infection is usually polymicrobial. Also used for dog bites.

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84
Q

Stress test for CAD:

A

Beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, and nitrates are antianginal agents that are healed 48 before performing a
cardiac stress test.

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85
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) vs. preeclampsia

A

Hypertension in a pregnant female in the setting of massive proteinuria, malar rash, and a strongly positive ANA titer is most likely due to SLE. Glomerulonephritis in general will cause proteinuria, hematuria, and RBC casts. Not to be confused with what occurs in preeclampsia.

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86
Q

Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia:

  • Blood viscosity
  • Associated Ig
  • Diagnosis
A

Characterized by hyperviscosity of blood owing to the excess production of IgM. Two important diagnostic clues: 1. An IgM spike on electrophoresis 2. hyperviscosity.

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87
Q

Multiple myeloma:

  • Blood viscosity
  • Associated Ig
A

Immunoglobulins are usually IgG or IgA. No hyperviscosity.

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88
Q

Medications that cause cholestasis:

A

chlorpromazine, nitrofurantoin, erythromycin, anabolic steroids

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89
Q

Medications that cause fatty liver:

A

tetracycline, valproate, and antiretrovirals

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90
Q

Medications that cause hepatitis:

A

halothane, phenytoin, isoniazid, and alpha-methyldopa

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91
Q

Medications that cause toxic or fulminant liver failure:

A

carbon tetrachloride and acetaminophen

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92
Q

Medications that cause granulomatous liver:

A

allopurinol and phenylbutazone

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93
Q

Molluscum contagiosum:

  • Etiology
  • Epidemiology
A

Caused by Pox virus. Commonly seen in patient who have CELLULAR IMMUNODEFICIENCY such as HIV and patients on corticosteroids or chemotherapy.

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94
Q

Homocystinuria:

  • Genetics
  • Presentation
A

MARFANOID BODY HABITUS that is autosomal recessive. INTELLECTUAL DISABILITY, FAIR complexion, CEREBROVASCULAR ACCIDENTS, megaloblastic anemia, and thrombosis.

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95
Q

Fabry disease (α-galactosidase deficiency):

  • Triad presentation
  • Complication
A

Characterized by angiokeratomas, peripheral neuropathy, and asymptomatic corneal dystrophy. At risk for thromboembolic event.

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96
Q

Krabbe disease:

  • Genetics
  • Pathogenesis
  • Presentation
A

Autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disorder caused by galactocerebrosidase deficiency. Clinical features
intellectual disability, blindness, deafness, paralysis, neuropathy, and seizures.

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97
Q

Phenylketonuria:

  • Etiology
  • Pathogenesis
  • Presentation
A

Inborn error of metabolism that results from a deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase. Clinical features intellectual disability, fair complexion, eczema, and a musty body odor.

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98
Q

Tay-Sachs disease:

  • Etiology
  • Pathogenesis
  • Presentation
A

Autosomal recessive gangliosidosis caused by a deficiency of β-hexosaminidase A. Clinical features intellectual disability, weakness, seizures, and presence of a cherry- red macula on examination.

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99
Q

Gestational diabetes mellitus:

  • Screening done when?
  • Target glucose levels @ 1 and 2 hours
  • First line treatment
  • Second line treatment
A

Screen weeks 24-28. Target blood glucose levels: Fasting ≤95 mg/dL; 1-hour postprandial ≤140 mg/dL; 2-hour postprandial ≤120 mg/dL. First line treatment: dietary modification; Second line treatment: Insulin, oral agents (metformin, glyburide)

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100
Q

Gestational diabetes mellitus newborn risks

A

Polycythemia (hct >65%), hyperviscosity, organomegaly, macrosomia, hypoglycemia

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101
Q

Panic disorder:

  • Comorbidities
  • Treatment
A

Comorbidities include MAJOR DEPRESSION, agoraphobia, bipolar disorder, and substance abuse. Higher rates of suicide attempts. Tx: SSRI

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102
Q

Fibromuscular dysplasia:

  • Pathology
  • Presentation
A

Noninflammatory and nonsclerotic condition primarily effectting renal arteries causing hypertension. Can affect carotid and vertebral with TIA like symptoms. Can hear carotid bruit.

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103
Q

Acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF):

  • Presentation
  • Treatment
A

Presents with acute pulmonary edema. Tx: Oxygen, assisted ventilation, aggressive intravenous diuresis (furosemide), and possible vasodilator therapy.

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104
Q

Unilateral cervical lymphadenitis:

  • Epidemiology
  • Etiology
  • Treatment
A

Acute, unilateral cervical adenitis in children is typically caused by streptococcal or staphylococcal infection. The treatment consists of clindamycin plus incision and drainage.

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105
Q

Torsades de pointes (TdP):

  • Define
  • Treatment
A

Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that occurs in the setting of congenital or acquired prolonged QT interval. Tx: Immediate defibrillation is indicated in hemodynamically unstable patients with TdP, while intravenous magnesium is the first-line therapy for stable patients with recurrent episodes of TdP.

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106
Q

Acute type A aortic dissection:

  • Diagnosis
  • Treatment
A

Must get a TEE, so you can rapidly diagnose and treat. Surgical emergency!

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107
Q

Single photon emission CT scan:

A

Tool to evaluate CAD and indicates inducible ischemia when a reversible defect is noted on stress and rest.
Antiplatelet therapy, beta blockers, and life style modification.

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108
Q

Insulinoma:

A

Beta cell tumor: elevated levels of insulin, c-peptide, and proinsulin.

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109
Q

Parapneumonic effusions:

A

When the pH of the pleural fluid is less than 7.2, the probability is very high that this is an empyema and must be drained.

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110
Q

Metronidazole:

A

Should not drink alcohol because of disulfiram-like reaction.

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111
Q

Somatic symptom disorder:

A

Involve one or more somatic complaints (including pain) that are distressing or result in significant disruption of life, with excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to these symptoms and lasting ≥6 months.

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112
Q

Vitamin D Toxicity

  • Etiology
  • Presentation
A

Toxicity mainly due to hypercalcemia and includes constipation, abdominal pain, polyuria, and polydipsia.

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113
Q

Pneumonia pathophysiology oxygen exchange:

A

Hypoxia in pneumonia causes areas of V/Q mismatch that manifests as increase in the alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient.

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114
Q

Daughters of women who took diethylstilbestrol during pregnancy:

  • Risks
  • Pathology
A

Increased risk of developing CLEAR CELL ADENOCARCINOMA of the vagina and cervix. Daughters and sons with in utero exposure also have structural anomalies of the reproductive tract (HOODED CERVIX, T-shaped uterus, small uterine cavity, vaginal septae, vaginal adenosis)

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115
Q

Labor pre eclampsia magnesium sulphate treatment:

A

Depression of the deep tendon reflexes is the earliest sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity. STOP the MAGNESIUM SULPHATE infusion and administration of CALCIUM GLUCONATE.

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116
Q

HIV patient with Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP):

A

Trimehoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is drug of choice. Corticosteroids decrease mortality in severe PCP
infections and should be given if PaO2 ≤70 mmHG or A-a gradient ≥35 mmHg on room air.

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117
Q

Hematuria suggests on timing during stream:

A

Initial hematuria suggests urethral damage. Terminal hematuria indicates bladder or prostatic damage, and total
hematuria reflects damage in the kidney or ureters. Clots are not usually seen with renal causes of hematuria.

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118
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia management:

A

Newborn with concave abdomen and barrel shaped chest with absent breath sounds on one side needs emergency
intubation with cautious ventilations

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119
Q

Chronic hepatitis C asymptomatic presentation and extrahepatic sequelae:

A

Presents with fatigue and nonspecific symptoms. Patients transaminases wax and wane. Extrahepatic sequelae can
include essential mixed cryoglobulinemia, porphyria cutanea tarda, and membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.

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120
Q

HIV ophthalmologic problems:

A

In HIV patients, both HSV and VZV can cause severe,acute retinal necrosis associated with pain, keratitis, uveitis, and fundoscopic findings of peripheral pale lesions and central retinal necrosis. CMV retinitis is painless.

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121
Q

Cerebellar hemorrhage:

A

Patients typically have headache, neck stiffness, gait ataxia, and no hemiparesis

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122
Q

Putamen hemorragia:

A

Most common cause is hypertension. Next to internal capsule, so leads to hemiparesis.

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123
Q

Pontine hemorragia:

A

Coma due to disruption of reticular activating system, and quadriplegia that develops within a few minutes.
Pinpoint pupils, but may react strongly to light with no horizontal movement. Decerebrate rigidity.

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124
Q

Adrenal tuberculosis:

A

Patient who presents with clinical features of adrenal insufficiency and calcifications in the adrenal glands.

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125
Q

Diabetic neuropathy:

A

Presents with alterations in sensation, including loss of proprioception. When motor findings are present and patient has hyperactive reflexes and an upgoing plantar reflex (UMN) you need to get an MRI of spine for epidural abscess or cord compression.

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126
Q

Tea and toast diet is associated with what:

A

Folic acid deficiency. Folic acid is heat sensitive and deficiency cause macrocytic anemia.

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127
Q

Thalamic stroke (Dejerine-Roussy syndrome):

A

Caused by a stroke involving the VPL nucleus of the thalamus, which transmits sensory information from the
contralateral side of the body. Classically presents with contralateral hemianesthesia that can be accompanied by
transient hemiparesis, athetosis, or ballistic movements.

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128
Q

Midbrain and medulla strokes have in common:

A

Classically involve the nuclei of the cranial nerves.

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129
Q

Schizoaffective disorder:

A

Characterized by a significant mood episode (depressive or manic) with concurrent psychotic symptoms in addition to a period of psychosis without mood symptoms of at least 2 weeks.

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130
Q

Chloroquine resistant Plasmodium falciparum:

A

Common in Sub-Saharan Africa, the Amazon basin, and Southern and Southeast Asia. Tx chemoprophylaxis is
mefloquine, atovaquone-proguanil.

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131
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum:

A

Patients with multifetal gestation or molar pregnancy are at increased risk for hyperemesis gravidarum therefore an
ultrasound should be performed in pregnant women with severe vomiting.

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132
Q

Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD):

A

Clues to diagnosis: hypertension, palpable bilateral abdominal masses and microhematuria. Remember intracranial berry aneurysm is a common complication. No screening recommended.

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133
Q

Obstructive uropathy:

A

Causes flank pain, low volume voids with or without occasional high volume voids, and if bilateral renal dysfunction.

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134
Q

Interstitial nephritis:

A

Most frequently occurs as a drug reaction. Patient present with fever, rash, acute renal dysfunction, and eosinophiluria with white blood cell casts.

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135
Q

Glomerulonephritis:

A

Presents with hematuria, red blood cell casts, acute renal failure, hypertension, and edema.

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136
Q

Chagas disease (Trypanosoma cruzi):

A

Primarily affects the heart (cardiomyopathy, RBBB) and gastrointestinal tract (megacolon, megaesophagus). First line treatment Benznidazole.

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137
Q

Strongyloidiasis:

A

Presents with urticaria, abdominal pain, and respiratory problems (dry cough, dyspnea, wheezing). First line treatment ivermectin.

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138
Q

Onchocerciasis (“river blindness”)

A

Causes ocular lesions and dermatitis. Treatment is ivermectin.

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139
Q

Empyema

A

Most commonly occurs in the setting of untreated pneumonia due to bacterial seeding of a pleural effusion. Most common bacteria are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus Aureus, and Klebsiella pneumonia.

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140
Q

Management of placenta previa:

A

Depends on the severity of bleeding and the age of the pregnancy. Complete placenta previa requires delivery by cesarean section. If mother and baby are stable SCHEDULED cesarian section.

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141
Q

By age 12 months height and weight and developmental:

A

Weight should TRIPLE and height should INCREASE 50%. Walking independently, using a 2-finger pincer grasp, saying a few words other than “mama” and “dada” and imitating the actions of others.

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142
Q

By age 9 months developmental milestones: gross motor; fine motor; language; social/cognitive.

A

Pulls to stand and cruises; 3-finger grasp and holds bottle or cup; Says “mama” and “dada”; Waves “bye” and plays
pat-a-cake

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143
Q

By age 6 months developmental milestones: gross motor; fine motor; language; social/cognitive.

A

Sits momentarily propped on hands (unsupported by 7 months); Transfers objects hand to hand and raking grasp;
Responds to name and babbles; Stranger anxiety.

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144
Q

By age 4 months developmental milestones: gross motor; fine motor; language; social/cognitive.

A

Sits with trunk support and begins to rolling; Hands mostly open and reaches midline; Laughs and turns to voice;
Enjoys looking around

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145
Q

By age 2 months developmental milestones: gross motor; fine motor; language; social/cognitive.

A

Lifts head/chest inprone position; Hands unfisted 50% of time, tracks pasat midline; Alerts to voice/sound and coos;
Social smile and recognizes parents.

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146
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis at increased risk for:

A

Developing osteopenia, osteoporosis, and bone fracture. Management adequate physical activity, optimization of calcium and vitamin D intake, minimization of corticosteroid therapy, and consideration for bisphosphonate treatment.

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147
Q

Acute liver failure:

A

Most often due to acute viral hepatitis, ACETAMINOPHEN TOXICITY, and ischemic hepatopathy. Characteristic findings include the acute onset of markedly elevated transaminases ( often in the thousands), reduced hepatic synthetic function, and encephalopathy.

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148
Q

Galactosemia characteristics and metabolic disorder:

A

Newborn or young infant with failure to thrive, bilateral cataracts, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. GALACTOSE-1-PHOSPHATE URIDYL TRANSFERASE DEFICIENCY leads to ELEVATED BLOOD GALACTOSE.

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149
Q

Galactokinase deficiency:

A

Presents with cataracts only, otherwise asymptomatic.

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150
Q

Circumstantiality:

A

Thought process deviate from original subject but eventually return to it.

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151
Q

Tangentiality:

A

Thought process in which there is abrupt, permanent deviation from the current subject. This new thought process is minimally relevant at best and never returns to the original subject.

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152
Q

Loose association:

A

Best described as the lack of a logical connection between the thoughts or ideas of an individual. It tends to be more severe form of tangentiality in which one statement follows another but there is no clear association between the sentences.

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153
Q

Preservation

A

Repetition of words or ideas during a conversation.

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154
Q

Flight of ideas:

A

Loosely associated thoughts that rapidly move from topic to topic.

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155
Q

Contact lens-associated infectious keratitis:

A

Medical emergency: causes painful, red eye and opacification and ulceration of the cornea. Most case are due to Gram-negative organisms such as Pseudomonas and Serratia, but can be from gram-positive, fungi, and amoebas. Tx with topical broad spectrum antibiotics.

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156
Q

Pneumoperitoneum

A

Radiograph reveals intraperitoneal air between the liver and diaphragm. This is surgical emergency.

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157
Q

Secondary pneumothorax:

A

Should be suspected in COPD patients presenting with catastrophic worsening of their respiratory symptoms and is
usually due to dilated alveolar blebs that rupture air into the pleural space.

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158
Q

Patient with metabolic acidosis:

A

Calculate the anion gap: AG = Na - (HCO3 + Cl)
KARMEL: K — Ketoacidosis; A — aspirin; R — Renal failure; M — Methanol; E — Ethylene glycol; L — Lactic
acidosis

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159
Q

Multiple myeloma:

A

An elderly patient with bone pain, renal failure, and hypercalcemia. Renal insufficiency most likely due to obstruction of the distal and collecting tubules by large laminated casts containing PARAPROTEINS (mainly Bence Jones protein).

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160
Q

External cephalic version:

A

Can be attempted in women with breech pregnancies at ≥37 weeks gestational age if there are no contraindications to vaginal delivery, and fetal well-being has been established.

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161
Q

Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML):

A

Reciprocal translocation of chromosome 9 and 33 can form the Philadelphia chromosome containing BCR/ABL fusion gene. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are key treatments. Non-receptor tyrosine kinase.

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162
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APML):

A

Retinoic acid receptor is involved. Tx: All-retinoic acid.

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163
Q

Neonatal bilious emesis:

A

Signifies bowel obstruction and requires immediate X-ray to evaluate the need for emergency surgery or further
diagnostic study. Contrast studies (enema) should be performed in stable patients to determine the level of
obstruction.

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164
Q

Mullerian agenesis:

A

Phenotypically and genotypically female. They experience breast development and body hair growth at puberty but
do not menstruate due to a congenitally absent or underdeveloped uterus, cervix, and upper vaginia.

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165
Q

Biliary atresia:

A

Newborns with CONJUGATED hyperbilirubinemia and hepatosplenomegaly require immediate evaluation for biliary atresia. Evaluated with ultrasound.

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166
Q

HIV medication didanosine:

A

Induced pancreatitis

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167
Q

HIV medication abacavir:

A

related hypersensitivity syndrome.

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168
Q

HIV medication nevirapine:

A

associated liver failure.

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169
Q

HIV medication NRTIs:

A

lactic acidosis

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170
Q

HIV medication NNRTIs:

A

Steven-Johnson syndrome.

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171
Q

Solitary brain metastasis:

A

Surgical resection is recommended in patients with good performance status and stable extracranial disease In
patients with multiple metastases, whole brain radiation therapy is typically used.

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172
Q

Factitious thyrotoxicosis:

A

Results from ingestion of exogenous thyroid hormone. Signs and symptoms of thyrotoxicosis without goiter or
exophthalmos. TSH low; elevated T3/T4. Radioactive iodine uptake is low in these patients. Diagnosis is made by
low serum thyroglobulin levels.

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173
Q

Clavicular fracture:

A

If a bruit is heard need an angiogram to rule out injury to the underlying vessel.

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174
Q

Pseudogout:

A

Diagnosed by the presence of rhomboid, positively birefringent crystals in synovial fluid analysis, and radiographic evidence of chondrocalcinosis.

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175
Q

Gout:

A

Monosodium urate crystal deposition. Crystals are needle shaped and negatively birefringent on synovial fluid
analysis.

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176
Q

Most common crystal found in renal calculi:

A

Calcium oxalate

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177
Q

Struvite

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate may be found in the renal calculi of patients with UTI caused by urease-producing organisms (Klebsiella, Proteus).

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178
Q

Opioid withdrawal

A

Tx: Inpatients should be treated with methadone if they are being treated for another medical problem other than
addiction.

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179
Q

Benzodiazepine overdose difference from opioids:

A

During benzodiazepine intoxication, pupil size tends to be normal, with only mild respiratory depression.

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180
Q

Sustained monomorphic ventricular tachycardia (SMVT):

A

Hemodynamically unstable electrical cardioversion. Hemodynamically stable give amiodarone.

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181
Q

Prior to starting lithium:

A

Calcium, renal function, and thyroid function should be monitored.

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182
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA):

A

Positive direct Coomb’s test.

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183
Q

Aminoglycosides:

A

Aminoglycosides are antibiotics used to treat serious gram-negative infections. They are potentially nephrotoxic and renal functions must be monitored closely. AMIKACIN.

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184
Q

Emergency contraception:

A

The copper intrauterine device is the most effective precoital and postcoital contraceptive, with up to 99% efficacy. OCPs are less effective.

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185
Q

Cardiac tamponade:

A

Catastrophic complication of acute aortic dissection. Suspected in patients with hypotension, tachycardia, distended neck veins, and pulsus paradoxus.

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186
Q

Patients with narrow-QRS-complex tachycardia:

A

Intravenous adenosine is useful in the initial diagnosis and management. It slows the sinus rate, increases
atrioventricular (AV) nodal conduction delay, or can cause a transient block in AV node conduction. Good for
identifying P waves. Terminates PSVT sometimes.

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187
Q

Association between diabetes mellitus with nose and sinus infections with what organism:

A

mucormycosis (Rhizopus species).

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188
Q

Increased extracellular pH (respiratory alkalosis) causes dissociation:

A

Of hydrogen ions from albumin, allowing increased binding of calcium and a drop in unbound (ionised calcium. Ionized calcium is the physiologically active form, and decreased levels can result in clinical manifestations of hypoglycemia.

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189
Q

Delusional disorder:

A

Involves one or more delusions and the absence of other psychotic symptoms in an otherwise high functioning
individual.

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190
Q

Babesiosis disease:

A

Caused by parasite Babesia and is transmitted by Ixodes tick. Evidence of hemolysis in a patient who was
splenectomised highly suspicious. Diagnosed Giemsa-stained thick and thin blood smear.

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191
Q

Hypertension in overweight people:

A

Weight lose is the most effective nonpharmacologic measure to decrease blood pressure in overweight individuals.

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192
Q

Glomerular hematuria characteristics:

A

Urine studies reveal proteinuria, dysmorphic red blood cells (RBCs) or RBC cast.

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193
Q

Nonglomerular hematuria characteristics:

A

More common. Gross hematuria with normal-appearing red blood cells (RBCs) but without significant proteinuria.

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194
Q

Adrenal insufficiency due to hypopituitarism:

A

Not associated with hypoaldosteronism. Aldosterone is independent of ACTH secretion by pituitary gland.

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195
Q

Persistent pneumothorax after patient has sustained blunt chest trauma:

A

Suggests tracheobronchial rupture. Findings include pneumomediastinum and subcutaneous emphysema.

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196
Q

Mechanism of pain relief in patient with chest pain treated with nitroglycerin:

A

Dilation of veins (capacitance vessels) which leads to decrease ventricular preload.

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197
Q

Immediate postpartum period what is normal:

A

Low-grade fever, leukocytosis especially first 24 hours and vaginal discharge are normal findings. The vaginal
discharge (lochia) is initially bloody, then serous and finally white to yellow in color days following delivery.

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198
Q

When lochia is foul smelling and/or uterus is tender:

A

Start empiric antibiotics.

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199
Q

Urine chloride level:

A

<20mEq/L (saline responsive)

>20mEq/L (saline resistant)

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200
Q

Erythema Nodosum (EN) characteristics and found in what diseases:

A

Condition of painful, subcutaneous, pretibial nodules. Symptom of more serious diseases including sarcoidosis (get chest x ray especially in AAF), TB, histoplasmosis, recent streptococcal infection, and IBD.

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201
Q

Incomplete abortion findings and unstable vs stable:

A

Vaginal bleeding, a dilated cervical os, and partial expulsion of products of conception. Hemodynamically unstable: Surgical evacuation (D & C). Hemodynamically stable: Expectant management, prostaglandins (misoprostol), or surgical.

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202
Q

Threatened abortion characteristics:

A

Vaginal bleeding, closed os, and fetal cardiac activity.

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203
Q

Missed abortion:

A

No vaginal bleeding, closed cervical os, no fetal cardiac activity or empty sac.

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204
Q

Inevitable abortion:

A

Vaginal bleeding, dilated os, products of conception may be seen or felt at or above cervical os.

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205
Q

Complete abortion:

A

Veginal bleeding or none, closed cervical os, and products of conception completely expelled.

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206
Q

Most common complication in post thyroidectomy:

A

Hypoparathyroidism caused by the removal of 3 ½ parathyroid glands causes low PTH with resultant hypocalcemia and elevated phosphorus levels.

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207
Q

Lumbar spinal stenosis:

A

Common cause of back pain in patients over 60 years of age. Characterized by back pain radiating to the buttocks
and thighs that interferes with walking and lumbar extension.

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208
Q

Seronegative spondylarthritis (ankylosing spondylitis):

A

Characterized by progressive limitation of back motion and most often occurs in young men. Back pain and stiffness are typically worst in the morning and improves as day progresses.

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209
Q

Acute arterial occlusion (limb ischemia):

A

Classically presents with “5 Ps” (pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, and paralysis). Immediate anticoagulation and referral for vascular surgery.

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210
Q

Mallory-Weiss syndrome:

A

Tears occur in the distal esophagus at the gastroesophageal junction after repeated bouts of retching and vomiting. Do not confuse with Acute erosive gastritis from severe hemorrhagic erosive lesions of the gastric mucosa.

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211
Q

Cat bite treatment:

A

Wounds can be infected with Pasteurella multocida, so prophylactic treatment with 5 day course of amoxicillin/clavulanate.

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212
Q

Fanconi Anemia etiology and characteristics:

A

Autosomal recessive or X-linked disorder of chromosomal breaks usually diagnosed before age 16. Causes congenital marrow failure, with short stature, microcephaly, abnormal thumbs, and hypogonadism. Skin can be hypopigmentes or hyperpigmented, cafe au lait spots, and large freckles. Strabismus, low set ears, chronic, ear infections.

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213
Q

Mitral stenosis characteristics:

A

Causes pulmonary congestion which leads to symptoms such as exertional dyspnea, nocturnal cough, and
hemoptysis. Atrial fibrillation occurs due to atrial dilation. Especially common in patients who had rheumatic fever.

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214
Q

Variant angina (Prinzmetal’s angina):

A

Causes chest pain by coronary vasospasm. Treatment is calcium channel blocker. Nonselective β-blockers and
aspirin should be avoided because they can promote vasoconstriction.

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215
Q

ABO incompatibility:

A

Occurs generally in a group O mother with a group A or B baby. Less severe than Rh(D) incompatibility.

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216
Q

Chronic cough that worsens at night and does not improve with antihistamines:

A

Possible asthma must check PFTs.

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217
Q

Factorial design study:

A

Involve randomization to different interventions with additional study of 2 or more variables.

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218
Q

Symptomatic pulmonary embolism most common cause:

A

The proximal deep veins (iliac, femoral and politeal veins) are the source of >90% of acute PEs.

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219
Q

Meniscal tear compared to ligament tear:

A

Both case the patient feels a popping sensation during an acute event, but the swelling that occurs with meniscal tear until 12 to 24 hours. Ligament tears swell almost immediately

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220
Q

Correlation coefficient (r):

A

Shows the strength and direction (positive, negative) of linear association between 2 variables. It does not imply
causality. An r=-0.25 for HDL to carotid intima thickness would mean they are inversely proportional.

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221
Q

In postmenopausal women the initial work up of an adnexal mass: What is contraindicated:

A

Should include transvaginal ultrasonography and a serum cancer antigen (CA)125 level which has good sensitivity
and specificity for malignant adnexal mass. Needle aspiration for cytology is contraindicated due to possible cancer spread.

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222
Q

First-trimester maternal-fetal transmission of the rubella virus:

A

Teratogenic. Congenital rubella syndrome is characterized by the triad of cataracts, patent ductus arteriosus, and snesoneural hearing loss. Prevent by MATERNAL VACCINATION before conception. Must have IgM and IgG to know if current infection or previous immunity.

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223
Q

Stab wounds near artery veins can cause:

A
Arteriovenous fistulas (AVF) which can lead to high-output cardiac failure by shunting the blood from the arterial to
venous side, thereby increasing cardiac preload.  Hypoxia of tissues drives this.  Doppler ultrasound to diagnose.
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224
Q

Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) characterized by:

A

Heart rates between 160-220 beats per minute. Results from accessory conduction pathways through the AV node. Vagal maneuvers and medication (adenosine) that decrease conduction through the AV node often revolve the PSVT.

