Step 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The likelihood that a correlation identified by an observational study is representative of a causation increases with certain criteria called the Bradford hill critera
1. Biologic plausibility
2. Dose response relationship
3. Specificity
4. Strength of association
5. Temporal association

Define each

A
  1. Association can be explained by a known biologic pathway or mechanism
  2. Positive correlation between increased risk of dx and # or qty of an exposure
  3. one to one relationship between exposure and outcome
  4. As r approaches 1 the strength of association increases and correlation is more likely to be causative
  5. If the exposure is known to precede the outcome.
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2
Q

Qualitative study

A

Used to study social or other less quantifiable phenomena.
- How individuals think about their dx, barriers to pursuing treatment, or a social stigma experienced

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3
Q

What can a focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) look for?

A
  • Cardiac tamponade
  • Pneumothorax
  • Hemothorax
  • Hemoperitoneum
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4
Q

USPSTF recommends screening for hyperlipidemia in men aged greater than (BLANK A) years and women aged greater than (BLANK B) years who are at an increased risk for coronary vascular disease.

A
  1. 35
  2. 45

Risk factors for coronary vascular disease include HTN, T2DM, a positive family history of coronary vascular disease, and smoking

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5
Q

Midgut volvulus require what imaging to confirm?

A
  1. Upper GI barium series - this outlines the patient’s small bowel anatomy and further assess for presence of obstructive volvulus
    —infants in whom volvulus is confirmed or infants with suspected volvulus and unstable vital signs should undergo emergent exploratory laparoscopy
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6
Q

Infants who are hemodynamically stable may be evaluated with x-ray to confirm the diagnosis of volvulus (after getting upper GI series) and rule out (BLANK)

A
  1. GI perforation
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7
Q

What medications can be given to a patient who has MDD but is wanting to avoid medication induced sexual dysfunction

A
  1. Mirtazapine (5HT modulator that antagonizes receptors)
  2. Bupropion - increases synaptic dopamine and NE
  • Medications that increase synaptic 5HT commonly impair sexual dysfunction (Fluoxetine and paroxetine - SSRIs)
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8
Q

Ulcerative Colitis

  1. Mild dx limited to rectum may be treated with (BLANK)
  2. Mild dx that extends to sigmoid colon frequently require (BLANK) and (BLANK)
  3. Pts who continue to have sx despite topical tx/enemas may experience improvement with oral versions of above
  4. Pts with dx refractory to initial therapy or higher clinical severity and more extensive involvement of colon –> (BLANK)
  5. (BLANK) or (BLANK) may be warranted to both induce and maintain remission
A
  1. Mesalamine suppositories
  2. Mesalamine and glucocorticoid enemas
  3. -as stated-
  4. Systemic steroids such as prednisone, budesonide, or hydrocortisone
  5. Anti-TNFa or Janus Kinase enzyme inhibitor (tofacitinib)
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9
Q

What precautions have to be made after Mono is diagnosed?

A

none

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10
Q

If a nodule on the prostate is found what is the next step/

A

Prostatic biopsy and possibly more advanced imaging modalities

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11
Q

1.symmetrically enlarged, globular, boggy uterus
2. 40-50 years old
3. Heavy, painful menstrual bleeding

A

This is adenomyosis - presence of endometrial glands within the myometrium

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12
Q

(BLANK) - viral illness
- Febrile prodromal phase followed by characteristic vesicular rash with lesions in the same stage of development and healing
- Vaccination is vaccinia

A
  1. Smallpox
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13
Q

(BLANK) syndrome
- Mutation in WAS gene on X chromosome - encodes a protein essential for actin cytoskeleton rearrangement that occurs during interactions between T lymphocytes, antigen presenting cells, and B lymphocytes leading to an impaired innate and adaptive immune system

-Eczema
-Thrombocytopenia
- Infections with SHiN + opportunistic pathogens
-Increased risk for autoimmune disease and malignancy (leukemia)

A

Wiskott Aldrich syndrome

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14
Q

(BLANK) disease

  • Adenosine deaminase deficiency
  • Autosomal recessive mutation in ADA gene
  • Recurrent viral, bacterial, and fungal infections starting at birth
  • Failure to thrive
  • Severe lymphopenia w/impaired cellular (failure of T cell development) and humoral immunity (B cell dysfunction d/t absent T cells)
A

Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)

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15
Q
  1. How do kids usually present with nursemaid’s elbow
  2. How do you fix a radial head subluxation (nursemaid’s elbow)
A
  1. Hold the elbow in semi flexion and in slight pronation and hold the arm immobile at their side
  2. Hyperpronating the forearm elicits a palpable click when the annular ligament is returned to its normal position

OR – supination of the forearm with the elbow in flexion

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16
Q

When a patient has asplenia and needs to be protected against the SHiN diseases what can be given?

A

Broad spectrum IV antibiotic empirically
– For ex: ceftriaxone

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17
Q

Acute dystonic reactions that occur in response to potent D2 antagonists such as high potency typical antipsychotics (e.g. haloperidol, fluphenazine) can be tx with (BLANK)

A
  1. Diphenhydramine or benztropine (anticholinergic meds) - to restore balanced between dopaminergic and cholinergic pathways
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18
Q

Acute stress disorder - intrusive thoughts or memories, changes in arousal and reactivity, avoidance of reminders of trauma, and negative changes in mood/thoughts that occur with (BLANK) of a traumatic event

A
  1. 1 month
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19
Q

USPSTF recommends screening for AAA in men aged (BLANK to BLANK) who have a history of tobacco use

A

65-75

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20
Q

For acute Hep B infection - what may be the only positive serologic assay in initial window phase?

A

Anti-HBc IgM

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21
Q

In refeeding syndrome - metabolic changes occur in resumption of nutritional intake and are mediated by rise in insulin
1. Phosphate levels
2. Potassium levels
3. Magnesium levels

  • this occurs (BLANK) within resumption of feeding and can be prevented by slow, deliberate increase in caloric intake and monitoring of electrolytes
A
  1. Hypophosphatemia
  2. Hypokalemia
  3. Hypomagnesemia
  4. Within 1-2 weeks of the resumption of feeding
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22
Q

Dx of vesicoureteral reflux, hydroureteronephrosis, and congenital urinary tract abnormalities is often completed with (BLANK) followed by (BLANK) if necessary

A
  1. renal U/S
  2. fluoroscopic voiding cystourethrography
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23
Q

REM sleep behavior disorder features a lack of normal muscle atonia during REM sleep mostly occuring in older male patients
– can be idiopathic or associated with (BLANK)

A
  1. conditions of alpha synuclein deposition such as parkinson disease
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24
Q