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225
Q

Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency(Type I glycogen storage disease & Von-Gierke’s disease):Characteristics

A

Appearance is a doll-like face (fat cheeks), thin extremities, short stature, and protuberant abdomen (due to enlarged liver and kidneys) in a 3-4 month old. Hypoglycemic seizures may occur.

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226
Q

Developmental milestones toddlerhood 12 months: Gross Motor; Fine motor; Language; Social/Cognitive.

A

Stands well, walks first steps independently throws ball; 2-finger pincer grasp; Says first words (other than “mama” & ”dada”); Separation anxiety, follows 1-step command with gestures

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227
Q

Developmental milestones toddlerhood 18 months: Gross Motor; Fine motor; Language; Social/Cognitive.

A

Runs, kicks ball; builds tower of 2-4 cubes, removes clothing; 10-25 word vocabulary, identifies ≥1 body part;
Understands “mine”, begins pretend play.

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228
Q

Developmental milestones toddlerhood 2 years: Gross Motor; Fine motor; Language; Social/Cognitive.

A

Walks up/down stairs with both feet on each step, jumps; Builds 6-cube tower, copies a line, turns pages; 50+ word
vocabulary, 2-word phrases; Follows 2-step command, parallel play, begins toilet training.

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229
Q

Developmental milestones toddlerhood 3 years: Gross Motor; Fine motor; Language; Social/Cognitive.

A

Walks up/down stairs with alternating feet, rides tricycle; copies a circle, uses utensils; 3-word sentences, speech 75% intelligible; Knows age/gender, imaginary play.

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230
Q

Developmental milestones toddlerhood 4 years: Gross Motor; Fine motor; Language; Social/Cognitive.

A

Balance & hops on 1 foot; Copies a square; Identifies colors, speech 100% intelligible; Cooperative play.

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231
Q

Developmental milestones toddlerhood 5 years: Gross Motor; Fine motor; Language; Social/Cognitive.

A

Skips, walks backward; Copies a triangle, ties shoelaces, independent dressing/bathing, prints letters; Counts to 10,
5-word sentences; Has friends, complete toilet-training.

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232
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome CSF findings:

A

Protein elevated (45-1000) albuminocytologic dissociation; WBC normal; RBC normal; Glucose normal.

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233
Q

Prolactin production is stimulated by:

A

Serotonin and TRH, and inhibited by dopamine. Hypothyroidism may result in amenorrhea and galactorrhea.
Prolactin inhibits GnRH release thus decreasing FSH and LH.

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234
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis are at increased risk for what cancer:

A

Lymphoma of the thyroid. anti-thyroperoxidase (TPO) antibodies.

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235
Q

Thyroid cancers of epithelial origin include: which one is C-cell origin:

A

Follicular, papillary and anaplastic; C-cell origin is medullary.

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236
Q

Management of hypercalcemia Severe: Important effects on body:

A

Severe (calcium >14mg/dL) or symptomatic: Short term (immediate treatment) Normal saline hydration plus
calcitonin. Long-term treatment bisphosphonates (zoledronic acid). Remember hypercalcemia induces urinary salt wasting, which results in significant volume depletion.

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237
Q

Massive postoperative pulmonary embolism (PE): Typical presentation:

A

Patient with hypotension, jugular venous distension, and new-onset right bundle branch block (RBBB)

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238
Q

Treatment of stable chronic angina:

A

First line therapy Beta blocker: Metoprolol, decreases myocardial contractility & HR. Improves survival.
Calcium channel blockers can be added if angina persists. Causes peripheral & coronary vasodilation.
Nitrates, Aspirin, Statin, lifestyle.

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239
Q

Patients with persistent tachyarrhythmia (narrow or wide-complex) causing hemodynamic instability
managed:

A

Immediate synchronized DC cardioversion. Stable patients get vagal maneuvers (carotid sinus massage) and/or
adenosine.

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240
Q

Vipoma is a rare tumor affecting: Describe VIPoma syndrome: Diagnosis:

A

The pancreatic cells that produce vasoactive peptide (VIP). VIPoma syndrome (pancreatic cholera) with watery
diarrhea, muscle weakness/cramps (due to hypokalemia), and hypo- or achlorhydria (due to decreased gastric acid
secretion). Stool studies show secretory diarrhea, VIP levels are >75pg/mL confirms.

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241
Q

Which of the three main treatments for Graves disease worsens eye disease initially:

A

Radioactive iodine (RAI) due to thyroid cell death and release of excess thyroid hormone.

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242
Q

Hemineglect syndrome is characterized by:

A

Ignoring the left side of a space, and involves the right (non-dominant) parietal lobe.

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243
Q

McCune-Albright syndrome:

A

Rare condition characterized by precocious puberty, cafe au lait spots and multiple bone defects (polyostotic fibrous
dysplasia). Can have other endocrine disorders.

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244
Q

Post-splenectomy patients are at increased risk for sepsis from:

A

Encapsulated organisms due to impaired antibody-mediated opsonization in phagocytosis. S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, and H. influenzae.

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245
Q

Restless legs syndrome (RLS): Treatment and mechanism.

A

First line: Dopamine agonist (pramipexole, ropinirole)

Alternative: Alpha-2-delta calcium channel ligands (gabapentin)

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246
Q

In the treatment of a patient using both sildenafil and an alpha-blocker (doxazosin):

A

It is important to give the drugs with at least a 4-hour interval to reduce the risk of hypotension.

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247
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant overdose: Treatment: Mechanism:

A

Can present with CNS, cardiac, and anticholinergic findings. Sodium bicarbonate is used to treat cardaic toxicity (QRS>100msec and ventricular arrhythmias). Sodium bicarbonate increases serum pH and extracellular sodium, therby alleviating the cardio-depressant action on sodium channels.

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248
Q

First degree AV block:

A

With normal QRS duration delay at AV node and require no further evaluation. Prolonged QRS duration likely have a conduction delay below the AV node and should have electrophysiology testing.

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249
Q

Sickle cell kid with sepsis most common species:

A

S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae.

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250
Q

Acute cholecystitis primary inciting event:

A

A gallstone obstructing the cystic duct with subsequent inflammation and infection.

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251
Q

Hypertensive intracranial hemorrhages occur most commonly:

A

In the basal ganglia, thalamus, pons, and cerebellum. Evolves over minutes to hours with focal neurologic symptoms compared to subarachnoid hemorrhages complain of severe HA do not have focal deficits.

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252
Q

Gastric outlet obstruction can be caused by ingestion:

A
Of acid (caustic substance) causes pyloric strictures to form.  This presents as early satiety, nausea, nonbilious,
vomiting and weight lose.
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253
Q

Herpetic whitlow:

A

Common viral infection of the hand by HSV 1 or 2 and is self limiting. Healthcare workers especially dentist are at risk for it. Remember multinucleated giant cells in the Tzanck smear confirms diagnosis.

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254
Q

The most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest in the immediate postinfarction period in patients with
acute MI:

A

Reentrant ventricular arrhythmias (ventricular fibrillation).

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255
Q

Hypokalemia signs and ECG findings:

A

Causes weakness, fatigue, and muscle cramps. ECG may show U wave, flat and broad T waves, and premature
ventricular beats.

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256
Q

Epidural spinal cord compression initial management:

A

Intravenous glucocorticoids (decreases vasogenic edema) and MRI.

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257
Q

Amaurosis fugax:

A

Characterized by visual loss that is transient and usually monocular. “Curtain falling down.” Most common cause
RETINAL EMBOLI from the CAROTID ARTERY.

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258
Q

Most common causes of viral meningitis are the:

A

Non-polio enteroviruses, such as echoviruses and coxsackie viruses.

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259
Q

Aspirin intoxication triad and typical blood gas analysis:

A

Triad of fever, tinnitus, and tachypnea (stimulates respiratory center in the medulla). Adults with aspirin toxicity develop a mixed respiratory alkalosis and anion gap metabolic acidosis. pH 7.39; PaCO2 20; HCO3 12.

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260
Q

Normal pH in acid base disturbance signifies:

A

A mixed respiratory and metabolic acid-base disorder.

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261
Q

Lithium exposure in the first trimester:

A

Increases the risk of cardiac malformations including septal defects and possibly Ebstein’s anomaly

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262
Q

Lithium exposure during the second and third trimester:

A

May cause goiter and transient neuromuscular dysfunction.

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263
Q

Mammograms should be performed every:

A

2 years starting at age 50 in women till age 74 at average risk for breast cancer. Not recommended after 75.

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264
Q

Thyrotoxic myopathy can present with:

A

Proximal muscle weakness with or without muscle atrophy can occur in 60-80% of patients with untreated
hyperthyroidism and correlates to the duration of the hyperthyroid state.

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265
Q

Myasthenia Gravis (MG) presentation and comorbid disease:

A

Fatigable muscle weakness that primarily involves the extraocular and bulbar musculature is the most consistent
with MG. Approximately 15% have a Thymoma, so screening with a chest CT recommended.

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266
Q

Dermatomyositis mechanism and presentation:

A

Idiopathic inflammatory myopathy with immune mediated muscle injury that can be due to paraneoplastic syndrome in malignancy. Patient typically have symmetrical proximal muscle weakness and erythematous rash over the dorsum of the fingers (Gottron’s sign) and/or upper eyelids (heliotrope eruption).

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267
Q

Lambert-Eaton key findings on PE:

A

DIMINISHED or ABSENT DEEP TENDON REFLEXES. Proximal muscle weakness, autonomic dysfunction (dry mouth).

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268
Q

Sarcoidosis can have elevated serum:

A

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) levels.

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269
Q

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion: What do lab values show and what is treatment?

A

Low plasma osmolarity especially Na (hyponatremia) with an inappropriately elevated urine osmolality and urine sodium concentration.

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270
Q

Acute cholecystitis management:

A

May be treated with observation and supportive care initially, followed by laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 72 hours during same hospitalization.

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271
Q

Distinguishing between dementia and normal changes of aging:

A

Impairment of daily functioning is seen in dementia.

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272
Q

Premature ovarian failure characterized by and treated with:

A

Amenorrhea, hypoestrogenism, and elevated gonadotropins (increased serum FSH & LH). Patients lack oocytes. Infertility is treated with in vitro fertilization with donor oocytes for women who desire pregnancy.

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273
Q

Laxative abuse is characterized by:

A

Frequent, watery, nocturnal diarrhea. Diagnoses can be confirmed with characteristic biopsy of dark brown
discoloration of the colon with lymph follicles shining though pale patches (melanosis coli).

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274
Q

Chorioamnionitis Treatment:

A

Intravenous broad spectrum antibiotics (ampicillin, gentamicin, clindamycin). Oxytocin to accelerate labor. This is not a reason for cesarean delivery.

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275
Q

Standard obstetric indications for cesarean delivery:

A

Fetal distress, breech presentation, multiple prior cesarean deliveries.

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276
Q

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state: Etiology: Symptoms:

A

Type 2 diabetics are prone to the development of a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state without ketoacidosis.
Decreased consciousness is the most common symptom, and other neurologic abnormalities such as blurred vision.

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277
Q

Breath holding spells are episodes: What should they be evaluated for:

A

Of apnea that are precipitated by frustration, anger, or pain. Age 6 months-2 years. Patients should be evaluated for iron deficiency anemia. CBC

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278
Q

CMV retinitis treatment:

A

Ganciclovir or foscarnet

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279
Q

Attributable risk percent (ARP) formula:

A

ARP =(RR-1)/RR

RR = Relative Risk

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280
Q

Digitalis toxicity causes what type of arrhythmia:

A

Leads to ectopy and increased vagal tone. Atrial tachycardia with AV block occurs from combination of these two digitalis effects and is relatively specific for digitalis.

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281
Q

Systemic and topical corticosteroids can induce: Skin finding:

A

An acneiform eruption characterized by monomorphous, erythematous follicular papules distributed on the face, trunk and extremities. Comedones are characteristically absent.

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282
Q

Hazard ratio (HR) interpretation:

A

A hazard ratio <1 indicates that an event is more likely to occur in the control group
A hazard ration >1 signifies that an event is more likely to occur in the treatment group.
A ratio close to 1 implies little difference between the 2 groups.

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283
Q

Mobitz Type I vs Mobitz Type II:

A

Mobitz Type I: Atrioventricular block has PROGRESSIVE PROLONGATION of PR interval leading to a NON-CONDUCTED P WAVE and a dropped QRS complex. Problem is conduction in the AV node.
Mobitz Type II: PR interval is always CONSTANT with no progressive prolongation and ((QRS complex drops suddenly)). Due to a block in the His-Purkinje system below AV node. Can lead to third degree block.

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284
Q

Adults who have frequent contact with children (school teacher, daycare worker) disease risk:

A

Parvovirus can cause an acute symmetric arthritis of the hands (MCP, PIP, and wrist), knees, and ankle joints. Onset is 10 days unlike RA symptoms 6 weeks. Morning stiffness 1 hour RA, and only 10-15 minutes Parvo .

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285
Q

Atrial fibrillation (AF) with rapid ventricular response (RVR): Treatment:

A

Rate control should be attempted initially with beta blockers or calcium channel blockers. Immediate synchronised electrical cardioversion is indicated in hemodynamically unstable patients.

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286
Q

The patient’s pulsatile abdominal mass is most likely: Test:

A

An abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Abdominal ultrasound is the study of choice for diagnosis.

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287
Q

All patient with chronic hepatitis C infection should get: This includes:

A

Immunized against A and B if they are not immune. Including pregnant women. Vaccines are inactivated (killed). Safe.

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288
Q

Hyperkalemia time to treat:

A

Initial evaluation is with ECG. Acute therapy is given for patients with ((ECG changes, potassium ≥7.0 mEq/L without characteristic ECG changes, or rapidly rising POTASSIUM due to tissue breakdown)).

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289
Q

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency test positive for:

A

They stain with the periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) reaction and resist digestion to diastase.

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290
Q

Glucagonoma often presents with:

A

Nonspecific symptoms and require a high index of suspicion to make the diagnosis. Patients presenting with mild diabetes mellitus or hyperglycemia with NECROTIC MIGRATORY ERYTHEMA, diarrhea, anemia, and weight lose. Glucagon >500 pg/mL. Get abdominal imaging.

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291
Q

Stress incontinence is characterised by: Mechanism: Diagnosis: Treatment:

A

The loss of small amounts of urine with increased intra-abdominal pressure, as occurs with laughing, coughing, and sneezing. Urine leakage occurs from ineffective closure of urethral sphincter. Inserting cotton swab demonstrating angle >30° upon increase abdominal pressure. Kegel exercises and urethropexy.

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292
Q

Urge incontinence: Mechanism: Treatment:

A

Results from detrusor hyperactivity and is characterized by a sudden urge to urinate that may come at any time, not just increased intraabdominal pressure. Oxybutynin.

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293
Q

Cancer-related anorexia/cachexia syndrome: Treatment: What does not work:

A

Progesterone analogs (megestrol acetate and medroxyprogesterone acetate), and corticosteroids have been shown to increase appetite and weight gain in patients. Cannabinoids show no effect.

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294
Q

Friedreich Ataxia: Genetics

A

Autosomal recessive condition characterized by an excessive number of trinucleotide repeat sequences, resulting in a tocpherol transfer protein.

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295
Q

Lupus anticoagulant, an antiphospholipid antibody, is pro-thrombotic immunoglobulin that causes:

A

A spuriously (not genuine) prolonged partial thromboplastin time in vitro.

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296
Q

PVCs are common in patients post-myocardial infarction: Treatment:

A

Recognized by their widened QRS (>120 msec), bizarre morphology, and compensatory pause. Worse prognosis but no treatment unless symptomatic then Beta blocker.

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297
Q

Diastolic and continuous murmurs as well as loud systolic murmurs revealed on cardiac auscultation should:

A

Be investigated using transthoracic doppler echocardiography. Midsystolic soft murmurs in asymptomatic young patient require no further work up.

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298
Q

Cor pulmonale: Define: Signs include: What is seen on right heart catheterization:

A

Impaired function of the right ventricle due to pulmonary hypertension that usually occurs due to chronic lung disease. Signs: Elevated JVP, right ventricle heart sound, tricuspid regurgitation murmur, pulsatile liver, LEE, ascites. Right heart catheterisation shows elevated pulmonary artery systolic pressure (>25 mmHg).

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299
Q

Hypothyroid myopathy:

A

With an unexplained elevation in serum creatine kinase concentration and myopathy. Presents with fatigue, myalgias, proximal muscle weakness, sluggish ankle reflexes. Check TSH and free T4.

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300
Q

Most likely diagnosis of an asymptomatic, immunocompetent adult patient with a non-healing, isolated ulcer in the vermillion zone of the lower lip and a significant history of sun exposure:

A

Squamous cell carcinoma: Biopsy shows invasive cords of squamous cells with keratin pearls.

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301
Q

Unilateral foot drop is characterized by: Common causes:

A

A “steppage” gait, exaggerated hip and knee flexion while walking. Common causes include L5 radiculopathy and compression peroneal neuropathy. L5 radiculopathy may also have weak foot inversion and plantar flexion.

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302
Q

Symmetric growth restriction:

A

Usually caused by fetal anomalies, abnormal fetal karyotype, and early MATERNAL VIRAL INFECTION. CMV most common and most women have no apparent symptoms.

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303
Q

Asymmetric growth restriction:

A

Generally appears later in the pregnancy and is caused by maternal vascular disease, including hypertension,
diabetes, and smoking.

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304
Q

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura-hemolytic uremic syndrome (TTP-HUS): Blood smear: Treatment:

A

Unexplained hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia in a patient with renal failure and neurologic symptoms.
Presence of fragmented cells in the peripheral smear suggest microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA).
Plasmapheresis. (ADAMTS-13)

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305
Q

Radioiodine therapy most common side effect:

A

Hypothyroidism is most common duh. Increased ophthalmopathy is second at 10%. corticosteroids before and after help.

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306
Q

Thyroid-stimulating hormone-secreting pituitary adenoma is characterized:

A

Central hyperthyroidism with elevated TSH (or inappropriately normal), T3, and T4. Patients have goiter due to TSH effects on tissue growth. VISUAL DISTURBANCES and HA from tumor growth.

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307
Q

Chronic gastrointestinal blood loss is the most common cause:

A

Iron-deficiency anemia in an adult male or a postmenopausal woman. Test for occult blood in the stool.

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308
Q

Osteoarthritis drug of choice for pain:

A

Acetaminophen because of proven efficacy and a favorable side effect profile.

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309
Q

Patient with abdominal pain, microcytic anemia, positive fecal occult blood, and hepatomegaly with a hard
edge on the liver palpation:

A

Typical features of gastrointestinal malignancy, like colon cancer, metastatic to the liver. Liver metastases manifests as right upper quadrant pain, mildly elevated liver enzymes, and firm hepatomegaly. Diagnose with CT abdomen.

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310
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis predisposes to:

A

Amyloidosis. you see renal involvement with nephrotic syndrome. Stain with Congo red and demonstrates apple-green birefringence under polarised light.

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311
Q

Chronic GERD and Barrett’s esophagus are at risk for:

A

Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.

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312
Q

Beck-Wiedemann syndrome: Genetics: Characteristics: What

A

Dysregulation of imprinted gene expression in chromosome 11p15. Characterized by macrosomia, umbilical hernia/omphalocele, hemihyperplasia (asymmetric larger arm/leg), and hypoglycemia. Children must closely monitored for development of Wilms tumor or hepatoblastoma. GET ABDOMINAL ULTRASOUND.

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313
Q

What type of glomerular disease is found in African American, obesity, heroin use, and HIV:

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS).

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314
Q

Most common causes of nephrotic syndrome:

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) and membranous nephropathy.

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315
Q

Patients with decreased fetal movement should undergo antenatal fetal testing starting with:

A

Nonstress test (NST), followed by a contraction stress test (CST) or biophysical profile if the NST is nonreactive. A CST can be performed if there is no contraindications to labor.

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316
Q

Umbilical artery doppler velocity: What is it used for:

A

Evaluation of umbilical artery flow in fetal intrauterine growth restriction only.

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317
Q

Biophysical profile: What are the five criteria:

A

Amniotic fluid level; Fetal breathing movement; Fetal movement; Fetal tone; Fetal heart rate. You get 2 points for each for total of 10. Abnormal 0, 2, and 4. Equivocal: 6 points.

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318
Q

A normal contraction stress test indicates that: When should you repeat antepartum test:

A

Fetal compromise is unlikely. The chance of fetal death within 1 week of a normal test is rare, so antepartum testing may be repeated 1 week later.

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319
Q

Patient is a 28 weeks gestation with preterm labor and rupture of the membrane. US shows bilateral renal
agenesis in fetus: What do you do next:

A

Labor should be allowed to proceed in patients where the fetus has been diagnosed with severe congenital anomaly incompatible with life.

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320
Q

Patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPW): Describe arrhythmia: Treatment unstable vs stable:

A

An accessory pathway conducts depolarization directly from the atria to the ventricles with traversing the AV node. Hemodynamically unstable require immediate electrocardioversion: Hemodynamically stable patients PROCAINAMIDE (preferred) or ibutilide.

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321
Q

In WPW what agents are not used:

A

Adenosine, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers and digoxin. These agents may promote conduction across the accessory pathway and lead to degeneration of AF to VF.

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322
Q

CHF vs COPD exacerbation: what are the blood gas differences:

A

ABG CHF: hypoxia, HYPOCAPNIA, and respiratory alkalosis; example pH 7.46, pO2 73 mmHG, ((pCO2 31 mmHg)).
ABG COPD: hypoxia, HYPERCAPNIA, and respiratory acidosis: example pH 7.39, pO2 80 mmHg ((pCO2 50 mmHg)).

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323
Q

CHF vs COPD exacerbation: What are differences on auscultation:

A

CHF: Bibasilar crackles.
COPD: Widespread bilateral wheezes.

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324
Q

Specific test for CHF:

A

B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) or pulmonary capillary wedge pressure.

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325
Q

Common bacterial pathogens cystic fibrosis: Gram-negative rod:

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Most common cause pneumonia in adolescent and adults.

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326
Q

Common bacterial pathogens cystic fibrosis: Gram-negative coccobacilli:

A

Nontypeable Haemophilus influenzae

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327
Q

Common bacterial pathogens cystic fibrosis: Gram-positive cocci in chains:

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae. Most common cause of pneumonia in all patients.

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328
Q

Common bacterial pathogens cystic fibrosis: Gram-positive cocci in clusters:

A

Staphylococcus aureus. Most common cause in infants and young children with CF

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329
Q

Patients with Neisseria meningitidis can have:

A

Petechial rash. Almost 75% have a petechial rash that is prominent on the axilla, wrists, flanks, and ankles.

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330
Q

Group B Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae): Rash describe:

A

DOES NOT HAVE A RASH.

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331
Q

Elderly patient with hip fracture after syncopal episode: Workup:

A

Surgery can be delayed up to 72 hours. Elderly patient with syncopal episode should get ECG, cardiac markers and chest- x-ray. If pulmonary edema and pleural effusion you need Echo.

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332
Q

Hypokalemia combined with computed tomography scan showing 3-cm adrenal mass suggests: Lab findings:
Causes:

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism Conn’s disease). Low renin and elevated aldosterone and serum bicarbonate. Causes
hypertension, mild hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis.

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333
Q

Patients who undergo central venous catheterization need:

A

Portable chest x-ray to confirm proper placement of the catheter tip and absence of complications beofre
administering drugs or other agents through the catheter.

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334
Q

Ischemic cardiac pain can sometimes be mistaken for: What test:

A

Epigastric pain, especially in the setting of symptoms that worsened with exertion. An exercise stress test without
imaging if the baseline ECG is normal. Stress test positive then Coronary angiography (gold standard for Dx CAD).

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335
Q

Effects of maneuvers on hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: What increases murmur intensity: Why:

A

Valsalva (straining phase), Abrupt standing (from sitting or supine position), Nitroglycerin.
Physiologic effect: Decrease in preload.

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336
Q

Effects of maneuvers on hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: What decreases murmur intensity: Why:

A
  1. Sustained hand grip 2. Squatting (from standing position) 3. Passive leg raise
    Physiologic effect: 1. Increase Afterload 2. Increase Afterload & Preload 3. Increase Preload
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337
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia: Symptoms: Treatment:

A

Severe, unbearable pain in face that is knife like, comes in paroxysms, and occurs 10-20 times a day and last a few
seconds. Carbamazepine (Prolonged use causes aplastic anemia, get routine CBCs).

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338
Q

Intravenous drug user with bacterial endocarditis with acute embolic stroke: Treatment:

A

MRI of brain. TEE of heart. Blood cultures and intravenous antibiotic therapy. Then watch. No need for antiplatelet
therapy (aspirin) that you normally give in acute ischemic stroke due to atherosclerotic thrombosis or embolism.
Medullary thyroid cancer (MTC): Presentation:
Hard nodule, elevated calcitonin, malignant cells.

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339
Q

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) Type I:

A

Primary hyper((parathyroid))
Entero((pancreatic)) tumors:
((Pituitary)) tumors:

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340
Q

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) Type 2A:

A

Medullary ((thyroid)) cancer (MTC)
((Pheochromocytoma)):
((Parathyroid)) hyperplasia:

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341
Q

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) Type 2B:

A

Medullary ((thyroid)) cancer (MTC)
((Pheochromocytoma)):
Other: mucosal & interstitial neuromas, ((marfanoid habitus))
Kyphoscoliosis and lordosis.

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342
Q

MEN 2 A & B genetics:

A

Autosomal dominant mutations involving RET proto-oncogene located on chromosome 10.

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343
Q

A nail puncture wound in an adult resulting in osteomyelitis is most likely due:

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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344
Q

Acute cocaine toxicity with myocardial ischemia: Signs/symptoms: Treatment:

A

Psychomotor agitation, dilated pupils, atrophic nasal mucosa, hypertension, ECG changes. Treatment supplemental oxygen and intravenous benzodiazepines.

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345
Q

Duodenal hematomas most commonly occur following direct trauma: Treatment:

A

Treatment is conservatively with nasogastric suction and parenteral nutrition. Most hematomas spontaneously resolve in 1-2 weeks. Pain is from gastric secretions being blocked.

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346
Q

COPD medications beta agonist:

A

Albuterol: bronchodilator

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347
Q

COPD medications anticholinergic:

A

ipratropium and tiotropium: bronchodilator:

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348
Q

Unilateral subacute hip pain in a male child coupled with progressive antalgic gait, thigh muscle atrophy,
decreased range of motion and collapse if the ipsilateral femoral head on x-ray:

A

Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral capital epiphysis (Legg-Calve-Perthes disease)

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349
Q

D-transposition of the great vessels (TGV) is the most common: Presentation:

A

Congenital cyanotic heart disease in the neonatal period. Presents in the first few hours of life with cyanosis and a
single loud second heart sound, and a narrow mediastinum “egg on a string” x-ray. Treat prostaglandins keep PDA open.

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350
Q

A solitary pulmonary nodule is defined as a lesion:

A
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351
Q

Assessment of malignancy risk for solitary pulmonary nodule: High Risk:

A

Nodule size (cm) ≥2.0; Age(yr) >60; Smoking status Current; Smoking cessation (yr)

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352
Q

Chagas disease: Cause: Endemic area: Presentation: Treatment:

A

A chronic protozoal disease caused by Trypanosoma cruzi. Latin America. Pedal edema, JVD, S3, and cardiomegaly. Because infection causes megaesophagus, megacolon, and/or cardiac dysfunction. Tx: Benznidazole

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353
Q

Pheochromocytoma treatment:

A

Do not give beta blockers without alpha blockers. A beta blocker alone may cause increases in blood pressure due to unopposed alpha- receptors. Remember alpha-1 causes vasoconstriction of peripheral vessels.

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354
Q

Pressors such as norepinephrine can cause:

A

Ischemia of the distal fingers and toes secondary to vasospasm. Diagnosis is suggested by symmetric duskiness and coolness of all the finger tips. Norepinephrine has alpha-1 agonist properties which cause vasoconstriction. This phenomenon can occur in intestines and kidneys.

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355
Q

Pulmonary compliance is measured by: Formula:

A

The plateau pressure is the measured during an inspiratory hold maneuver
Formula: Plateau pressure = elastic pressure + PEEP

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356
Q

Peak airway pressure is measured by: Formula

A

Useful in mechanically ventilated patients. Peak airway pressure (the maximum pressure measured as the tidal
volume is being delivered) equals the sum of the resistance pressure (flow x resistance) and the plateau pressure. Formula: Peak airway pressure = resistive pressure + plateau pressure

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357
Q

Positive end expiratory pressure(PEEP) is calculated using:

A

end-expiratory hold maneuver

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358
Q

Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) on mechanical ventilation: First step in management:

A

Decrease the FiO2 to relatively non-toxic values

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359
Q

Pellagra triad:

A

(3Ds): Diarrhea, Dermatitis, and Dementia, and if untreated Death. Due to niacin deficiency seen in corn based diets in Asia, Africa, and China.

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360
Q

Patients with massive pulmonary embolism usually present with: Effects on heart function:

A

Signs of low arterial perfusion (hypotension, syncope), and acute dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia.
Thrombus increases pulmonary vascular resistance and right ventricular pressure, causing ventricular hypokinesis
and dilation, decreased preload, and hypotension.

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361
Q

Cardinal symptoms in acute exacerbation of COPD: Treatment:

A

Increased dyspnea, cough, and sputum production. If patient has 2 of these give antibiotics. Moderate to severe
COPD exacerbation or those requiring ventilation also receive antibiotics.

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362
Q

The risk factors for a polyp to progressing into malignancy are from highest malignancy chance:

A

Villous adenoma, sessile adenoma, and size >2.5 cm.

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363
Q

During an acute phase myocardial infarction what heart sound can be heard:

A

An abnormal fourth heart sound (atrial gallop) due to left ventricular stiffening and dysfunction induced by myocardial ischemia.

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364
Q

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): What are the two types and what is the difference in DLCO:

A

Diffusing capacity of the lung (DLCO( is decreased in emphysema and normal in bronchitis.

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365
Q

DLCO can be decreased in:

A

interstitial lung disease. Sarcoidosis, Asbestosis.

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366
Q

Infectious cavernous sinus thrombosis (CST): Mechanism: Signs/symptoms:

A

Because the facial/ophthalmic venous system is valveless, uncontrolled infection of the skin sinuses, and orbit can spread to the cavernous sinus. Red flag symptoms include severe headache; bilateral periorbital edema; and cranial
nerve II, IV, V, and VI deficits. May see papilledema with ICH.

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367
Q

Indications for a renal & bladder ultrasound in children: Treatment:

A

Infants and children age

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368
Q

Ruptured ovarian cyst: Presentation: Pelvic ultrasound findings: Treatment:

A

Presentation: Acute onset of severe unilateral pelvic pain immediately after strenuous activity or sexual intercourse.
Pelvic ultrasound can confirm the diagnosis by showing free fluid in the pelvis. Uncomplicated analgesics,
Complicated surgery.

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369
Q

Tight blood glucose control in patients with diabetes decreases the risk of:

A

Microvascular complications (retinopathy, nephropathy), but increases risk of hypoglycemia. No change in all cause mortality.

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370
Q

Turners syndrome patients have ovarian dysgenesis which leads to:

A

Low estrogen levels and inability to mestate. The poor ovarian function because FSH levels to be high due to lack of negative feedback. LH is also elevated for the same reason.

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371
Q

Anemia of chronic disease is a disorder of: Characterized by:

A

Iron utilization that most commonly occurs in the setting of chronic inflammation. Normocytic anemia with decreased serum iron, decreased total-iron binding capacity: decreased iron saturation, and normal/elevated ferritin.

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372
Q

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, type 2, is a unique glomerulopathy:

A

That is caused by persistent activation of the alternative complement pathway. Leaves dense intramembranous
deposits that stain for C3.

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373
Q

Drug induced interstitial nephritis is usually caused by: Presentation:

A

Cephalosporins, penicillins, sulfonamides, NSAIDs, rifampin, phenytoin, and allopurinol. Patient present with
arthralgias, rash, renal failure, and the urinalysis will show eosinophiluria.

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374
Q

Patient with androgen producing adrenal tumors: What is elevated specifically:

A

Dehydroepiandrosterone-sulphate

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375
Q

Any male adolescent who presents with epistaxis, a localized mass, and a bony erosion on the back of the
nose has:

A

An angiofibroma until proven otherwise.

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376
Q

Cardiac amyloidosis should be suspected in patients with:

A

Unexplained congestive heart failure (predominantly diastolic dysfunction), echocardiography findings of increased ventricular wall thickness with normal ventricular cavity dimensions (especially in the absence of hypertension, and low voltage on ECG.

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377
Q

Metabolic alkalosis defined as:

A

pH >7.45 and serum bicarbonate level > 24 mEq/L

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378
Q

Main causes for saline- responsive Metabolic Alkalosis:

A

Vomiting/ nasogastric aspiration; Prior diuretic use; Current diuretic use.

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379
Q

Main causes of non-saline-responsive Metabolic Alkalosis:

A

Excess mineralocorticoids activity ( Primary aldosteronism, cushing’s disease, ectopic ACTH production); Barter & Gitleman syndrome.

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380
Q

Evaluation of bilious emesis in the neonate: Abdominal x-ray findings: Free air, hematemesis, unstable vital
signs: Next step:

A

Surgery

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381
Q

Evaluation of bilious emesis in the neonate: Abdominal x-ray findings: Dilated loops of bowel: Next step:
Possible diagnosis:

A

Contrast enema; If microcolon then diagnosis Meconium ileus; If rectosigmoid transition zone, then Hirschsprung
disease.

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382
Q

Evaluation of bilious emesis in the neonate: Abdominal x-ray findings: NG tube in misplaced duodenum: Next
step: Diagnosis:

A

Upper GI series; If ligament of treitz on right side of abdomen, then malrotation. (Volvulus)

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383
Q

Evaluation of bilious emesis in the neonate: Abdominal x-ray findings: Double bubble sign: Next step:
diagnosis:

A

Duodenal atresia

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384
Q

Tamoxifen: Mechanism: Used to treat: Increases the risk of what cancer:

A

Estrogen antagonist on breast tissue, agonist on endometrium, and decreases risk of osteoporosis. Treatment and prevention of breast cancer. Increases the risk of endometrial cancer. Overall mortality benefit.

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385
Q

Bell’s Palsy: Lesions in the CNS occurring above the facial nucleus will:

A

Typically cause a contralateral lower facial weakness that spares the forehead.

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386
Q

Bell’s Palsy: Forehead muscle sparing is suggestive of an:

A

Intracranial lesion and would warrant brain imaging to evaluate ischemia or tumors.

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387
Q

Invasive aspergillosis occurs in: Chest x-ray shows:

A

Immunocompromised patients, who may present with fever, cough, dyspnea, or hemoptysis. Chest x-ray may show a cavitary lesion, and CT scan shows pulmonary nodules with a halo sign or lesions with an air crescent.

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388
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS): Define: Characterize: Treatment:

A

Associated with medications that block dopamine transmission such as high potency, typical antipsychotics like haloperidol. Clinical features fever, rigidity, mental status changes, and autonomic instability. Treatment stop drug, control hyperthermia, and maintenance of electrolyte balance. Dantrolene for skeletal muscle relaxation.

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389
Q

Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) & premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD): First line treatment:

A

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) such as fluoxetine.

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390
Q

Situational syncope typical scenario would include: Mechanism:

A

A middle age or older male, who loses his consciousness immediately after urination, or a man who loses his
consciousness during coughing fits. Mechanism includes autonomic dysregulation.

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391
Q

Patient has an episode of massive hemoptysis: Defined: Treatment:

A

Defined as > 600mL of expectorated blood over 24-hour period or a bleeding rate >100 mL/hour. Greatest danger is
aspyxiation due to airway flooding. Patient placed with bleeding lung in the dependent position (lateral position).
Bronchoscopy.

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392
Q

Raloxifene first line agent for: Increases the risk of:

A

Prevention of osteoporosis, and it decreases breast cancer risk. It increase the risk of thromboembolism. Generally women should not get pregnant after rubella vaccination: How long: Recommended waiting time is 28 days, but if women inadvertently get pregnant shortly after vaccination for rubella, they can be reassured that here is little risk to the fetus and they can proceed with ((routine prenatal care)).

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393
Q

Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside with adverse effects that include:

A

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, vision changes, and arrhythmias. Get a drug level.

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394
Q

Key differences in primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) and chronic kidney disease (Secondary
hyperparathyroidism:

A

PTH levels are usually much higher in secondary than primary. In addition, serum calcium levels are low to normal in secondary hyperparathyroidism. Serum phosphorous may be low or normal in PHPT were it tends to be high in
kidney disease.

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395
Q

Post bone marrow transplant (BMT) with fever, dyspnea, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Chest x-ray shows
multifocal, diffuse infiltrates or CT with parenchymal opacifications or multiple nodules:

A

CMV pneumonitis after BMT is about 45 days, also manifests as upper and lower gastrointestinal ulcers. Diagnosis with bronchoalveolar lavage.

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396
Q

Patients with intrauterine fetal demise who develop coagulation abnormalities:

A

Should be induced without delay. Especially with low platelets. Remember fibrinogen levels are high in pregnancy therefore anything in the low normal can be an early sign of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

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397
Q

What is the most important direct role of hCG in pregnancy:

A

Maintenance of the corpus luteum.

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398
Q

Progesterone is the hormone responsible for:

A

Preparing the endometrium for implantation of a fertilized ovum.

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399
Q

What inhibits uterine contractions:

A

Progesterone

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400
Q

What causes induction of prolactin production by the pituitary during pregnancy:

A

Estrogen

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401
Q

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone secreted by:

A

Syncytiotrophoblast

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402
Q

Whipple’s disease classical biopsy findings: Presentation: Pathogen:

A

PAS positive material in the lamina propria of the small intestines. Arthralgias, ((weight loss)), fever, ((diarrhea)), and abdominal pain. Tropheryma whippeli.

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403
Q

Myotonic muscular dystrophy: Genetics: Presentation:

A

Autosomal dominant expansion CTG chromosome 19q 13.3. Onset 12-30. Patient with facial weakness, handgrip
myotonia, dysphagia. ((Arrhythmias, cataracts, balding, and testicular atrophy/infertility)). Remember Duchenne and Becker have earlier age of onset without underlined.

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404
Q

Opioid intoxication presents with:

A

((Miosis)), depressed mental status, decreased respiratory rate, decreased bowel sounds, ((hypotension)), and ((bradycardia)).

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405
Q

Neonatal sepsis treatment after complete blood count and CSF cultures:

A

Administering systemic antibiotics ampicillin plus gentamicin.

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406
Q

Most common cause of sepsis in neonatal period:

A

GBS and E. coli. Term infants more likely GBS. Preterm is E. coli.

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407
Q

Difference in treatment of infant botulism compared to foodborne botulism:

A

Infant borne: Ingestion of C. botulinum ((spores)) from environmental. Tx: ((Human)) derived botulinum immune ((globulin.))
Foodborne botulism: Ingestion of ((preformed)) C. botulinum ((toxin)). Tx: ((Equine))-derived botulinum ((antitoxin)).

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408
Q

Patient presents with septic shock and developed AST and ALT elevation one day later: Labs:

A

Presentation most consistent with ((ischemic hepatic injury)), or ((shock liver)). Hallmark of ischemic hepatopathy is a rapid and massive increase in the transaminases with modest accompanying elevation in total bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. If patient survives liver enzymes return to normal in a few weeks.

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409
Q

Sinus pauses on monitor, prolonged PR interval or QRS duration: Differential diagnosis:

A

Sick sinus syndrome, ((bradyarrhythmias)), atrioventricular block; Can be ((intermittent)).

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410
Q

Intraventricular conduction delay refers to:

A

Prolonged QRS duration.

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411
Q

Torsades de Pointes is due to:

A

Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia in the setting of prolonged QT interval. Long QTc interval

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412
Q

When looking at multiple endocrine neoplasia in a patient with HA and HT: If eye exam is normal:

A

Get plasma free metanephrine or 24-hour urine metanephrines.

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413
Q

Papillary thyroid cancer (PTC): Characterized: Prognosis:

A

Most common thyroid cancer. Characterized by a slow infiltrative local spread affecting other parts of thyroid gland and regional lymph nodes. Prognosis good. nonencapsulated

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414
Q

Follicular thyroid cancer: Histopathology:

A

Demonstration of invasion of the capsule and blood vessels is required to differentiate follicular cancers from follicular
adenomas. Early hematogenous spread to the lungs, brain, and bone.

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415
Q

Medullary cancer of the thyroid can secrete:

A

Calcitonin

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416
Q

Presence of Hurthle cells on biopsy of thyroid gland:

A

Can be seen in both follicular and papillary cancers. Hurthle cell carcinoma is a variant of follicular cell carcinoma.

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417
Q

Vitiligo: What is it: What is it associated with:

A

Vitiligo is an autoimmune condition characterized by areas of depigmentation lacking melanocytes. Vitiligo is
sometimes associated with other autoimmune conditions such as pernicious anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease,
type I diabetes mellitus, primary adrenal insufficiency, hypopituitarism, and alopecia areata.

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418
Q

In a case-control study, if the outcome is uncommon in the population:

A

The odds ration (OR) is a close approximation of the relative risk (RR) (“rare disease assumption”).

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419
Q

Thalamic hemorrhage may present with:

A

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss. Typically associated with nonreactive miotic pupils and eyes that deviate TOWARD the side of hemiparesis.

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420
Q

Basal ganglia hemorrhage may present with:

A

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss. Homonymous hemianopsia, and Gaze palsy.

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421
Q

Pons hemorrhage may present with:

A

Deep coma & total paralysis within minutes, PINPOINT reactive pupils.

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422
Q

Ethylene glycol poisoning key findings:

A

Calcium oxalate crystals (rectangular, envelope-shaped crystals) are seen in urine. Common in antifreeze.

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423
Q

Methyl alcohol poisoning key findings:

A

Can cause visual changes (“snowfield vision”) and pancreatitis.

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424
Q

Trichinellosis typically presents with:

A
Gastrointestinal complaints (abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting) followed by the characteristic triad of periorbital edema, myositis, and eosinophilia (hallmark of the disease). Other clinical findings include fever, subungual splinter
hemorrhages or retinal hemorrhages.
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425
Q

Patients with febrile neutropenia and no obvious focus of infection given normal x-ray and urinalysis:

A

Severe neutropenia seen in chemo patients should get blood cultures followed by monotherapy with an
antipseudomonal beta-lactam agent (cefepime, meropenem, piperacillin-tazobactam) provides both gram-negative & gram-positive coverage.

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426
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is predominantly seen in: Presents with: Labs show:

A

Seen in children from ages 2-10. Varying degrees of anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia. Blast cells have
condensed nuclear chromatin, small nucleoli and scant agranular cytoplasm. Histochemical staining strongly positive periodic acid Schiff (PAS). Deoxynucleotidyltransferase (TdT) is positive 95% time. 25% lymphoblasts bone marrow
diagnostic.

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427
Q

Features for ischemic reperfusion syndrome: Mechanism: Diagnosis:

A

A form of compartment syndrome (CS). Post-ischemic CS is due to interstitial edema and possibly intracellular
swelling following tissue ischemia and subsequent reperfusion such as after and embolectomy. Compartment
pressure > 300 mmHg.

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428
Q

Initial stabilization of acute ST-elevation MI: Initial drugs given:

A

Aspirin, Clopidogrel, Nitrates (sublingual), beta blocker (unless hypotension, bradycardia, CHF, heart block), High
dose statin, anticoagulation (depends on planned revascularization).

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429
Q

Initial stabilization of acute ST-elevation MI: Drug given if patient has persistent pain, hypertension, or heart
failure:

A

Intravenous nitroglycerin (not if hypotension, right ventricular infarct, or severe aortic stenosis occurs)

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430
Q

Initial stabilization of acute ST-elevation MI: Drug given persistent pain:

A

Intravenous morphine

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431
Q

Initial stabilization of acute ST-elevation MI: Drug given for unstable sinus bradycardia:

A

Intravenous atropine
Initial stabilization of acute ST-elevation MI: Drug given pulmonary edema:
Intravenous furosemide (not if patient is hypotensive or hypovolemic)

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432
Q

Osteosarcoma X-ray findings: Epidemiology:

A

Spiculated “sunburst” pattern and periosteal elevation known as the Codman triangle. Most common primary bone tume affecting children and young adults.

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433
Q

Ewing sarcoma X-ray findings:

A

An osteolytic lesion with a periosteal reaction that produces layers of reactive bone, giving the classic “onion skin” appearance. Second most common primary bone tumor.

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434
Q

Osteoid osteoma X-ray findings: Features:

A

Sclerotic, cortical lesion on imaging with a central nidus of lucency. It typically causes pain that is worse at night and
unrealted to activity. Pain is quickly relieved by NSAIDs.

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435
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH) presents with: Associated with: Treatment:

A

Erythematous papules, vesicles, and bullae that occur bilaterally, symmetrically, and in grouped “herpetiform”
arrangement on the extensor surfaces elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. Associated with gluten-sensitive
entropathy (celiac disease). Tx: Dapsone

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436
Q

Choriocarcinoma Lab:

A

Increased beta-hCG

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437
Q

Teratomas Lab:

A

Elevations in serum concentration AFP or beta-HCG can appear, due to coexistence of other germ cell tumor
components.

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438
Q

Seminomas Lab:

A

Serum tumor markers are usually normal, although beta-hCG maybe somewhat elevated if they contain
synctiotrophoblastic giant cells.

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439
Q

Yolk sac tumor (endodermal sinus tumor) Lab:

A

Germ cell tumor accompanied by an increase in serum AFP.

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440
Q

Trauma if FAST exam is inconclusive or is positive:

A

Inconclusive: diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL).
Positive: Laparotomy.

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441
Q

Evaluation of secondary amenorrhea with a negative β-hCG: What are the next labs ordered:

A

Check prolactin, TSH, FSH

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442
Q

Evaluation of secondary amenorrhea with a negative β-hCG, but increased prolactin: What test:

A

Brain MRI

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443
Q

Evaluation of secondary amenorrhea with a negative β-hCG, but increased TSH:

A

Diagnosis hypothyroidism

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444
Q

Evaluation of secondary amenorrhea with a negative β-hCG, but increases FSH:

A

Premature ovarian failure

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445
Q

Secondary amenorrhea defined as:

A

Absence of menses for ≥3 cycles or ≥6 months in women who menstruated previously.

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446
Q

Aortic valve endocarditis and intravenous drug abuse are associated with an increased risk of:

A

Periannular extension of endocarditis.

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447
Q

Serum Sickness like reaction is most commonly caused by: Presentation: Treatment:

A

Caused by β-lactams, and sulfa drugs. Symptoms arise 1-2 weeks after exposure and include fever, urticarial rash,
polyarthralgia, and lymphadenopathy. Remove offending agent.

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448
Q

Congestive heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction is characterized by:

A

Decreased cardiac output/index, increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and an increase in left ventricular
end-diastolic volume (LVEDV).

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449
Q

Carcinoid syndrome clinical manifestations: Tests:

A

Skin: flushing, telangiectasia, cyanosis; GI: diarrhea, cramping; Cardiac: valvular lesions (right>left); Pulmonary:
bronchospasms; Niacin deficiency (dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia). Diagnosis 24-hour urine 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid. CT/MRI to localize tumor. OctreoScan to detect metastasis.

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450
Q

Cell-free fetal DNA testing is a noninvasive and highly sensitive and specific screening test for:

A

fetal aneuploidy and can be ordered at ≥10 weeks gestation.

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451
Q

Abnormal cell-free fetal DNA testing results can be confirmed by:

A

Chorionic villus sampling at 10-12 weeks or amniocentesis at 15-20 weeks.

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452
Q

First trimester combined test:

A

Pregnancy- associated plasma protein, β-hCG, nuchal translucency.

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453
Q

Second trimester quadruple screen:

A

Maternal serum ɑ-fetoprotein, estriol, β-hCG, inhibin A.

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454
Q

Most common organ origins of osteolytic metastasis:

A

most common in cancers that have spread to bone from the lung, thyroid, kidney, and colon.

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455
Q

Most common organ origins of osteoblastic metastasis:

A

It is more frequently seen in spread of prostate, bladder, and stomach cancer.

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456
Q

What is the purpose of diagnostic or prognostic exercise testing? (stress testing)

A

To localize ischemia or assess viability to recommend exercise

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457
Q

small cell carcinoma causes what syndrome

A

SIADH

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458
Q

diverticulitis, what test do you use?

A

CT scan of abdomen

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459
Q

What is the strongest risk factor for future pre-term birth?

A

Prior PTB is the strongest risk factor for future PTB, and recurrences often occur at the same gestational age

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460
Q

For Addisons’ crisis/ adrenal insufficiency - what test?

A

ACTH stimulation test

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461
Q

Test to distinguish cushing’s disease and cushion’s syndrome and primary pituitary insufficiency

A

Dexamethasone suppression test.

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462
Q

Vaccines needed by HIV patients

A
  1. The Flu Vaccine
  2. Pneumococcal vaccine
  3. Diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccines
  4. HPV vaccine
  5. Hep B vaccine
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463
Q

HIV patients who need the meningococcus vaccine have these risk factors:

A
  • Live in a city that has had a meningitis outbreak (such as New York City)
  • Travel to a city that has had a meningitis outbreak
  • Have or will have close contact with other men who have sex with men from a city that has had a meningitis outbreak
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464
Q

When is a HIDA scan done?

A

When the ultrasound is inconclusive, because it deals with the gall bladder, no need in patient who already has cholecystectomy.

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465
Q

HIV patients who need the Hep A vaccine have these risk factors:

A
  • People who use intravenous (IV) drugs
  • Men who have sex with men
  • People who already have other forms of liver disease
  • People with a bleeding disorder called hemophilia
  • People who travel to certain parts of the world
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466
Q

HIV patients can get these live vaccines if their CD4+T cell counts are above 200

A

Varicella and Zoster vaccines

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467
Q

Most common sites of ulnar nerve entrapment

A

at the elbow, followed by the wrist

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468
Q

Pulmonary embolism, treatment

A

heparin therapy

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469
Q

Cubital tunnel syndrome, where is the nerve compression located?

A

Cubital tunnel syndrome is used to describe ulnar nerve impingement along the cubital tunnel at the medial edge of the elbow. It is the most common location of nerve impingement in the elbow area

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470
Q

Guyon’s canal syndrome, where is the nerve compression located?

A

Guyon’s canal syndrome, or ulnar tunnel syndrome, refers to nerve compression affecting the ulnar nerve as it passes through an anatomical space in the wrist called Guyon’s canal

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471
Q

Rh isoimmunization, mother is O-Rh (-) , what happens to an O-Rh(+) newborn?

A

Rh(+) factors from newborn leaks into mothers bloodstream, causes anti IgG Rh antibodies.

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472
Q

Diabetic neuropathy - what type of urinary symptoms can they have.

A

Intermittent urinary incontinence, overflow incontinence by an acontractyle bladder (think detrusor muscle - lack of innervation)

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473
Q

In patients with neurofibromatosis type 1, what type of hypertension is seen in these patients?

A

Essential hypertension, from renal vascular lesions, most commonly in the renal vasculature.

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474
Q

What is the most common peroxisomal disorder?

A

Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD)

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475
Q

What is the Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) Genetics?

A

Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) is an X-linked disorder

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476
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD)?

A

Mutations may prevent normal transport of very long chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) into peroxisomes, thereby preventing beta-oxidation and breakdown of VLCFAs. Accumulation of abnormal VLCFAs in CNS, Leydig cells of the testes, and the adrenal cortex

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477
Q

Children and adolescents with hypertension. What percentile do you treat?

A

blood pressure greater than the 95th percentile for age, height, weight.

478
Q

Cardiac auscultation - aortic area - systolic ejection murmur. What’s the diagnosis?

A

Aortic stenosis

479
Q

Cardiac auscultation - pulmonic area - systolic ejection murmur. What’s the diagnosis?

A

Pulmonic stenosis, flow murmur, ASD (atrial septal defect)

480
Q

Cardiac auscultation - pulmonic area - systolic ejection click. What’s the diagnosis?

A

Pulmonic stenosis

481
Q

Cardiac auscultation - left sternal border area - systolic ejection murmur. What’s the diagnosis?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

482
Q

Cardiac auscultation - left sternal border area - early diastolic murmur. What’s the diagnosis?

A

Aortic regurgitation, pulmonic regurgitation

483
Q

Cardiac auscultation - mitral area - holostolic murmur. What’s the diagnosis?

A

mitral regurgitation

484
Q

Cardiac auscultation - mitral area - mid/late systolic click. What’s the diagnosis?

A

mitral valve prolapse

485
Q

Cardiac auscultation - mitral area - mid/late diastolic murmur. What’s the diagnosis?

A

mitral stenosis

486
Q

Cardiac auscultation - tricuspid area - holosystolic murmur. What’s the diagnosis?

A

tricuspid regurgitation, ventral septal defect

487
Q

Cardiac auscultation - mitral area - mid/late diastolic murmur. What’s the diagnosis?

A

tricuspid stenosis, ASD (atrial septal defect)

488
Q

Increased blood flow in what areas of the heart cause ASD murmurs?

A

ASD murmurs caused by increased blood flow across pulmonic valve and tricuspid valve

489
Q

Neurologic complications of endocarditis with replacement valve?

A

Embolic stroke, brain abscess or cerebritis, meningitis, acute encephalopathy, meningoencephalitis.

490
Q

Indications for gastric bypass surgery in an adult.