Case control is retrospective/prospective

Cohort study is retrospective/prospective

A
  1. retrospective
  2. prospective
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25
Viral meningitis/aseptic meningitis CSF 1. Leukocytes 2. Protein 3. Glucose
1. <100 (predominant lymphocytes) 2. normal or increased protein (<40) 3. Normal glucose (40-70)
26
In a person with rheumatoid arthritis who is undergoing surgery --> what joints should be assessed first?
1. Axial skeleton (joints of the cervical spine) - there can be instability and subluxation of the atlantoaxial joint with resulting spinal cord compression 2. This is important to know before general anesthesia and intubation - cervical spine instability + positioning for intubation can lead to paralysis or death
27
The presence of multiple vascular tumors would be highly suggestive of what disease? 1. inheritance pattern? 2. gene?
Von Hippel Lindau disease - presents with multiple benign and malignant tumors. Many originate from the vasculature including hemangioblastomas of the retina and cerebellum and angiomatosis of the skin and mucosa 1. Autosomal dominant 2. VHL gene
28
- bloody diarrhea - thrombocytopenia - hemolytic anemia due to diffuse endothelial dysfunction with a tendency toward microvascular thrombosis (predisposes shear forces) - acute renal failure - tx is supportive
Shigella toxin producing E. coli - Shiga toxin causes endothelial dysfunction - Also release LDH while haptoglobin is depleted by binding free Hgb
29
First line oral antibiotics for those with community acquired pneumonia include -- (3) (for outpatients without severe disease and no significant medical comorbidities)
1. oral azithromycin 2. oral doxycycline 3. oral amoxicillin
30
How to differentiate constitutional growth delay and growth hormone deficiency on growth charts?
1. Growth hormone deficiency is typically associated with rapid decline in curve, crossing percentiles while constitutional growth delay has slow but consistent growth
31
1. common benign primary tumor of bone 2. Tumor that creates cartilage 3. small bony spur protruding from surface of the bone capped by cartilage which is palpable clinically 4. adolescents 5. X ray shows a sessile or pedunculated tumor with its cortex continuous with cortex of underlying bone and cartilaginous cap
1. Osteochondromas - stop growing when the growth plate closes - tx is not always necessary - If lesion is symptomatic or causing limb deformity or growth disturbance then surgical excision is curative
32
1. Benign neoplasm of cartilage which appears near the epiphysis of long bones in adolescents 2. low grade joint pain and swelling 3. X-ray - small well defined epiphyseal lesion with sclerotic border
1. chondroblastoma
33
1. primary bone malignancy 2. t(11;22) 3. adolescent boys 4. X-ray - elevated periosteum and layered neocortex formation (onion skin), can also have central lytic lesions w/moth eaten appearance 5. occurs in long bones (diaphysis) 6. Histology shows multiple small, round blue cells
Ewing sarcoma
34
1. malignant transformation of specialized macrophages (dendritic cells) which reside in the skin and act as antigen presenting cells to T lymphocytes 2. Typically in childhood or neonatal period (from birth to 15 years old) 3. Affects skin, bones, or visceral organs - pulm involvement later in life --variable rash ---polyuria/polydipsia What is this? What does it look like on imagingz?
1. Langerhans cell histiocytosis 2. Lytic, "punched out" lesions on x ray
35
1. radiolucent (black) bone lesion - most commonly in proximal femur 2. pain associated with tumor 3. typically solitary lesion 4. relieved by NSAIDs
1. osteoid osteoma
36
fluctuant swelling near the urethra caused by blockage of the outflow of skenes glands
Vestibular gland cysts
37
Caused by incomplete regression of mesonephric ducts during embryonic development - most commonly located lateral to the vaginal wall in the broad ligament and not apparent on vulvar exam
1. Mesonephric (wolffian) duct cysts /gartner cyst
38
- painful, fluctuant swelling over the posterior aspect of the labium majus external to the hymenal ring - located near the posterior introitus
bartholin gland cyst - typically managed with incision and drainage
39
Early diastolic decrescendo murmur best heard at right 2nd intercostal space-->
aortic valve regurgitation/insufficiency
40
MDD is symptoms for (BLANK) or more weeks
1. 2 or more weeks of atleast 5 of the following a. depressed mood b. anhedonia c. guilt or worthlessness d. difficulty concentrating e. psychomotor retardation or agitation f. SI g. Neurovegetative symptoms (decreased energy, sleep disturbance, appetite disturbance)
41
Decreased total lung capacity and residual volume on PFTs are suggestive of
Restrictive lung disease - decreased chest wall compliance, respiratory muscle weakness, or decreased lung parenchyma compliance -ex: ILD, obesity hypoventilation syndrome, neuromuscular disorders (e.g. ALS)
42
Preterm labor refers to onset of uterine contractions and cervical change between (BLANK -BLANK) weeks gestation
20-37 weeks gestation
43
Gestation <34 weeks 1. Tocolytic therapy (BLANK) 2. (BLANK) to improve fetal lung maturity 3. (BLANK) for neuroprotection in gestation <32 weeks 4. antibiotics for (BLANK)
1. examples- nifedipine, terbutaline 2. corticosteroids 3. magnesium sulfate 4. GBS
44
adjustment disorder refers to onset of emotional disturbance within (BLANK) of an identifiable stressor --tx
3 months - marked distress out of proportion to the stressor and a significant impairment in daily functioning (does not meet depression) - Tx: brief supportive psychotherapy
45
Acral lentiginous melanoma
Subtype of malignant melanoma that occurs on the fingers and toes - often Asian and African descent, unrelated to sun exposure -Pigmented lesion that demonstrates asymmetry, irregular appearing borders, variable coloration, diameter greater than 6 mm, rapid evolution in characteristics - may begin as a longitudinal brown streak on the nail
46
Ogilvie syndrome (AKA ...) 1. pathophysiology 2. symptoms 3. Treated
Colonic pseudo-obstruction 1. signs and symptoms of colonic obstruction in absence of mechanical cause of obstruction - idiopathic or can be due to abnormal function of GI autonomic NS 2. Abdominal distention and diffuse tenderness. Abdomen tympanic to percussion. Bowel sounds are often decreased but usually present. Perforation or ischemia may lead to severe pain, peritoneal signs, and evidence of shock. 3. Tx: NPO, NG/rectal tube decompression --> pro-cholinergic agent (neostigmine) if no improvement w/in 48 hrs --> if perforation then emergent ex lap
47
What is first line treatment of lupus pleuritis
NSAID (e.g. ibuprofen) -- then systemic glucocorticoids for refractory disease
48
1. 1 - false negative rate = A 2. 1 - false positive rate = B
A. Sensitivity (ability of test to detect a dx if it is present) B. Specificity (probability that a test will demonstrate negative result when dx is actually absent)
49
Initial guideline recommended therapy for HFrEF is what 3 drugs (+2 other ones for HFrEF)
1. Diuretic - volume and BP management 2. RAAS inhibitor - volume and BP management 3. BB - first assess with 1&2, if repeat echo shows persistent HFrEF despite volume control then BB should be added 4. MRA (spironolactone) -- if additional BP and volume control is needed or if hypokalemia with loop diuretic occurs 5. SGLTi
50
Clinical manifestations Infancy - Lymphedema, cystic hygroma - Renal and heart defects (coarctation of the aorta, bicuspid aortic valve, horseshoe kidney) Childhood - Short stature - Dysmorphic features (webbed neck, broad swelling, high arched palate, cubitus valgus, short 4th metacarpals) Adolescence - Delayed thelarche - Amenorrhea - Infertility - Decreased estrogen concentration --> fail to develop secondary sexual characteristics and demonstrate an underdeveloped uterus - Increased LH and FSH due to lack of negative feedback from estrogen 1. what is this and management?
1. Turner syndrome (45, XO) --Growth hormone and Estrogen replacement to promote increased stature and development of secondary sexual characteristics
51
Schizophrenia demonstrate 2/5 following symptoms 1. 2. 3. 4. 5 - for at least 6 months
1. Delusions 2. Hallucinations 3. Disorganized speech 4. Disorganized behavior 5. Negative symptoms (flat affect, apathy, avolition, alogia)
52
1. Primary prevention strategies 2. Secondary 3. Tertiary
1. Strategies to prevent the effects of the disease before the disease occurs 2. aims to identify disease early in its course through screening efforts 3. aims to slow or ameliorate the progression and complications of a disease through therapeutic intervention
53
USPSTF recommends routine colorectal cancer screening for all patients beginning at age (BLANK) and continuing up until age (BLANK) --Patients with low risk polyps (1-2), tubular adenomas should undergo screening q (BLANK) to (BLANK) years --Patients with multiple polyps (3+), polyps with atypical features or large size, or atypical serrated polyps should undergo screening q (BLANK) years
1. 45-75 years 2. 5-10 years 3. 3 years
54
Gilbert vs Crigler Najjar
1. absence or decreased activity of UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT), an enzyme required for glucuronidation of unconjugated bilirubin in the liver. 2. More severe form of above
55
Dubin-Johnson 1. Pathophysiology 2. Notable characteristics 3. Serum bilirubin levels
1. Mutation in the ABCC2 gene -- mutation prevents conjugated bilirubin from leaving liver, collects in liver instead 2. Black liver 3. Serum bilirubin levels - moderately elevated
56
Rotor 1. Pathophysiology
1. Similar to dubin-johnson just without liver pigmentation --- Both conjugated and unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to defective hepatic uptake and storage
57
- presents in 2nd to 4th decade of life - Multiple, recurrent sinus or pulmonary infections, including pneumonia, bronchitis, and sinusitis - Dx is made by quantitative measurement of serum immunoglobulins (decreased IgG, IgA, and/or IgM) - Pathophysiology: impaired B lymphocyte differentiation into plasma cells so impaired production of immunoglobulins - blunted or absent response to vaccinations 1. what is this? 2. tx?
1. Common variable immunodeficiency disease 2. IVIG - These patients are at increased risk for the development of autoimmune disease such as RA, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, and non-hodgkin lymphoma
58
FEV1, FVC, and TLC for asthma
1. FEV1 decreased 2. FVC normal 3. TLC increased
59
Tx for infective endocarditis prophylaxis before procedures 1. 2. with allergy to #1
1. amoxicillin (ampicillin for those unable to take oral meds) 2. macrolides (e.g. clarithromycin)
60
In patients with obvious arterial injury what should be done to manage?
emergent exploration and management in the operating room
61
Patients with chronic renal failure are prone to 1. volume overload 2. (K) 3. (phosphate) 4. (acid base disturbance) 5. (PTH) 6. Osteodystrophy 7. Anemia
1. volume overload 2. Hyperkalemia 3. Hyperphosphatemia 4. Metabolic acidosis 5. Hyperparathyroidism 6. Osteodystrophy 7. Anemia -Patients should minimize intake of fluids, potassium, and phosphate
62
Deep ulcers at bottom of feet that have been exposed to bone or probe to bone may be complicated by osteomyelitis or gas gangrene --> what organism group(s) are usually cause of the infection?
1. Mixed aerobic and anaerobic bacteria - Pseudomonas may cause osteomyelitis following a puncture wound to foot, particularly if exposure to water or moist environment -Staph aureus is common cause of superficial cutaneous infections
63
Primary amenorrhea is described as absence of menarche at (blank) years of age with (BLANK) OR at (BLANK) years of age without (BLANK) secondary amenorrhea is defined as absence of menses for (BLANK) months in women who have previously had regular menstrual cycle. Or for (BLANK) months in women who cycles were previously irregular
1. 15 yrs w/appropriate secondary sexual characteristics 2. 13 years w/out secondary sexual characteristics 3. 3 months 4. or 6 months in irregular cycle women
64
1. Tx of uncomplicated UTI and cystitis 2. Tx of pyelonephritis (4)
1. Nitrofurantoin 2. 3rd gen cephalosporin (ceftriaxone), fluoroquinolone (ciprofloxacin), TMP-SMX, or an oral B lactam (e.g. amoxicillin/claulanate, cefuroxime, cefpodoxime)
65
Ampicillin is typically used to treat infections caused primarily by gram (BLANK) bacteria - 3 examples
1. Gram positive bacteria 2. Strep, staph, and listeria
66
Valproic acid at therapeutic doses can cause 1. GI distress 2. sedation 3. tremor 4. weight gain 5. BLANK 6. BLANK
5. hematologic effects (e.g. leukopenia, thrombocytopenia) check platelet counts 6. Benign increases in transaminases or hepatotoxicity
67
Achalasia - dysphagia to what? - tx?
1. solids and liquids 2. pneumatic dilation or injection of botulinum toxin to relax LES
68
Shatzki ring - dysphagia to what?
solid only
69
Essential tremor - bilateral tremor of upper extremities. - Head tremor w/out dystonia - Tremor is exacerbated by activity and sustained antigravity postures and improved by rest. 1. tx:
1. Beta blocker (propranolol) --also small qty of alcohol 2. anticonvulsants: primidone *sometimes patients self treat with alcohol *worsens with stress, improves with alcohol
70
CT angio of the chest is most often used to identify what?
pulmonary emboli
71
ACOG: Screening mammogram is recommended q 1-2 years from the ages (BLANK) to (BLANK) for patients at average to moderate risk for breast cancer - After (BLANK) screening can be continued if the patients life expectancy is more than 10 years
1. 40-74 2. 74
72
What does urinalysis for acute tubular necrosis look like? 1. Protein levels 2. WBC/hpf 3. casts
1. proteinuria 2. increased WBC/hpf 3. muddy brown casts --often following an ischemic or nephrotoxic insult (cardiac arrest following prolonged resuscitation, shock, heavy metals, myoglobin)
73
What does urinalysis for acute interstitial nephritis look like? 1. Protein levels 2. WBC/hpf 3. casts 4. other PLUS other 1. GFR 2. Cr
1. proteinuria 2. increased WBC/hpf 3. occasional WBC casts - 4. eosinophiluria --Often secondary to meds (NSAIDs, antibiotics, sulfas) 1. decreased GFR 2. increased Cr
74
After starting monoclonal Ab that targets TNFa what should be done in a month
1. Get CBC bc anemia is a potential adverse effect
75
Soft tissue sarcomas (like fibroscarcoma) - are a heterogenous group of tumors derived from mesenchymal tissue such as skeletal or smooth muscle, adipose, or fibrous tissue. 1. Once someone is identified as having a fibrosarcoma what should be done?
CT scan of the chest and abdomen to locate metastasis (which occurs via blood) -- pulmonary spread is common
76
- Chronic nosebleeds and isolated increase in PTT is what disease?
1. Von willebrand disease - recurrent nosebleeds, easy bruising, petechiae, menorrhagia, GI and gingival bleeding --> Tx: supportive care w/bleeding control and transfusions, may involve administration of desmopressin - von willebrand protein acts as a serum transport protein for coagulation factor VIII, factor VIII may be decreased leading to the increase in PTT without affecting PT
77
What type of bleeding does hemophilia present with?
Visceral bleeding (e.g. splenic hemorrhage, rectus sheath hematoma, hamarthrosis)
78
X ray of joints with osteoarthritis typically shows as...
Joint space narrowing, marginal osteophytes, and subchondral sclerosis or bone cysts
79
What is first line agent that can be used in treatment of atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response?
1. metoprolol --rate control is preferable to rhythm control in afib as the risks for adverse outcomes has been shown to be lower
80
Hx of intermittent epigastric pain relieved with antacid use raises suspicion for (BLANK) (BLANK) can demonstrate intra-abdominal free air and leakage of enteric contents resulting in inflammation, irritation, and infection of the peritoneum. What imaging is best to get done in this situation?
1. peptic ulcer 2. perforated peptic ulcer 3. Upright X rays of the chest and abdomen --> can show free air under the diaphragm to confirm diagnosis of the perforated viscus. Perforated peptic ulcer is sx emergency and patients are tx with broad spectrum antibiotics and surgery + lavage.
81
Oral contraceptives are associated with increased risk for VTE, MI, and stroke --> Risk of stroke is increased particularly in patients older than (BLANK) who (BLANK). This is a contraindication to continuation of oral contraceptive
1. 35 years old who smoke greater than 15 cigarettes daily ***OCP commonly cause a mild elevation in BP and can sometimes lead to overt HTN. Those who develop OCs should d/c medication.
82
Impetigo is contagious, childhood bacterial skin infection on the face and extremities with lesions that progress from papules to vesicles and crusts that have yellow, gold, or honey color 1. most common responsible organisms are (2) 2. What is treatment?
1. Staph aureus and GAS 2. Topical mupirocin (preferred to neomycin or bacitracin which have high likelihood of inducing allergic contact dermatitis where applied) ---> widespread impetigo or immunocompromised host --> may need systemic antibiotics
83
Why does salt craving, fatigue, anorexia, psychiatric manifestations, and loss of libido occur in patients with Addison disease?
1. Addison dx/Primary adrenal insufficiency --> destruction of bilateral adrenal cortex (contains aldosterone, cortisol, androgens) --> low aldosterone causes renal salt wasting which can cause salt craving --> Glucocorticoid deficiency leads to fatigue, anorexia, and psychiatric manifestations (irritability, depressed mood) --> Androgen loss leads to loss of libido and suppression of secondary sexual characteristics (e.g. reduced pubic hair)
84
What is cosyntropin used for?
1. Cosyntropin is a synthetic form of ACTH --> it is given to stimulate cortisol production. Low production of cortisol following stimulation is diagnostic of primary adrenal insufficiency
85
Patients with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) 1. management of late teens or early twenties patients 2. management of younger patients
1. elective total proctocolectomy 2. surgery is delayed in favor of close surveillance with frequent colonoscopy until patients have completed puberty and matured both physically and emotionally --> Urgent total proctocolectomy is performed no matter the patient's age in those with colorectal cancer or adenomas with high grade dysplasia, severe sx like hemorrhage, and a significant increase in polyp # during screening interval
86
What parasite is this? 1. dog tapeworm (sheep intermediate host), rural/developing countries, humans are incidental hosts 2. initially asymptomatic for years, RUQ pain, N/V, hepatomegaly, fever, cough, chest pain, hemoptysis 3. Large, smooth hydatid cyst often with internal septations. ---IgG serology - What is treatment
Echinococcus granulosis --Albendazole --Percutaneous therapy (>5 cm or septations) --surgery if cyst ruptures
87
Presence of retrocardiac air-fluid level on chest imaging suggests what disorder? - Pts also have N/V, postprandial fullness, dysphagia, epigastric and/or chest pain -->what is it diagnosed with?
1. paraesophageal hiatal hernia (PEH) Dx is confirmed with barium swallow or upper endoscopy
87
-Patient visited caribbean region, central/south america, africa, and asia - Vector is Aedes mosquitors - Symptoms: high fever, severe polyarthralgia, headache, myalgia, conjunctivitis, maculopapular rash -Labs: lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia, transaminitis --> What infection is this? --> Tx?
1. Chikungunya virus infection 2. supportive care (sx resolve within 7-10 days) --chronic arthralgia/arthritis frequently occurs and can last months or years
88
1. Gout can occur in what joints? 2. common triggers include? (5)
1. 1st metatarsophalangeal joint, knee, and ankle 2. heavy alcohol use, intake of urate rich foods (meat, seafod), trauma/surgery, dehydration, and medications that raise uric acid levels (thiazide diuretics, cyclosporine), or lower uric acid levels (e.g. allopurinol)
89
What is the first step to be done in suspected epidural spinal cord compression (ESCC) due to metastatic malignancy --> then what next 2 steps --> what are late findings of ESCC
1. IV glucocorticoids --> decrease vasogenic edema (caused by obstructed epidural venous plexus), help alleviate pain, and may restore neurologic function --> then MRI to diagnose --> Neurosurgery and/or radiation oncology consultation is typically required --> bowel and bladder dysfunction, increased deep tendon reflexes, paralysis
90
Physiologic tremors 1. what are they 2. what are they worsened by
1. Most common cause of action tremor and usually has a medical etiology --> these are action tremors, which may be kinetic, intention, or postural (e.g. holding arms outstretched) 2. Worse with movement, worsened by emotional or physical stress, toxic/metabolic derangements, caffeine, or drug withdrawal [increased sympathetic activity]
91
Resting tremor 1. what is this 2. pathophysiology 3. What worsens this?
1. Resting tremor, decrease with voluntary movement, pill rolling, asymmetric 2. Progressive loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia 3. worsened when patients are distracted
92
Etiologies for Acute colonic pseudoobstruction (Ogilvie syndrome) (4)
1. Major sx, traumatic injury, severe infection 2. Electrolyte derangement (decreased K, decreased Mg, decreased Ca) 3. Medications (e.g. opiates, anticholinergics) 4. Neurologic disorders (e.g. dementia, stroke)
93
Euvolemic hyponatremia is primarily caused by SIADH or primary polydipsia 1. what lab can help distinguish these disorders?
1. Urine osmolality >100 mOsm/kg in SIADH <100 mOsm/kg in primary polydipsia
94
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) complicated by AA amyloidosis can lead to renal disease with proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome 1. Diagnosis is confirmed via (BLANK) 2. Renal biopsy shows
1. presence of amyloid on tissue biopsy (e.g. fat pad) 2. amorphous hyaline material that stains with congo red; green birefringence is noted under polarized light
95
What is the treatment of choice for hypovolemic hyponatremia?
Normal saline - replenishes body's depleted salt stores, restores euvolemia, and shuts off nonosmotic stimuli (low plasma osmolality) for ADH release
96
Severe hypercalcemia is >14 mg/dL and can cause weakness, GI distress, neurospychiatric symptoms (confusion, stupor, coma) --> tx with? (3) - moderate calcium is 12-14 - no immediate tx required unless sympotmatic. Tx is similar as above -asymptomatic or mild is <12 - no immediate treatment
1. aggressive saline hydration to retore intravascular volume and promote urinary calcium excretion --calcitonin can be administered with saline to reduce serum calcium --bisphosphonates can decrease calcium by inhibiting bone resorption but this takes 2-4 days
97
- CD4 <100 and often with cat exposure or homelessness - Manifestations --vascular cutaneous lesions --systemic symptoms (fever, night sweats, fatigue) --organ involvement rarely (liver, bone, CNS) 1. what causes this? 2. treatment?
1. Bartonella henselae/quintana 2. Doxycycline or erythromycin + restart HIV antiretroviral therapy -vascular cutaneous lesions: often begin as small reddish/purple papules and evolve into friable pedunculated or nodular lesions
98
Can TB be ruled out with one negative acid fast baciullus stain?
No bc this requires a high burden of organisms (>10,000) for a positive result. Sensitivity is low ---Sensitivity can be increased by taking 3 samples, 8-24 hours apart
99
Wet, wacky, wobbly -what is this for?
- urinary incontinence/urgency, cognitive dysfunction, wide based ataxia -Normal pressure hydrocephalus -can also have depressed affect and UMN in lower extremities
100
Patients who develop occult GI hemorrhage days after being admitted to ICU for septic shock likely have ...
stress induced ulcer ---risk factors include shock, sepsis, coagulopathy, mechanical ventilation, traumatic spinal cord/brain injury, burns, and high dose corticosteroids
101
What can cause constant, progressive back pain that is worse at night and when supine. -Back/neurologic exams and radiographic imaging are generally normal
Pancreatic cancer in the body or tail of the organ --> this is referred pain --> Abdominal CT is usually diagnostic (identifying pancreatic cancer)
102
What changes to muscles occur with hyperthyroidism?
--Myopathy-- Chronic - slowly progressive proximal muscle weakness Acute: severe proximal and distal weakness; rhabdomyolysis can occur
103
What muscle changes occur in hypothyroidism?
Myopathy typically causes pronounced muscle tenderness and myalgias; muscle swelling and edema may also happen --Increased creatinine kinase
104
Polymyositis and dermatomyositis 1. weakness of muscles? 2. pain and tenderness? 3. abnormal lab markers?
1. Yes 2. less common 3. increased creatinine kinase
105
common respiratory pathogen in patients with cystic fibrosis 1. children 2. adults
1. Staph aureus 2. Psuedomonas
106
Bronchiectasis due to CF most often shows this exam finding to differentiate itself from other causes of bronchiectasis
Upper lobe involvement (upper lung field crackles and infiltrate) --> due to bronchiectasis caused by CF
107
Annual screening with low dose CT scan of the chest is recommended for those who have smoked (BLANK) pack years - screening begins at age (BLANK) to (BLANK) or until >=15 years of smoking cessation is achieved
1. >= 20 pack years 2. 50-80 years
108
Sarcoidosis 1. pathogenesis 2. pulmonary changes 3. cutaneous 4. optho 5. neurologic 6. cardio 7. GI 8. Other (Hypercalcemia, peripheral LN, parotid gland swelling, polyarthritis, fever, malaise)
1. Inflammatory disease that includes formation of noncaseating granulomas 2. Hilar LN (upper lobe reticulonodular opacities, diffuse or nodular parenchymal infiltrates), interstitial infiltrates 3. papules, nodules, plaques, erythema nodosum (tender red bumps on shins) 4. anterior/posterior uveitis, keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dryness of conjunctiva and cornea) 5. facial nerve palsy, central DI, hypogonadotropic hypogonadism 6. AV block, dilated or restrictive cardiomyopathy 7. Hepatosplenomegaly, asymptomatic LFT abnormalities, splenomegaly -hypercalcemia is due to vit D conversion/production by macrophages in granulomas
109
In setting of hypotension - acute, massive increases in transaminases with milder increases in total bilirubin and alk phosphatase indicates (BLANK)
Ischemic hepatic injury --patients who survive the inciting condition have liver enzymes return to normal within a few weeks
110
- correlation with underlying Hept B/C + weeks or months of nonspecific symptoms like fever, myalgia, joint pains, fatigue Pathogenesis: - fibrinoid necrosis of arterial wall which causes luminal narrowing and thrombosis --> tissue ischemia --internal/external elastic lamina damage of arteries causes microaneurysm formation and eventual rupture and bleeding what is this? How to dx?
1. Polyarteritis nodosa 2. Angiography shows microaneurysms and segmental/distal narrowing ---tissue biopsy shows transmural inflammation
111
Thromboangiitis obliterans 1. patient populations 2. symptoms
1. young smokers 2. symptoms in distal extremities (e.g. finger ulcers, gangrene, infarction) due to formation of inflammatory thrombi
112
What is a potential complication of roux en Y gastric bypass that would involve the need for EGD? + sx?
Stomal stenosis - narrowing of gastrojejunal anastomosis Sx: Nausea, postprandial vomiting, gastric reflux, dysphagia to the point pt cannot tolerate liquids
113
Mechanical ventilation is often required to support patients lungs in ARDS. What is done for each of the following: 1. Lung protection 2. Ventilation 3. Oygenation
1. limit alveolar distending volume and pressure 2. tolerate permissive hypercapnia to avoid excessive tidal volume 3. Set lowest feasible FiO2 (goal SpO2 92-96%) to avoid O2 toxicity - youre avoiding higher tidal volumes to prevent excessive stretching of damaged and delicate alveoli
114
what are the types of COPD?
1. emphysema (two types: smoking induced centriacinar/centrilobar emphysema and AAT deficiency induced panacinar/panlobar emphysema) --- inflammation/damage to alveoli. Panacinar is alveoli base and centriacinar is part right before getting end of alveoli. 2. bronchitis - inflammation of bronchial tubes that carry air to alveoli
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COPD - emphysema type --smoking induced centriacinar/centrilobar emphysema. --AAT deficiency induced panacinar/panlobar emphysema. For each 1. What part of the lung is affected usually? 2. what age do they appear?
1. upper lobes of the lungs and age >50 2. lower lobes of the lungs and in their 30- 40s
116
What is treatment of alpha 1 antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency?
IV supplementation with pooled human AAT
117
- gram negative, free living organism in marine environment - often after ingestion of oysters or wound infection sx: rapidly progressive <12 hours, septic shock, bullous lesions, cellulitis with hemorrhagic bullae or necrotizing fasciitis What is this? How is it dx? How is it tx?
1. Vibrio vulnificus 2. blood and wound culture 3. empiric in those with likely illness. IV ceftriaxone and doxycycline ---those with liver diseases have increased risk
118
theophylline 1. drug class 2. what is this typically used for?/effects? 3. side effects
1. phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitor (inhibits cyclic AMP or GMP to become AMP or GMP. cyclic AMP/GMP causes increases cellular response such as smooth muscle relaxation) 2. Causes bronchodilation and is occasionally used for COPD and asthma 3. Undergoes hepatic clearance which can be decreased in elderly patients and by CYP450 inhibitors. Has narrow therapeutic index which can cause the drug to be in high enough levels to cause tremor, seizure, tachyarrhythmias, vomiting, hypotension, neuro sx (anxiety and hallucinations)
119
What is isolated systolic HTN commonly caused by and who is it seen in?
Common in elderly patients -- due to age related increased stiffness of the walls of the aorta and other large arteries
120
What is the purpose of the d-xylose test?
D-xylose is a monosaccharide that is absorbed in the proximal small intestine without degradation by pancreatic or brush border enzymes.  Patients with small intestinal mucosal disease will have impaired absorption of D-xylose. (celiac disease) Patients with malabsorption due to enzyme deficiencies will have normal absorption of D-xylose. (chronic pancreatitis
121
What disorders can cause a false positive D-xylose test (low urinary D-xylose despite normal mucosal absorption)
1. delayed gastric emptying 2. impaired glomerular filtration 3. small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (alterations in small intestine flora due to abnormal intestinal anatomy or motility leading to bacterial fermentation of D-xylose before it can be absorbed) ---- SIBO can be treated with rifaximin and afterwards D-xylose levels should return to normal
122
- sudden onset odynophagia and retrosternal pain that can sometimes cause difficulty swallowing - most often occurs in the mid-esophagus due to compression by the aortic arch or an enlarged left atrium - dx is made clinically but if endoscopy is done can show discrete ulcers with relatively normal appearing surrounding mucosa 1.What is this?
1. pill esophagitis --ab: tetracyclines --anti-inflam drugs: aspirin and NSAIDs --bisphosphonates --KCl, iron
123
Oropharyngeal dysphagia vs esophageal dyspagia?
1. difficulty initiating swallowing + cough, choking, nasal regurgitation 2. difficulty with food passing through esophagus and feeling that food gets "stuck" in chest
124
Esophageal dysphagia 1. motility disorder 2. mechanical obstruction what is the difference and what are next steps in dx for each?
1. motility disorder - dysphagia with solids and liquids at onset. Barium swallow followed by manometry with endoscopy 2. mechanical obstruction - dysphagia with solids progressing to liquids. Upper GI endoscopy (+/- barium swallow before)
125
If someone has oropharyngeal dysphagia what is best next step to diagnose/manage?
Videofluoroscopic modified barium swallow to evaluate swallowing mechanics, degree of dysfunction, and severity of aspiration
126
What occurs to splanchnic vasculature in cirrhosis? --what about Na and K levels
1. vasodilation --> meant to decrease systemic vascular resistance ---NO and other vasodilatory factors are formed during cirrhosis ---- + RAAS system is activated and ADH hormone is released to maintain renal perfusion 2. Hyponatremia (due to ADH release for water uptake) --Hypokalemia may be due to vomiting, diarrhea, or use of diuretics
127
What is the difference between mycoplasma pneumonia and mycoplasma tuberculosis - when presenting in lungs
1. mycoplasma pneumonia - subacute fever, reticulonodular pattern on chest x-ray - limited to 2-3 weeks 2. mycoplasma tuberculosis (miliary TB in lungs) - caused by hematogenous spread during primary or reactivated infection. Diffuse reticulonodular pattern on chest x-ray. - Has fever, night sweats, anorexia, weight loss, malaise, fatigue. Can spread to LN, liver, bones, and CNS - Lasts months
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Histoplasma capsulatum 1. Location/activity 2. symptoms 3. organism type and pathogenesis 4. dx 5. tx
1. cave exploring exposure to bat or bird droppings around Ohio and Mississippi River Valleys, Asia, Africa, and South/Central america 2. 2-4 weeks after exposure - subacute fever, chills, malaise, headache, myalgia, dry cough. --chest x-ray shows mediastinal or hilar LAD with infiltrates 3. dimorphic fungus - granulomas with narrow based budding yeasts 4. antigen testing of the urine or blood 5. W/out intervention can resolve over weeks. With tx they can get oral itraconazole or IV amphotericin B
129
Coccidioidomycosis 1. Location/activity 2. Symptoms/imaging 3. organism type 4. dx
1. South west US (e.g. Arizona), Mexico, and Centra/South America 2. subacute pulmonary symptoms -- unilateral infiltrate with ipsilateral hilar LAD 3. endospores 4. Tissue biopsy shows spherules with endospores
130
1. How is metformin cleared? 2. When should it be held?
1. renal clearance 2. During AKI (unable to clear metformin) -- CKD or GFR <30 -- Hepatic insufficiency (liver metabolizes lactic acid) -- Decompensated HF (impairs renal perfusion) - Sepsis and dehydration (increase lactic acid in addition to what metformin creates)
131
Splenic abscess usually presents with what classic triad?
1. Fever 2. Leukocytosis 3. LUQ abdominal pain or left sided pleuritic chest pain (can also have left pleural effusion, and splenomegaly)
132
Primary mitral regurgitation (MR) 1. LVEF 30-60% 2. Asymptomatic and LVEF >60% 3. Symptomatic and LVEF <30% - when is surgery done to repair mitral valve?
1. do surgery 2. Consider surgery only if successful repair is highly likely 3. Consider surgery only if successful repair is highly likely
133
Papillary muscle displacement 1. time after MI 2. involved coronary artery 3. clinical findings 4. Echo findings
1. 3-5 days 2. RCA 3. Severe pulmonary edema, new soft systolic murmur, hypotension/cardiogenic shock 4. severe MR
134
Interventricular septum rupture 1. time after MI 2. involved coronary artery 3. clinical findings 4. Echo findings
1. 3-5 days 2. LAD (apical septal) or RCA (basal septal) 3. Chest pain, new harsh holosystolic murmur with thrill, hypotension, cardiogenic shock 4. L to R ventricular shunt
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Free wall rupture 1. time after MI 2. involved coronary artery 3. clinical findings 4. Echo findings
1. Within 5 days or up to 2 weeks 2. LAD 3. chest pain, distant heart sounds, shock, rapid progression to cardiac arrest 4. pericardial effusion with tamponade
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Left ventricular aneurysm 1. time after MI 2. involved coronary artery 3. clinical findings 4. Echo findings
1. several months 2. LAD 3. heart failure, angina, ventricular arrhythmias 4. thin and dyskinetic myocardial wall
137
Presentation: - Adult: myotonia (delayed relaxation of muscles after voluntary contraction), weakness in face, hands, ankles - Child: cognitive and behavioral difficulties - Infant: hypotonia, respiratory failure, inverted V-shaped upper lip --> Autosomal dominant CTG repeat what is this?
Myotonic dystrophy -CTG repeat in the DMPK gene Other sx: cataracts, frontal balding, insulin resistance, sleep disturbance and testicular atrophy
138
- Flank pain - Poor urine output - Intermittent episodes of high volume urination - Excessive diuresis may lead to potassium wasting and dehydration, can cause weakness --> what is this?
This is likely a urinary outflow obstruction --intermittent episodes of high volume urination is when obstruction is overcome by a large amount of retained urine (obstruction often being renal calculi) -- Patients with single kidney are more likely to develop
139
- Flu like febrile illness - marked myalgia and/or arthralgia - diffuse maculopapular rash - Leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, hemoconcentration - + tourniquet test (petechiae after cuff inflation for 5 min) - increased vascular permeability -what infection is this?
Dengue fever --Prevalence high in Asia and south america -- Manifestations occur 4-7 days after transmission --Dengue shock syndrome: severe capillary leakage leading to capillary collapse and end organ damage
140
Asthma treatment in adults 1. Less than daily --> step 1 and 2 2. most days, waking with asthma --> step 3 3. daily sx, waking with asthma, decreased FEV1 --> step 4 4. still uncontrolled after step 4 treatment for each
1. inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) - formoterol (long acting short onset beta agonist) PRN ---OR ICS+SABA PRN 2. low does ICS-formoterol daily 3. medium to high dose ICS-formoterol daily 4. high dose ICS-formoterol daily + LAMA (tiotropium) --> PLUS consider biologic therapy
141