A

Adults with a body mass index (BMI) ≥40 kg/m2 without comorbid illness or a BMI 35.0 to 39.9 kg/m2 with at least one serious comorbidity, such as type 2 diabetes or hypertension, are candidates for a bariatric surgical procedure. Adults with BMI between 30.0 to 34.9 kg/m2 and either difficult to control type 2 diabetes mellitus or metabolic syndrome should be considered as candidates

491
Q

Signs suggesting radial nerve damage with humeral fracture.

A

Wrist drop, loss of thumb abduction

492
Q

What is Tinel’s sign?

A

Tapping over the median nerve at the wrist elicits tingling in the median nerve distribution.

493
Q

What are the 6 P’s of compartment syndrome:

A

Pain, pallor paresthesias, poikilothermic, paralysis, pulselessness

494
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome

  • What nerve is affected and where?
  • Hx/PE
  • Dx
A
  • Entrapment of the median nerve at the wrist.
  • Presents w/ aching over the thenar area of the hand and proximal forearm (maybe shoulder).
  • parasthesia/numbness in median nerve distribution
  • Symptoms worsen at night
  • Phalen’s maneuver and Tinel’s sign are (+)
495
Q

In the hand, the median nerve supplies motor innervation to which muscles?

A

1st and 2nd lumbrical muscles and the muscles of the thenar eminence.

496
Q

In the hand, the median nerve innervates the skin where?

A

The median nerve innervates the skin of the palmar side of the thumb, the index and middle finger and half the ring finger.

497
Q

Injury of the median nerve above the elbow is caused by a supracondylar fracture - what are the motor and sensory deficits?

A

Loss of pronation of forearm, weakness in flexion of the hand at the wrist, loss of flexion of radial half of digits and thumb, loss of abduction and opposition of thumb.
Presence of an ape hand deformity when the hand is at rest, due to an hyperextension of index finger and thumb, and an adducted thumb.
Presence of benediction sign when attempting to form a fist, due to loss of flexion of radial half of digits.
Sensory deficit: Loss of sensation in lateral 3 1⁄2 digits including their nail beds, and the thenar area.

498
Q

What are common mechanisms of injury of the ulnar nerve at the elbow?

A

Cubital tunnel syndrome, fracture of the medial epicondyle

499
Q

What are the clinical features caused by injury of the ulnar nerve at the elbow?

A

Ulnar lesions at the elbow typically present with numbness and tingling in the fourth and fifth digits, medial elbow pain, nocturnal numbness and paresthesia, and worsening of symptoms with elbow and/or repeated wrist flexion

500
Q

What are the sensory deficits caused by injury of the ulnar nerve at the elbow?

A

Sensory deficit: Loss of sensation or paresthesiae in ulnar half of the palm and dorsum of hand, and the medial 1½ digits on both palmar and dorsal aspects of the hand

501
Q

What are the sensory deficits caused by injury of the ulnar nerve at the wrist?

A

Loss of sensation or paresthesia in ulnar half of the palm, and the medial 1½ digits on the palmar aspect of the hand. The dorsal aspect of the hand is unaffected.

502
Q

What are the motor deficits caused by injury of the ulnar nerve at the wrist?

A

Loss of flexion of ulnar half of digits, or the 4th and 5th digits, loss of ability to cross the digits of the hand.
Presence of a claw hand deformity when the hand is at rest.

503
Q

What are common mechanisms of ulnar nerve damage at the wrist?

A

penetrating wound or Guyon canal cyst

504
Q

What are the major abnormalities of the heart muscle in these cardiomyopathies: dilated, hypertrophic, restrictive

A

Dilated - impaired contractility
Hypertrophic - impaired relaxation
Restrictive - impaired elasticity

505
Q

For dilated cardiomyopathy, explain if it increases or decreases:

  • Left ventricular cavity size (end diastole)
  • Left ventricular cavity size (end systole)
  • Ejection fraction (EF)
  • Wall thickness
A

For dilated cardiomyopathy:

  • ↑↑ Left ventricular cavity size (end diastole)
  • ↑↑ Left ventricular cavity size (end systole)
  • ↓↓ Ejection fraction (EF)
  • ↓, variable Wall thickness
506
Q

For hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, explain if it increases or decreases:

  • Left ventricular cavity size (end diastole)
  • Left ventricular cavity size (end systole)
  • Ejection fraction (EF)
  • Wall thickness
A

For hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:

  • ↓ Left ventricular cavity size (end diastole)
  • ↓↓ Left ventricular cavity size (end systole)
  • ↑ or ↔ Ejection fraction (EF)
  • ↑↑ Wall thickness
507
Q

For restrictive cardiomyopathy, explain if it increases or decreases:

  • Left ventricular cavity size (end diastole)
  • Left ventricular cavity size (end systole)
  • Ejection fraction (EF)
  • Wall thickness
A

For dilated cardiomyopathy:

  • ↑ Left ventricular cavity size (end diastole)
  • ↑ Left ventricular cavity size (end systole)
  • ↓ or ↔ Ejection fraction (EF)
  • ↑, variable Wall thickness
508
Q

What does an S3 gallop signify is happening to the blood volume and blood flow in the heart? What disease is this associated with?

A

An S3 gallop signifies the end of rapid ventricular filling in the setting of fluid overload and is associated with dilated cardiomyopathy.

509
Q

How do you diagnose dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Echocardiography

510
Q

What does the chest x-ray show in dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

■ CXR shows an enlarged, balloon-like heart and pulmonary congestion.

511
Q

What is the treatment for dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

■ Address the underlying etiology (e.g., stop all alcohol use, treat endocrine disorders).
■ Treat symptoms of CHF with diuretics, and prevent disease progression with ACEIs, β-blockers, and aldosterone antagonists. Consider anticoagulation to ↓ thrombus risk only if AF or an intraventricular thrombus is present. Digoxin is a second-line agent; avoid CCBs in CHF.
■ Consider an ICD if EF

512
Q

What is the pathophysiology of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

LVH results in impaired left ventricular relaxation and filling (diastolic dysfunction). Hypertrophy frequently involves the interventricular septum, leading to left ventricular outflow tract obstruction and impaired ejection of blood.

513
Q

What is the most common cause of sudden death in young, healthy athletes in the United States?

A

The congenital form of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).

514
Q

What is the genetics of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)?

A

It is inherited as an autosomal-dominant trait in 50% of HOCM patients.

515
Q

What does an S4 gallop signify?

A

A stiff, noncompliant ventricle

516
Q

↑ “atrial kick” is associated with which cardiomyopathy?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

517
Q

Spherocytosis tests:

A

eosin-5 maleimide test (flow cytometry) with acid glycerol lysis test

518
Q

Causes of postoperative fever ( the 5 Ws):

A

Wind (lungs): Pulmonary embolism; Pneumonia; Aspiration;
Wound: Surgical site infection
Water: Urinary tract infection (UTI)
Walk: Deep venous thrombosis
Wonder drugs/products: Drug fever; Blood products; Intravenous lines.

519
Q

Immunologic blood transfusion reactions: Febrile nonhemolytic

A

(most common reaction): Fever and chills; Within 1-6 hours of transfusion; Caused by cytokine accumulation during
blood storage.

520
Q

Immunologic blood transfusion reactions: Acute hemolytic: Presents with: Mechanism:

A

Fever, flank pain, hemoglobinuria, renal failure and DIC; Within 1 hour of transfusion. Positive direct Coombs test, pink plasma; Caused by ABO incompatibility.

521
Q

Immunologic blood transfusion reactions: Delayed Hemolytic: Mechanism:

A

Mild fever and hemolytic anemia; Within 2-10 days after transfusion; Positive direct Coombs test, positive antibody
screen; Caused by anamnestic antibody response.

522
Q

Immunologic blood transfusion reactions: Anaohacltic: Presentaion: Mechanism:

A

Rapid onset of shock, angioedema/urticaria and respiratory distress; Within a few seconds to minutes of transfusion;
Caused by recipient anti-IgA antibodies

523
Q

Immunologic blood transfusion reactions: Urticarial/allergic: Presentation; Mechanism

A

Urticaria, flushing, angioedema and pruritus; Within 2-3 hours of transfusion; Caused by recipient IgE antibodies and mast cell activation.

524
Q

Immunologic blood transfusion reactions: Transfusion-related acute lung injury: Presentation: Mechanism:

A

Respiratory distress and signs of noncardiogenic pulmonary edema;
Within 6 hours of transfusion; Caused by donor anti-leukocyte antibodies.

525
Q

Define Mean:

A

Mathematical average

526
Q

Define median:

A

splits an ordered dataset in half.

527
Q

Define mode:

A

The most frequently observed value.

528
Q

Three way to diagnose syphilis:

A

Nontreponemal serological tests (VDRL, RPR) are used for screening test, and treponemal serologic tests (FTA-ABS)
are used to confirm. Darkfield microscopy is also an effective method for diagnosing, but requires equipment.
Darkfield is used because serologic testing has a high false negative rate.

529
Q

Polymyositis: Distinguishing features: Laboratory/Diagnosis:

A

Symmetrical proximal muscle weakness; Increasing difficulty climbing stairs, getting up from a chair, carrying heavy groceries; Less prominent hip/shoulder involvement; Labs: Elevated muscle enzymes (creatine kinase, aldolase,
lactate dehydrogenase, aspartate aminotransferase), possible autoantibodies, EMG abnormal.

530
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica: Distinguishing features: Laboratory/Diagnosis:

A

Age usually >50. Aching and morning stiffness>pain in shoulders, hips, neck, torso. Synovitis, bursitis, decreased
range of motion. No significant tenderness. Possible systemic symptoms; Clinical diagnosis. Significantly elevated ESR. Symptoms improve with corticosteroids.

531
Q

Hematological complications Infectious mononucleosis (IM): Mechanism:

A

Can cause autoimmune hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia, which is due to cross reactivity of the EBV-induced antibodyeas against RBCs and platelets. These antibodies are IgM cold agglutinin antibodies lead to compliment mediated RBC destruction (Coombs +). Onset 2-3 weeks.

532
Q

What causes similar symptoms of angina pectoris, but is caused by vasospasm of coronary vessels?

A

Prinzmetal’s (variant) angina

533
Q

Prinzmetal’s (variant) angina: Etiology, epi, ECG, cardiac enzymes

A

Prinzmetal’s (variant) angina mimics angina pectoris but is caused by vasospasm of coronary vessels. It classically affects young women at rest in the early morning and is associated with ST-segment elevation in the absence of cardiac enzyme elevation.

534
Q

What is the classic triad of angina?

A

substernal chest pain that is provoked by exertion and relieved by rest or nitrates.

535
Q

What drugs have been shown to have a mortality benefit in the treatment of angina?

A

Only ASA and β-blockers

536
Q

What patient groups may have atypical, clinically silent MIs?

A

Women, diabetics, the elderly, and post–heart transplant patients

537
Q

How do you treat acute symptoms of coronary artery disease (CAD)?

A

ASA, O2 and/or IV nitroglycerin, and IV mor- phine, and consider IV β-blockers.

538
Q

How do you treat chronic symptoms of coronary artery disease (CAD)?

A

nitrates, ASA, and β-blockers; CCBs are second-line agents for symptomatic control only

539
Q

Define acute coronary syndromes.

A

A spectrum of clinical syndromes caused by plaque disruption or vasospasm that leads to acute myocardial ischemia.

540
Q

Define unstable angina.

A

chest pain that is new onset, is accelerating (i.e., occurs with less exertion, lasts longer, or is less responsive to medications), or occurs at rest; it is distinguished from stable angina by patient history.

541
Q

Unstable angina signals the presence of possible ___________ based upon plaque instability.

A

impending infarction

542
Q

Non-ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI) indicates ___________ marked by elevations in ____ , ____ or ___

A

NSTEMI indicates myocardial necrosis marked by elevations in troponin I, troponin T, or CK-MB

543
Q

If chest pain is new onset, accelerating, or occurring at rest then it is called _________

A

unstable angina

544
Q

Acute treatment of Unstable Angina/Non-ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI) is the same as that for stable angina. What is it?

A

Clopidogrel, unfractionated heparin or enoxaparin, and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors (e.g., eptifibatide, tirofiban, abciximab) should also be considered.

545
Q

How do you treat patients with chest pain refractory to medical therapy, a TIMI score of ≥ 3, a troponin elevation, or ST changes > 1 mm?

A

Give Heparin and scheduled for angiography and possible revascularization (percutaneous coronary intervention [PCI] or CABG).

546
Q

TIMI Risk Score for Unstable Angina/NSTEMI (0-7 points possible). 4 points possible for history, 3 points for presentation. What are the criteria?

A
  1. Age ≥ 65 years = 1
  2. ≥ 3 CAD risk factors (family history, DM, tobacco, hypertension, ↑ cholesterol) = 1
  3. Known CAD (stenosis > 50%) = 1
  4. ASA use in past seven days = 1
  5. Severe angina (≥ 2 episodes within 24 hours) = 1
  6. ST deviation ≥ 0.5 mm
    • cardiac marker
547
Q

Higher-risk patients (risk score ≥ 3) benefit more from what drugs and test?

A

Enoxaparin (vs. unfractionated heparin), glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors, and early angiography.

548
Q

Define ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI).

A

ST-segment elevations and cardiac enzyme release 2° to prolonged cardiac ischemia and necrosis.

549
Q

Hx / PE findings in patient with ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI).

A

■ Presents with acute-onset substernal chest pain, commonly described as a pressure or tightness that can radiate to the left arm, neck, or jaw.
■ Associated symptoms may include diaphoresis, shortness of breath, light- headedness, anxiety, nausea/vomiting, and syncope.
■ Physical exam may reveal arrhythmias, new mitral regurgitation (ruptured papillary muscle), hypotension (cardiogenic shock), and evidence of new CHF (rales, peripheral edema, S3 gallop).

550
Q

How to diagnose ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI)? Name key ECG findings only.

A

ECG: Look for ST-segment elevations or new LBBB. ST-segment depressions in leads V1–V2 can also be reciprocal change indicating infarction in the posterior wall.

551
Q

Describe which leads the ST-segment abnormalities are seen in ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI) consistent with an inferior MI.

A

ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF is consistent with an inferior MI involving the RCA/PDA and LCA.

552
Q

Describe which leads the ST-segment abnormalities are seen in ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI) consistent with an anterior MI.

A

ST-segment elevation in leads V1–V4 usually indicates an anterior MI involving the LAD and diagonal branches

553
Q

Describe which leads the ST-segment abnormalities are seen in ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI) consistent with an lateral MI.

A

ST-segment elevation in leads I, aVL, and V5–V6 points to a lateral MI involving the LCA.

554
Q

Describe which leads the ST-segment abnormalities are seen in ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI) consistent with an posterior wall MI.

A

ST-segment depression in leads V1–V2 can be “reciprocal change” indicative of an acute infarct in the posterior wall.

555
Q

Treatment of ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI). Name 6 key medications.

A

ASA, β-blockers, clopidogrel, morphine, nitrates, and O2.

556
Q

Drug treatment of ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI) if patient is in heart failure or in cariogenic shock.

A

Do not give β-blockers; instead, give ACEIs, provided that the patient is not hypotensive.

557
Q

Treatment of ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI). Name surgical procedure(s).

A

Emergent angiography and PCI should be performed

558
Q

Name other causes of ST-segment elevation besides ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI).

A

Acute pericarditis, LVH, LBBB, and a normal variant (e.g., “early repolarization”).

559
Q

What part of the heart is this MI occurring? In this patient with acute chest pain, the ECG demonstrated acute ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF with reciprocal ST-segment depression and T-wave flattening in leads I, aVL, and V4–V6.

A

Inferior wall MI.

560
Q

What part of the heart is this MI occurring? This patient presented with acute chest pain. The ECG showed acute ST-segment elevation in leads aVL and V1–V6, and hyperacute T waves.

A

Anterior wall MI.

561
Q

Treatment of STEMI: If the patient presents within three hours, PCI cannot be performed within 90 minutes, and there are no contraindications to thrombolysis (e.g., a his- tory of hemorrhagic stroke or recent ischemic stroke, severe heart failure, or cardiogenic shock), how do you treat?

A

Thrombolysis with tPA, reteplase, or streptokinase should be performed instead of PCI.

562
Q

Treatment of STEMI: In the setting of three-vessel disease, left main coronary artery disease, discrete lesions not amenable to PCI, or diffuse disease with good target vessels, how do you treat?

A

PCI should be attempted immediately for the lesion thought to be responsible for STEMI; the patient is a candidate for CABG afterward.

563
Q

What is the long-term treatment of STEMI patient?

A

Long-term treatment includes ASA, ACEIs, β-blockers, high-dose statins, and clopidogrel (if PCI was performed). Modify risk factors with dietary changes, exercise, and tobacco cessation.

564
Q

What is the most common complication and cause of death following acute MI?

A

Arrhythmia

565
Q

What is Dressler’s syndrome? Etiology, epidemiology, S&S, labs?

A

Dressler’s syndrome, an autoimmune process occurring 2–10 weeks post- MI, presents with fever, pericarditis, pleural effusion, leukocytosis, and ↑ ESR.

566
Q

Besides arrhythmia, what are less common complications of STEMI?

A

Reinfarction, left ventricular wall rupture, VSD, pericarditis, papillary muscle rupture (with mitral regurgitation), left ventricular aneurysm or pseudoaneurysm, and mural thrombi.

567
Q
Fill in the timeline of common post-MI complications:
■ First day: 
■ 2–4 days: 
■ 5–10 days:
■ Weeks to months:
A

A timeline of common post-MI complications:
■ First day: Heart failure (treat with nitroglycerin and diuretics).
■ 2–4 days: Arrhythmia, pericarditis (diffuse ST elevation with PR depression).
■ 5–10 days: Left ventricular wall rupture (acute pericardial tamponade causing electrical alternans, pulseless electrical activity), papillary muscle rupture (severe mitral regurgitation).
■ Weeks to months: Ventricular aneurysm (CHF, arrhythmia, persistent ST elevation, mitral regurgitation, thrombus formation).

568
Q

Total cholesterol > 200 mg/dL, LDL > 130 mg/dL, triglycerides > 500 mg/ dL, and HDL

A

CAD

569
Q

Name etiologies for hypercholesterolemia, and therefore, CAD.

A

Etiologies include obesity, DM, alcoholism, hypothyroidism, nephrotic syndrome, hepatic disease, Cushing’s disease, OCP use, high-dose diuretic use, and familial hypercholesterolemia.

570
Q

HISTORY/PE for hypercholesterolemia / CAD.

A

■ Most patients have no specific signs or symptoms.
■ Patients with extremely high triglyceride or LDL levels may have xanthomas (eruptive nodules in the skin over the tendons), xanthelasmas (yellow fatty deposits in the skin around the eyes), and lipemia retinalis (creamy appearance of retinal vessels).

571
Q

How do you diagnose hypercholesterolemia / CAD?

A

■ Conduct a fasting lipid profile for patients > 20 years of age and repeat ev- ery five years or sooner if elevated.
■ Total serum cholesterol > 200 mg/dL on two different occasions is diagnos- tic of hypercholesterolemia.

572
Q

Describe the mg/dL of LDL and HDL to qualify as dyslipidemia.

A

Dyslipidemia:
■ LDL > 130 mg/dL or
■ HDL

573
Q

ATP III Guidelines for Risk Stratification of Hypercholesterolemia: What are the mg/dL LDL goals for each category of risk factors:

  • CAD or CAD risk equivalents
  • 2+ risk factors
  • 0-1 risk factor
A
  • CAD or CAD risk equivalents:
574
Q

ATP III Guidelines for Risk Stratification of Hypercholesterolemia: What are the mg/dL LDL that a patient would start lifestyle modification for each category of risk factors:

  • CAD or CAD risk equivalents
  • 2+ risk factors
  • 0-1 risk factor
A
  • CAD or CAD risk equivalents: > 100 mg/dL
  • 2+ risk factors: > 130 mg/dL
  • 0-1 risk factor: > 160 mg/dL
575
Q

ATP III Guidelines for Risk Stratification of Hypercholesterolemia: What are the mg/dL LDL at which you would consider drug therapy for each category of risk factors:

  • CAD or CAD risk equivalents
  • 2+ risk factors
  • 0-1 risk factor
A
  • CAD or CAD risk equivalents: > 130 mg/dL
  • 2+ risk factors: > 160 mg/dL
  • 0-1 risk factor: > 190 mg/dL
576
Q

What are CAD risk equivalents, according to the ATP III Guidelines for Risk Stratification of Hypercholesterolemia?

A

symptomatic carotid artery disease, peripheral arterial disease, abdominal aortic aneurysm, diabetes.

577
Q

What are the risk factors according to the ATP III Guidelines for Risk Stratification of Hypercholesterolemia? What is a “negative” risk factor?

A

Cigarette smoking, hypertension, low HDL ( 45 years; women > 55 years). An HDL > 60 mg/dL counts as a “negative” risk factor and removes one risk factor from the total score.

578
Q

If your total serum cholesterol is

A

LDL > 130 mg/dL or HDL

579
Q

What is the diagnostic threshold in mg/dL of LDL and HDL for dyslipidemia?

A

LDL > 130 mg/dL or HDL

580
Q

What is the first intervention in a hyperlipidemia patient with no known atherosclerotic disease?

A

The first intervention should be a 12-week trial of diet and exercise in a patient with no known atherosclerotic vascular disease.

581
Q

What is the BP goal in uncomplicated hypertension?

A
582
Q

What is the BP goal for diabetics or patients with renal disease?

A
583
Q

Define hypertension.

A

Defined as a systolic BP > 140 mmHg and/or a diastolic BP > 90 based on three measurements separated in time

584
Q

Hematological complications of Infectious mononucleosis (IM): Mechanism:

A

Can cause autoimmune hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia, which is due to cross reactivity of the EBV-induced antibodies against RBCs and platelets. These antibodies are IgM cold agglutinin antibodies lead to compliment mediated RBC destruction (Coombs +). Onset 2-3 weeks.

585
Q

Downs syndrome cardiac abnormalities in order of most often seen:

A

1 Complete atrioventricular canal
2 Ventricular septal defect
3 Atrial septal defect

586
Q

Nocardiosis: Microbiology: Epidemiology: Clinical Features: Treatment:

A

Gram-positive rod (beaded or branching), partially acid-fast, aerobic. Found in soil. Most common in immune
compromised or elderly patients.Inhalation of aerosolized saprophytes or traumatic inoculation skin. Pneumonia like
TB, Neural tropism (brain abscess), cutaneous involvement. Tx: TMP-SMX.

587
Q

Differentiate Rotator cuff tear, Adhesive capsulitis, and Rotator cuff tendonitis based on injection of joint with
lidocaine:

A

In the case of isolated rotator cuff tendonitis, any pain and limitation of motion is resolved by injection. Does do this
for the other two.

588
Q

Lynch syndrome II of the Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC): What cancer are th more
prone to get: What is difference between Lynch syndrome I:

A

Lynch syndrome II is distinctly associated with a high risk of extracolonic tumors, the most common of which is
endometrial carcinoma.

589
Q

Cauda equina syndrome:

A

Radicular pain, asymmetric motor weakness, hyporeflexia/areflexia. Late bladder/bowel dysfunction. A sensory level at the umbilicus excludes this.

590
Q

Conus medullaris syndrome:

A

Sudden onset severe back pain, symmetrical motor weakness, hyperreflexia. Early onset bladder/bowel dysfunction.

591
Q

Gastric adenocarcinoma staging process:

A

Initial endoscopy/biopsy positive for adenocarcinoma; Ct abdomen and pelvis; Limited stage = surgical resection.
Advanced stage = Chemotherapy, palliative.

592
Q

Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP): Risk assessment:

A

CURB-65 (1 point each): 2 or more inpatient Tx. score ≥ 4 ICU.
Confusion
Uremia (BUN > 20 mg/dL)
Tachpnea (Respirations > 30/min)
Hypotension 65
Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP): Treatment: Outpatient, Inpatient, ICU
Outpatient Healthy: Macrolide or Doxycycline
Outpatient Comorbid: Fluoroquinolones or beta-lactam + macrolide
Inpatient: Fluoroquinolones (levofloxacin, moxifloxacin) or beta-lactam + macrolide
ICU: Beta-lactam + macrolide (IV) or Fluoroquinolones + beta-lactam

593
Q

Atrial fibrillation is most commonly caused by ectopic foci within:

A

Pulmonary veins

594
Q

The most common cause of atrial flutter is a reentrant circuit around:

A

The tricuspid annulus

595
Q

Slurred upsloping R waves:

A

Delta waves are characteristic of WPW syndrome.

596
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome is characterized by labs:

A

Calcium decreased; Phosphate increased; Potassium increased; Uric acid increased; Tx: Allopurinol: Most common tumors lymphomas (Burkitt’s) and leukemias (ALL).

597
Q

Malignant otitis externa (MOE) is a serious infection of the ear seen in: Most common organism:

A

Elderly patients with poorly controlled diabetes. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

598
Q

Malignant otitis externa (MOE): Most common fungal cause:

A

Aspergillus.

599
Q

Behcet’s syndrome: Etiology: Epidemiology: Characteristics:

A

Multisystemic inflammatory condition seen commonly in Turkish, Asian, and Middle Eastern populations.
Characterised by recurrent oral and genital ulcers, skin lesions (erythema nodosum), eye lesions including
anterior/posterior uveitis.

600
Q

Most accurate way to determine estimated gestational age (EGA):

A

Ultrasound dating with fetal crown-rump measurement in the first trimester. 2nd and third not as accurate.

601
Q

Women who miss screening (unknown GBS status) should be treated in labor if: Treatment:

A

They are in labor

602
Q

Physicians should have a high index of suspicion for physical/sexual abuse in children with:

A

Sudden behavioral problems, families with unstable economic backgrounds, or parents with a history of drug/alcohol abuse.

603
Q

Transient proteinuria is the most common cause of isolated proteinuria in children and should be evaluated:

A

With repeat urine dipsticks on two separate occasions to R/O persistent proteinuria, which requires more work up.

604
Q

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF): Mechanism: Pulmonary function test findings:

A

Excessive collagen deposition in extracellular matrix around alveoli; Leads to decreased lung volume (low total lung capacity, functional residual capacity, and residual volume) with preserved or increased forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity. Impaired gas exchange resulting in reduced diffusion capacity of carbon monoxide and increased alveolar-arterial gradient.

605
Q

Elevated serum protein with normal albumin (gamma gap) suggests disorders such as:

A
Multiple myeloma (MM), amyloidosis, Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia, and monoclonal gammopathy of
undetermined significance (MGUS).
606
Q

Multiple myeloma vs monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS): Differentiate:

A

MGUS patients usually have

607
Q

Although MGUS patients are asymptomatic, they require:

A

Metastatic skeletal bone survey

608
Q

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia(CLL): Staging system and how it relates to prognosis:

A
Stage 0 = Lymphocytosis only = Good
Stage I = Lymphocytosis + adenopathy = Fair
Stage II = Splenomegaly = Fair
Stage III = Anemia = Intermediate
Stage IV = Thrombocytopenia = Poor
609
Q

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL): Typical pathology report:

A

“smudge cells” = leukocytes that have undergone partial breakdown during preparation of a stained smear or tissue
section, because of their greater fragility.