a. Decreased ceruloplasmin, increased urinary copper excretion b. hepatic pathology --parkinsonism --gait disturbance --choreoathetosis (involuntary/irregular/purposeless movement) --dysarthria (difficulty speaking) --psychiatric issues like tremors, depression, personality changes, psychosis what is this? + mutation tx?
1. Wilson disease, autosomal recessive mutation of ATP7B causes hepatic copper accumulation and then leak from damaged hepatocytes causes deposits elsewhere 2. Chelators (D-penicillamine, trientine) --> Zinc (interferes with copper absorption) 2.
142
How does quetiapine cause orthostatic syncope?
1. has alpha 1 receptor blocking properties which leads to smooth muscle on veins and arterioles to dilate and unable to vasoconstrict --> syncope
143
- Ring enhancing lesions, can be at grey-white junction - Due to an intracellular protozoan due to severe deficits in cell mediated immunity - Often when CD4 <100 What is this? How is it treated?
1. Toxoplasmosis (toxoplasma gondii) 2. Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine + leucovorin -->TMP-SMX used as ppx when CD4 < 100
144
Cholesterol crystal emboli 1. Clinical features ---Dermatologic ---Renal ---CNS ---Ocular involvement ---GI 2. Labs ---complement levels ---cell lines
1. Clinical features ---Dermatologic: livedo reticularis, ulcers, gangrene, blue toe syndrome ---Renal: AKI ---CNS: stroke, amaurosis fugax ---Ocular involvement: hollenhorst plaques ---GI: intestinal ischemia, pancreatitis 2. Labs ---LOW complement levels ---cell lines: eonsinophiluria on UA
145
For patients with cough following upper respiratory infection, initial empiric treatment includes ... (2 options)
1. Oral first generation antihistamine (e.g. chlorpheniramine) 2. Combine antihistamine-decongestant (e.g. brompheniramine and pseudoephedrine) --Pts who do not respond after 2-3 weeks may require further investigations or empiric sequential therapy for GERD, cough variant asthma, chronic sinusitis, etc
146
- 2ndary cause of HTN that causes paroxysmal HTN (variable BP readings) --Can occur with headache, sweating, tachycardia, anxiety What is this? How to dx? Tx?
1. Pheochromocytoma 2. Urine or plasma metanephrines (breakdown products of Epi and NE) 3. Preoperative alpha blockade prior to beta blockade ---lap or sx resection
147
Ascites from cirrhosis 1. color 2. amylase levels 3. total protein levels 4. SAAG level
1. Straw yellow 2. Normal amylase 3. Low total protein (<2.5 g/dL is consistent with cirrhosis or nephrotic syndrome) 4. High SAAG (indicates portal HTN)
148
Pancreatic ascites 1. what does it result from 2. color 3. amylase levels 4. total protein 5. SAAG level (serum ascites albumin gradient)
1. damage to the pancreatic duct with leakage of pancreatic juice into the peritoneal space 2. serosanguinous or yellow fluid 3. high amylase 4. high total protein 5. low SAAG (indicates no portal HTN)
149
6 Ps of acute limb ischemia
1. pain 2. pallor 3. paresthesia 4. pulselessness 5. Poikilothermia (cool extremity) 5. paralysis (late sx)
150
Common causes of acute limb ischemia (3)
1. embolism of a cardiac or intraarterial thrombus. Seen with sudden onset and likely recent MI. 2. local thrombosis from disruption of a preexisting atherosclerotic plaque (e.g. PAD, hx of claudication or diminished pulses) 3. Traumatic vessel disruption or dissection (due blunt trauma or iatrogenic injury)
151
Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to risk of gastric cancer - how?
Antibody-mediated destruction of intrinsic factor (what allows for B12 absorption in distal ileum) and gastric parietal cells.  Damage to the stomach results in gastric atrophy and increases the risk of gastric cancer.
152
Cardiomyopathy due to viral myocarditis 1. What type of cardiomyopathy? 2. patient population 3. echo findings
1. dilated 2. <55 3. biventricular enlargement with diffuse ventricular wall hypokinesis *in children this is most commonly due to coxsackievirus B or adenovirus
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- Persistent fever and LUQ pain (sometimes radiating to the back) - w/ or w/out splenomegaly - Lab shows leukocytosis with left shift - Chest x ray shows elevated left hemidiaphragm (and/or left pleural effusion)
Splenic abscess --complication of bacteremia from a distant infection (e.g. infective endocarditis, cholecystitis)
154
1. What is considered low urine osmolality? 2. What is considered low urine specific gravity 3. What is considered high serum osmolality?
1. <300 mOsm/kg H2O 2. <1.006 3. >250 mOsm/kg H2O
155
what are the 4 common organisms to cause infectious bloody diarrhea? -- plus their source
1. Shiga toxin producing E coli (E coli O157:H7) -- undercooked beef. (absence of high fever) 2. Shigella --contaminated food/water or outbreaks 3. Campylobacter -- raw or undercooked meat 4. Salmonella -- undercooked chicken
156
Lemiere syndrome 1. organism that causes this 2. pathophysiology 3. symptoms
1. fusobacterium necrophorum (part of normal oral flora) 2. begins as an oropharyngeal infection (tonsilitis) - bacterium invades the lateral pharyngeal space through lymphatic system and affects the neurovascular structures causing internal jugular vein thrombosis and infection 3. prolonged sore throat, high fever, rigors, dysphagia, neck pain, swelling along SCM muscle ---septic thromboemboli to lungs mostly
157
Rapidly progressive hirsutism with virilization suggests very high androgen levels due to androgen producing neoplasm 1. DHEAS 2. Testosterone 3. LH - describe what happens to each and why
1. Increased (most androgen producing adrenal tumors overproduce DHEAS but have negligible androgenic activity. Clinical features are due to conversion of DHEA/DHEAS into more potent androgens like androstenedione and testosterone. 2. Increased after DHEA/DHEAS is converted to testosterone 3. Testosterone has negative feedback on LH (LH is decreased)
158
Intraparenchymal hemorrhages typically present with sudden FND that gradually worsen over minutes to hours - common locations of hemorrhage include and what are the causes? vs subarachnoid hemorrhage - what are the main causes (3)
1. Lobar --> due to cerebral amyloid angiopathy, AVM, tumor 2. basal ganglia, pons, thalamus --> due to HTN vs 1. aneurysm (80%) 2. Trauma 3. AVM
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When getting a blood transfusion - if patient gets reaction from cytokines in blood transfusion [febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction] - how long with this take? vs anaphylactic shock vs acute hemolysis vs transfusion related acute lung injury
1. 1-6 hours within transfusion start (leukocytes are in the blood transfusion package) 2. seconds to minutes (due to recipient having anti-IgA Ab against donation) 3. minutes to hours (ABO incompatibility) 4. minutes to hours (donor antileukocyte antibodies - against recipient)
160
Symptoms from someone having ABO incompatibility
Hypotension fever, flank pain, hemoglobinuria --within minutes to hours
161
What cancer leads to increased PTHrP
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung (the one associated with smoking) Histology: polygonal cells with intercellular bridges, eosinophilic cytoplasm, keratin pearls, and extensive necrosis --> single, large cavitary lesions on chest x-ray, most commonly center of lung
162
What clinical associations occur with small cell carcinoma of the lung?
1. cushing syndrome 2. SIADH 3. Lambert-eaton syndrome this is a central location lung cancer
163
Indications for urgent dialysis (AEIOU)
1. A: acidosis (metabolic acidosis): pH<7.1 and refractory to meds 2. E: electrolyte imbalances (hyperkalemia, esp >6.5) 3. I: Ingestion (toxic alcohols, salicylate, lithium sodium valproate, carbamazepine) 4: O: fluid overload refractory to diuretics 5. U: uremia (symptomatic, encephalopathy, pericarditis, bleeding)
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-Flank pain -Hematuria -Increased kidney size on imaging -Increased LDH -D/t hypercoagulability or trauma what is this?
Renal vein thrombosis dx: CT scan or MR angiography, renal venography tx: anticoagulation, local thrombolysis/thrombectomy
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Depression with psychotic features or severely depressed patients who refuse to eat and drink or are acutely suicidal -tx?
electroconvulsive therapy
166
1. cell free fetal DNA testing is indicated in what patients 2. What does it screen for?
1. moms >= 35, abnormal maternal serum screening, abnormal sonographic findings, prior pregnancy with aneuploidy 2. Trisomy 21, 18, 13, and sex chromosome aneuploidies, fetal sex determination
167
Secondary bacterial pneumonia as a complication of influenza most often occurs with... (2)
1. Strep pneumo 2. Staph aureus
168
1. recurrent, painful oral aphthous ulcers 2. genital ulcers 3. eye lesions (uveitis) 4. skin lesions (erythema nodosum, acneiform lesions) 5. thrombosis --usually in young adults from turkish, middle east, or asian descent
1. Behcet syndrome - exaggerated skin ulceration with minor trauma (e.g. needlestick)
169
Can SCD pregnant patients recieve morphine during vasoocclusive pain episodes?
yes - they get IV hydration and aggressive pain control
170
conus medullaris syndrome 1. vertebral level 2. UMN vs LMN? 3. presentation
1. L1-L2 2. UMN 3. severe low back pain, mild or absent radicular pain, bowel/bladder dysfunction --motor weakness usually symmetric --Hyperreflexia - Symmetic perianal numbness
171
Cauda equina syndrome 1. vertebral level 2. UMN vs LMN? 3. presentation
1. L2-sacrum 2. LMN 3. 1. due to disc herniation or tumor that causes severe radicular pain. 2. Saddle anesthesia, absent knee/ankle reflex 3. Muscle weakness on one side 4. Loss of anal sphincter control/urination *urinary symptoms*
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- pancytopenia (fatigue, bruising, recurrent infections) - testicular enlargement , hepatosplenomegaly - common in young children - Adolescents and young adults often show mass of thymic origin (anterior mediastinal mass) causes compressive symptoms --bone pain (affects long bones) -- Blasts >20 % in bone marrow aspirate what is this? how is it dx? tx and prognosis
acute lymphoblastic leukemia dx w/bone marrow biopsy w/multidrug chemo prognosis is favorable in children *bone pain (affects long bones) - due to rampant growth of leukemic cells in bone marrow *Leukocyte count is initially low due to concurrent disease in normal white blood cell production but as dx progresses and lymphoblasts overcrowd then leukocytosis occurs as lymphoblasts spill into periphery
173
Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN) can be caused by conditions that injure the lungs (eg, meconium aspiration syndrome).  Treatment of PPHN includes ....
oxygenation ventilation administration of pulmonary vasodilators (eg, inhaled nitric oxide).
174
Diclofenac is what type of drug?
NSAID
175
Hypervolemic hyponatremia 1. how to fix volume 2. How to fix Na
1. diuretics 2. No specific one
176
Central vs peripheral precocious puberty 1. pathophysiology 2. hormone changes 3. GnRH stimulation test 4. tx
Central 1. early activation of hypothalamic pituitary gonadal axis leading to premature development of secondary sexual characteristics. 2. elevated gonadotropins (LH, FSH) 3. Elevated LH and FSH after GnRH stimulation 4. GnRH analog to delay further progression Peripheral 1. hormone production outside the HPG axis 2. Low or suppressed gonadotropins due to external source of sex steroids 3. GnRH stimulation test: no significant rise in LH or FSG after GnRH agonist 4. tx underlying cause
177
- premature baby with low birth weight - enteral feeding - abdominal distention - feeding intolerance, billious emesis - bloody stools (often not seen early on) likely it is ?
1. Necrotizing enterocolitis --> get x ray : shows pneumatosis intestinalis, pneumoperitoneum
178
Hidradenitis suppurativa is very closely associated with what lifestyle choice?
Smoking
179
First line analgesics for neuropathy pain (e.g. diabetic peripheral neuropathy) 1. 2. 3.
1. SNRI (duloxetine, venlafaxine) 2. TCAs 4. Gabapentin, pregabilin
180
What are side effects of mirtazapine
sedation and weight gain
181
Rine test 1. conductive hearing loss ---affected ear ---unaffected ear 2. sensorineural hearing loss --affected ear ---unaffected ear
1. conductive hearing loss ---affected ear (bone conduction>air conduction) ---unaffected ear (air conduction >bone conduction) 2. sensorineural hearing loss --air conduction >bone conduction in both affected and unaffected ear
182
Weber result 1. conductive hearing loss 2. sensorineural hearing loss
1. lateralizes to affected ear 2. lateralizes to unaffected ear, away from affected ear -wine: place tuning fork on the middle of forehead and determine where sound lateralizes
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- BTK gene mutation - impaired B cell maturation and immunoglobulin production - recurrent sinopulmonary and GI infections at age >3-6 months - chronic enteroviral infection - small or absent lymphoid tissue what is this? Tx?
X-linked agammaglobulinemia --flow cytometry shows decreases CD19 cells tx: IVIG, ppx Ab
184
risperidone, aripiprazole, quetiapine, olanzapine, ziprasidone - what are these drugs?
second generation antipsychotics
185
When do you use clozapine?
1. gold standard for schizophrenia but due to high risk of agranulocytosis it is reserved for patients who have failed to respond to at least 2 antipsychotic trials
186
Pronator drift is a physical exam finding that is pathognomonic for UMN or (BLANK) dx - especially in the absence of proprioception deficits
1. Pyramidal/corticospinal tract -- (starts at cortex, goes through internal capsule (posterior limb), down to body)
187
What is the corticospinal tract? --where does it cross over?
1. white matter pathway in the brain that controls voluntary motore function. 2. It decussates in the medulla
188
What are extrapyramidal signs?
Group of side effects that affect the motor system - involuntary movements (lip smacking or puckering) - muscle stiffness (rigidity) - tremors - shuffling gait - abrupt spasms - physical restlessness (pacing, shaking legs, rocking) - slowness of movements (bradykinesia) - irregular, jerky movements (dyskinesia)
189
What does an abdominal succussion splash mean?
1. heard with a stethoscope and done while patient rocks back and forth at the hips 2. Retained gastric material for >3 hrs after meal will generate a splash -- can happen with gastric outlet obstruction like pyloric stricture, malignancy, peptic ulcer dx
190
Hepatic adenomas 1. patient populations 2. What is it?
1. In young women who have been on prolonged estrogen based oral contraception 2. solitary solid lesion in right lobe of liver
191
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy 1. at what point does it happen 2. what is the management? 3. Pathophysiology
1. 3rd trimester 2. Ursodeoxycholic acid - antihistamines for generalized pruritus - Delivery at 37 weeks as normal 3. Increased estrogen and progesterone cause hepatobiliary tract stasis and decreased bile excretion --> causes pruritus on palms and soles
192
Neuropathic (Charcot) arthropathy 1. most commonly occurs in what patient group? 2. What does it start with? 3. What is the acute or chronic form?
1. diabetics 2. impaired sensation and joint proprioception 3. Acute: inflammatory erythema, warmth, and edema of the foot 1-2 days after minor trauma. No bone involvement on xray ----chronic: osseous fragmentation, new bone formation, and subluxation/dislocation predominantly in the mid and hind foot. Can get ulcers, rocker bottom feet (arch collapse), and callus formation
193
Patients with COPD are classified into groups A, B, or E --> this determines their tx by their symptoms --> Group A (low symptom severity and low exacerbation risk) --> Group B (more severe symptoms but no hospitalizations required) --> Group E (hospitalization and more frequent/severe exacerbation) what is treatment for each?
Group A: inhaled SABA or SAMA (short acting muscarinic antagonist) Group B and Group E: Initial therapy is daily inhaled LABA (e.g. fomoterol) plus a LAMA (e.g. tiotropium) Group E: can also have inhaled corticosteroid
194
Evaluation of polyuria 1. Urine output > (BLANK) = polyuria present 2. Dilute urine --> likely causes? 3. Concentrated urine --> likely causes?
1. > 3 liters 2. Primary polydipsia or diabetes insipidus 3. Osmotic diuresis due to increased solute excretion like glucose, urea, saline
195
What is asherman syndrome?
1. intrauterine adhesions that can follow intrauterine surgery --> most often after suction and sharp curettage for delivery complications --> can cause amenorrhea that does not respond to progesterone challenge (progesterone stops endometrial growth and promotes differentiation, once progesterone is stopped this withdrawal mimics the natural pattern of progesterone that signals for uterus to menstruate)
196
Internal vs external hemorrhoids 1. which one is more painful
1. Internal is usually not painful and above the dentate line 2. painful and hemorrhoidectomy is done for severely painful thrombosis
197
--> most common lung cancer in adolescents/young adults --> neuroendocrine tumor --> proximal airway obstruction causes dyspnea, wheezing, cough --> recurrent pneumonia past tumor, hemoptysis what is this?
bronchial carcinoid tumor
198
- X linked recessive mutation of NADPH oxidase - impaired respiratory burst and decreased reactive oxygen species leading to inhibition of phagocytic intracellular killing --will see recurrent infections with catalase positive bacteria and fungi, diffuse granulomas -- Dx with tests to measure neutrophil superoxide production like DHR flow cytometry and nitroblue tetrazolium testing what is this? tx?
1. chronic granulomatous disease 2. Prophylaxis is w/TMP-SMX, itraconazole, interferon gamma --> active infection is Ab based on culture results --> Hematopoietic cell transplant is curative
199
- arthritis of varied patterns - enthesitis (inflammation at tendon insertion site) - dactylitis of toe or finger - nail pitting and onchyolysis - pitting edema of hands or feet - Skin lesions typically precede onset of arthritis what is this?
psoriatic arthritis (nail pitting is highly specific for this)
200
Time line for these? 1. postpartum blues 2. postpartum depression 3. postpartum psychosis
1. w/in 2-3 days and resolves within 2 weeks 2. within 4-6 weeks (can be up to a year) 3. days to weeks
201
The first step in evaluation of suspected hydrocephalus is getting (BLANK)
1. ultra fast MRI 2. U/S of head (if fontanelle is still open) --hydrocephalus should be considered when head circumference is moving up several growth lines
202
Gradually enlarging, glandular breast tissue (small <4cm) in adolescent boys (12-14 during mid puberty) is often due to (BLANK)
1. transiently increased testicular production of estrogen compared to testosterone and peripheral conversion of prohormones to estrogen *can be firm, unilateral or bilateral, subareolar mass that may be tender to touch --> managed with reassurance and observation - resolves within a year
203
- biconvex lens looking hyperdensity on CT scan (does not cross suture lines) - Due to trauma to middle meningeal artery - brief lucid interval - can lead to herniation (subfalcine, uncal, etc) what is this?
1. epidural hematoma 2. Tx with urgent surgical evacuation
204
- When androstenedione and testosterone levels are very high - undetectable estrone and estradiol levels - This is likely what?
Aromatase deficiency --for women you will see normal internal genitalia and external virilization because of excess androstenedione
205
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia 1. pathophysiology 2. what lab abnormalities are there?
1. deficiency in 21 hydroxylase leading to decreased cortisol and aldosterone. 2. Hyponatremia because aldosterone is not there for reuptake. --in infancy will have salt wasting and virilization --in childhood you get premature pubarche/adrenarche (without virilization) --advanced bone age expected
206
What are the thyroid effects of amiodarone? why?
1. Impairs synthesis of thyroid hormone and decreases peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. -- AIT type 1: It can also increase synthesis of thyroid hormone in patients with nodular thyroid disease or latent Grave disease --AIT type 2: cause destructive thyroiditis with transient hyperthyroidism. --amiodarone has iodine content
207
What should be done when variceal hemorrhage bleeds are suspected? 1. 2.
1. place 2 large bore IV to volume resuscitate, IV ocreotide (vasoconstrict), and antibiotics 2. Urgent endoscopic therapy of esophageal varices -further management based on what is found
208
Inspiratory "velcro" (e.g. fine, dry) crackles are sensitive for (BLANK) - what imaging should patients undergo to visualize disease? (early on in disease)
interstitial fibrosis - get high resolution CT scan of the chest - and full pulmonary function test
209
Patients with chronic ITP have platelets <100,000 for >1 year --what can be done for those with persistent bleeding and thrombocytopenia despite repeated pharm interventions
1. splenectomy to remove source of platelet destruction and is often curative in patients with ITP 2. pharm interventions: glucocorticoids, anti-D, IVIG
210
Gestational DM --when is it screened? --How is it screened and what are the levels?
1. 24-28 weeks 2. 50 g glucose load and check serum glucose 1 hour later --- if blood glucose <140 mg/dL then likely no GDM --> if >= 140 mg/dL 3. Check fasting serum glucose + give 100 g oral glucose load and then check blood glucose 3 hrs later. Need >=2 abnormal values to dx GDM --> fasting >= 95 mg/dL or >= 105 (diff sources) --> 3 hr >= 140 mg/dL or >= 145 mg/dL
211
1. What is amblyopia? 2. Causes? 3. management?
1. Lazy eye- functional reduction in visual acuity. Usually unilateral and occurs when binocular vision is disturbed while the visual system is developing (age <5) 2. strabismus (ocular malalignment), uncorrected refracted error (eyes optical system fails to properly focus light onto the retina), vision deprivation due to cataracts/ptosis/corneal opacities 3. corrective lenses, encourage use of amblyopic eye, surgery (to remove opacities)
212
How does prolactin cause hypogonadism?
Prolactin suppresses production of GnRH in hypothalamus -this prevents FSH and LH release from anterior pituitary -this diminishes estrogen release from ovary leading to anovulation, amenorrhea, menopausal symptoms (osteoporosis)
213
What is acute dystonia? How is it treated?
1. sudden sustained contraction of the neck, mouth, tongue, eye muscles 2. reducing dose or switching meds -benzos -diphenhydramine
214
What is akathisia? what causes it? How is it treated?
1. Subjective restlessness, inability to sit still 2. dopamine antagonist meds (antipsychotics) and antiemetics (prochlorperazine, promethazine, metoclopramide) 3. . Reducing dose or switching meds - Beta blocker (propranolol) - Benzo (lorazepam) - Benztropine
215
How is parkinsonism treated when caused by antipsychotic meds?
Reducing dose or switching meds -- Benzotropine --Amantadine
216
What is tardive dyskinesia? How is it treated?
1. gradual onset after prolonged therapy (>6 months) --> dyskinesia of the mouth, face, trunk, and extremities 2. Reducing dose or switching meds - Valbenazine - Deutetrabenazine *switch to antipsychotic with lower tendency to cause TD such as quetiapine or clozapine
217
Quadruple marker test - done in 2nd trimester MSAFP, beta hCG, estriol, Inhibin A levels for 1. Trisomy 18 2. Trisomy 21 3. Neural tube or abdominal wall defect
1. decreased MSAFP, beta hCG, estriol -normal inhibin A 2. decreased MSAFP, Estriol -increased beta hCG, inhibin A 3. increased MSAFP (alpha fetoprotein) - everything else normal
218
1. what is a subgaleal hemorrhage 2. presentation
1. rupture of emissary veins upon scalp traction during delivery. These veins connect the dural sinuses and the scalp and can cause massive bleeding between periosteum and galea aponeurotica. - can happen with vacuum assisted deliveries but also spontaneous vaginal or c-sections 2. diffuse, fluctuant scalp swelling that extends the suture lines and can go into the neck. Expands over 2-3 days
219
Cephalohematoma is bleeding between skull and (BLANK) --presentation?
1. periosteum 2. firm, nonfluctuant swelling that DOES NOT cross suture lines or lead to significant blood loss
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GI: N/V, cramping, diarrhea, increased bowel sounds Cardiac: increased pulse, BP, diaphoresis Pysch: insomnia, yawning, dysphoric mood Other: myalgia, arthralgia, mydriasis, lacrimation, rhinorrhea, piloerection --what is ths? --management options?
1. opioid withdrawal (4-48 hours after last use) 2. opioid agonist --> methadone or buprenorphine --> non-opioid: clonidine or adjunctive meds (antiemetics, antidiarrheals, benzos)
221
What is the treatment for specific phobias?
1. CBT with exposure 2. short acting benzos may be needed acutely
222
What are the common drugs that can cause ototoxicity? (4)
1. aminoglycoside antibiotics (can also cause nephrotoxicity - can measure trough concentrations to help predict and prevent nephrotoxicity) *can act synergistically with penicillins 2. chemo agents (cisplatin) 3. high dose salicylates 4. high dose loop diuretics
223
Acute onset dyspnea and cough -Decreased breath sounds on affected side and wheezing - Cheset xray : hyperinflation and mediastinal shift away from affected side - usually right main bronchus what is this? management?
1. foreign body aspiration 2. bronchoscopic removal
224
1. macrocytic anemia, reticulopenia, normal platelets and WBC 2. craniofacial anomalies 3. triphalagneal thumbs --> what is this? --> management?
1. Diamond blackfan anemia - congenital defect in erythroid progenitor cells which can lead to increased apoptosis --typically presents in infancy w/progressive pallor and poor feeding due to anemia 2. corticosteroids and RBC transfusions
225
- thumb hypoplasia - pancytopenia and hypocellular bone marrow - defects in DNA repair genes lead to chromosomal instability and increased risk of malignancies (leukemia) 1. what is this?
Fanconi anemia
226
Female and male pattern hair loss 1. treatment for men vs women
1. Men: finasteride, minoxidil 2. women: minoxidil
227
Evaluation of red urine 1. red/brown urine, heme-positive dipstick 2. get urinalysis a. >=3 RBC ---> cause (BLANK) b. 0-2 RBC --> cause (BLANK)
2a. hematuria 2b. caused by hemoglobinuria (intravascular hemolysis, decreased Hgb and haptoglobin) --> get CBC to evaluate hemolytic anemia or myoglobinuria (rhabdo causing increased CK)
228
Follicular lymphoma 1. form of hodgkin or nonhodgkin? 2. patient population 3. pathophysiology and mutation 4. presentation
1. Non-hodgkin 2. elderly patients 3. nodular growth of follicular lymphocytes. --> translocation between chromosome 14 and 18 that leads to overexpression of BCL-2 4. Indolent fashion with months or years of painless peripheral LAD in cervical, axillary, or inguinal region - LAD waxes and wanes
229
1. What is abruptio placentae? 2. Painful or painless? 3. complications?
1. placental detachment from the uterus before delivery -- accumulation of blood causes increased intrauterine pressure (lower abdominal or back pain), a firm, tender uterus, and high frequency contractions 2. painful 3. maternal hemorrhage, DIC, fetal hypoxia, preterm birth, mortality
230
1. What clinical signs does uncal herniation cause? 2. What about tonsillar herniation 3. What about subfalcine hernation
1. ipsilateral fixed and dilated pupil due to compression of oculomotor nerve and parasympathetic fibers --contralateral hemiparesis with respiratory compromise (compression of ipsilateral cerebral peduncle/corticospinal tracts) --homonymous hemianopsia (visual field loss in the same halves of the visual field of each eye) --contralateral decerebrate posturing due to dysfunction of tract below red nucleus 2. fixed, midposition pupils due to disruption of sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation 3. No pupil change but as it progresses can cause ipsilateral anterior cerebral artery compression leading to contralateral leg weakness
231
Atelectasis is a common post op complication that results from shallow breathing and weak cough due to pain - common at day (BLANK) - ways to decrease the incidence of this?
1. 2-3 days 2. adequate pain control, deep breathing exercises, incentive spirometry - early mobilization -directed coughing
232
Acute otitis media 1. common pathogenes 2. 1st, 2nd line tx + tx for allergies to 1st line
1. strep pneumo, H influenzae, moraxella catarrhalis 2.1st - amoxicillin 2nd - amoxicillin -clavulante (if pt has already done amoxicillin within past 30 days) --penicillin allergy: azithromycin or clindamycin
233
Fundoscopic findings: retinal vessel attenuation, optic disc pallor, abnormal retinal pigmentation other features: night blindness, sx onset from age 10 to adulthood what is this?
retinitis pigmentosa
234
Chronic vomiting leads to volume depletion and metabolic alkalosis which is initiated by loss of H ions and Cl depletion --> tx?
Normal saline restores intravascular volume and replenishes chloride thereby restoring kidneys ability to excrete bicarbonate (and resolve alkalosis)
235
Women on phenytoin for seizures but are planning on becoming a parent should...
taper off medication slowly even though they are not pregnant yet but actively trying
236
- Heavy, regular menses - Dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain - Uniformly enlarged (globular), tender uterus what is it?
adenomyosis
237
-Uncommon cause of heavy menses -Dysmenorrhea, chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia -Fixed uterus, adnexal mass (endometrioma), rectovaginal nodularity, cervical motion tenderness - infertility what is it?
endometriosis - ectopic implantation of endometrial glands dx with direct visualization and surgical bx 1. tx: first medically (OCPs, NSAIDs) --> then surgical resection
238
-Heavy, regular menses -Bulk symptoms (eg, pelvic pressure/pain, constipation) -Irregularly enlarged uterus with uneven contour what is it? tx?
Uterine leiomyomas (fibroids) - proliferation of smooth muscle within the myometrium --> tx: NSAIDs, combined oral contraceptive (estrogen makes them grow), GnRH agonist, and surgical option for severe cases
239
Acute bacterial prostatitis - fever, dysuria, and swollen tender prostate - caused by what organisms? - tx?
1. coliform organisms like E coli 2. 6 weeks of TMP-SMX or fluoroquinolone
240
What are the common stimulant vs nonstimulant treatments for ADHD?
1. stim: methylphenidate 2. nonstim: atomoxetine
241
How is tourettes syndrome tx? (3)
1. Behavioral therapy 2. Antidopaminergic therapy (tetrabenazine/dopamine depletor or antipsychotic/dopamine receptor blocker) ---2nd generation antipsychotics (risperidone, aripiprazole) bc have better adverse effect profile 3. Alpha 2 adrenergic receptor agonists
242
1. How is microcephaly identified? 2. If pt has serial HC measurements across >=2 declining major percentiles ---Neuro sx or dysmorphic syndromes --what is done next?
1. HC below 3rd percentile 2. MRI of brain (then eval for congenital infection or genetic testing)
243
What breast pathology has unilateral, blood nipple discharge and no associated breast mass or LAD?
1. Intraductal papilloma - intraductal papillomas are papillary projections composed of epithelial and myoepithelial cells --> these cells line a fibrovascular stalk that protrudes into the breast duct lumen
244
Multicolored, blue, or green-brown rather than sanguineous unilateral nipple discharge --isolated, subareolar breast mass what breast pathology is this?
1. mammary duct ectasia -- distension of the subareolar ducts with fibrosis and inflammation
245
When is syphillis screened for during pregnancy?
1. 1st prenatal visit 2. 3rd trimester and delivery if high risk
246
what is screened at 24-28 weeks of pregnancy?
1. Hgb/hct 2. antibody screen if Rh negative 3. 1 hr 50 g GCT
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Rh(D) type & antibody screen Hemoglobin/hematocrit, MCV, ferritin HIV, VDRL/RPR, HBsAg, anti-HCV Ab Rubella & varicella immunity Urine culture Urine dipstick for protein Chlamydia PCR (if risk factors are present) Pap test (if screening indicated)
1. screened at initial visit
248
How does lithium affect thyroid? How does lithium affect glucose levels? How does lithium affect kidney? other side effects:
1. Pts can develop hypthyroidism so pts need regular TSH labs a 6-12 months --tx with T4 supplements, dont stop lithium 2. Affects glucose metabolism leading to increased glucose 3. Increase in creatinine (chronic kidney dx after years of use) ---can also cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus leading to polyuira and state of dehydration and hypernatremia
249
Patients receiving solid organ transplantations require high-dose immunosuppressive medication to prevent organ rejection.  This results in systemic immunosuppression, which puts them at risk for opportunistic infections, most notably (BLANK) or (BLANK)
1. Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) and cytomegalovirus (CMV). - PCP: pulmonary sx - CMV: pulmonary sx, GI symptoms, pancytopenia, hepatitis
250
Serum sickness–like reaction is most common in children and is typically triggered by (BLANK) and (BLANK) drugs.  Symptoms begin 5-14 days after exposure and include urticarial rash, arthralgia, lymphadenopathy, and low-grade fever.  Manifestations resolve with withdrawal of the offending agent.
beta-lactam (eg, cefaclor) and sulfa drugs. 
251
Patients with cystic fibrosis are at risk for what vitamin deficiencies?
ADEK - due to fat malabsorption from a pancreatic insufficiency -- Vit K is necessary for coagulation factor activation
252
Vit K is necessary for what coagulation factors?
2, 7, 9, 10
253
enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) - tx? Strongyloidiasis - urticaria, abdominal pain, and respiratory problems - tx?
1. pyrantel pamoate 2. ivermectin
254
- Patient has prolonged fever (can have acute or subacute) - murmur (new onset) - Labs: leukocytosis, anemia (chronic dx effect), reactive thrombocytosis - Glomerulonephritis (immune complex deposition and subsequent inflammation in glomeruli) what is this most likely? w/positive blood cultures --> what else needs to be done? (heart)
1. infective endocarditis 2. Echo to detect intracardiac vegetation or abscess
255
acute limb ischemia 1. viable limb characteristics 2. threatened limb characteristics 3. nonviable limb characteristics (pain, sensory/motor deficit, cap refill, doppler pulses) tx for each
--> all initial tx should be anticoagulation (hep infusion) 1. mild pain, intact cap refil, audible doppler pulses -- get CT angio and then tx with catheter based or surgical revascularization 2. severe pain, mild/partial sensory/motor deficit, delayed cap refill, inaudible arterial doppler, audible venous doppler -- tx with emergency surgical revascularization 3. variable pain, severe/complete sensory/motor deficit, absent cap refil, inaudible doppler pulses - manage with amputation
256
oral aspirin, clopidogrel, and high intensity statin --> what is this regimen for?
appropriate for post stent placement
257
What are some risk factors when indomethacin is used for tocolysis in preterm labor <32 weeks gestation --> explain why
1. oligohydramnios (cox inhibitor decreases prostaglandin production) --> leads to fetal vasoconstriction and subsequent decreased renal perfusion and fetal oliguria causing oligohydramnios 2. premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus *typically only receive indomethacin for <= 48 hrs
258
- most common renal malignancy in children (peak age 2-5) - usually asymptomatic - unilateral abdominal mass - +/- abdominal pain, HTN, hematuria --what is this?
Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma) - WAGR, may be associated with wilms tumor, aniridia, GU abnormalities, mental Retardation
259
How is neuroblastoma different from wilms tumor?
1. Neuroblastoma is a tumor that can arise anywhere in the sympathetic nervous system but typically involves the adrenal glands and presents as an abdominal mass.  ---Usually affects children age <2 and does not cause hematuria which wilms tumor can ---periorbital ecchymosis (orbital mets) ---spinal compression ---opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome
260
Hemolytic uremic syndrome 1. what is it caused by 2. what is pathogenesis 3. clinical features 4. lab findings - tx with fluids, electrolytes, blood transfusion, dialysis
1. E coli O157:H7, shigella dysenteriae 2. toxin invades and destroys colonic epithelial lining causing abd pain, bloody diarrhea. --There is also vascular damage and microthrombi formation creating space for shearing forces. --Intrinsic renal injury is renal vascular occlusion by the capillary microthrombi 3. Bloody diarrhea -- Week after diarrhea pt has signs of anemia (fatigue, pallor), thrombocytopenia (bruising, petechiae), AKI (oliguria, edema). 4. Hemolytic anemia (schistocytes, increased bilirubin) --thrombocytopenia - AKI (increased BUN, increased Cr)
261
Primary prevention for statin therapy 1. LDL (BLANK) 2. age (BLANK) with DM 3. estimated 10 year risk of ASCVD (BLANK) Secondary prevention (those with establised ASCVD) --ACS --Stable angina --arterial vascularization --stroke, TIA, PAD
1. LDL >= 190 mg/dL 2. Age>= 40 with DM 3. Estimated 10 year risk of ASCVD >7.5-10
262
palpable breast mass 1. age <30 --> 2. age 30-39 --> 3. age >= 30 -->
1. age <30 --> U/S +/- mammogram ----if simple cyst is apparent then get need aspiration if symptomatic ---if complex cyst/mass then get image guided core biopsy 2. age 30-39 --> can use either 3. age >= 30 --> mammogram +/- U/S ---- if suspicious for malignancy then get core biopsy
263
CHA2DS2VASc score Male (0, 1, >=2) Female (0, 2, >=3)
1. CHF 2. HTN 3. Age >= 75 (2 pts) 4. DM 5. stroke or TIA (2 pts) 6. Vasc dx (PAD or past MI) 7. Age 65-74 8. Sex category female Male (0, 1, >=2) - 1 = none or oral anticoagulant - >=2 = oral anticoagulant Female (0, 2, >=3) - 2 = none or oral anticoagulant - >=3= oral anticoagulant
264
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome 1. causative agent? 2. slow onset/offset (days to weeks). Not dose dependent and can occur at anytime 3. symptoms? (symptoms that make it different from serotonin syndrome?)