610
Q

The best markers indicating resolution of DKA are the:

A

Serum anion gap and beta-hydroxybutyrate levels.

611
Q

1° (Essential) Hypertension: Etiology, epidemiology, risk factors

A

Hypertension with no identifiable cause. Represents 95% of cases of hyperten- sion. Risk factors include a family history of hypertension or heart disease, a high-sodium diet, smoking, obesity, race (blacks > whites), and advanced age.

612
Q

1° (Essential) Hypertension: History, S&S, Physical exam

A

■ Hypertension is asymptomatic until complications develop.
■ Patients should be evaluated for end-organ damage to the brain (stroke, dementia), eye (cotton-wool exudates, hemorrhage), heart (LVH), and kid- ney (proteinuria, chronic kidney disease). Renal bruits may signify renal artery stenosis as the cause of hypertension.

613
Q

1° (Essential) Hypertension: diagnosis

A

■ Conduct cardiovascular, neurologic, ophthalmologic, and abdominal ex- ams.
■ Obtain a UA, BUN/creatinine, CBC, and electrolytes to assess the extent of end-organ damage.

614
Q
In the JNC-7 Classification and Management of Hypertension, define systolic and/or diastolic BP: 
Normal =
Prehypertension =
Stage 1 hypertension =
Stage 2 hypertension =
A

Normal =

615
Q
In the JNC-7 Classification and Management of Hypertension, describe drug therapy w/out comorbidities: 
Normal =
Prehypertension =
Stage 1 hypertension =
Stage 2 hypertension =
A

Normal = none
Prehypertension = none
Stage 1 hypertension = Thiazide diuretics for most patients; ACEIs, ARBs, β-blockers, CCBs, or a combination may be considered.
Stage 2 hypertension = Two-drug combination for most patients (usually a thiazide diuretic plus an ACEI, an ARB, a β-blocker, or a CCB).

616
Q

Treatment protocol for hypertension.

A

■ Rule out 2° causes of hypertension, particularly in younger patients.
■ Begin with lifestyle modifications (e.g., weight loss, smoking cessation, salt reduction). Weight loss is the single most effective lifestyle modification. The BP goal in otherwise healthy patients is

617
Q

Define secondary hypertension.

A

Hypertension 2° to an identifiable organic cause

618
Q

5 causes of 2° hypertension – CHAPS

A
Cushing's syndrome
Hyperaldosteronism (Conn's syndrome)
Aortic coarctation 
Pheochromocytoma
Stenosis of renal arteries
619
Q

Define Hypertensive Crises.

A

A spectrum of clinical presentations in which elevated BPs lead to end-organ damage.

620
Q

History / PE findings of Hypertensive Crises:

A

Presents with end-organ damage revealed by chest pain (ischemia or MI), back pain (aortic dissection), or changes in mental status (hypertensive en- cephalopathy).

621
Q

Hypertensive crises are diagnosed based on:

A

Hypertensive crises are diagnosed on the basis of the extent of end-organ damage, not BP measurement.

622
Q

Hypertensive urgency Vs. Hypertensive emergency: describe both

A

■ Hypertensive urgency: Diagnosed on the basis of an elevated BP with only mild to moderate symptoms (headache, chest pain, syncope) and without end-organ damage.
■ Hypertensive emergency: Diagnosed by a significantly elevated BP with signs or symptoms of impending end-organ damage such as ARF, intracranial hemorrhage, papilledema, or ECG changes suggestive of ischemia or
pulmonary edema.

623
Q

What is the criteria for a Malignant hypertension diagnosis?

A

Diagnosed on the basis of progressive renal fail-

ure and/or encephalopathy with papilledema.

624
Q
Hypertensive crises: 
- Hypertensive urgency
- Hypertensive emergency
- Malignant hypertension 
Are all diagnosed by PB measurement (True or False)
A

Hypertensive crises are diagnosed on the basis of the extent of end-organ damage, not BP measurement.

625
Q

Drug treatment of 1° Hypertension with heart failure:

A

Thiazide diuretics, β-blockers, ACEIs, ARBs, aldosterone antagonists.

626
Q

Drug treatment of 1° Hypertension with post-MI:

A

β-blockers, ACEIs, aldosterone antagonists.

627
Q

Drug treatment of 1° Hypertension with high CVD risk:

A

Thiazide diuretics, β-blockers, ACEIs, CCBs.

628
Q

Drug treatment of 1° Hypertension with diabetes:

A

Thiazide diuretics, β-blockers, ACEIs, ARBs, CCBs.

629
Q

Drug treatment of 1° Hypertension with chronic kidney disease:

A

ACEIs, ARBs

630
Q

Drug treatment of 1° Hypertension with recurrent stroke prevention:

A

Thiazide diuretics, ACEIs

631
Q

7 Common Causes of 2° Hypertension:

A
  • 1° renal disease
  • Renal artery stenosis
  • OCP use
  • Pheochromocytoma
  • Conn’s syndrome (hyperaldosteronism)
  • Cushing’s syndrome
  • Coarctation of the aorta
632
Q

Description and treatment of renal and drug causes of 2° Hypertension:

  • 1° renal disease
  • Renal artery stenosis
    - Etiologies of RAS are Fibromuscular dysplasia (50 y/o)
  • OCP use
A
  • 1° renal disease
    • Often unilateral renal parenchymal disease.
    • Treat with ACEIs
  • Renal artery stenosis
    • Especially common in patients 50 years of age with recent-onset hypertension.
    • Diagnose with MRA or renal artery Doppler ultrasound. May be treated with angioplasty or stenting. Consider ACEIs if unilateral, not if bilateral.
  • OCP use
    • Common in women > 35 years of age, obese women, and those with long-standing use.
    • Discontinue OCPs
633
Q

How do you treat renal artery stenosis? Why must you be careful w/ prescribing ACEIs?

A

May be treated with angioplasty or stenting. Consider ACEIs as adjunctive or temporary therapy in unilateral disease. (In bilateral disease, ACEIs can accelerate kidney failure by preferential vasodilation of the efferent arteriole.) Open surgery is a second option if angioplasty is not effective or feasible.

634
Q

Description and treatment of adrenal causes of 2° Hypertension:

  • Pheochromocytoma
  • Conn’s syndrome (hyperaldosteronism)
A
  • Pheochromocytoma
    • An adrenal gland tumor that secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine, leading to episodic headache, sweating, and tachycardia
    • Diagnose with urinary metanephrines and catecholamine levels or plasma metanephrine. Surgical removal of tumor after treatment with both α-blockers and β-blockers.
  • Conn’s syndrome (hyperaldosteronism)
    • Most often 2° to an aldosterone-producing adrenal adenoma. Causes the triad of hypertension, unexplained hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis
    • Remove tumor
635
Q

Description and treatment of pituitary cause of 2° Hypertension:
- Cushing’s syndrome

A
  • Cushing’s syndrome
    • Due to an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor,
      an ectopic ACTH-secreting tumor, or cortisol secretion by an adrenal adenoma or carcinoma.
    • Remove tumor
636
Q

How do you treat hypertensive urgencies?

A

Hypertensive urgencies: Can be treated with oral antihypertensives (e.g., β-blockers, clonidine, ACEIs) with the goal of gradually lowering BP over 24–48 hours

637
Q

How do you treat hypertensive emergencies?

A

Treat with IV medications (labetalol, nitro- prusside, nicardipine) with the goal of lowering mean arterial pressure by no more than 25% over the first two hours to prevent cerebral hypoperfusion or coronary insufficiency.

638
Q

Pericardial disease results from acute or chronic _______ ______ and may lead to _______ ________.

A

Results from acute or chronic pericardial insults; may lead to pericardial effusion.

639
Q

What antihypertensive drug do you prescribe to patients with Diabetes with proteinuria?

A

ACEIs or ARBs.

640
Q

What antihypertensive drug do you prescribe to patients with CHF?

A

β-blockers, ACEIs or ARBs, diuretics (including spironolactone).

641
Q

What antihypertensive drug do you prescribe to patients with Isolated systolic hypertension?

A

Diuretics are preferred; long-acting dihydropyridines.

642
Q

What antihypertensive drug do you prescribe to patients with MI?

A

β-blockers without intrinsic sympathomimetic activity; ACEIs.

643
Q

What antihypertensive drug do you prescribe to patients with osteoporosis?

A

Thiazide diuretics.

644
Q

What antihypertensive drug do you prescribe to patients with BPH?

A

α1-adrenergic blockers.

645
Q

What causes pericardial disease? What is a major complication of pericardial disease?

A

Results from acute or chronic pericardial insults; may lead to pericardial effusion.

646
Q

What are 2 ways pericarditis can compromise cardiac output?

A

Tamponade or constrictive pericarditis

647
Q

What is the most common cause of pericarditis?

A

Idiopathic

648
Q

What are the 11 known causes of pericarditis?

A

Viral infection, TB, SLE, uremia, drugs, radiation, injury, acute renal failure and neoplasms. May also occur after MI (either within days after MI or as a delayed phenomenon, i.e., Dressler’s syndrome) or open heart surgery.

649
Q

What are the S&S of pericarditis?

A

■ May present with pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, cough, and fever.
■ Chest pain tends to worsen in the supine position and with inspiration.

650
Q

What are the physical exam findings of pericarditis?

A

■ Exam may reveal a pericardial friction rub, elevated JVP, and pulsus paradoxus (a ↓ in systolic BP > 10 mmHg on inspiration).

651
Q

In pericarditis, what are the firsts tests you order? What do you have to rule out first?

A

CXR, ECG, and echocardiogram to rule out MI and pneumonia.

652
Q

What are the ECG changes you see in pericarditis?

A

ECG changes include diffuse ST-segment elevation and PR-segment depressions followed by T-wave inversions

653
Q

What do you see in the echocardiography of a pericarditis patient?

A

Pericardial thickening or effusion may be evident on echocardiography.

654
Q

Medications that cause idiopathic intracranial hypertension (pseudotumor cerebri):

A

Growth hormone, tetracyclines (minocycline, doxycycline), and excessive vitamin A (isotretinoin, all-trans-retinoic
acid)

655
Q

Influenza onset of symptoms:

A

Abrupt and often dramatic, URI symptoms are mild, but systemic symptoms are prominent with possible high fever,
myalgias, headache.

656
Q

Viral upper respiratory syndrome onset of symptoms:

A

Slow, stepwise, migratory, or evolving. URI symptoms, rhinorrhea, coryza, sneezing, mild pharyngitis, while systemic symptoms usually mild.

657
Q

Current guidelines for treating all confirmed or suspected influenza:

A

Within 48 hours of symptoms onset. Neuraminidase inhibitors (oseltamivir, zanamivir).

658
Q

The single most important prognostic consideration in the treatment of patients with breast cancer:

A

Tumor burden which is based on TMN staging.

659
Q

Suspected pseudotumor cerebri in a young obese female with a headache is suggestive:

A

Can cause blindness.

660
Q

What is the best test to perform on a patient with suspected diverticulitis:

A

CT scan is best.

661
Q

Vaccination against hepatitis B decrease:

A

The incidence of hepatocellular carcinoma.

662
Q

Tachycardia-mediated cardiomyopathy caused by atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response can be
resored to function by:

A

Rate and rhythm control.

663
Q

IgA nephropathy is the most common cause of:

A

Glomerulonephritis in adults:

664
Q

Antipsychotic medication effects (dopamine antagonism) Pathway Mesolimbic:

A

Effect: Antipsychotic efficacy.

665
Q

Antipsychotic medication effects (dopamine antagonism) Pathway Nigrostriatal:

A

Effect: Extrapyramidal symptoms: Acute dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism.

666
Q

Antipsychotic medication effects (dopamine antagonism) Pathway Tuberoinfundibular:

A

Effect: Hyperprolactinemia.

667
Q

During a subclavian central venous catheter placement, if tension pneumothorax:

A

Needle thoracostomy.

668
Q

Suspect the following conditions whenever a patient presents with hypokalemic, alkalosis, and normotensive:

A

Surreptitious vomiting, diuretic abuse, Bartter syndrome, Gitelman syndrome.

669
Q

Patient who presents with equinus varus of the calcaneus and talus, varus of the midfoot, and adduction of
the forefoot: Treatment:

A

Stretching, manipulation, followed by serial casting. This is clubfoot (talipes equinovarus)

670
Q

Erysipelas: Organism: Description:

A

Streptococcus pyogenes; Fiery red, tender, painful plaque with sharply demarcated edges.

671
Q

Cellulitis (purulent): Organism: Description:

A

Staphylococcus Aureus; Folliculitis, Furuncle, Carbuncle.

672
Q

Cellulitis (nonpurulent): Organism: Description:

A

Streptococci; Flat lesion with less demarcation than in erysipelas.

673
Q

Light’s Criteria to distinguish transudate from exudate:

A

Pleural fluid protein/serum protein ratio >0.5
Pleural fluid lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)/serum LDH ratio >0.6
Pleural fluid LDH>⅔ of the upper limit of normal serum LDH

674
Q

Normal pleural fluid findings pH: pH Transudate: pH Exudate: pH Empyema:

A

pH 7.60 normal
pH 7.4-7.55 transudate
pH 7.30-7.45 exudate
pH

675
Q

What gives a pleural fluid glucose level of

A

Glucose ratio

676
Q

Bacillary angiomatosis: Describe: Presentation: Treatment:

A

Bright, red, firm, friable, exophytic nodules in an HIV infected patient. Bacillary angiomatosis is caused by Bartonella, a gram-negative bacillus. Tx: Oral erythromycin.

677
Q

Acute rheumatic fever cause: Treatment:

A

Group A streptococcus (GAS)/ Streptococcus pyogenes: Causes pharyngitis. Tx: Penicillin.

678
Q

Acute rheumatic fever: Presentation:

A

Suspected in a child with sore throat, fever, pericarditis, erythema marginatum, arthritis, chorea, and subcutaneous
nodules.

679
Q

Gallbladder carcinoma: Epidemiology: Diagnosis: Prognosis:

A

Often arises in Hispanics and Southwestern Native American females with history of gallstones. Typically diagnosed after cholecystectomy. Highly fatal, but if confined to gallbladder 73-100% cure rate.

680
Q

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) esophagitis: Characterized: Biopsy shows: Treatment:

A

Focal substernal burning pain and odynophagia. Large linear ulcerations generally shallow in lower esophagus.
Presence of intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions on biopsy. Tx: IV ganciclovir. Acyclovir does not work
because CMV does not have thymidine kinase enzyme to activate.

681
Q

Herpes simplex virus esophagitis: Characterized: Biopsy shows: Treatment:

A

Usually multiple, small, and well circumscribed with a round/ovoid “volcano-like” appearance. Cells show ballooning degeneration and eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions. Tx: Acyclovir.

682
Q

Untreated hyperthyroid patients are at risk for:

A

Rapid bone loss resulting from increased osteoclastic activity in bone cells. Also at risk for cardiac tachyarrhythmias AF.

683
Q

Which type of medication reconciliation intervention is most likely to result in a decrease in adverse drug
events and health care utilization:

A

Pharmacist directed interventions.

684
Q

Neonatal chlamydial eye infection: Treatment: Risk for:

A

Occurs days 5-14 days. Oral erythromycin. Erythromycin can cause infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.

685
Q

Which class I antiarrhythmics can cause prolongation of QRS or QT interval: Mechanism:

A

Flecainide and propafenone. They work by blocking sodium channels. In patients with fast heart rates, the drug has less time to dissociate, leading to more channels blocked, which leads to progressive decrease in impulse
conduction and widened QRS.

686
Q

Elderly patients with impaired thirst response are predisposed to prerenal azotemia due to:

A

Intravascular volume depletion and poor renal perfusion (renal arteriolar vasoconstriction).

687
Q

Aphasia syndrome: Broca’s area: Spontaneous speech: Comprehension: Repetition: Associated features:

A

Spontaneous speech: Sparse and nonfluent.
Comprehension: Relatively preserved.
Repetition: Impaired.
Associated: Right hemiparesis. Located in dominant right frontal lobe.

688
Q

Aphasia syndrome: Wernicke’s area: Spontaneous speech: Comprehension: Repetition: Associated features:

A

Spontaneous speech: Fluent and voluminous, but lacks meaning
Comprehension: Greatly diminished.
Repetition: Impaired.
Associated: Right superior visual field defect.

689
Q

Aphasia syndrome: Spontaneous speech: Comprehension: Repetition: Associated features:

A

Spontaneous speech: Fluent with pneumonic errors.
Comprehension:Relatively preserved.
Repetition: Very poor.
Associated: None.

690
Q

In patients with hyperthyroidism- related tachy systolic atrial fibrillation: Drug choice:

A

beta blocker such as propranolol

691
Q

Management of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US) in women age ≥25:

A

Next is HPV testing.
If positive get colposcopy.
If negative repeat pap smear and HPV test in 3 years.

692
Q

Management of (ASC-US) 0r LSIL in women age 21-24:

A

Repeat pap smear at 12 months.
If ASC-H or AGC or HSIL get a colposcopy.
If negative or ASC-US or LSIL then repeat pap smear at 12 months
Must have a negative pap smear X2 to return to normal screening.

693
Q

Preterm labor defined as:

A

Regular contractions causing cervical dilation and/or effacement at

694
Q

Patients in preterm labor at

A

A tocolytic agent (calcium channel blocker), magnesium sulfate for neuroprotection, and corticosteroids for
acceleration of fetal lung maturity.

695
Q

All women should be screened for at first prenatal visit:

A

syphilis, HIV, and hepatitis B.

696
Q

In an infant with menigoccoumia, watch out for Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome: Characterized:

A

A sudden vasomotor collapse and skin rash (large purpuric lesions on the flanks) due to hemorrhage. This is due to adrenal hemorrhage.

697
Q

Drug induced type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are immediate in onset and mediated by:

A

IgE and mast cells/basophils.

698
Q

Mild manifestations of a drug allergy (urticaria and pruritus without systemic symptoms) are usually treated:

A

With antihistamines and discontinuation of the offending drug. As long as no signs of shock then epinephrine.

699
Q

Infectious mononucleosis (IM): Etiology: Epidemiology: Presentation:

A

Most commonly caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. Transmitted person to person through saliva typically infecting 15-24 years old. Presentation triad of exudative tonsillitis/pharyngitis, posterior or diffuse cervical lymphadenopathy, and fever. There can be a rash with IM in some patient given ampicillin or amoxicillin.

700
Q

Stridor in infants and children due to vascular ring: Presents: Characteristics:

A

Presents before age 1 year. Persistent stridor that improves with neck extension. Associated with cardiac
abnormalities. Vascular rings, which can encircle both the trachea and esophagus, are caused by abnormal
development of the aortic arch.

701
Q

Stridor in infants and children due to Laryngomalacia: Presents: Characteristics:

A

Stridor most severe at age 4-8 months. Persistent stridor that worsens in supine position and improves in prone
position.

702
Q

Stridor in infants and children due to Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis): Presents: Characteristics:

A

Most common from age 6 months to 6 years. Associated with “barky” cough, fever, rhinorrhea and congestion.

703
Q

The single most common cause of asymptomatic isolated elevation of alkaline phosphatase in an elderly
patient is:

A

Paget’s disease of bone (osteitis deformans). Usually diagnosed on routine laboratory testing.

704
Q

Known to cause post-viral URI necrotizing pulmonary bronchopneumonia with multiple nodular infiltrates that
can cavitate to cause abscesses:

A

Staphylococcus aureus

705
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica: Symptoms: Physical findings: Labs: Treatment:

A

Age >50, bilateral pain and morning stiffness > 1 month, involvement of 2 of the following: neck, shoulders or proximal arms, proximal thigh or hip, constitutional (fever, malaise, weight lose). Physical exam shows decreased active ROM in shoulders, neck and hips. Labs: ESR >40, sometimes >100, elevated CRP, normocytic anemia. Tx: Glucocorticoids (low-dose prednisone).

706
Q

Dialysis patient with low-grade fever, acute watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, and guaiac-positive stool in the
setting of prolonged omeprazole use are consistent with:

A

Likely clostridium difficile colitis. Can be confirmed with a stool assay for toxins A and B. Gastric suppression with PPI
and H2 blockers increase risk.

707
Q

Vasovagal syncope is usually a clinical diagnosis and does not need further testing if H and PE point
strongly to the diagnosis, but:

A

Uncertain cases need upright tilt table testing.

708
Q

Infective carditis (IE): Treatment protocol:

A

Empiric Vancomycin to cover staphylococcus, streptococcus, and enterococcus after getting BC. Then tailor to specific bug.

709
Q

Infective carditis caused by viridans group streptococcus: Treatment:

A

Intravenous aqueous penicillin G or intravenous ceftriaxone for 4 weeks.

710
Q

In evaluating ascites, a serum-to-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) is calculated how:

A

Calculated by subtracting the peritoneal fluid albumin concentration from the serum albumin concentration and is
useful to differentiate between portal and non-portal hypertension etiologies. SAAG ≥1.1 g/dL indicates portal
hypertension (increased capillary hydrostatic pressure) while a SAAG

711
Q

HELLP syndrome what is the definitive treatment:

A

Delivery: Vaginal if possible. Cesarian for (maternal hemodynamic instability, nonreassuring fetal status, breech
presentation).

712
Q

Cavernous hemangiomas of the brain and viscera are associated with:

A

Von Hippel-Lindau disease.

713
Q

Spider angiomas are commonly seen during:

A

Pregnancy, oral contraceptive use, and cirrhosis-related hyperestrogenemia, because spider angiomas are estrogen
dependent.

714
Q

Niemann-Pick disease: Pathology: Epidemiology: Onset: Clinical features:

A

Sphingomyelinase deficiency; Autosomal recessive inheritance, Ashkenazi Jewish heritage; Onset age 2-6 months;
Loss of motor milestones, hypotonia, feeding difficulties, “Cherry-red” macula, [HEPATOSPLENOMEGALY],
[AREFLEXIA].

715
Q

Tay-Sachs disease: Pathology: Epidemiology: Onset: Clinical features:

A

β-hexosaminidase A deficiency;Autosomal recessive inheritance, Ashkenazi Jewish heritage; Onset age 2-6 months;
Loss of motor milestones, hypotonia, feeding difficulties, “Cherry-red” macula, [HYPERREFLEXIA].

716
Q

Gaucher’s disease: Pathology: Clinical features:

A

Glucocerebrosidase deficiency; Classic features include anemia, thrombocytopenia, and hepatosplenomegaly, and no loss of developmental milestones.

717
Q

Krabbe disease: Pathology: Epidemiology: Onset: Clinical features:

A

Galactocerebrosidase deficiency; Rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disorder; Presents early in infancy;
with developmental regression, hypotonia, and areflexia.

718
Q

Hurler syndrome: Pathology: Epidemiology: Onset: Clinical features:

A

(One of the mucopolysaccharidoses) is a lysosomal storage disease due to lysosomal hydrolase deficiency. It
presents at age 6 months-2 years with coarse facial features, inguinal or umbilical hernias, corneal clouding, and
hepatosplenomegaly.

719
Q

The kidney compensates for respiratory alkalosis by preferential excreting:

A

Bicarbonate in the urine. This results in an alkalinized urine (increased urine pH).

720
Q

Number needed to treat (NNT) formula:

A
Absolute risk reduction (ARR)
NNT = 1/ARR
Example 16.3% incidence clopidogrel + aspirin compared to 12.3% with efrenzia + aspirin
ARR = 0.163 - 0.123 = 0.04
NNT = 1/0.04 = 25
721
Q

Indications for oxygen therapy in COPD:

A

PaO2≤55, SaO2≤88%, hematocrit>55%, or evidence of cor pulmonale.

722
Q

Patient with history of heartburn, significant weight loss, fatigue, smoking has:

A

Esophageal cancer. Diagnose by barium swallow followed by endoscopy.

723
Q

Esophageal cancer name two types and etiology:

A

Squamous cell carcinoma: associated with smoking and alcohol consumption.
Adenocarcinoma: Barrett’s esophagus, a complication of GERD is the main risk factor.

724
Q

Hemoglobin decreased: Normal MCV: Decreased reticulocyte count: Differential:

A

Leukemia; Aplastic anemia; Infection; Medication side effect.

725
Q

Hemoglobin decreased: Normal MCV: Increased reticulocyte count: Differential:

A

Hemorrhage; Hemolysis: Intrinsic inherited defects of hemoglobin, RBC membrane, or enzymes. Hemolysis extrinsic:
Autoimmune, Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria.

726
Q

Hemoglobin decreased: Decreased MCV: Differential:

A

Iron deficiency; Lead intoxication; Thalassemia; Sideroblastic anemia.

727
Q

Hemoglobin decreased: High MCV: Differential:

A

B12 deficiency; Folate deficiency.
Preventing pneumonia in transplant patients: What drug given prophylaxis:
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) for Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP).

728
Q

What vaccines should transplant patient get:

A

Influenza, pneumococcal, and hepatitis B.

729
Q

Prophylaxis for CMV in transplant patients:

A

Ganciclovir or valganciclovir.

730
Q

Addison’s disease: Most common electrolyte disturbance:

A

Hyponatremia from mineralocorticoid deficit. You also get hyperkalemia but to a laesser extent.

731
Q

In patient with pancreatic cancer suspicions: What test:

A

Abdominal ultrasound is the initial imaging performed on patients with jaundice. Great at detecting mass lesions or
metastisis.

732
Q

Postoperative monitoring of pancreatic cancer follows:

A

CA 19-9 level.

733
Q

Any HIV patient with bloody diarrhea and a normal stool examination should have:

A

Colonoscopy.

734
Q

CMV colitis is characterized by:

A

Bloody diarrhea with abdominal pain. Colonoscopy shows multiple ulcers and mucosal erosions.

735
Q

CMV biopsy demonstrates:

A

Large cells containing eosinophilic intranuclear and basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions.

736
Q

Disseminated MAC infection can cause chronic diarrhea and weight loss, however:

A

The diarrhea is non-bloody and generally involves the small intestines.

737
Q

Male in his 30s with frequent episodes of substernal squeezing-type chest discomfort that radiates to neck.
Not associated with activity or SOB and last for up to 2 hours. No tobacco, ETOH o iliciate drug use. ECG is
normal and exercise stress test shows no abnormalities: Diagnosis:

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) or esophageal motility disorder are common causes of noncardiac chest
pain.

738
Q

Child presents with fatigue, peripheral and perioral cyanosis, and a systolic murmur along the left sternal
border:

A

Consistent with tetralogy of fallot (TOF):

739
Q

Tetralogy of fallot (TOF): Name four defects:

A

Ventricular septal defect; an overriding aorta over the right and left ventricles; right ventricular outflow obstruction, and
right ventricular hypertrophy.

740
Q

Tetralogy of fallot (TOF): What occurs with squatting and standing to murmur:

A

Squatting increases the peripheral systemic vascular resistance (afterload), and decreases the degree of the
right to left shunting across the VSD.

741
Q

Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine: Mechanism of immunity:

A

Relatively T-cell independent B-cell response because polysaccharides cannot be presented to T-cells. Moderate
levels of intermittent affinity antibodies. Less effective in young and elderly.

742
Q

Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine: Advantages:

A

Increased number of covered strains. Decrease incidence of replacement strains due to lack of mucosal immunity.

743
Q

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine: Mechanism of immunity:

A

Polysaccharide-protein conjugate induces T-cell-dependent B-cell response, resulting in improved immunogenicity
due to the formation of higher-affinity antibodies and memory cells.

744
Q

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine: Advantages:

A

Increase efficacy in elderly and children

745
Q

Pregnant female with SROM and immediately followed by painless, copious vaginal bleeding. Fetal heart rate
increases to 180/min and drops to 70/min while patient’s vital signs and abdominal exam remain the same:

A

Vasa previa: Painless vaginal bleeding that occurs on ROM, fetal deterioration (sinusoidal tracing or bradycardia).
Diagnose with antenatal abdominal and transvaginal doppler ultrasound. Offer cesarean delivery.

746
Q

Patient has headaches, a focal neurologic deficit, a solitary ring enhancing lesion on brain CT scan, and a
fluid collection in the ethmoid sinus: Patient is immunocompetent:

A

Most common organism causing this is Viridans streptococcus (Streptococcus intermedius, S. mitis, S. oralis, S. mutans). Spreads from sinusitis.

747
Q

What is an independent predictor of adverse outcomes in CHF:

A

Hyponatremia. It is caused by increased levels of renin, norepinephrine and antidiuretic hormone. Lead to free water retention.

748
Q

Thyroid exam reveals 2x2 cm left-sided thyroid nodule. Her T3 and T4 are elevated, and TSH is undetectable.
Radioactive iodine scan shows uptake only in the left thyroid nodule. Uptake in the rest of the thyroid is
markedly reduced. Diagnosis:

A

Toxic adenoma

749
Q

Thyroid scan in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis shows:

A

Heterogeneous pattern.

750
Q

Thyroid scan graves disease:

A

Diffusely increased radioactive iodine uptake.

751
Q

Side effect of epidural anesthesia seen during pregnancy:

A

Hypotension caused by blood redistribution to the lower extremities and venous pooling from sympathetic blockade.
Vasodilation and venous pooling.

752
Q

Complication of epidural in pregnancy: Treatment:

A

Persistent untreated hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion and fetal acidosis. Treatment volume
expansion with fluids, and place patient on left side to improve venous return.

753
Q

Suspect toxoplasmosis in an AIDS patient with multiple ring-enhancing lesions on CT: Treatment:

A

Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine. TMP-SMX is used for prophylaxis.

754
Q

What drug directly blocks the production of renin:

A

Aliskiren: direct renin inhibitor.

755
Q

Maternal serum ɑ-fetoprotein screening: Elevated with:

A

Open neural tube defects (anencephaly, open spina bifida); Ventral wall defects (omphalocele, gastroschisis; Multiple
gestations. When elevated need careful ultrasound.

756
Q

Maternal serum ɑ-fetoprotein screening: Decreased with:

A

Aneuploidies: Trisomy 18 and 21.

757
Q
After upper abdominal surgery, a combination of factors can cause the vital capacity (VC) and functional
residual capacity (FRC) to: Treatment:
A

VC 50% and FRC 30% decrease. Moving from supine to sitting can increase the FRC by 20% to 35%. Increasing the
FRC can help prevent postoperative atelectasis.

758
Q

Asplenia RBCs peripheral blood smear:

A

Howell Jolly bodies.

759
Q

Heinz bodies and bite cells are seen in:

A

G6PD and Thalassemia.

760
Q

Helmet cells:

A

Seen in traumatic hemolysis such as DIC, HUS, and ITP.

761
Q

Immunocompromised patient with systemic symptoms, lung nodules, and brain abscess (causing seizures),
and the cultures grew gram-positive, partially acid-fast, filamentous, branching rods: Diagnosis: Treatment

A

Nocardia. TMX-SMX.

762
Q

Primary polydipsia: Defect: Etiology: Clinical Features:

A

Increase water intake
Antipsychotics, anxious, middle age women, central hypothalamic lesion
Polyuria and low urine osmolality, Serum Na

763
Q

Central diabetes insipidus: Etiology: Clinical Features:

A

Decrease ADH release from pituitary
Idiopathic, trauma, pituitary surgery, ischemic encephalopathy.
Polyuria and low urine osmolality, Serum Na may be >150 mEq/L due to significant thirst impairment.

764
Q

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus: Etiology: Clinical Features:

A

ADH resistance in kidney
Chronic lithium use, hypercalcemia, heredity (AVPR2 mutation).
Polyuria and low urine osmolality, Serum Na 152-150 mEq/L due to intact thirst mechanism

765
Q

Complex partial seizure is characterized by:

A

Brief (lasting a few minutes) episodes of impaired consciousness, failure to respond to various stimuli during the episodes, staring spell, and automatisms (lip smacking, swallowing, picking movements of the hand), and post ictal
confusion.

766
Q

Atypical absence seizures is characterized by:

A

Brief (lasting a few minutes) episodes of impaired consciousness. Patient may also present with automatisms, but there is no post ictal state. Hyperventilation during EEG causes 3Hz pike.

767
Q

Syphilis treatment for penicillin allergic patient:

A

Doxycycline X 14 days. In pregnant patient they should undergo desensitization before penicillin.

768
Q

Patient with SOB, tachypnea, and hypoxemia with and S3 on cardiac exam: Treatment:

A

Most likely left ventricular failure, treat with intravenous diuretics. This is decompensated heart failure.

769
Q

Scleroderma renal crisis peripheral blood smear will show:

A

schistocytes: fragmented red blood cells.

770
Q

Herpangina: Etiology: Age: Seasonality: Clinical features: Treatment:

A

Coxsackie A virus; Age 3-10 years; Summer/early fall: Clinical features: fever, pharyngitis, gray vesicles/ulcers on the posterior oropharynx: Treatment: Supportive management.

771
Q

Herpetic gingivostomatitis: Etiology: Age: Seasonality: Clinical features: Treatment:

A

Herpes simplex virus type 1; Age 6 months-5 years; None; Clinical features: fever, pharyngitis, erythematous gingiva,
clusters of small vesicles on anterior oropharynx/lips; Treatment: acyclovir.

772
Q

Fundoscopic findings in central vein occlusion:

A

Venous dilation and tortuosity due to venous occlusion; Scattered and diffuse hemorrhages due to backup of blood
and increased resistance, leading to ischemic damage; “Blood and thunder: appearance due to diffuse hemorrhages;
Cotton wool spots, disk swelling. Painless loss of vision.

773
Q

Lateral medullary infarction (Wallenberg syndrome): Etiology: Presentation:

A

Occurs due to occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar or vertebral artery. Patient develops loss of pain and
temperature over the ipsilateral face and contralateral body, ipsilateral bulbar muscle weakness, vestibulocerebellar
impairment (vertigo, nystagmus), and Horner’s syndrome. Motor function face and body spared.

774
Q

G6PD test during an active episode of hemolysis:

A

Test may come back as normal, because the most sensitive cells are the first to lys.

775
Q

The hallmark of normal pressure hydrocephalus is the triad:

A

Gait disturbances, dementia, and urinary incontinence. CT or MRI will show dilated ventricles.

776
Q

The most common site of hypertensive hemorrhage is:

A

The putamen. The internal capsule that lies adjacent to the putamen is almost always involved, leading to
contralateral hemiparesis.

777
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy first line treatment:

A

Beta-blocker or a cardiac acting calcium channel blockers such as diltiazem since they promote diastolic relaxation.

778
Q

Complication of bronchiolitis in infants less than 2 months:

A

Apnea, respiratory failure.

779
Q

Acute appendicitis is a clinical diagnosis based on presentation:

A

Classic presentation: migratory pain, nausea, vomiting, fever, leukocytosis, McBurney’s point tenderness, and Rovsing sign. Should have immediate appendectomy. Only need Ct or ultrasound on atypical presentations.

780
Q

Patient with cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy (HE): Treatment:

A

Supportive care, lowering the serum ammonia. Nonabsorbable disaccharides (lactulose, lactitol). Rifaximin can decrease the number of ammonia producing bacteria in the colon.

781
Q

Parinaud syndrome occurs in most patients with:

A

Pineal gland masses and presents as limitation of upward gaze, bilateral ptosis, and bilateral retraction. HA, vomiting
and obstructive hydrocephalus.

782
Q

Craniopharyngiomas are:

A

Suprasellar masses that can compress the optic chiasm, resulting in visual field deficits.

783
Q

Aortic regurgitation produces and:

A

Early diastolic murmur and can be associated with several physical signs caused by a hyperdynamic pulse, including
bounding or “water hammer” peripheral pulses.

784
Q

Multiple myeloma common electrolyte disturbance:

A

Hypercalcemia

785
Q

Patient with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) for 20 years is at risk for:

A

Vertebral fracture due to rigidity and decreased bone mineralization.

786
Q

Another treatment for essential tremor: Mechanism and complications:

A

Primidone: anticonvulsant that converts into phenylethylmalonamide and phenobarbital. Primidone can cause acute intermittant porphyria, which manifests as abdominal pain, neurologic, and psychiatric abnormalities.

787
Q

When a wound fails to heal after a prolonged period, biopsies should be obtained to ensure that:

A

The ulcer has not degenerated into a squamous cell carcinoma. When SCC arise within a burn wound, these ulcers are known as Marjolin’s ulcers.

788
Q

Unilateral varicoceles that fail to empty when a patient is recumbent raise suspicion for an underlying:

A

Mass pathology, such as renal cell carcinoma: Get Ct abdomen.

789
Q

The classic triad of renal cell carcinoma:

A

Flank pain, hematuria, and a palpable abdominal mass.

790
Q

Bronchiectasis can be identified on:

A

CT by the presence of dilated bronchi with thickened walls.

791
Q

Potential complication of bronchiectasis:

A

Hemoptysis

792
Q

Leprosy is a chronic granulomatous disease that primarily affects: Organism: Diagnosis:

A

The peripheral nerves and skin, and is caused by Mycobacterium leprae. Diagnosis is made by the demonstration of acid-fast bacilli on skin biopsy.

793
Q

Tricuspid regurgitation commonly present in patients with tricuspid endocarditis from IV drug use: Murmur:

A

Distinguished from other murmurs by augmentation of the intensity of the holosystolic murmur with inspiration.

794
Q

Constrictive pericarditis is caused by: Etiologies US: Etiologies developing countries:

A

Pericardial scarring and thickening that results in diastolic dysfunction; USA: Viruses, cardiac surgery, chest radiation,
and idiopathic; Developing countries such as Africa, India, and China: Tuberculosis.

795
Q

Complications of shoulder dystocia: Prognosis:

A

Erb-Duchenne palsy: C5, C6, C7; Weakness deltoid and infraspinatus (C5), biceps (C6), and wrist/finger extensors
(C7). Fortunately, most infants recover arm function spontaneously within a few months.

796
Q

Cervicofacial actinomycosis most commonly presents: Diagnosis: Treatment:

A

In the mandibular region as a slow growing, nontender mass with characteristic yellow granular pus (“sulfur
granules”). Diagnosis is confirmed by Gram stain (Gram-positive branching bacilli) and culture. Tx: Penicillin.

797
Q

Paget’s Disease of bone (osteitis deformans) is associated with: Labs:

A

Normal serum calcium and phosphate levels and increased alkaline phosphatase, and urinary hydroxyproline levels.

798
Q

Primary Raynaud’s Phenomenon (RP): Etiology: Clinical presentation: Management:

A

No underlying cause; Usually women age

799
Q

Secondary Raynaud’s Phenomenon (RP): Etiology: Clinical presentation: Management:

A

Connective tissue diseases, occlusive vascular conditions, sympathetic drugs, vibrating tools, hyperviscosity
syndromes, nicotine; Usually men >40, asymmetric attack, symptoms of underlying disease, tissue injury or digital
ulcers, abnormal nailfold capillary examination; Management: CCB for persistent symptoms, aspirin for patients at risk for digital ulceration.

800
Q

Workup for patients with suspected secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon (RP):

A

Complete blood count and metabolic panel
Urinalysis
Antinuclear antibody (ANA) and rheumatoid factor
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and complement levels (C3 and C4).

801
Q

Patient BP 140/90, examination shows clear lung fields. Her chest x-ray shows prominent pulmonary arteries
and an enlarged right heart border. ECG shows right axis deviation. What is the diagnosis:

A

Pulmonary hypertension: x ray would show enlargement of the pulmonary arteries with rapid tapering of the distal
vessels (pruning) and enlargement of the right ventricle.

802
Q

Three things that cause secondary pulmonary hypertension: What differentiates them from primary:

A

Mitral stenosis; Mitral prolapse; Left ventricular failure. With all three of these you see signs of pulmonary venous
congestion.

803
Q

Patients with increased risk for diabetes have the following values:

A

Fasting blood glucose of 100-125 mg/dL
2-hour OGTT level of 140-199 mg/dL
HbA1C 0f 5.7%-6.4%

804
Q

T2DM is diagnosed by one of the following:

A

Fasting blood glucose ≥126 mg/dL
HbA1C ≥6.5%
2-hour OGTT level ≥200 mg/dL
Random plasma glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL plus symptoms

805
Q

Turner syndrome most common cardiac anomalies: From most to least:

A
  1. bicuspid aortic valve
  2. coarctation of the aorta
    3 aortic root dilation
806
Q

Patient with microcytic anemia, disproportionately elevated red blood cell (RBC) count, and peripheral blood
smear with hypochromia and poikilocytosis, including target cells: Diagnosis: Treatment:

A

In asymptomatic patient this is bete-thalassemia minor. No specific therapy is required. Reassurance.

807
Q

The key findings with beta-thalassemia minor:

A

Asymptomatic, with mild anemia, microcytosis out of proportion to the degree of anemia, hemoglobin >10g/dL

808
Q

Patients with HIV who have subacute-onset of low grade fever, headache, and signs of increased intracranial
pressure with normal MRI should be evaluated for:

A

Cryptococcal meningitis: Diagnosis is established by detection of the cryptococcal antigen or isolation of the organism in cerebrospinal fluid.

809
Q

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is an:

A

Opportunistic infection seen in HIV patients caused by the JC virus. It can be detected by polymerase chain reaction
testing of CSF. Neuroimaging shows patchy areas of white matter consistent with demyelination.

810
Q

Patient with pronator drift has what type of lesion:

A

Upper motor neuron lesion. Pronator drift is a relatively sensitive and specific physical exam finding for UMNL. Some stroke patients will demonstrate pronator drift in the absence of other findings.

811
Q

Cerebellar function is assessed by evaluation for:

A

Dysmetria and rapidly alternating movements. Can Be affected by motor weakness. Cerebellar lesions can produce an upward drift on pronator drift test.

812
Q

A positive PPD test in HIV patient is: What is the treatment:

A

Skin induration of greater than 5mm in HIV patient. Requires prophylaxis with isoniazid (and pyridoxine) for 9 months.
Need chest x-ray too.

813
Q

Patient with congenital heart disease such as DiGeorge syndrome are at greater risk for: Mechanism:

A

Brain abscesses. Bacteria can spread hematogenously from right to left shunt. They do not get filtered out in the lung
capillary bed.

814
Q

Fever, severe headaches (nocturnal or morning), and focal neurologic changes make up the classic triad for:

A

brain abscesses.

815
Q

The only area of the bladder covered by peritoneum is: What are the consequences:

A

Dome of the bladder. You can get peritonitis with referred pain to shoulder.

816
Q

What is the most likely part of bladder to rupture during trauma:

A

Dome of the bladder.

817
Q

Multiple Myeloma are at increased risk for:

A

Infection due to both a total decrease in functional antibodies and leukopenia that develop as bonemarrow fill with malignant plasma cells.

818
Q

Multiple Myeloma mnemonic:

A

C-Calcium (hypercalcemia)
R-Renal impairment (From IgG antibodies or paraproteins)
A-Anemia (from bone marrow being replaced with plasma cells)
B-Bone pain (bone pain, lytic lesions fractures)

819
Q

A patient with a new SPN since previous chest- x-ray required:

A

CT scan

820
Q

Lacunar strokes are due: Typically affect: Risk factors:

A

Microatheroma and lipohyalinosis in small penetrating arteries of the brain. They often affect the internal capsule and result in pure motor dysfunction. Risk factors Hypertension, hyperlipidemia, smoking and diabetes.

821
Q

Commonly seen renal problem with poorly controlled diabetes:

A

Type 4 renal tubular acidosis (hyperkalemic renal tubular acidosis) is characterized by non-gap metabolic acidosis,
persistent hyperkalemia, and mild-to moderate renal insufficiency.

822
Q

Causes of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis:

A
Diarrhea 
Fistulas (pancreatic, ileocutaneous);
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Renal tubular acidosis
Ureteral diversion (ileal loop)
Iatrogenic
823
Q

Patient who is a smoker with elevated calcium, hilar mass on x-ray, anorexia, constipation, increased thirst,
and easy fatigability: Diagnosis:

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung: These tumors can produce parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP).
Remember sCa++mous

824
Q

What two conditions can small cell carcinoma of the lung cause:

A

Small cell lung carcinoma usually causes paraneoplastic syndromes such as ACTH production and SIDH.

825
Q

Acute mediastinitis can occur following cardiac surgery: Presents with: Treatment:

A

Presents with fever, chest pain, leukocytosis, and mediastinal widening on chest x-ray. Tx: Requires drainage, surgical debridement, and prolonged antibiotic therapy.

826
Q

Acute pain and swelling of the midline sacrococcygeal skin and subcutaneous tissue is most commonly due:

A

To infection of a pilonidal cyst. Pilonidal cysts are most prevalent in young males especially with larger amounts of
body hair.

827
Q

Three things necessary to diagnose DKA:

A

blood glucose ≥250 mg/dL, pH

828
Q

Antenatal corticosteroids should be administered in pregnant females with:

A

Preterm premature rupture of membrane (PPROM) before 32 weeks to reduce RDS, necrotizing enterocolitis,
neonatal intraventricular hemorrhage, and neonatal death.

829
Q

Indications for GBS prophylaxis when GBS status is unknown:

A

Delivery at

830
Q

Patients with tetralogy of fallot that are placed in a knee-chest position improves their symptoms how:

A

Increased systemic vascular resistance.

831
Q

Patient is an avid dancer who presents with 2 weeks of right tibial pain, with normal xray: Diagnosis:

A

Stress fracture. They are not always seen on x-ray. Tibia is the most common bone to occur. Tx: Rest and healing.

832
Q

Patient with restrictive lung disease and atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular rate: What drug do you not
give:

A

Amiodarone can cause pulmonary toxicity.

833
Q

Malignant (necrotizing) otitis media externa is caused by: Treatment:

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Treatment ciprofloxacin.

834
Q

Newborn with cyanosis that is aggravated by feeding and relieved by crying: Diagnosis:

A

Choanal atresia a congenital nasal malformation is caused by failure of the posterior nasal passage to canalize
completely leaving either a bone 90% or membrane 10% obstruction. Failure to move a catheter through nose is
suggestive. CT scan.

835
Q

Red flags for other secondary causes of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism in males include: Tests:

A

Significant headaches, very low testosterone levels (

836
Q

Patient with chest pain, epigastric pain, and air in the mediastinum on chest x-ray:

A

Consistent with esophageal rupture. Diagnostic study of choice is Gastrografin-contrast esophagography, or CT
esophagography.

837
Q

In asymptomatic patients with hypercalcemia what are the steps:

A

Confirm the hypercalcemia with second reading if still elevated gt PTH level.

838
Q

Acute mitral regurgitation can occur: What happens to pressure:

A

Due to papillary muscle displacement in patients with acute MI. Leads to excessive volume overload, causing elevated
left atrial and ventricular filling pressures and acute pulmonary edema.

839
Q

Ludwig’s angina is an infection of the: Source of infection: Most common cause death:

A

Submandibular and sublingual glands: Source most commonly an infected tooth 2nd or 3rd molar. Asphyxiation is most common cause death.
Olanzapine and clozapine should have what done when taking these medications:
BMI measured monthly and a fasting plasma glucose and lipids, BP and waist circumference should be assessed at
baseline, 3 months, and then annually. Metabolic syndrome.

840
Q

Patients with resistant hypertension and diffuse atherosclerosis, asymmetric kidney size, recurrent flash
pulmonary edema, or elevation in serum creatinine >30% from baseline after starting ACEI or ARB:

A

Renovascular hypertension. Presence of continuous abdominal bruit.

841
Q

Diastolic decrescendo murmur heard on the right sternal border:

A

Aortic dissection

842
Q

Aortic dissection what tests:

A

Get serum creatine incase you have to get chest ct with contrast otherwise you want a TEE.

843
Q

What type of liver finding on biopsy in a patient with Reye syndrome:

A

Microvesicular fatty infiltrates.

844
Q

Ventricular aneurysm (VA) post MI present with:

A

Hallmark ECG findings of persistent ST- segment elevation after a recent MI and deep Q waves in the same leads

845
Q

atient with CHF exacerbation being treated with furosemide with improved symptoms, but new onset 6 beats
wide complex ventricular tachycardia:

A

Measure serum electrolytes. Loop diuretics can cause hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia which can cause
ventricualar tachycardia, also potentiate digoxin.

846
Q

The strongest influence on long term prognosis following an ST elevation myocardial infarction is the
duration:

A

Of time that passes before coronary blood flow is restored (via PTCA or fibrinolysis).

847
Q

Multiple system atrophy (Shy-Drager syndrome): Characterized: Compilation

A
  1. Parkinsonism
  2. Autonomic dysfunction (postural hypotension, abnormal sweating, disturbance of bowel or bladder control,
    abnormal salivation or lacrimation, impotence, gastroparesis)
  3. Widespread neurological signs (cerebellar, pyramidal or lower motor neuron).
    The accompanying bulbar dysfunction and laryngeal stridor may be fatal.
848
Q

Early defibrillation is the therapy of choice in patients with:

A

Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless VT.

849
Q

Immediate synchronized cardioversion is used in:

A

Symptomatic or sustained monomorphic VT (unresponsive to antiarrhythmic) and hemodynamically unstable atrial
fibrilation with rapid ventricular response.

850
Q

Pulseless electrical activity or asystole should be managed with:

A

Uninterrupted CPR along with vasopressor therapy to maintain cerebral and coronary perfusion.

851
Q

Patients with cirrhosis should undergo screening:

A

Endoscopy to exclude varices, indicate the risk for variceal hemorrhage, and determine strategies (nonselective
betablocker) for primary prevention. This is a major cause of morbidity and mortality up to 50% of patients.

852
Q

Cyclosporine side effects:

A

Nephrotoxicity, hyperkalemia, hypertension, gum hypertrophy, hirsutism, and tremor.

853
Q

Tacrolimus side effects:

A

Nephrotoxicity, hyperkalemia, hypertension, and tremor

854
Q

The major toxicity of azathioprine:

A

Dose related diarrhea, leukopenia, and hepatotoxicity.

855
Q

The major toxicity of mycophenolate:

A

Bone marrow suppression.

856
Q

Central retinal artery occlusion is treated with:

A

Emergency treated with an ocular massage and high flow oxygen administration.

857
Q

Treatment response is defined:

A

Occurs when a patient demonstrates significant improvement (with or without remission), generally defined as 50% reduction in baseline of severity.

858
Q

Treatment recovery is defined:

A

Recovery signifies that the episode is over and presents the option of the patient either discontinuing treatment or
continuing maintenance.

859
Q

Cholesterol embolization should be suspected in patients with:

A

Multisystem involvement with acute or subacute renal failure, typical skin manifestations (livedo reticularis, blue toe syndrome), cerebral or intestinal ischemia, and Hollenhorst plaques after a recent arteriography or cardiac
catheterization.

860
Q

Ultrasound of the liver shows a smooth, round big cyst with daughter cysts within it: Diagnosis:

A

Echinococcosis is a parasitic tapeworm common people who raise sheep. Form hydatid cyst anywhere in the body,
but most common liver next is lungs. Most people asymptomatic.

861
Q

Patient with recurrent and migratory superficial thrombophlebitis at unusual sites (arm, chest):

A

Trousseau’s syndrome is a hypercoagulable disorder. It is usually associated with an occult visceral malignancy
such as pancreatic (most common), stomach, lung, or prostate carcinoma. Get CT scan of the abdomen.

862
Q

Meconium ileus is virtually diagnostic for:

A

cystic fibrosis

863
Q

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis should be promptly treated with:

A

Surgical pinning of the slipped epiphysis where it lies (in situ) in order to lessen the risk of avascular necrosis of the
femoral head and chondrolysis.

864
Q

Patient with blunt abdominal trauma especially children can present with:

A

Diaphragmatic rupture that does show initially can take months even years. After chest x-ray get ct scan.

865
Q

Lifestyle modification first line intervention for newly diagnosed stage I hypertension. Most effective:

A

Weight loss in obese patient. Next is DASH diet. Exercise, Dietary sodium decrease. Alcohol intake.

866
Q

The first step in management of a nonreassuring heart rate is to improve fetal oxygenation and
uteroplacental blood flow by:

A

Administering oxygen and changing maternal position. Uterotonic drugs must be discontinued.

867
Q

Dermatomyositis common comorbidity:

A

Internal malignancies, up to >15% develope these (Most common is ovarian, lung, pancreatic, stomach, or colorectal
cancers, or non-hodgkin’s lymphoma).

868
Q

Patient with hairy cell leukemia drug of choice:

A

Cladribine

869
Q

In patients with PaO2 35 to minimize pulmonary complications:

A

Give corticosteroids.

870
Q

How does systemic sclerosis effect the lower esophagus:

A

Can cause atrophy and fibrosis of the smooth muscle.

871
Q

Uremic pericarditis: BUN level: Treatment:

A

BUN >60 mg/dL. Does Not have the normal ECG changes. Dialysis.

872
Q

Which oral diabetes medication can induce weight loss and have a lower hypoglycemic risk:

A

Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) agonist (Exenatide, liraglutide).

873
Q

Aortic stenosis heart murmur describe:

A

Systolic ejection murmur that radiates to the apex and carotid arteries.

874
Q

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is associated with what virus:

A

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

875
Q

Paresthesia of the first three and a half digits and occasionally thenar eminence atrophy:

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome of median nerve.

876
Q

Total T4 and T3 increased with decreased TSH radioactive iodine uptake is decreased:

A

Thyroiditis, Graves has increased radioactive iodine uptake

877
Q

Levodopa plus carbidopa side effects:

A

Most common early are hallucinations, dizziness, headache, and agitation. After several years involuntary
movements.