1. Dopamine antagonist (antipsychotics, neuroleptics) 2. -- 3. hyperthermia, AMS, autonomic dysregulation --diff from serotonin syndrome: NMS shows severe diffuse muscle rigidity
265
Serotonin syndrome 1. causative agent? 2. rapid onset/offset (<24 hours) - often associated with dose increase 3. symptoms? (symptoms that make it different from NMS?)
1. serotonergic agent (lithium, illicit drugs like ectasy, antiemetic medication (ondansetron), migraine medication (e.g. triptans), opioid medications (meperidine, dextromethorphan, oxycodone, fentanyl)) 2. -- 3. autonomic dysregulation (diaphoresis, tachy, HTN, hyperthermia), AMS, neuromuscular hyperactivity (hyperreflexia, tremor, rigidity, myoclonus, ocular clonus, bilateral babinski sings) --diff from NMS: has hyperreflexia, clonus, and N/V *NMS has diffuse muscle rigidity and bradyreflexia
266
- epilepsy presents in adolescents - myoclonic jerks immediately on wakening
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
267
TCA overdose can cause - anticholinergic sx - CNS toxicity (seizures) - Cardiac toxicity (e.g hypotension, QRS prolongation) what is given to counteract this toxicity?
sodium bicarbonate
268
anterior uveitis - inflammation of the anterior uveal tract and is sometimes called iritis (if ciliary body is involved) -ciliary flush -pupillary constriction - hazy "flare" in aqueous humor what other dx can this often be associated with?
systemic inflammatory diseases such as infections, sarcoidosis, spondyloarthritis, and IBD
269
treatment of minimal change disease?
corticosteroids
270
how to differentiate partial vs complete small bowel obstruction on imaging?
1. both will have dilated loops of bowel with air fluid levels on plain film or CT scan a. Partial: will show air in colon b. Complete: shows no air in colon and transition point. This is life threatening and will not resolve with conservative management --> needs emergency lap
271
- colicky abd pain, vomiting - Hyperactive bowel sounds at first then absent - Distended and tympanitic abdomen --what is this and what is the management?
1. SBO -- bowel rest, NG tube suction, IV fluids --surgical exlap if signs of complications or complete obstruction
272
What are the four things that make up tetralogy of fallot
1. VSD 2. Right ventricular hypertrophy 3. narrow RVOT (right ventricular outflow tract) 4. Overriding aorta
273
How does knee chest position in a baby with tetralogy of fallot change systemic vascular resistance?
- this kinks femoral arteries which increases SVR --> leading to less right to left shunting and improving tet spells
274
why do patients with chronic granulomatous disease need biopsy cultures when they are ill?
--defect in NADPH oxidase causes this person to have recurrent bacterial and fungal infections --chronic activation of inflammatory cytokines frequently leads to granulomas in GI or GU tract ---When breakthrough infections occur biopsy of area of infection is necessary to identify what resistant bacterial or fungal organisms are at play and then best decide on antibioitc
275
What is parinaud syndrome? -age of onset?
- limited upward gaze - upper eyelid retraction (collier sign) - pupillary abnormalities like reactive to accommodation but not light --> can also block CSF flow in the aqueduct of sylvius causing hydrocephalus (papilledema, headache, and vomiting) This is all due to pinealoma - children 1-12 are most commonly affected
276
prostaglandin functions (3 main ones) - what medication stops its production?
1. blood vessel narrowing 2. fluid leak into tissues --> swelling 3. pain exacerbation ---NSAIDs
277
What is first line treatment of GDM --send line?
1. diet 2. insulin, glyburide, metformin
278
When someone is dx with GDM what is goals of blood glucose 1. fasting 2. 1 hour postprandial 2. 2 hour postprandial
1. <=95 mg/dL 2. <= 140 mg/dL 3. <=120 mg/dL
279
Bilious emesis in the neonate 1. Unstable vs stable --unstable --> emergency exlap --stable --> abdominal x-ray =findings on abd x-ray= a. free air: next step? b. dilated loops of bowel: next step? c. normal: next step? d: double bubble sign: next step?
a. free air: emergency exlap b. dilated loops of bowel: ---> first ask is there increased rectal tone and/or delayed passage of meconium -------if yes: get contrast enema: This will show microcolon (meconium ileus) OR rectosigmoid transition zone (hirschsprung disease) --------if no: get upper GI series (follow c) c. normal: get upper GI series ---if shows right sided ligament of treitz then likely malrotation (complication is volvulus) d: double bubble sign: this is likely duodenal atresia
280
What are vaccines for adults with HIV infection (6)
1. HAV 2. HBV 3. HPV (pts age 11-26, can consider up to 45) 4. influenza annually 5. meningococcus all patients >=2 months and then booster q 5 years 6. Tdap once and then Td q 10 years 7. pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13) first then 23-valent pneumococcal vx (PPSV23)
281
what complication of urterolithiasis requires urgent urology consultation and why?
complicated by infection -- can rapidly progress to pyelonephritis to severe sepsis and shock ---other indications: AKI, refractory pain or vomiting, and anuria
282
What size stones can be passed spontaneously with conservative management?
<=5 mm --outpatient urology referral may be needed for stones >10 mm that do not pass within 4-6 weeks
283
What is MOA of amiloride?
This is a sodium channel blocker in collecting duct --- stops the reabsorption of Na through ENaC. Usually Na is taken in via ENaC and then further reabsorbed into body via Na/K pump (which releases K into urine) ---with this medication this no longer does this and thus spares potassium, keeping K in the body
284
Differentiate between category I and category III fetal heart rate tracing patterns
Category I: --- baseline 110-160/min --- Moderate variability (6-25/min) --- No late/variable decelerations ----+/- early decels, +/- accels Category III: >=1 of the following --- absent variability + recurrent late decels --- absent variability + recurrent variable decels --- absent variability + brady --- sinusoidal pattern -category 2 is indeterminate pattern
285
What does sinusoidal tracings in fetus indicate?
severe fetal anemia -- rapid fetal exsanguination and deterioration, mom requires urgent c section
286
Baby born to mom that is positive for Hep B virus --what should baby get?
vaccine and immune globulin
287
Peripartum cardiomyopathy (PPCM) 1. what is this? 2. When does this happen?
1. rapid onset systolic heart failure (fatigue, dyspnea, cough, pedal edema) -- enlarged left ventricle and atrium 2. >36 weeks gestation or early puerperium
288
- episodic vertigo (20 min to 24 hrs) - can have N/V - sensorineural hearing loss that fluctuates and varies but usually worsens over time - low frequency tinnitus in the affected ear --what is this likely?
Meniere disease - disorder of inner ear characterized by increased volume and/or pressure of endolymph thought to be due to defective resorption of endolymph. Resulting distension causes damage to both the vestibular and auditory components of the inner ear.
289
How do topical glucocorticoid eye drops and systemic glucocorticoids affect eyes?
Can raise intraocular pressure (IOP) -- can lead to corneal edema and possibly open angle glaucoma --all patients on prolonged therapy should undergo assessment with tonometry
290
- asymmetric muscle weakness - Both UMN and LMN signs
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
291
- muscle weakness - UMN signs below a lesion - radicular symptoms at level of lesion - Occurs with aging, as degenerative changes of the spine occur
Cervical spondylotic myelopathy
292
TTP - thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura 1. pathogenesis 2. lab changes (LDH, haptoglobin, platelet count, PT/PTT, indirect bilirubin, AST/ALT, peripheral blood smear) 3. management
1. decreased ADAMTS13 leads to uncleaved vWF multimers --> lead to platelet trapping and activation. Shearing forces can damage RBC 2. Hemolytic anemia causes increased LDH - Decreased haptoglobin --Schistocytes on peripheral blood smear --thrombocytopenia <30,000 (increased bleeding time, normal PT/PTT) ---increased indirect bilirubin, increases AST and ALT 3. plasma exchange -glucocorticoids -rituximab -caplacizumab
293
What is acute rheumatic fever? what causes it? - major signs? (5) - murmur outcomes?
1. immune mediated consequence of untreated strep pharyngitis. Abnormal immune response to GAS infections. 2. GAS 3. JONES - joints (migratory arthritis) - carditis - nodules (subcutaneous) - erythema marginatum - sydenham chorea --> Minor (fever, arthralgias, elevated ESR/CRP, prolonged PR interval) 4. can cause mitral regurgitation/stenosis --> if regurge is severe enough then atria can enlarge and cause afib/aflutter
294
(BLANK) is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis but experiencing preeclampsia with severe features (HTN, headache, visual changes) what other 2 drugs are contraindicated?
1. Magnesium sulfate --> it can lead to myasthenic crisis 2. Fluoroquinolones 3. Aminoglycosides
295
Candida endophthalmitis 1. patient population 2. presentation 3. pathophysiology
1. hospital patients with central venous catheter 2. progressive vision loss with floaters 3. Fundoscopy shows fluffy, yellow white chorioretinal lesions. Candida replicates in the choroid and attacks the retina
296
Hidradenitis suppurative 1. mild tx 2. moderate tx 3. severe tx
1. topical clindamycin 2. oral tetracycline 3. TNFa inhibitors, surgical excision
297
Lactational mastitis - can it have LAD? - can it have induration?
Yes to both - Rx antibiotic therapy and continue breastfeeding
298
Mineral deficiency (BLANK) - brittle hair - skin depigmentation - neuro dysfunction (ataxia, peripheral neuropathy) - anemia - osteoporosis
copper
299
Mineral deficiency (BLANK) - thyroid dysfunction - cardiomyopathy - immune dysfunction
selenium
300
Mineral dysfunction (BLANK) - alopecia - pustular skin rash (perioral and extremities) - Hypogonadism - Impaired wound healing - Impaired taste - Immune dysfunction
Zinc
301
Oral hairy leukoplakia is a condition caused by EBV and is highly associated with...
HIV infection
302
- malignancy of the bile duct epithelium - associated with elevated CEA, CA 19-9, AFP - increased risk in those with ulcerative colitis what is this? -sx? - dx?
Cholangiocarcinoma -- jaundice, pruritus, alcoholic stool, dark urine, weight loss, RUQ pain, --Dx with abdominal imaging like U/S or CT scan
303
Which causes more bleeding copper or progesterin based IUD?
copper
304
What is the biggest risk factor for intraventricular hemorrhage in newborns? and why?
1. prematurity 2. involuation of the germinal matrix (fetal structure that eventually gives rise to neurons, has fragile vessels) begins at age 32 weeks so prematurity increases risk that this ruptures --if born <32 then cranial U/S is automatically done -- sx: anemia, tachycardia, and a bulging fontanelle
305
What are the most common drugs to cause drug induced lupus erythematosus (arthralgias, serositis, rash, fever, malaise) (6)
1. procainamide 2. hydralazine 3. penicillamine 4. minocycline 5. TNFa inhibitors 6. Isoniazid
306
Positive pressure ventilation is a mainstay lifesaving treatment for acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema 1. what does it do to right ventricular preload 2. left ventricular preload 3. left ventricular afterload and why
1. PPV raises the intrathoracic pressure causing a drop in venous return to the right of the hear which decreases R ventricular preload 2. With less blood to RV then less blood to LV 3. PPV decreases MAP (mean arterial pressure) via baroreceptor effects and lowers adrenergic tone. This makes the afterload less overall enhances stroke volume in systole and improves filling in diastole
307
Head and neck squamous cell carcinoma 1. risk factors 2. sx
1. older age, tobacco, alcohol, poor dentition. Young patients with HPV 16. 2. neck mass, ulcerated tonsillar lesion, pharyngitis, dysphagia, and halitosis
308
1. Femoral hernia - how is this different from direct and indirect hernias?
1. usually in women 2. bulge located below the inguinal ligament - through a widened or laxed femoral ring (medial to femoral artery and inferior to inguinal ligament)
309
What is considered active phase arrest?
Active phase 6-10 cm dilation No cervical change for >=4 hours despite adequate contractions (>= 200 montevideo units) OR no cervical change for >=6 hrs with inadequate contractions =next step is c section
310
What is considered protraction of active phase of labor? -tx?
1. cervical change slower than expected +/- inadequate contractions <1cm/2hr --tx with oxytocin
311
organophosphate poisoning 1. management?
1. remove pts clothes and irrigate skin 2. atropine reverses muscarinic symptoms --pralidoxime after atropine (reverses nicotinic and muscarinic sx)
312
- abnormal eosin 5 maleimide binding test - increased osmotic fragility on acidified glycerol lysis test what do these indicate?
hereditary spherocytosis
313
In children what is the most common type of CNS tumor?
low grade astrocytomas --slow growing and benign, causing symptoms to develop over many months --originate in cerebral cortex (supratentorial) --headache, seizures,etc
314
what is another name for high grade astrocytomas?
glioblastoma - causes sx over days to weeks (not months) - much more rare
315
Craniopharyngiomas -- where do these arise? -- what do they look like? -- sx?
1. sella turcica (contains pituitary gland) 2. cystic structures with calcifications 3. compression of optic chiasm or pituitary stalk may lead to visual field defects and hormonal deficiencies (DECREASE in hormones coming out of pituitary gland like TSH, GH, LH, FSH, ADH --bc mass gets in the way)
316
What does thyrotoxicosis cause on cardiovascular system? 1. SVR 2. Contractility and stroke volume 3. HR
1. reduced SVR - direct vasodilatory effects on endothelium, thus decreasing diastolic blood pressure 2. increased contractility and stroke volume - direct effect on myocardium and reflexive response to peripheral vasodilation. 3. increased HR -complications can be high output heart failure, angina, tachyarrhythmias (afib)
317
What is schizoaffective disorder vs schizophreniform disorder?
1. delusions or hallucinations for >= 2 weeks in the absence of major depressive or manic episode. Mood episodes are prominent and recur throughout illness. Sx of schizophrenia have to be for >= 6 months. 2. psychotic symptoms related to schizophrenia but >1 month and <6 months
318
Ehlers danlos vs osteogensis imperfecta
1. connective tissue disorder caused by type V collagen. These patients have joint hypermobility but no fractures 2. defective collagen type I which is common in bone, sclerae, skin, and teeth. Pts often have frequent fractures with type I. Joints are also hypermobile. Blue sclerae. Hearing loss. Short stature. Pts can have easy bruising. (Don't confuse this with toddler's fractures which is seen in children during first few years of walking - will see issues focused on legs)
319
What kind of toxicity can sodium nitroprusside cause? - sx
cyanide poisoning - inhibits oxidative phosphorylation and forces anaerobic metabolism --cherry red skin, headache, confusion, anxiety, seizures, coma, HTN, tachycarida, tachypnea ---> elevated anion gap met acidosis with increased lactic acid
320
Total bilirubin elevated for age ---unconjugated bilirubin >25 mg/dL means what next steps? --if below <25 mg/dL and unconjugated bilirubin above phototherapy threshold for age then (BLANK) --if not above for age then (BLANK)
1. initiate exchange transfusion, eval for pathologic causes 2. initiate phototherapy and if unresponsive (rapid rate of rise) then go to exchange transfusion Phototherapy should be instituted when the total serum bilirubin level is at or above 15 mg per dL (257 micromol per L) in infants 25 to 48 hours old, 18 mg per dL (308 micromol per L) in infants 49 to 72 hours old, and 20 mg per dL (342 micromol per L) in infants older than 72 hours. 3. increase feed volume/frequency and monitor
321
pediatric depression can be tx with SSRI or SNRI?
SSRI (fluoxetine) -- SNRI (venlafaxine) lacks evidence as good tx for pediatric age group for depression
322
- cafe au lait (hyperpigmented macules) - axillary/inguinal freckles - lisch nodules (iris hamartomas) - benign peripheral nerve sheath tumors - Optic gliomas (can cause headaches and visual disturbance) - what is this? - how to dx?
Neurofibromatosis type 1
323
- middle aged women - arise from the meningothelial cells of arachnoid matter - headaches, seizures, FND, but sometimes asymptomatic - dural based, calcified, homogeneously contrast enhancing lesion
meningioma
324
Until what age can you wait to see if testicle descends?
<6 months - at 6 months then have to refer for orchiopexy
325
postmenopausal bleeding 1. first (BLANK) 2. then based on findings (BLANK) then endometrial biopsy
1. TVUS 2. <= 4 mm nothing else req ---> >4 mm need bx
326
Incidental short cervix at <24 weeks is (BLANK) cm -tx with (BLANK)
1. <= 2.5 cm, tx with vaginal progesterone (this is for those who have never had prior preterm delivery and after 2nd trimester TVUS) If pt did have preterm delivery before and it was NOT associated with painful contractions --> refer to cerclage if pt did have preterm delivery before and it DID have painful contractions then give IM or vaginal progesterone
327
What is a nonprogressive neurologic injury that occurs most often in premature infants?
1. cerebral palsy - motor delay, early hand preference, spasticity, and hyperreflexia - happens because of ischemia and necrosis in poorly perfused area adjacent to the lateral ventricles --> causes white matter injury
328
What medications can cause increased intracranial pressure (3)
1. growth hormone 2. tetracyclines 3. excessive vitamin A and its derivatives like isoretinoin
329
What is a struvite stone (magnesium ammonium phosphate) made up of? - what hx will patient usually have - tx
1. made of from increased urine ammonia production - from urease producing organisms (proteus, klebsiella) ---> hydrolysis of urea yields ammonia which alkalinizes urine and precipitates stone 2. Sx associated with recurrent UTI (rather than renal colic) 3. antibiotic tx, complete stone removal, urease inhibitor in some patients to prevent recurrence
330
CN I CN II CN III CN IV CN V CN VI CN VII CN VIII CN IX CN X CN XI CN XII
CN I - olfactory CN II - optic CN III - oculomotor (coordinates eye position during movement) CN IV - Trochlear (SO4 - superior oblique allows eye to look down and move your eye toward your nose) CN V - Trigeminal - sensation in the face (pain, touch, and temp) CN VI - Abducens ( LR6 - lateral rectus) CN VII - facial (facial movement, taste at anterior 2/3 of the tongue) CN VIII - Vestibulocochlear CN IX - Glossopharyngeal CN X - Vagus CN XI - acessory CN XII - hypoglossal
331
- unilateral head and neck pain, transient vision loss - ipsilateral partial horner syndrome (decreased pupil size, drooping eyelid) - signs of cerebral ischemia - common after trauma or due to other contributors like HTN, smoking, connective tissue dx what is it? dx? tx?