878
Q

Cryptosporidium parvum is an important emerging cause of:

A

Traveler’s diarrhea and should be considered in patients with persistent, watery diarrhea for > 2 weeks.

879
Q

Preventative screening prostate:

A

PSA should be discussed on a case by case with patient.

880
Q

Bronchiectasis what do you need to make diagnosis:

A

Chest x-ray is frequently abnormal, but need a CT scan for definitive diagnosis.

881
Q

GBS neonatal screening universal:

A

35-37 weeks gestation.

882
Q

Three most likely malignant pleural effusions:

A

Lung carcinoma, breast carcinoma, and lymphoma.

883
Q

In a possible Varicella exposure in an immunocompetent patient who is asymptomatic, and nonimmune
should:

A

Receive post-exposure prophylaxis within 3-5 days exposure. Nearly 70-100% effective in preventing infection when given in 3-5 day.

884
Q

Varicella exposure in an immunocompromised hosts who are asymptomatic and nonimmune should:

A

Receive varicella zoster immune globulin. The vaccine is a live attenuated virus and is contraindicated in
immunocompromised.

885
Q

During the immune clearance phase of HBV, patients need serial measurements:

A

Both ALT and HBeAg every 3-6 months until they achieve viral clearance.

886
Q

APGAR: What does it stand for how is it scored:

A

A-Appearance: 0 completely blue/pale; 1 body pink, extremities blue; 2 completely pink
P-Pulse: 0 absent; 1 100/min
G-Grimace: 0 absent; 1 Grimace/whimper; 2 Cough/sneeze/cry
A-Activity/muscle tone: 0 limp; 1 Some flexion; 2 Active/spontaneous
R-Respiratory: 0 Absent; 1 Slow, weak cry; 2 Regular, good cry

887
Q

Apgar score of

A

Further evaluation and resuscitation.

888
Q

Patients with Hodgkin’s lymphoma treated with chemotherapy and radiation can have:

A

Secondary malignancy especially those treated before age 30.

889
Q

Radiation fibrosis occurs most commonly in patients who have received:

A

Lung field radiation and develop dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and chest pain 4-24 months after therapy.

890
Q

Essential tremor first line and second line medications:

A

First line Propranolol; Second line primidone and topiramate

891
Q

Cerebral palsy (CP) is a group of clinical syndromes characterized by: Biggest risk factor

A

Non Progressive motor dysfunction: The three primary subtypes are spastic, dyskinetic, and ataxic. Biggest risk factor is prematurity.

892
Q

In ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia: What is of primary importance:

A

Defibrillation: Time to defibrillation is strongly correlated with survival.

893
Q

INR for Warfarin therapy for VTE, atrial fibrillation, and prosthetic heart valve: Timeframe of use:

A

VTE and atrial fibrillation: 2.0-3.0
prosthetic heart valve: 2.5-3.5
3 months for reversible risk factor. 6-12 months idiopathic DVT.

894
Q

Lab findings seen in SIADH:

A

Serum osmolality 100 mOsm/kg (inappropriately elevated)
Urine sodium > 40 mEq/L
Normal serum creatinine, potassium, and acid-base balance
Normal adrenal and thyroid function

895
Q

Treatment SIADH: Asymptomatic or mild symptoms (forgetfulness, unstable gait):

A

Fluid restriction (2 times serum osmolality

896
Q

Treatment of SIADH: Moderate symptoms (confusion, lethargy):

A

Hypertonic saline in first 3-4 hours to increase sodium > 120 mEq/L
Later treatment same as mild hyponatremia

897
Q

Treatment of SIADH: Severe symptoms: (seizure, inability to communicate and/or coma)

A

Bolus of hypertonic saline until symptoms resolution

+/- Vasopressin receptor antagonists (conivaptan)

898
Q

Patients with ischemic strokes and negative CT findings for intracranial bleed: Treatment:

A

Fibrinolytic therapy especially if given in 3-4.5 hours of onset.

899
Q

Paralysis that begins like GBS, but rapidly progresses within hours:

A

Tick-borne paralysis is characterized by rapidly progressive ascending paralysis (which may be asymmetric). Need to
perform a meticulous search for tick because they must feed for 4-7 days and remove it. Most patient spontaneously recover.

900
Q

Recurrent pneumonia in the same anatomic area of the lung as seen on x-ray suggest:

A

Bronchial obstruction due to an underlying abnormality. You need to get a CT scan to visualize the underlying
parenchymal abnormalities. Biopsy via bronchoscopy is next.

901
Q

What two conditions in adults can cause minimal change disease:

A

NSAIDS and lymphoma (Most common form of nephrotic syndrome in patients with Hodgkin lymphoma).

902
Q

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is associated with:

A

Hepatitis B and C infections and lipodystrophy.

903
Q

Membranous nephropathy is associated with:

A

Adenocarcinoma (breast, lung), NSAIDS, Hepatitis B, SLE.

904
Q

Risk factors for endometrial cancer:

A

Age ≥45, obesity, diabetes, unopposed estrogen exposure, PCOS, early menarche/late menopause.

905
Q

The first priority in evaluating abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB):

A

Exclude pregnancy with serum beta-hCG.
Workup for abnormal uterine bleeding after pregnancy test:
First line tests include blood counts, coagulation studies, and TSH. May also include prolactin, FSH, +/- LH, and
serum androgens.

906
Q

Patients with persistent symptoms of AUB who have a negative initial work up or risk factors for endometrial
cancer require:

A

Endometrial biopsy

907
Q

Contraindications to radioiodine therapy in Graves patient:

A

Pregnancy and severe ophthalmopathy.

908
Q

Presbyopia is a common age related eye occurrence due:

A

Decreased lens elasticity leads to difficulty with near vision.

909
Q

Clinical manifestations of hereditary hemochromatosis:

A

Hyperpigmentation (bronze diabetes), arthralgia, arthropathy, chondrocalcinosis, elevated hepatic enzymes
hepatomegaly (early), cirrhosis (later), and increased risk for HCC, diabetes mellitus, secondary hypogonadism and
hypothyroidism, restrictive or dilated cardiomyopathy and conduction abnormalities, increased susceptibility to listeria, vibrio vulnificus, yersinia enterocolitica.

910
Q

Patient with fever, tachycardia, leukocytosis, and metabolic acidosis with small bowel obstruction:

A

Urgent surgical exploration

911
Q

Medications that block the dopamine (D2) receptor may cause:

A

Extrapyramidal effects that can resemble Parkinsonism. Think about drug induced parkinsonism from risperidone
causing bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremor.

912
Q

Wilson’s disease: Genetics: Characterized: Diagnosis:

A
Rare autosomal recessive; Characterized by abnormal copper deposition in the tissues such as liver, basal ganglia,
and cornea. Children tend to present with liver disease while young adults tend to have neuropsychiatric disease.
Low ceruloplasmin (
913
Q

Conditions where one may have an increased BUN/creatinine ratio include:

A

Prerenal failure, gastrointestinal bleeding (secondary to reabsorption of blood from the gastrointestinal tract), and
steroid administration.

914
Q

Screening for bladder cancer in patients who are at risk for developing the disease:

A

Screening for bladder cancer is not recommended.

915
Q

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state: What is potassium level:

A

May look normal on labs but total body potassium is in deficit due to urinary loss caused by glucosuria-induced
osmotic diuresis.

916
Q

Friedreich ataxia is the most common type: Presents: Most common cause death:

A

Spinocerebellar ataxias. Remember the combination of neurologic (ataxia, dysarthria), skeletal (scoliosis, feet
deformities), and cardiac (concentric hypertrophic cardiomyopathy) manifestations of the disease. The most common cause of death are cardiomyopathy and respiratory complications.

917
Q

Hepatitis B is a significant risk factor for what renal syndrome in children:

A

Membranous nephropathy.

918
Q

What agents facilitate stone passage and reduce the need for analgesics:

A

Alpha-1 receptor blockers such as tamsulosin act on the distal ureter, lowering muscle tone and reducing reflux uteral spasm secondary to stone impaction.

919
Q

Reactive arthritis does not always present with all features: Name features: Treatment:

A

Urethritis, conjunctivitis, mucocutaneous lesions, enthesitis (site were tendons insert bone), and asymmetric
oligoarthritis. Treatment: NSAIDS.

920
Q

OSA has blood gas:

A

Normal

921
Q

Tension pneumothorax should have:

A

Immediate thoracostomy.

922
Q

Acute dacryocystitis is characterized by:

A

The sudden onset of pain and redness in the medial canthus region. Dacryocystitis is an infection of the lacrimal sac common in infants and adults over 40. Staphylococcus aureus and beta hemolytic streptococcus.

923
Q

Hordeolum refers to an:

A

Abscess located over the upper or lower eyelid.

924
Q

Chalazion is a chronic:

A

Granulomatous inflammation of the meibomian gland. It appears as a hard painless lid nodule.

925
Q

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS): Treatment:

A

Dantrolene, bromocriptine, amantadine

926
Q

Sulfasalazine: Used for: Mechanism: Adverse effects:

A

Antirheumatic drug; TNF and IL-1 suppressor; Hepatotoxicity, stomatitis, hemolytic anemia.

927
Q

Hydroxychloroquine: Used for: Mechanism: Adverse effects:

A

Antirheumatic drug; TNF and IL-1 suppressor; Retinopathy

928
Q

Methotrexate: Used for: Mechanism: Adverse effects:

A

Antirheumatic drug; Purine antimetabolite; Hepatotoxicity; Stomatitis, Cytopenia.

929
Q

Leflunomide: Used for: Mechanism: Adverse effects:

A

Antirheumatic drug; Pyrimidine synthesis inhibitor; Hepatotoxicity, cytopenia.

930
Q

Obesity hypoventilation syndrome causes what metabolic acid/base:

A

There is respiratory acidosis, so there is a compensatory effort to maintain normal pH, the kidney increase
bicarbonate retention and decreases chloride reabsorption.

931
Q

A lesion in the upper thoracic spinal cord results in:

A

Paraplegia, bladder, and fecal incontinence, and absent sensation from the nipple downwards.

932
Q

A lesion in the lower thoracic spinal cord causes:

A

Absent sensation from the umbilicus downwards.

933
Q

Postpartum endometritis is most commonly caused by:

A

Polymicrobial infection composed of gram positive and gram negative organisms, aerobic and anaerobic organisms and occasionally other organisms.

934
Q

Postpartum endometritis: Treatment:

A

Clindamycin and gentamicin

935
Q

Patient asks “What are the chances that I really do not have breast cancer?”

A

Negative predictive value: Will vary with the pretest probability of a disease. High probability = low NPV. Low
probability = high NPV.

936
Q

Renal tubular acidosis: Type 1: Primary defect: Urine pH: Serum potassium: Cause:

A
Type 1 (distal): Poor hydrogen ion secretion into urine; ≥5.5 pH urine; Potassium low-normal; Causes genetics
disorders, medication toxicity, autoimmune (Sjogren's syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis).
937
Q

Renal tubular acidosis: Type 2: Primary defect: Urine pH: Serum potassium: Cause:

A

Type 2 (proximal): Poor bicarbonate resorption;

938
Q

Renal tubular acidosis: Type 4: Primary defect: Urine pH: Serum potassium: Cause:

A

Type 4: Aldosterone resistance;

939
Q

Streptococcus sanguinis belongs to the viridans group streptococcus which means:

A

You can get endocarditis from it when you have dental procedure.

940
Q

Why can’t nitrofurantoin be used for complicated cystitis:

A

Because it does not adequately penetrate renal tissue.

941
Q

Acute pyelonephritis intravenous antibiotics and imaging is indicated if symptoms:

A

Persist or worsen after 2-3 days.

942
Q

Thyroid storm is often triggered by: Characterized:

A

Thyroid or non thyroid surgery, infection, iodine contrast, or childbirth. Characterized by tachycardia, hypertension,
cardaic arrhythmias, high fever, tremor, altered mentation, and lid lag.

943
Q

Primary therapy for moderate hypothermia:

A

Active external and internal rewarming, which includes use of heated humidified oxygen and warmed intravenous
fluids.

944
Q

Bradycardia associated with hypothermia usually:

A

Does not require treatment unless it persist with rewarming or if associated with hypotension. Pacemaker cells are
refractory to atropine.

945
Q

Patient from Southeast Asia has a chronic cough and hemoptysis with a cavitary lesion on CT imaging:

A

Fungal ball: Pulmonary aspergillosis. Think this when patient from endemic TB area.

946
Q

Pain with supination or extension of the wrist and point tenderness just distal to the lateral epicondyle:

A

Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow)

947
Q

Rapid onset edema of the face, acral extremities, genitals, trachea, and abdominal organs without urticaria:

A

Hereditary angioedema is a deficiency or dysfunction in C1 inhibitor, which results in elevated levels of the edema
producing factors C2b and bradykinin.

948
Q

Classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH):

A

Abnormal gait, incontinence, and dementia. Due to decreased CSF absorption.

949
Q

Central cord syndrome: Characterized:

A

Weakness that is more pronounced in the upper extremities than the lower and accompanied by localized deficits in pain and temperature sensation.

950
Q

Anterior cord syndrome: Characterised:

A

Bilateral spastic motor paresis distal to the lesion. Usually due to occlusion of anterior spinal artery.

951
Q

Cri-du-chat syndrome is due: Presents:

A

Due to 5p deletion and presents as microcephaly, hypotonia, short stature, and a cat-like cry.

952
Q

Patient presents with blood at the urethral meatus, a high riding prostate, scrotal hematoma, inability to void
despite sensing an urge to void, and a palpably distended bladder.

A

Posterior urethral injury is associated with pelvic fractures

953
Q

A young woman who presents with a breast lump with no obvious signs of malignancy are present can be:

A

Asked to return after her menstrual period for reexamination (which may reveal regression of the mass). If decrease in size probably benign. Otherwise proceed with ultrasonography, fine needle aspiration biopsy, and/or excisional biopsy.

954
Q

Mammography is usually not helpful in young women:

A

Because the density of breast tissue is high in young women.

955
Q

Somnambulism: Define:

A

Sleepwalking is another non-REM parasomnia. Occurs later in childhood and adolescence.

956
Q

Uveitis pupillary response:

A

The pupil is constricted with poor light response, in acute angle glaucoma, the pupil is dilated and is nonreactive to
light.

957
Q

Open angle glaucoma has a pathologic:

A

Cupping of the optic disk, persistently elevated intraocular pressure.

958
Q

Eisenmenger syndrome:

A

Cyanosis and dyspnea secondary to right to left shunting.

959
Q

Pansystolic murmur that is loudest at the left lower sternal border and a diastolic rumble at the apex:

A

Large ventral septal defects

960
Q

Patient with Northern European ancestry with megaloblastic anemia, atrophic glossitis (shiny tongue),
vitiligo, thyroid disease, and neurologic abnormalities (ataxia, loss of position and vibration sense):

A

Pernicious anemia an autoimmune disease with autoantibodies against gastric intrinsic factor. Results in B12
deficiency.

961
Q

Patient with fever, polyarthralgia, and a pustular rash who works as a commercial sex worker:

A

Disseminated gonococcal infection: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common sexually transmitted disease causing
arthitis. Due to the fastidious growth requirements blood cultures are often negative. Must get nucleic acid
amplification testing.

962
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism: Labs: Treatment:

A

Hypercalcemia with elevated or inappropriately normal PTH.
24-hour urinary calcium >250 mg.
Urine calcium/creatinine >0,02 differentiate from familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia:
Bone mineral density scan for osteopenia/osteoporosis.
Sestamibi scan plus ultrasound to locate hyperactive parathyroid tissue prior to surgery.

963
Q

Use the modified Wells score for PE evaluation:

A

Score +3 points: Clinical signs of DVT; Alternative diagnosis less likely than PE.
Score +1.5 points: Previous PE or DT; Heart rate >100; Recent surgery or immobilization.
Score +1 points: Hemoptysis; Cancer.
Total score for clinical probability
≤4 = PE unlikely Get CT angiogram of chest patient’s normal renal function; V/Q scan otherwise
>4 = PE likely Start anticoagulation therapy

964
Q

Patient with 6 weeks of periorbital edema, moderate ascites, lower extremity edema, and high urinary protein
excretion. Suddenly developed right sided abdominal pain, fever, and gross hematuria:

A

Renal vein thrombosis (RVT) and other thromboembolism are important complications of nephrotic syndrome because of loss of antithrombin III in the urine.

965
Q

Patient who has cholilithiasis and refuses surgery: Treatment:

A

Provide patient with ursodeoxycholic acid and advice to avoid fatty foods.

966
Q

Diabetic patient presents with symptoms of anorexia, nausea, vomiting, early satiety, postprandial fullness,
and impaired glycemic control:

A
Diabetic gastroparesis (delayed gastric emptying): Treatment Prokinetics metoclopramide, erythromycin, cisapride.
Diabetic autonomic neuropathy occurs >50%.
967
Q

Thiazide diuretics have some unfavorable metabolic side effects including:

A

Hyperglycemia, increased LDL cholesterol, and plasma triglycerides. hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia.

968
Q

Patients with acute pancreatitis can develop hypotension:

A

Due intravascular volume loss secondary to local and systemic vascular endothelial damage causing vasodilation,
increased vascular permeability, and plasma leak into retroperitoneum.

969
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia: Presentation: Diagnosis:

A

Presents with nonspecific systemic symptoms, bone pain, lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, pallor (from anemia),
petechia (from thrombocytopenia). Diagnosed with bone marrow biopsy >25% lymphoblasts.

970
Q

Viral (herpes simplex virus) encephalitis: Symptoms: Diagnosis: Treatment:

A

Fever, altered mental status with confusion and agitation, risk of seizures and coma. Get CSF: Elevated WBC with
lymphocytic predominance, normal glucose, and elevated protein. Diagnosed by viral DNA by PCR. Empiric treatment
acyclovir.

971
Q

Patient with aortic stenosis (AS): What test do you get before a stress test:

A

Echocardiogram: Exercise stress test are contraindicated in symptomatic severe AS.

972
Q

Be Careful of the patient on theophylline: TOXICITY:

A

Theophylline toxicity can manifest as central nervous system stimulation (headache, insomnia, seizure),
gastrointestinal disturbance (nausea, vomiting), and cardiac toxicity (arrhythmia). Narrow therapeutic window check
levels.

973
Q

Pelvic exam is consistent with a 14 week uterus that is irregular and mobile with prominent posterior mass.
Urine pregnancy is negative: Diagnosis:

A

Uterine leiomyoma

974
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) and hereditary spherocytosis (HS): Differentiate them:

A

Both can cause extravascular hemolytic anemia. A negative family history and + Coombs test suggest AIHA. A
positive family history and negative Coombs test suggest HS. The peripheral blood smear for both may show
sperocytes with central pallor.

975
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy: Gold standard test for diagnosis:

A

Genetic testing for dystrophin gene on Xp21.

976
Q

Screening for male active or former smokers aged 65-75:

A

One-time abdominal ultrasound to evaluate for an abdominal aortic aneurysm.

977
Q

Most common cause of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis:

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae and nontypable Haemophilus influenzae.

978
Q

Hyperestrogenism in cirrhosis leads to:

A

Gynecomastia, testicular atrophy, decreased body hair, spider angiomas, and palmar erythema.

979
Q

Patient with elevated conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia along with elevated levels of alkaline
phosphatase need:

A

Abdominal ultrasound to assess hepatic parenchyma and biliary ducts.

980
Q

Porphyria cutanea tarda is a condition that arises from: Presents: Associated with:

A

Deficiency in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase, an enzyme in heme synthesis.Presents with painless blisters,
increased fragility on the dorsal surfaces of the hands, facial hypertrichosis and hyperpigmentation. Hepatitis C.

981
Q

Mother with Graves with a low birth weight, tachycardia, warm skin irritable neonate: Treatment:

A

Neonatal thyrotoxicosis caused by transplacental TSH-receptor antibody. Self resolves by 3 months treat with
methimazole and beta-blocker.

982
Q

Patient history of normal internal genitalia with ambiguous external genitalia, clitoral hypertrophy, and high
FSH/LH with low estrogen is consistent with:

A

Aromatase deficiency

983
Q

Premature atrial beats are completely:

A

Benign and neither require workup or treatment.

984
Q

Papillary necrosis presents with:

A

Massive Hematuria, but episodes are usually mild and resolve spontaneously. Can occur in sickle cell trait.

985
Q

Flattening of both the top and bottom of the flow-volume loop:

A

A fixed upper airway obstruction will decrease the airflow rate during inspiration and expiration. Laryngeal edema.

986
Q

Patient with burning, localized pain and regional hyperesthesia/allodynia, in the context of recent cancer
treatment, has common features: Treatment:

A

Of herpes zoster (shingles): Treatment: acyclovir, valacyclovir, famciclovir

987
Q

Alzheimer’s disease CT and MRI findings:

A

Diffuse cortical and subcortical atrophy which is disproportionately greater in the temporal and parietal lobes.

988
Q

Immune thrombocytopenia lab findings: Treatment children vs adults:

A

Isolated thrombocytopenia

989
Q

Most common and serious complication peptic ulcer disease:

A

Hemorrhage

990
Q

Peripheral blood smear reveals bite cells and red blood cell inclusions seen after crystal violet staining:

A

Glucose-6 dehydrogenase deficiency

991
Q

Chronic renal failure can cause uremia to occur that has what effect on platelets.

A

It causes platelet dysfunction. Dialysis usually keeps this from happening, but patients can be treated with
desmopressin that exposes factor 8. PT, PTT and TT normal. Only bleeding time prolonged.

992
Q

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can lead to:

A

Malabsorption of fat due to pancreatic enzymes inactivated by acid. Can even have jejunal ulcers.

993
Q

Most common pulmonary complication in diffuse systemic sclerosis:

A

Interstitial fibrosis

994
Q

COPD vs asthma: primary long term treatment:

A
Asthma = inhaled corticosteroid
COPD =  long acting anticholinergic
995
Q

Pseudogout forms from and causes what in joints:

A

Calcium pyrophosphate crystals that are released from chondrocalcinosis (calcification of articular cartilage) into the joint space. Rhomboid shaped, positively birefringent crystals is diagnostic.

996
Q

Low complement levels, increased rheumatoid factor, increased liver transaminases, with elevated creatinine,
proteinuria, and microscopic hematuria with dysmorphic red blood cells:

A

Cryoglobulinemia is an immune complex disorder (IgM against anti-hepatitis C virus IgG) most commonly due to
chronic hepatitis C.

997
Q

Ulcerative colitis is:

A

p-ANCA positive

998
Q

Severe preeclampsia is characterized by any of the following:

A

BP ≥160 mmHG systolic or ≥110 mmHG diastolic on 2 occasions ≥4 hours apart during bedrest
Thrombocytopenia 1.1 mg/dL or doubling of serum creatinine
Elevated transaminases
Pulmonary edema
New-onset visual or cerebral symptoms
Note: Elevated BP in a previously normotensive patient makes diagnosis jump to severe, but not for patients who had
high BP before.

999
Q

Deficiency of niacin (vitamin B3): Characterised:

A

Leads to pellagra, which is characterized by diarrhea, dermatitis (sunburn like rash in sun exposed areas, becomes
hyperpigmented), dementia, and if severe, death. Red beefy tongue (glossitis).

1000
Q

Deficiency of riboflavin (vitamin B2): Characterized:

A

Can lead to cheilosis, glossitis, seborrheic dermatitis (often affecting the genital areas), pharyngitis, and edema and/or
erythema of the mouth.

1001
Q

Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) deficiency: Characterised:

A

Causes irritability, depression, dermatitis, and stomatitis (inflammation of mucosa mouth). Can cause elevated
homocysteine concentration which increases risk for venous thromboembolism.

1002
Q

Placenta previa: Risk factors: Clinical features: Diagnosis:

A

Risk factors: Prior placenta previa, prior cesarean or other uterine surgery, multiparity, advanced age.
Clinical features: Painless third trimester bleeding, bleeding with uterine contraction.
Diagnosis: Transabdominal followed by transvaginal sonography. NO DIGITAL vaginal examination before US!

1003
Q

Placental abruption: Caused by:Presents with:

A

Premature placental separation initiated by hemorrhage in the decidua basilis. Vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain
are frequent presenting complaints.

1004
Q

Uterine rupture: Presents with: Risk factors:

A

Sudden onset of intense abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding associated with hyperventilation, agitation, and
tachycardia. Although it may occur prior to onset of labor, it is commonly associated with labor, especially in women
with a prior cesarean delivery.

1005
Q

Vasa previa: Mechanism: Presentation:

A

Fetal blood vessels cross the fetal membranes in the lower segment of the uterus between the fetus and the internal
cervical os. Presents with painless antepartum hemorrhage, but is associated with rapid deterioration of the fetal heart
tracing as the hemorrhage is of fetal origin.

1006
Q

Graves disease during pregnancy: Medications:

A

First trimester propylthiouracil (PTU), methimazole is a teratogen, but can be used the 2nd, and 3rd trimester. Both
cause agranulocytosis.

1007
Q

Trimethoprim (TMP) part of TMP-SMX especially used in HIV patients can cause:

A

Hyperkalemia, by blocking eNac same mechanism as amiloride. Also blocks creatinine secretion, so may have
artificial elevation with no actual kidney damage. Serial monitoring of potassium levels.

1008
Q

Remember when you get a question on athletes using performance enhancing drugs: EPO versus anabolic
steroids:

A

Anabolic steroids can also cause erythrocytosis, so don’t be fooled by high RBCs. EPO does not cause
gynecomastia, and anabolic steroids do cause gynecomastia.

1009
Q

What murmurs increase on expiration:

A

Only left sided murmurs increase on expiration.

1010
Q

An S4 results due to:

A

The forceful atrial contraction against the thick non-compliant ventricle.

1011
Q

Classic indicators for surgery in patients with aortic stenosis are SAD:

A

Syncope, Angina, and Dyspnea.
The indications for aortic valve replacement are:
1. All symptomatic patients with AS
2. Patients with severe AS undergoing CABG or other valvular surgery
3. Asymptomatic patients with severe AS and either poor LV systolic function, LV hypertrophy >15 mm, valve area

1012
Q

What drugs cause patients to have to increase their levothyroxine dose:

A

Estrogen (oral increases TBG), tamoxifen, raloxifene, rifampin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, heroin, methadone.

1013
Q

What drugs cause patients to have to decrease their levothyroxine dose:

A

Androgens, glucocorticoids, anabolic steroids, slow release nicotinic acid.

1014
Q

Non Inflammatory chronic prostatitis: Presents: Labs:

A

Afebrile and have irritative voiding. UA normal. Expressed prostatic secretions show normal number of leukocytes and
culture of the secretions is negative for bacteria.