Carotid artery disease - CT angio - similar to stroke tx: ---> Thrombolysis if <= 4.5 hrs ---> Antiplatelet therapy (e.g. aspirin) +/- anticoagulation
332
Reactive attachment disorder 1. when does this happen? 2. what does it look like?
1. when the normal developmental process of emotional bonding to primary caregiver is interrupted by inconsistent or inadequate care 2. Do not seek or respond to comfort, poor social responsiveness, limited positive affect, unexplained irritability, fear, sadness even during safe encounters
333
Congenital infections - what is this? 1. hydrocephalus 2. diffuse intracranial calcifications 3. chorioretinitis
1. congenital toxoplasmosis - exposure to undercooked meat or cat feces tx wtih pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, folinic acid
334
Congenital infections - what is this? 1. chorioretinitis 2. periventricular intracranial calcifications 3. microcephaly 4. sensorineural hearing loss
CMV - exposure to infected bodily fluids tx with ganciclovir or valganciclovir
335
Congenital infections - what is this? 1. hepatomegaly and jaundice 2. cataracts 3. sensorineural hearing loss 4. congenital heart disease
1. rubella
336
Management of acute exacerbation of COPD 1. maximize expiratory flow (BLANK) 2. reduce airway inflammation (BLANK) 3. tx underlying triggers (BLANK) 4. maintain adequate oxygenation SpO2 target 88-92) 5. maintain adequate ventilation: NIPPV or invasive mechanical ventilation
1. maximize expiratory flow -- inhaled bronchodilators (e.g. albuterol) 2. reduce airway inflammation -- systemic glucocorticoids (IV prednisone or methylprednisolone) 3. tx underlying triggers - antibiotics and/or antivirals
337
Choroid plexus papilloma 1. pathophysiology 2. sx
1. slow growing benign overgrowth of the choroid plexus (what makes CSF) that results in increased CSF production 2. hydrocephalus, poor feeding, bulging fontanelle, developmental delay, etc
338
Otitis media with effusion 1. How is this different than otitis media 2. management?
1. Non purulent, TM is not bulging or erythematous. Does not cause fever or severe ear pain 2. observe and follow up
339
Posterior urethral valves in newborn boys are associated with reduced urine output and distended bladder -- how is this related to lungs and in utero development?
In utero, impaired fetal urinary excretion causes oligohydramnios and subsequent lung hypoplasia which can lead to respiratory distress
340
Preeclampsia 1. BP at (BLANK) weeks AND 2. (BLANK)
1. New onset HTN (SBP >= 140 or DBP >= 90) at >= 20 weeks gestation AND 2. proteinuria (urine protein/cr ratio >= 0.3) or signs/sx of end organ damage
341
What are severe features in preeclampsia 1. severe range HTN (BLANK) 2. platelets (BLANK) 3. Creatinine (BLANK) or 2X normal 4. Elevated transaminases >2x upper limit of normal 5. pulmonary edema 6. vision or cerebral symptoms
1. severe range HTN (SBP >=160 or DMP >=110) 2. platelets (<100,000) 3. Creatinine (>1.1) or 2X normal
342
Management of preeclampsia 1. <37 weeks and no severe features 2. >= 37 weeks 3. severe range BP 4. seizure prophylaxis
1. expectant 2. delivery 3. IV labetalol, IV hydral, PO nifedipine 4. mg sulfate
343
Von Hippel Lindau Disease (vHL) 1. multiple hemangioblastomas 2. cancer --? 3. pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors 4. (BLANK - ears) 5. catecholamine production (BLANK)
2. clear cell renal cell carcinoma 4. endolymphatic sac tumors of the middle ear - hearing loss 5. pheochromocytomas
344
Parkinson plus syndromes 1. multiple system atrophy
1. early autonomic failure (severe orthostasis, urinary incontinence) 2. early postural instability 3. cerebellar findings (gait ataxia)
345
Parkinson plus syndromes 1. progressive supranuclear palsy
1. vertical gaze palsy 2. early postural instability 3. akinesia (early gait freezing) 4. progressive aphasia
346
Parkinson plus syndromes 1. Dementia with lewy bodies
1. early dementia (executive dysfunction) 2. visual hallucinations 3. cognitive fluctuations 4. REM sleep behavior disorder --> Dementia first then parkinsonism
347
Parkinson plus syndromes 1. corticobasal degeneration
1. rare 2. myoclonus, dystonia 3. alien limb phenomenon 4. cortical sensory loss
348
small intestinal bacterial overgrowth 1. sx 2. differentiate between this and IBS 3. When does this often occur after? 4. dx?
1. bloating, flatulence, chronic watery diarrhea, --malabsorption, low vit B12 and folate 2. IBS has chronic abdominal PAIN and sx relief after bowel movement, nocturnal sx are not generally present 3. after ileocecal resection d/t to colonic bacteria entering small intestine. 4. carbohydrate breath test
349
Condylomata lata --> caused by Condylomata accuminata --> caused by
1. secondary syphilis 2. anogenital warts --> (low risk HPV 6,11)`
350
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) 1. pathophysiology 2. Tx
1. neutrophils in pulm vasculature activated by antibodies in the transfused blood, lead to release of inflammatory mediators --> pulm edema -risk factors include smoking, alcohol use disorder, critical illness 2. Respiratory supportive care
351
First, second, third line treatment options for hyperkalemia
1. IV calcium gluconate 2. Insulin plus glucose 3. Inhaled beta 2 agonists (avoided in patients with active coronary disease due to tachycardia induced angina)
352
What is the difference between immediate vs acute/subacute/delayed postoperative fever
1. immediate: most cases are caused by tissue damage incurred during a major procedure. Fever and leukocytosis last <3 days and are managed symptomatically. 2. acute (1-7 days)/subacute(7-28 days)/delayed: most often due to bacterial infection
353
Neuroblastoma 1. diagnostic findings 2. sx when tumor is found on cervical region 3. what cells does this arise from?
1. elevated catecholamines metabolites -- small, round blue cells on histology -- N-myc gene amplication 2. Tumor involvement of the cervical paravertebral sympathetic chain can lead to horner syndrome 3. neural crest cells (precursors to sympathetic ganglia and adrenal medulla) which is why tumors commonly appear in sympathetic system and adrenal glands
354
- CGG repeat in FMR1 gene ( X linked dominant) - Developmental delay, Intellectual delay - ADHD - Autism spectrum - Self injurious behavior - Anxiety - Long face w/prominent forehead and chin, large ears, deep set eyes - Macroorchidism - Macrocephaly - Joint hypermobility what is this?
Fragile X syndrome
355
Benign neonatal rashes 1. pustules with erythematous base on trunk and proximal extremities. Observe. --what is it --age
1. Etox (erythema toxicum neonatorum) --birth to 3 days
356
Benign neonatal rashes 1. firm, white papules on face at birth
milia
357
Benign neonatal rashes 1. Erythematous papular rash on occluded and intertriginous areas. Avoid overheating and use thin/cotton clothing. If severe can use topical corticosteroid - what is it? -age?
1. miliaria rubra - any age but not at birth
358
Benign neonatal rashes 1. Neonatal pustular melanosis 2. Neonatal cephalic pustulosis - describe each - what age? - tx
1. nonerythematous pustules --> evolve into hyperpigmented macules with collarette of scale. Diffuse, may involve palms and soles. -- at birth --observe and pustules should go away in days but hyperpigmentation may last months. 2. Erythematous papules and pustules on face and scalp only ---around 3 weeks of age --observe and should resolve. If severe, topical corticosteroid and ketoconazole.
359
What are causes of anemia with decreased MCV (4)
1. iron deficiency 2. thalassemia 3. lead intoxication 4. sideroblastic anemia
360
What are causes of anemia with normal MCV and decreased reticulocyte count? (3)
1. leukemia 2. aplastic anemia 3. anemia of chronic disease
361
What are causes of anemia with normal MCV and increased reticulocyte count? (2 main)
1. hemorrhage 2. hemolysis due to ... --> spherocytosis --> G6PD deficiency --> autoimmune --> microangiopathic
362
Management of migraines in pregnancy 1. nonpharm: rest, hydration, heat 2. first line 3. 2nd line 4. 3rd line 5. 4th line
1. acetaminophen 2. antiemetics, codeine, caffeine (can be given in conjunction to #1) 3. NSAIDs (e.g. naproxen) --> BUT ONLY 2ND TRIMESTER 4. Opioids (oxycodone)
363
Huntington disease 1. what part of brain is affected? 2. onset?
1. basal ganglia atrophy - caused by changes in a single gene --mutation in huntington gene with CAG 2. Onset is gradual and in adulthood
364
- decreased passive and active range of motion of shoulder - initial painful phase followed by stiffness > pain
adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)
365
Necrotizing (malignant) otitis externa 1. what is it? 2. what bug causes this? 3. tx?
1. life threatening infectious complication of acute otitis externa. Aggressive spread beyond external ear canal into skull base and adjacent tissue. Can show with elevated ESR and cranial nerve palsy. 2. pseudomonas 3. IV antibiotic for pseudomonas like cipro
366
What drug intoxication shows up with agitation, violence, and prominent horizontal nystagmus?
PCP (phencyclidine)
367
CATCH 22 for 22q11.2 deletion - DiGeorge syndrome --loss of genes that control embryonic tissue template transformation (abnormal pharyngeal pouch system) and migration of neural crest cells 1. What does CATCH mean in terms of clinical features
1. Cardiac outflow tract anomalies (Tet of fallot, persistent truncus arteriosus) 2. Anomalous face (prominent nasal bridge, low set ears, micrognathia) 3. Thymic hypoplasia/aplasia --> decreased T cell immunity 4. Cleft palate 5. Hypoparathyroidism --> leading to hypocalcemia
368
Closed spinal dysraphism (spina bifida occulta) 1. what is this? 2. sx?
1. Commonly due to failure of vertebral arch fusion (L5-S1). Skin is intact but underneath skin there is no vertebral piece covering spine. 2. asymptomatic or can have tethered cord syndrome (Neuro: LMN sings, urology: incontinence/retention, Ortho: back pain, scoliosis, foot deformity) --- cutaneous, lumbosacral anomalies like hair tuft, hemangioma, nevus, pit.
369
- Fever 102F - hypotension - Diffuse macular rash involving palms and soles - Desquamation 1-3 weeks after dx onset - Vomiting, diarrhea - Altered mentation what is this likely?
Staph toxic shock syndrome --> supportive therapy, removal of foreign body, and antibiotic therapy
370
What is considered uterine tachysystole?
>5 contractions/10 min
371
VEAL CHOP MINE VEAL (variable decels, early decels, accels, late decels) what does CHOP mean what does MINE mean
1. cord compression 2. head compression 3. okay 4. placental insufficiency 1. maternal repositioning (reccurent variable decels can be managed with amnioinfusion to reduce cord compression) 2. identify labor progress 3. no intervention 4. execute interventions
372
Positive Hydrogen breath test Positive stool test for reducing substances Low stool pH Increased stool osmotic gap what is this
lactose intolerance
373
A popliteal (baker) cyst is due to extrusion of synovial fluid from the knee joint into the gastrocnemius or semimembranous bursa --most common in pts with underlying arthritis what is a common physical exam finding? + sx?
1. Crescent sign - arc of ecchymosis is often visible distal to medial malleolus 2. painless bulge behind the knee (more noticeable with knee extension) 3. When cyst ruptures can cause pain in the calf and crescent sign
373
Selective IgA deficiency 1. pathophysiology 2. clinical features 3. dx 4. blood transfusions
1. serum IgA levels are low/undetectable due to failure of B cells to differentiate into IgA secreting plasma cells. 2. Recurrent sinopulmonary and GI infections due to lack of secretory IgA on mucosal barrier. --atopic and autoimmune disorders (SLE, celiac) are common 3. low or absent IgA, normal IgG/IgM/B cells 4. In blood transfusion - host can form IgE ab against IgA so when getting blood that contains IgA the host can have anaphylaxis shock
374
Cutis aplasia Microcephaly, microphthalmia, cleft lip/palate cardiac defects kidney defects Umbilical hernia/omphalocele Rocker bottom feet Polydactyly what syndrome is this?
Trisomy 13 (patau syndrome)
375
- thunderclap headache with rapid onset - N/V, abnormal mental status - Hypotension - B/l visual field defects and ophthalmoplegia what is this likely? What is important initial management?
This is likely pituitary apoplexy due to hemorrhage or acute ischemia -- Bc of compression or ischemia of the pituitary, deficits of anterior pituitary often occur and loss of ACTH can cause central adrenal insufficiency (cause of hypotension) Tx: parenteral glucocorticoids **not subarachnoid hemorrhage bc no neck stiffness or HTN
376
CSF findings WBC Glucose Protein (0-5) (40-70) (<40) 1. bacterial meningitis 2. TB 3. Viral 4. Guillain barre
1. bacterial meningitis (>1,000) (<40) (<250) 2. TB (100-500) (<45) (100-500) 3. Viral (10-500) (norm) (<150) 4. Guillain barre (norm) (norm) (45-1,000)
377
Fetal hydantoin syndrome 1. what causes this 2. sx?
1. antiepileptics like phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine 2. cleft lip/palate, wide ant fontanelle, distal phalange hypoplasia, cardiac anomalies, microcephaly
378
1. what is loperamide? 2. What is metoclopramide
1. antidiarrheal medicatioin 2. D2 receptor antagonist that increases gastric contractility and motility
379
- sunburst periosteal reaction (concentric layers of reactive bone)/ periosteal elevation - Ill defined osteolytic/osteoblastic lesion - May have hx of retinoblastoma - Most cases arise in children or adolescents at long bone metaphysis (lytic lesion) - Codman triangle
Osteosarcoma -- risk is greatest in those with RB1 and TP53
380
Short interpregnancy intervals (<6-18 months) are associated with an increased risk of pregnancy complications including 1. preterm labor 2. (BLANK) 3. low birth weigth
Preterm prelabor rupture of membranes (PPROM)
381
Sturge weber syndrome (mutation in GNAQ gene) 1. port wine stain along trigeminal nerve distribution 2. seizures 3. leptomeningeal capillary venous malformation 4. intellectual disability 5. visual field defects 6. glaucoma what is the dx and management?
1. MRI of brain with contrast to visualize intracranial vascular malformation 2. laser therapy can improve port wine stain. Antiepileptic drugs, intraocular pressure reduction
382
In patients with immature hypothalamic pituitary ovarian axis (usually early teens) --> there is anovulation due to inadequate gonadotropin secretion (LH, FSH). without ovulation then body does not get corpus luteum that produces progesterone. Eventual decline in progesterone leads to menstruation. --what determines just reassurance in teens vs intervention (progesterone tx)?
1. If patient is bothered by irregularity 2. If there is significant anemia even between menses
383
most common risk factor for breast cancer?
1. increasing age 2. increased estrogen exposure via nulliparity, early menarche (<13), and late menopause (>51) 3. family history - first degree relative
384
What is the preferred screening test to evaluate for cervical spine injury?
CT scan without contrast --more sensitive than plain radiography
385
How is lithium excreted? What is used instead of lithium in cases that it cannot be excreted well?
1. kidneys --may increase to toxic levels when patients have renal dysfunction. 2. Valproate - not nephrotoxic but periodic monitoring of liver function tests and platelets is necessary due to medications rare association with hepatotoxicity and thrombocytopenia
386
(BLANK) have been associated with improvements in cardiovascular risk in patients with very high triglycerides (>400) and low HDL (<= 40) but are typically given with a statin
Fibrates (fenofibrate) - reduce synthesis of triglycerides and increase their catabolism
387
What are other drug options to lower cholesterol other than statins?
1. ezetimibe - selectively inhibit intestinal absorption of cholesterol 2. PCSK9 inhibitors - block PCSK9 protein from breaking down LDL receptors in liver. This way LDL receptors stay open to uptake bad cholesterol and decreases LDL. **statin reduce the amount of cholesterol the liver produces (by inhibiting enzyme used for production) and helps liver remove cholesterol from blood. **1 and 2 can be considered if statins are not tolerated but not as effective in preventing cardiovascular events
388
Transverse myelitis 1. Loss of pain, temp on opposite side (BLANK - part of CNS) 2. Loss of motor function on same side (BLANK - part of CNS) 3. Loss of vibration and proprioception on same side (BLANK - part of CNS) 4. Usually a defined sensory level 5. autonomic dysfunction
1. spinothalamic tract 2. corticospinal 3. dorsal column *immune mediated disorder characterized by infiltration of inflammatory cells into a segment of the spinal cord
389
Pain over AC joint and passive shoulder adduction provokes pain * determined with cross body adduction test
- AC joint sprain --> when significant force is applied to lateral or superior shoulder causing a sprain on the ligament that connects the acromion and the clavicle
390
Which ones of the second generation antipsychotics cause weight gain, dyslipidemia, and hyperglycemia? (2)
Olanzapine and clozapine
391
A prominent v wave in jugular venous pulsation is highly specific for?
tricuspid regurgitation
392
what is hemobilia?
Rare cause of upper GI bleeding - usually occurs as complication of hepatic or biliopancreatic interventions (e.g. liver bx, cholecystectomy, ECRP) -- massive hemobilia results in hemodynamic instability that occurs after procedure. sx: RUQ pain, jaundice, UGIB, -direct hyperbilirubinemia, anemia, leukocytosis
393
What causes symmetric vs asymmetric fetal growth restriction?
1. symmetric - chromosomal abnormalities - congenital infection 2. asymmetric - uteroplacental insufficiency - maternal malnutrition
394
Preterm labor management -mom and baby stable 1. <32 weeks 2. 32-34 weeks 3. 34-37 weeks
1. antenatal corticosteroids (IM betamethasone) to decrease risk of ARDS and promote fetal lung maturity --> Penicillin if GBS+ or unknown --> Tocolysis: indomethacin --> Mg sulfate to decrease risk of cerebral palsy 2. Antenatal corticosteroids --> Penicillin if GBS+ or unknown --> Tocolysis: indomethacin 3. antenatal corticosteroids --> Penicillin if GBS+ or unknown
395
- Rupture of inferior epigastric artery (supplies blood to lower aspect of rectus abdominis muscle) - Often seen with blunt trauma and forceful abdominal contractions, particularly in patients with anticoagulation - Sx: acute abdominal pain, rebound or guarding, palpable abdominal wall mass - mass does not cross midline and does not change w/movement of lower extremities - anemia, leukocytosis what is it? what dx it?
1. Rectus sheath hematoma 2. Abd CT confirms th edx
396
For children with HIV, what are the CD4 counts that we should aim for to prevent dx of PJP? 1. Age 1-11 months 2. 12 months and above
1. > 1,500/mm3 2. >= 200/mm3
397
Cobb angle 10-30 management angle >= 30 angle >=40-50
1. monitored clinically q 6 months 2. brace in a child with growth potential to reduce curve progression 3. surgical fixation
398
Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea 1. pathophysiology