1015
Q

Chronic bacterial prostatitis: Presents: Labs:

A

Afebrile and irritative voiding symptoms including frequency, urgency and suprapubic or perineal discomfort. UA
normal. Expressed prostatic secretions show leukocyte count greater than 10 WBC/HPF and cultures grow causative
pathogens.

1016
Q

Inflammatory chronic prostatitis: Presents: Labs:

A

Afebrile and irritative voiding symptoms including frequency, urgency and suprapubic or perineal discomfort. UA
normal. Expressed prostatic secretions show leukocyte count greater than 10 WBC/HPF and cultures are negative.

1017
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) antibodies:

A

ANA = sensitive
Anti-dsDNA and anti-SM (smooth muscle) = specific
Hypocomplementemia (C3 and C4) common

1018
Q

Elevated BNP levels are associated with what heart sound:

A

S3 which is a soft diastolic sound produced by the tensing of the papillary chordal apparatus when there is rapid
influx of blood into the ventricle in early diastole. BNP and S3 are both signs of increased cardiac filling pressure.

1019
Q

Nephrolithiasis prefered imaging:

A

CT scan of abdomen without contrast.

1020
Q

Bipolar disorder in a first degree relative (parent, sibling, dizygotic twin) raise the likelihood of you having a
manic attack:

A

5-10%, if both parents than 60% chance, if dizygotic twin than 70% chance. General population is only 1%.

1021
Q

Increased gastric residual volume, vomiting, and abdominal distention in a preterm neonate are highly
suspicious for necrotizing enterocolitis: Hallmark findings on x-ray:

A

Include pneumatosis intestinalis (intramural air) or air in the bowel wall and portal vein.

1022
Q

Cat-scratch disease is caused by Bartonella henselae: Treatment:

A

Oral azithromycin

1023
Q

Patient with large anterior mediastinal mass with elevated levels of β-hCG and AFP, is consistent with:

A

A nonseminomatous germ cell tumor. Seminomatous only have β-hCG.

1024
Q

Hepatocellular carcinoma can elevated:

A

AFP

1025
Q

Tuberculosis is a common cause of chronic primary:

A
Adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease) in endemic areas. Cause aldosterone deficiency and presents with
non-anion gap and hyperkalemic and hyponatremic metabolic acidosis.
1026
Q

How long do you have to refrain from sports when you infectious mononucleosis:

A

Avoid contact sports for ≥3 weeks due to the risk of splenic rupture.

1027
Q

Patient with all the signs and symptoms of pregnancy, however, ultrasound reveals a normal endometrial
stripe and a negative pregnancy test although home test was positive:

A

Pseudocyesis: Seen in women with a strong desire to conceive and is a form of conversion disorder.

1028
Q

Main differences between simple renal cyst and malignant renal cyst:

A

Simple: Thin smooth regular wall, unilocular no septate homogenous content and absence of contrast on CT/MRI
Malignant cystic mass: Thick, irregular wall, multilocular, multiple septate, occasional calcification, heterogenous
content, and presence of contrast on CT/MRI.
Simple just give reassurance.

1029
Q

MEN 2A and 2B genetics:

A

Autosomal disorder due to germline mutation in RET proto-oncogene in >95%.

1030
Q

Patients placed on high dose glucocorticoids can have:

A

Glucocorticoid induced myopathy with progressive proximal muscle weakness and atrophy without pain or tenderness.
Normal ESR and CK. Most common drug induced myopathy occurs weeks to months.

1031
Q

Patients with diabetes for >10 years develop:

A

Diabetic microangiopathy, nephropathy, and glomerulosclerosis.

1032
Q

Alanine and lactate are converted into what during gluconeogenesis:

A

Pyruvate

1033
Q

Meniere’s disease: Presentation: Environmental treatment:

A

Presents with combination of vertigo, ear fullness, tinnitus, and hearing loss. First line therapy consists low salt diet.

1034
Q

Patient with fat necrosis of the breast can be confused with breast cancer:

A

Can resemble breast cancer, including skin or nipple retraction and calcifications on mammography. Biopsy of the
mass will reveal fat globules and foamy macrophages (histiocytes). No treatment is indicated for this self-limited
condition.

1035
Q

Patient with severe renal insufficiency GFR

A

Unfractionated heparin, all others increase bleeding risk due to Xa activity.

1036
Q

Characterize a patient with postoperative cholestasis:

A

Condition that often develops after a major surgery characterized by hypotension, extensive blood loss into tissues,
and massive blood replacement. Alkaline phosphatase is elevated, but ALT and AST are normal to mild elevated.
Benign condition.

1037
Q

Schizophrenia: What do you see on neuroimaging:

A

Enlargement of the cerebral ventricles.

1038
Q

Autism: What do you see on neuroimaging:

A

Increased total brain volume.

1039
Q

OCD:What do you see on neuroimaging:

A

Abnormalities in Orbitofrontal cortex and striatum

1040
Q

Panic disorder:What do you see on neuroimaging:

A

Decreased volume of amygdala.

1041
Q

PTSD:What do you see on neuroimaging:

A

Decreased hippocampal volume.

1042
Q

Caustic ingestion management:

A

Secure ABC.
Decontamination: Remove clothing and visible chemical.
X Ray if respiratory symptoms
Endoscopy within 24 hours.

1043
Q

Resting state when using carbohydrates, protein, or lipid:

A

Close to 1.0 carbohydrates. Protein 0.8. Lipids 0.7.

1044
Q

Celiacs disease antibodies: Biopsy:

A

IgA anti-endosomal and anti tissue transglutaminase antibody. Biopsy shows villous atrophy.

1045
Q

Td or Tdap:

A

Tdap should be substituted for Td once then Td every 10 years as adult.

1046
Q

Patient with splenectomy vaccines given and when:

A

Administered ≥14 days before or >14 days after splenectomy.

1047
Q

Dumping syndrome is a common complication:

A

Postgastrectomy, need to modify diet.

1048
Q

In pregnant patient with appendicitis what do you do:

A

US with graded compression technique. Non Compression and dilation are diagnostic.

1049
Q

Pregnancy luteoma and theca luteum cysts are:

A

most common cause of hyperestrogenism in pregnancy Luteoma solid on US. No maternal treatment can cause
virilization female fetus.

1050
Q

Causes of crystal induced acute kidney injury:

A

Acyclovir, sulfonamides, methotrexate, ethylene glycol, protease inhibitors. Cause renal tubular obstruction.

1051
Q

Remember that nephrotic diseases always have a risk factor for:

A

hypercoagulable: loss of antithrombin III in urine.

1052
Q

In the ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle, cervical mucus:

A

Profuse, clear and thin. It will stretch to approximately 6 cm and exhibits ferning on a microscopic slide. pH is 6.5 or
greater the most basic of any phase.

1053
Q

Clinical features of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria: Labs: Test: Treatment:

A

Hemolysis leads to fatigue, Cytopenias (impaired hematopoiesis), venous thrombosis (intra abdominal, cerebral
veins). Labs show elevated LDH and low haptoglobin (due to hemolysis). Absence of CD55 and CD59. Tx: iron and
folate and Eculizumab.

1054
Q

Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI): Must avoid what foods: Why:

A

Foods high in tyramine(aged meats and cheese), as the combination can cause hypertensive crisis.

1055
Q

Patient with BPH what test is best for accessing hydronephrosis when they have elevated creatine:

A

Renal US.

1056
Q

When patients get massive transfusions and their reflexes become hyperactive: Why:

A

due to citrate in stored blood products binds up the ionized calcium.

1057
Q

Pregnant patient post epidural difficulty voiding with a post residual void of 600 mL:

A

Require 24 hour indwelling catheter to decompress the bladder and regain detrusor muscle function.
These patients have urinary retention and overflow incontinence.

1058
Q

Pathogenesis of carpal tunnel syndrome:

A

Deposition of mucopolysaccharides protein complex within the perineurium and endoneurium (accumulation of matrix
substance.

1059
Q

Patient with difficulty obtaining therapeutic INR on warfarin and expanding DVT:

A

Start rivaroxaban (direct factor Xa inhibitor) similar efficacy no labs

1060
Q

Drugs used to decrease frequency of MS:

A

Beta-interferon and glatiramer acetate

1061
Q

Remember with esophageal perforation xray will show widened mediastinum and moderate left sided pleural
effusion. The pleural fluid will contain:

A

High concentrations of amylase from oral secretions.

1062
Q

Marfan syndrome with early diastolic murmur:

A

Aortic dissection

1063
Q

Parkinson disease is diagnosed with:

A

Physical exam showing tremor, rigidity, postural instability, and bradykinesia.

1064
Q

Clinical trial:

A

Compare outcome of interest

1065
Q

Prospective cohort:

A

Compare disease incidence.

1066
Q

Retrospective cohort:

A

Compare disease incidence by reviewing past records.

1067
Q

Case control:

A

Compare risk factor frequency.

1068
Q

Cross sectional:

A

Compare disease prevalence.

1069
Q

Primary treatment for a prolactinoma with no visual impairments:

A

Dopamine agonist (bromocriptine, cabergoline).

1070
Q

Long term analgesic use causes (NSAIDS or aspirin):

A

Tubulointerstitial nephritis

1071
Q

Patient unable to get pregnant for one year with history of PID, and husband with normal sperm count needs:

A

Hysterosalpingogram

1072
Q

Maternal thyroid axis during pregnancy:

A

β-hCG stimulate thyroid hormone (T4) and both increase during first trimester, so TSH go down. There is also an
increase in thyroid binding globulin.

1073
Q

Endometrial biopsy showing complex hyperplasia without atypia: Treatment:

A

Progestin therapy. Hyperplasia with atypia and no plans for pregnancy/fails medical management should have
hystersctomy.

1074
Q

Five year old with has several strands of dark, coarse hair across pubis and under both axilla, normal
genitalia and no breast buds:

A

Kid with pubarche has adrenal androgen production (premature adrenarche). Obesity is a risk factor for this. If patient
has breast bud (thelarche) then HPG axis.

1075
Q

Well known complication of giant cell or temporal arteritis:

A

Aortic aneurysm, get serial chest x-ray.

1076
Q

CKD on ACEI with hyperkalemia and is asymptomatic:

A

Saline hydration with furosemide

1077
Q

Primary hyperaldosteronism renin level:

A

Undetectable.

1078
Q

Elderly patient in bed for a week gets dizzy on rising out of bed finally:

A

Orthostatic hypotension

1079
Q

Granulosa cell tumors occur:

A

In children produce estrogen cause precocious puberty.

1080
Q

Small intestine bacterial overgrowth occurs:

A

In disease with autonomic or dysmotility. Leads to malabsorption can happen with systemic sclerosis.

1081
Q

Diverticulitis get:

A

US

1082
Q

Contraindication to the use of succinylcholine for rapid sequence intubation:

A

Hyperkalemia

1083
Q

Patient in 60’s has dysphagia, coughing, halitosis, and a neck mass:

A

Zenker (pharyngoesophageal)diverticulum. Has motor disfunction. Barium esophagram
Patient with delayed onset prosthetic joint infection >3 months and 3 months Staphylococcus epidermidis

1084
Q

Systemic hypertension is a classic cause of:

A

Diastolic dysfunction

1085
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis: Etiology: Treatment:

A

Autoimmune destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts and cholestasis. Has elevated IgM and anti-mitochondrial
antibodies in the serum. Treatment is ursodeoxycholic slow progression and lengthens transplant free survival time.

1086
Q

Anti-D immune globulin should be given at:

A

28-32 weeks gestation and again after delivery if the baby is Rh positive.

1087
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis diagnosis:

A

x-ray

1088
Q

Cardiac auscultation reveals a systolic murmur at the apex that shortens with squatting:

A

Mitral valve prolapse. Squatting increase venous return.

1089
Q

PCOS has greater risk for what cancer:

A

Endometrial carcinoma

1090
Q

Ulnar nerve entrapment occurs most commonly at:

A

The elbow where the ulnar nerve lies at the medial epicondylar groove

1091
Q

D-xylose test of proximal small intestine absorption: If low excretion in urine:

A

Poor absorption in the small intestine = Celiac sprue.

1092
Q

Agitate elderly person should be treated with:

A

Haloperidol. Use lorazepam for young people.

1093
Q

Patient with new onset kidney disease who has SLE:

A

Need a renal biopsy for baseline.

1094
Q

Folate deficiency cause:

A

Elevated homocysteine.

1095
Q

Cobalamin (B12) deficiency cause:

A

Elevated homocysteine and methylmalonic acid

1096
Q

Muddy brown granular casts:

A

Acute tubular necrosis

1097
Q

RBC casts:

A

Glomerulonephritis

1098
Q

WBC casts:

A

Interstitial nephritis or pyelonephritis

1099
Q

Fatty cast:

A

Nephrotic syndrome

1100
Q

Broad and waxy casts:

A

Chronic renal failure

1101
Q

With threatened abortion after you have ascertained that the fetus is present and alive:

A

Management reassurance and another US one week later

1102
Q

Clinical presentation with anemia, painless gastrointestinal bleeding, and murmur of aortic stenosis is most
consistent with:

A

Angiodysplasia (arteriovenous malformation) of the gastrointestinal tract seen in patients >60. The bad valve causes
disruption of von Willebrand factor leading to more bleeding.

1103
Q

Two NRTI with good placental transfer:

A

Zidovudine and tenofovir. One should be part of mothers

1104
Q

Within 24 hours of MI all patients should be started on:

A

ACEI to decrease cardiac remodeling post MI.

1105
Q

Patient with femoral vein DVT on enoxaparin has massive GI bleed and enoxaparin is stopped: Next step:

A

Placement of a retrievable inferior vena cava filter

1106
Q

Giant cell tumor of the bone: X-ray:Treatment:

A

An expansible and eccentric osteolytic lesion resembling a soap bubble; Surgery

1107
Q

Etiology ascending versus descending aortic aneurysm:

A

Ascending due to cystic medial necrosis or connective tissue disorder. Descending due to atherosclerosis.

1108
Q

Diabetic patients age 40-75 should receive:

A

Statin therapy regardless of baseline lipid levels.

1109
Q

One of the earliest findings of macular degeneration:

A

Distortion of straight lines that appear wavy.

1110
Q

Patient with UTI and high alkaline urine:

A

Proteus mirabilis = secrete urease. Can have struvite stones

1111
Q

Ophthalmoscopy reveals loss of fundus details, floating debris and a dark red glow:

A

Vitreous hemorrhage, most common cause is diabetic retinopathy

1112
Q

Hypercalcemia of malignancy is most commonly caused by:

A

PTHrP production, breast cancer can produce this and release systemically or through metastasis to bone.

1113
Q

Most common extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis:

A

Anterior uveitis

1114
Q

Urinalysis shows hexagonal crystals and urinary nitroprusside test is positive:

A

Most likely diagnosis is cystinuria, which is due to amino acid transport abnormality. Stones are radiopaque. Look for
positive family history of stones.

1115
Q

Remember heparin induced thrombocytopenia causes patients to be:

A

Highly thrombogenic for both venous and arterial clots.

1116
Q

Patient with specific phobia such as flying treatment:

A

Behavioral therapy (exposure, systematic desensitization)

1117
Q

Patient with arm adducted and internally rotated after seizure from eclampsia:

A

Posterior shoulder dislocation.

1118
Q

One exception to giving vaccines based on chronologic age:

A

Hepatitis B vaccine, must be ≥2kg (4lb 6oz).

1119
Q

After the diagnosis of a solid testicular mass has been made, (a painless hard mass in testicle + suggestive
ultrasound). Management:

A

The initial management orchiectomy.

1120
Q

Systolic murmur at the lower sternal border, increased with inspiration:

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

1121
Q

Patient with 6 months of both liquids and food getting stuck in throat, and has epigastric tenderness:
Patient with 6 months of both liquids and food getting stuck in throat, and has epigastric tenderness:

A

Get barium esophagogram followed by possible manometry. Patient initially problem with liquids then solids, most
likely obstruction. Patient with both from start most likely motility disorder.

1122
Q

All patients with new onset ascites require:

A

Paracentesis to determine cause.

1123
Q

Toxic shock syndrome can also be cause from:

A

Nasal packings from nosebleed, not just tampons.

1124
Q

Initial diagnosis hypertension four tests:

A

UA
Chemistry panel
Lipid profile
Baseline ECG

1125
Q

Patient with symptoms and signs of adrenal insufficiency: First tests:

A
250ug cosyntropin (ACTH) stimulation test with cortisol and ACTH levels (GREATER THAN 20 INCREASE IN
SERUM CORTISOL IN 30-60 MINUTES RULES OUT ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY).
1126
Q

Most common cause of GI bleeding in an elderly patient:

A

Diverticulosis: Patient will have painless bleeding.
Diverticulitis: Patient will have abdominal pain and infectious symptoms secondary to obstruction of the diverticula. It is
uncommon to see bleeding with diverticulitis.

1127
Q

Hemorrhoids very rarely cause:

A

Massive lower GI bleeding and will usually be detected on rectal exam.

1128
Q

Remember chronic steatorrhea can cause vitamin D:

A

You need chylomicrons to absorb vitamin D. Low vitamin D causes decreases in both calcium and phosphorous
absorption in the intestines. Hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia, and high PTH.

1129
Q

Bacterial meningitis in children >1 month: Work up: Treatment:

A

CBC and electrolytes; BC; LP and CSF analysis and cultures. Always give antibiotics before lumbar puncture, but after
blood cultures. LP takes long to set up. Ceftriaxone and vancomycin IV. Imaging done before LP in children with
coma, focal neurologic findings, and history of neurosurgery.

1130
Q

Why do you not give ceftriaxone to

A

Ceftriaxone displaces bilirubin from albumin and increases the risk of kernicterus.

1131
Q

Patient with sickle cell disease on OTC, with pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, tachypnea, normal ECG, and
x-ray: Next step:

A

CT scan of the chest with intravenous contrast.

1132
Q

Dietary recommendations for patient with renal calculi:

A
  1. Decreased dietary protein and oxalate.
  2. Decreased sodium intake.
  3. Increased fluid intake.
  4. Increased dietary calcium
1133
Q

Child with grade I/II systolic ejection murmur left lower sternal border: Heard best when child is lying done
and decreases with standing or valsalva:

A

Still’s murmur: Benin, no work up done. Reassurance.

1134
Q

Maneuvers that decrease venous blood return to the heart (standing, valsalva) typically reduce the intensity
of:

A

Innocent murmurs.

1135
Q

Inflammatory bowel disease has a bimodal distribution with second peak in the 60s: What do you see on
biopsy:

A

Neutrophilic cryptitis seen in both Crohn’s and ulcerative colitis.

1136
Q

Patients with cirrhosis can have decreased appetite leading to:

A

Weight loss. Don’t let this fool you and lead you to think cancer.

1137
Q

Red blood cell distribution width is a measure:

A

Of the variation in of the range of variation of red blood cell (RBC) volume.

1138
Q

Malignant hypertension is diagnosed with:

A

Severe hypertension with retinal hemorrhages, exudates, or papilledema.

1139
Q

Hypertensive encephalopathy is diagnosed with:

A

Severe hypertension with cerebral edema and non-localizing neurologic symptoms and signs.

1140
Q

Patient in his 50s with swelling on his eyelid that comes and goes over the last two years and on examination
is a nodular, painless, rubbery lesion on the eyelid: Next step:

A

Histopathological examination. Patient has a recurrent chalazion, but could be an underlying sebaceous carcinoma.

1141
Q

Tdap is indicated with every:

A

Pregnancy to protect the infant. This applies to all women including HIV positive.

1142
Q

Patient with RLQ pain and history of recent furunculosis. Abdominal pain shows tenderness to deep
palpation without guarding or rebound. Psoas sign is positive and BS present: Next step:

A

CT of abdomen this is most likely a psoas abscess from resulting hematogenous spread of bacteria from furuncles.

1143
Q

A significant drop in oocyte number occurs:

A

Ovulatory reserve: takes place during a woman’s fourth decade so that on in 5 women age 35-39 is no longer fertile.

1144
Q

Cutaneous larva migrans: Bug: Presents:

A

Ancylostoma braziliense; The dog and cat hookworm; Present tropical and subtropical regions USA; Kids
sandbox/beaches; Characterized by pruritic, elevated, serpiginous lesions on the skin.

1145
Q

Kids with cystic fibrosis and pneumonia bug and treatment:

A

Up to age 20 staphylococcus aureus treat with vancomycin first. After 20 pseudomonas is most common treat
amikacin, ceftazidime, and ciprofloxacin.

1146
Q

Trachoma presents with:

A

Follicular conjunctivitis and pannus (neovascularization) formation in the cornea. Treatment topical tetracycline and
oral azithromycin.

1147
Q

Transtentorial (Uncal) Herniation: Presents:

A

Patient presents with blunt head trauma with signs/symptoms of ipsilateral hemiparesis, ipsilateral mydriasis, and
strabismus, contralateral hemianopia, and altered mentation. Many times it compresses oculomotor nerve.

1148
Q

Pregnant patient with intense pruritus palms and sole worse at night, no jaundice, no hepatosplenomegaly,
elevated bile acids, elevated levels of liver aminotransferases:

A

Diagnosis of exclusion: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP):

1149
Q

Arrest of labor in the first stage is diagnosed when: Treatment:

A

Dilation is ≥6 cm with ROM and 1 of the following: No cervical change for ≥4 hours despite adequate contractions or
No cervical change for ≥6 hours with inadequate contractions. Tx: cesarean

1150
Q

Asbestosis exposure increase the risk for:

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma number one has pleural plaques. Remember pleural mesothelioma is usually unilateral
pleural abnormalities with large effusion.

1151
Q

Patient with post MI day four with new onset chest pain: Most useful lab in this setting:

A

CK-MB because it returns to baseline in 1-2 days. Troponin T takes 10 days to go down.

1152
Q

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia what is highly characteristic on blood slide:

A

Smudge cells. Other diagnostic features are marked leukocytosis with predominant lymphocytosis.

1153
Q

The most common causes of digital clubbing:

A

Lung malignancies and cystic fibrosis

1154
Q

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia gold standard test:

A

Serotonin release assay.

1155
Q

Patient with HIT immediate first step:

A

Stop heparin and start direct thrombin inhibitor (argatroban, bivalirudin)

1156
Q

Patient on warfarin taking acetaminophen:

A

Acetaminophen is CYP450 inhibitor, so increases warfarin effect and causes excessive bleeding. Other drugs that do
this NSAIDS, metronidazole, amiodarone, cimetidine, cranberry juice, omeprazole, thyroid hormone, SSRI, ginko
bilbo, vitamin E.

1157
Q

Drugs that decrease warfarin’s anticoagulation effects:

A

Carbamazepine, ginseng, green vegetables, oral contraceptives, phenobarbital, rifampin, st. john’s wort.

1158
Q

Precocious puberty male with acne normal testicular size, low LH and does not increase after gonadotropin
releasing hormone agonist:

A

Nonclassical congenital adrenal hyperplasia

1159
Q

Massive PE usually causes right atrial pressure:

A

> 10 mmHG and pulmonary artery pressure > 40 mmHg.

1160
Q

Patient with PCOS treatment:

A

Weight lose and OTC. Metformin for existing DM2

1161
Q

Bacterial meningitis treatment in immunocompromised patient such as post transplant:

A

vancomycin, plus ampicillin, and plus cefepime or ceftazidime. Steroids given same time. Stopped if culture grows
anything besides streptococcus pneumoniae.

1162
Q

The strongest predictor of abdominal aortic aneurysm expansion and rupture are:

A

Large aneurysm diameter, rapid rate expansion, and current cigarette smoking.

1163
Q

COPD flattening of the diaphragm cause:

A

Increase work of breathing.

1164
Q

Chronic alcoholic with hypokalemia that want correct:

A

They have hypomagnesemia give magnesium.

1165
Q

IV drug user with neuro deficits CN intact upgoing plantar reflex:

A

Get MRI possible spinal cord compression from epidural abscess.

1166
Q

Goodpasture’s syndrome: Treatment:

A

Plasmapheresis

1167
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s): Treatment:

A

Combination cyclophosphamide and steroids

1168
Q

Most common cause aortic regurgitation in developed countries:

A

Bicuspid valve.

1169
Q

LActose intolerance is characterized by:

A

Positive hydrogen breath test, positive stool test for reducing substances, low stool pH and increased stool osmotic gap. No steatorrhea.

1170
Q

Kid with history of intussusception complains of severe abdominal pain intermittent:

A

Meckel’s diverticulum should be suspected as a lead point.

1171
Q

Severe pain with swallowing in an HIV patient off their meds low CD4 count:

A

Viral esophagitis, HSV or CMV.

1172
Q

Patient with Parkinson’s disease with tremor as biggest feature: Treatment:

A

Trihexyphenidyl (anticholinergic)

1173
Q

Supplemental oxygen in a patient with advanced COPD can worsen hypercapnia due to:

A

Combination of increased dead space perfusion causing V/Q mismatch, decreased affinity of hemoglobin of CO2,
and reduced alveolar ventilation.

1174
Q

Cauda equina syndrome results from:

A

Compression of spinal nerve roots.

1175
Q

Kid with high initial lead level:

A

Get venous sample, the finger stick has high false positive results.

1176
Q

Uric acid stones, which are radiolucent, have to be evaluated with:

A

CT of abdomen.

1177
Q

Fluphenazine adverse effect:

A

Hypothermia, this can be seen in other antipsychotics

1178
Q

Bipolar with acute agitation should receive:

A

Second generation antipsychotic first (risperidone). Then titrate the mood stabilizer.

1179
Q

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis can develop: Type of lung disease:

A

Restrictive disease due to diminished chest wall and spinal mobility.

1180
Q

Patients with carcinoid syndrome can develop vitamin deficiency which vitamin:

A

Niacin

1181
Q

Carcinoid syndrome: Etiology: Presentation:

A

Carcinoids are slow growing tumors found in GI tract that secrete histamine, serotonin, and VIP. Liver usually filters
these so no symptoms till it metastasis to liver. Presets with episodic flushing, secretory diarrhea, bronchospasm, and
cardiac valvular abnormalities.

1182
Q

Hypothyroid levels lipid sodium creatine kinase:

A

Hyperlipidemia, hyponatremia, elevated creatinine kinase

1183
Q

Patients coming from Mexico with bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and mass in liver on CT scan: Treatment:

A

Entamoeba histolytica: Oral metronidazole

1184
Q

Chikungunya fever: Etiology: Presents:

A

Mosquito borne viral illness, especially common in Caribbean. Presents with polyarthralgias, lymphopenia,
thrombocyopenia and rash.

1185
Q

Tumor found in middle mediastinum:

A

Bronchogenic cyst

1186
Q

Tumor found in anterior mediastinum:

A

Thymoma

1187
Q

Tumor found posterior mediastinum:

A

Neurogenic tumors

1188
Q

Radio opaque stone on CT:

A

calcium oxalate stone

1189
Q

Most appropriate diagnostic test for acute hepatitis B:

A

HBsAg and anti- HBc

1190
Q

Most common side effect of erythropoietin:

A

Worsening of hypertension