Suppression of hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis by strenuous exercise, calorie restriction, increased stress, or chronic illness ---Decreased GnRH leads to low FSH/LH and thus low estrogen level. Which means proliferation of endometrium does not happen. With progesterone challenge test you don't get bleeding. -Have increased risk of decreased bone mineral density due to low estrogen. Don't have vasomotor sx bc normal yet unstimulated ovaries still make basal estrogen levels
399
Patients with amenorrhea, vasomotor sx, and vaginal atrophy at ages less than normal menopause age likely have (BLANK)
primary ovarian insufficiency
400
1. Hemorrhage symptom presentation pattern? sx of intracerebral hemorrhage due to AVM - recurrent headache, seizure, or focal neural deficits
1. sx tend to progress over minutes to hours as hemorrhage expands
401
occiput posterior vs occiput anterior which is the preferred position for baby?
1. occiput anterior (back of head facing anterior of mom) when occiput posterior this increases risk of cephalopelvic disproportion in which the fetal head is too large to fit through maternal pelvis
402
CT scan of chest reveals nodules with surrounding ground glass opacities (halo sign) --bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) and bx are required if noninvasive testing (sputum stain/culture) is inconconclusive - Classic triad: fever, pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis - In patients with severe immunocompromised situation what is it? how to tx?
1. invasive pulmonary aspergillosis 2. voriconazole +/- caspofungin *chronic pulmonary aspergillosis is a fungus ball in preexisting lung cavity. usually quiescent with occasional hemoptysis, weight loss, cough/fatigue over 3 months
403
1. Magnesium is excreted by (BLANK) 2. what is used as first line tx for magnesium toxicity 3. clinical features of toxicity
1. kidneys - common risk factor for toxicity is renal insufficiency 2. calcium gluconate 3. Mild: nausea, flushing, headache, hyporeflexia --mod: areflexia, hypocalcemia, somnolence --severe: respiratory paralysis and cardiac arrest
404
PPI therapy can lead to false negative result on H pylor (BLANK) and (BLANK) and (Blank) tests. Wait 2 weeks until PPI is stopped -
1. Stool antigen confirms new infection or eradication 2. Urea breath tests confirms new infection or eradication 3. * Endoscopic bx confirms new infection or eradication *serologic test has limited use, cannot distinguish between past and current infection * Endoscopic bx confirms new infection or eradication.
405
Impetigo 1. nonbullous -what does it look like -what causes it? 2. bullous - what does it look like - what causes it tx for both
1. Nonbullous - papules and pustules with honey crusted lesions - staph aureus and strep pyogenes (GAS) - tx with topical Ab (mupirocin) or oral Ab if extensive (cephalexin) 2. Bullous -enlarging, flaccid bullae with yellow fluid -ruptured lesions with a collarette of scale at periphery - caused by Staph aureus - producing exfoliative toxin A - tx: oral Ab cephalexin
406
Myositis ossificans 1. what is it?
1. formation of lamellar bone in extraskeletal tissue (hetertropic ossification). - it is triggered by severe or recurrent trauma -- presents as painful, firm, mobile mass with local swelling --Alk phose and inflammatory markers may be elevated
407
Functional tremor
Most common functional movement disorders --involuntary movements that are not consistent w/a neurologic cause AND IMPROVE WITH DISTRACTION
408
If lead is screened by capillary sample and levels are high then what are next steps? what is first line treatment?
1. obtain venous sample levels. 2. chelation therapy if lead level is >=45 ug/dL --> Dimercaptosuccinic acid (succimer) used at 45-69 --> EDTA and dimercaprol should be administered on emergency levels >= 70
409
Membranous nephropathy (nephrotic syndrome type) -pathophysiology? -what conditions are associated? -symptoms
1. accumulation of subepithelial immune complex deposits and podocyte damage 2. malignancy, infection (hep B), autoimmune, Drugs 3. edema, proteinura, hyperlipidemia and hypoalbuminemia. BP and GFR usually normal
410
Cardiac myxoma 1. clinical features 2. what is it? 3. dx and tx?
1. mitral valve obstruction (middiastolic murmur) - dyspnea, lightheaded, syncope. --embolization of tumor fragments (stroke) --consititutional sx like fever and weight loss 2. benign neoplasm often found in left atrium 3. Echo and then prompt surgery
411
when a person gets a venous air embolism (such as with removal of central venous catheter) what position should they placed in and why?
Left lateral decubitus position because this traps the air bubble in the wall of the right ventricle preventing it from obstructing the RVOT or going anywhere else
412
Isolated breast development with normal bone age is (BLANK) Isolated pubic hair development with normal bone age is (BLANK)
1. premature thelarche 2. premature adrenarche
413
early secondary sexual development with advanced bone age 1. first check LH a. High basal LH indicates (BLANK A) b. Low basal LH --> get GnRH stimulation test 2. W/GnRH stimulation, continued low LH means (BLANK B) --w/GnRH stimulation, now high LH means (BLANK C)
1. Central precocious puberty (idiopathic, CNS tumor) 2. Peripheral precocious puberty (nonclassic congenital adrenal hyperplasia, gonada/adrenal tumor) 3. Central precocious puberty
414
What enzymes are elevated in biliary atresia?
1. alk phosphatase 2. gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT)
415
Transfusion associated cardiac overload (TACO) 1. pathophysiology 2. symptoms 3. Tx
1. Due to large volume blood transfusion in patients with underlying cardiac disease. --occurs w/in hrs of transfusion 2. Sx of respiratory distress from hypervolemia, dyspnea from pulmonary edema, JVD, widened pulse pressure, HTN 3. Halt further blood transfusions and minimizing other IV fluids followed by diuresis w/a loop diuretic. **does not cause ARDS
416
Acute stroke management 1. Patient who were at their baseline < 4.5 hrs before presentation and do not demonstrate a brain hemorrhage on neuroimaging are candidates for (BLANK) 2. Patients who were at their baseline > 4.5 hrs before presentation should be treated with (BLANK) 3. after a transient ischemic attack - management should be enacted to prevent a future thromboembolic event. Patients without an identifiable embolic source should initiate (BLANK)
1. thrombolytic therapy (e.g. alteplase) 2. aspirin (antiplatelet med) 3. aspirin (antiplatelet med)
417
If stroke is caused by afib what medications are used to prevent recurrent stroke?
Heparin, warfarin, dabigatran
418
1. lack of movement in only lower face 2. lack of movement in lower face and forehead - what is likely the pathology causing this?
1. Stroke - affects only lower face (broken upper motor neurons that synapse on the facial nerve nucleus but other side of brain recuperates the function of forehead) 2. Bells palsy - affects both lower face and forehead (LMN is broken and affects both forehead and lower face)
419
Vertebral osteomyelitis - occurs via hematogenous spread from another site of infection - sx include back pain, fever, and malaise, point tenderness over affected area --dx?
---MRI to confirm and exclude epidural abscess or discitis
420
Osteosarcoma 1. Dx 2. Tx
--> Plain x rays may have you suspecting --> then get MRI to evaluate extent of local invasion and allow for local staging --> then get bone biopsy --> then surgical resection + chemo
421
electrolyte loss 1. perioral paresthesia, laryngospasm, prolonged QT interval 2. muscle weakness, cramps, ileus, paresthesia, hyporeflexia, cardiac arrhythmias 3. nausea, malaise, lethargy, obtundation or coma, and seizures secondary to cerebral edema
1. hypocalcemia 2. hypokalemia 3. Hyponatremia
422
What medications are contraindicated in right ventricular MI (ST changes in inferior leads II, III, aVF) and why
1. nitates and opioids - These medications lower preload - W/right side of heart not working then heart becomes pre-load dependent so maintaining volume on right side is important. Nitrates and opioids lower preload.
423
Healthy person >= (BLANK) mm is positive Incarcerated or health care worker or foreigner >= (BLANK) mm HIV or close contact with someone with TB >= (BLANK) mm
Healthy person >=15 mm is positive Incarcerated or health care worker or foreigner >=10 mm HIV or close contact with someone with TB >= 5 mm
424
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (3) Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A (3) Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B (4)
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 Parathyroid adenomas Pituitary adenomas Pancreatic adenomas Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A Medullary thyroid cancer Pheochromocytoma Parathyroid hyperplasia Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B Medullary thyroid carcinoma Pheochromocytoma Multiple mucosal neuromas Often a marfanoid habitus
425
Medullary thyroid carcinoma -pathophysiology
1. arises from parafollicular C cells and produces calcitonin sx of hypocalcemia may be present if severe -typically asymptomatic until a nodule is of palpable size
426
Due to a virus infection (what is it?) -colitis - retinitis - esophagitis - encephalitis - pneumonia Histology: mononuclear cell infiltrates with infected giant cells showing prominent intracellular inclusion bodies -what is it? -what is tx?
1. CMV (or HHV-5) 2. Ganciclovir - inhibit viral DNA polymerase
427
attributable risk equation
AR = (a/(a+b)) - (c/(c+d))
428
Statistical test to assess difference in numerical, quantitative, categorical, and qualitative datasets --assess for statistically significant differences between 2 or more categorical values --commonly used for larger samples and is also able to compare multiple values (e.g. three diff experimental groups)
chi-square test
429
Statistical test that compares means between three or more groups
analysis of variance
430
- Transmural inflammation of the GI tract (often terminal ileum) - Chronic abdominal cramping, bloody diarrhea, and weight loss - complications include enterocutaneous fistulas, stricture, bowel perforation, intra abdominal abscess, and uveitis what is it? dx? tx?
1. Crohn disease 2. imaging and biopsy --lab shows increased ESR, C reactive protein 3. aminosalicylates (mesalamine, sulfasalazine) --corticosteroids (prednisone) --immunomodulators (azathioprine, 6-MP, methotrexate --biologic therapies (infliximab, adalimumab, certolizumab)
431
Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) 1. blood 2. protein 3. RBC 4. WBC 5. Casts 6. Other microscopic findings
1. 1+ 2. 1+ 3. 0-5 RBC 4. 0-5 WBC 5. pigmented granular (muddy brown casts) 6. renal tubular epithelial cells --> what makes up the muddy brown casts in a Tamm-Horsfall (uromodulin) mucoprotein matrix
432
- abrupt onset of fever, anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, and neurologic symptoms - Normal coagulation studies - Can have scattered petechiae --> what is is this?
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
433
Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) 1. Type I - infantile onset SMA (werdnig hoffman disease) 2. Type II - Intermediate SMA (Dubowitz disease) 3. Type III - Juvenile SMA (Kugelberg-Welander syndrome) - describe each
Overall Autosomal recessive disorders --> caused by mutations in SMN genes at crhom 5q13 that lead to degeneration of motor neurons, resulting in progressive hypotonia and areflexia 1. Type I - infantile onset SMA (werdnig hoffman disease) --> difficulty with mobility, respiratory distress and difficulty feeding --> leading to death from respiratory failure during infancy 2. Type II - Intermediate SMA (Dubowitz disease) --> never gain ability to stand or walk without assistance. 3. Type III - Juvenile SMA (Kugelberg-Welander syndrome) --> Previous independent ambulation followed by increasing difficulty with ambulation. Proximal muscle weakness affecting both arms and legs. Some may develop scoliosis or lumbar hyperlordosis.
434
- mutation in dystrophin gene - X linked recessive fashion - Proximal muscle weakness and hyperlordosis - Typically in toddlers with calf pseudohypertrophy - Gower sign what is this?
- Duchenne muscular dystrophy --> - Gower sign (child assumes the hands-and-knees position and then climbs to a stand by "walking" his hands progressively up his shins, knees, and thighs)
435
lyme disease tx 1. regular patients 2. pregnant patients
1. doxycycline 2. ceftriaxone (doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnant women)
436
What is first line drug for osteoarthritis? -2nd - 3rd - 4th
1. acetaminophen 2. NSAIDs if not contraindications 3. intra articular injections (cortisone) 4. joint replacement for severe cases
437
What is an effective intervention for obese or overweight patients with essential HTN
1. weight loss --for q lb lost - BP can decrease by 1 mmHg
438
Imaging differences between idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis vs asbestosis
1. Chest x-ray: peripheral and basilar honeycombing (clustered cystic air spaces) 2. CT: peribronchial fibrosis, reticular opacities (meshlike/lace pattern), subpleural thickening
439
What does sigmoid volvulus show on x ray sx: acute abdominal pain, distension, constipation, vomiting
Dilated, air filled sigmoid colon -- looks like a coffee bean --cecal volvulus shows small bowel dilation
440
Fetal scalp electrodes are recommended against in (BLANK) moms
HIV positive moms - this increases risk of exposing fetus to maternal blood * intrauterine pressure catheter placement can be cautiously used if necessary and clearly indicated -
441
Klinefelter syndrome 1. genotype? 2. pathophysiology? 3. presentation? 4. Labs (LH/FSH/testosterone) 5. Dx and tx
1. XXY 2. decreased testosterone production and absent sperm production in the setting of fibrotic seminiferous tubules and leydig cells 3. cryptorchidism or small testes, learning disabilities, behavioral issues, delayed pubertal development, signs of androgen deficiency (gynecomastia), and infertility --person can often be tall with disproportionate leg to arm length 4. Increases FSH and LH --Low testosterone 5. dx w/karyotype Tx with testosterone supplementation and counseling
442
1. Presentation of males with incomplete androgen insensitivity syndrome 2. Presentation of females with incomplete androgen insensitivity syndrome
1. micropenis, hypospadias, gynecomastia, minimal body hair 2. female phenotype with virilization to a male phenotype
443
Schirmer test
used to evaluate excessive dryness or watering of the eyes with test strip ---> Used in Sjorgren syndrome
444
Blighted ovum
when a fertilized egg implants into the endometrial lining but an embryo fails to develop often bc of severe chromosomal abnormalities --empty gestational sac w/out fetal cardiac activity --tissue is often passed without intervention, supportive care
445
- Lagging of bone age behind chronological age - delayed puberty, lack of pubic hair and genital development in male patients or delayed thelarche and primary amenorrhea in female patients what is this?
Constitutional growth delay
446
At what sodium levels is it more likely to show acute and severe CNS symptoms due to hyponatremia (headache, N/V, confusion, delirium, weakness, seizures, and coma)
<120
447
Begins with an erythematous, slightly edematous papule at the site of (BLANK) bite and then increases in size and may ulcerate and become wart like. --characteristic hyperkeratotic eschar may form
Leishmaniasis (infection with Leishmania tropical - caused by sand fly bite) - Middle east, asia, north africa (old world leishmaniasis/leishmania tropica) -Central and south america (new world leishmaniasis/leishmania braziliensis)
448
Pseudogout - main treatment?
1. NSAIDs 2. colchicine
449
Rotator cuff -action of each muscle 1. subscapularis 2. teres minor 3. infraspinatus 4. supraspinatus
1. internal rotation 2. external rotation when in an adducted position 3. external rotation 4. abduction
450
Rotator cuff tear typically occurs at the insertion of the tendons of the rotator cuff on the (BLANK). --> weakness with (BLANK) and (BLANK) rotation -commonly occurs to (BLANK) tendon - risk factors: heavy labor, repetitive overhead lifting, DM, vascular disease - presentation: pain and weakness in one of the axes of motion and late manifestations include (BLANK)
Rotator cuff tear typically occurs at the insertion of the tendons of the rotator cuff on the humeral head. --> abduction and external rotation -commonly occurs to supraspinatus tendon - risk factors: heavy labor, repetitive overhead lifting, DM, vascular disease - presentation: pain and weakness in one of the axes of motion and late manifestations include atrophy of corresponding muscle
451
Patients that shows symptoms concerning for hemodynamically significant pericardial effusion should be evaluated urgently with...
echo
452
Whipple disease 1. pathogen 2. clinical manifestations 3. dx 4. tx
1. Tropheryma whipplei 2. cardiac sx, arthralgias, and neuro sx --chronic infection shows weight loss, vitamin deficiencies, and foul smelling oily diarrhea occur as a result of the presence of foamy macrophages and inflammation in the intestinal wall causing malabsorption 3. Intestinal bx via upper endoscopy (acid-Schiff positive macrophages in lamina propria) 4. IV ceftriaxone 2 weeks then TMP-SMX for a year
453
Diffuse esophageal spasm - sx?
When muscular layer of esophagus is overactive. Spasms cause dysphagia and chest pain, often acutely in the setting of swallowing.
454
Achalasia 1. pathophysiology 2. sx 3. dx 4. tx
1. deficient peristalsis as a result of impaired neuromuscular transmission and impaired relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) 2. dysphagia, odynophagia, weight loss, reflux, halitosis, and regurgitation of undigested food. 3. barium swallow and esophageal manometry. Bird peak sign on barium swallow 4. pneumatic dilation and injection of botulinum toxin to relax LES
455
Primary biliary cirrhosis - autoimmune dx of biliary tree resulting in destruction of intraheptic bile ducts - affects middle aged women mostly 1. what autoantibody? 2. dx? 3. first line treatment? 4. complications from this?
1. antimitochondrial 2. biopsy is needed for definitive dx 3. Ursodeoxycholic acid to improve biliary excretion 4. ADEK vit malabsorption, metabolic bone dx (osteoporosis, osteomalacia), hepatocellular carcinoma
456
1. What is lithogenic bile 2. How does this affect pancreas?
1. bile that has a high concentration of cholesterol and is obtained from patients with cholesterol gallstones. 2. Most common nontraumatic cause of acute pancreatitis include gallstones and heavy alcohol use --gallstones form in the setting of lithogenic bile and may subsequently pass out of the gallbladder through the cystic duct and eventually reach the common bile duct (CBD) - main pancreatic duct also connects to distal CBD and if it is occluded then pancreatic enzymes are released into the pancreas and causes acute pancreatitis
457
Patients with symptomatic hyperthyroidism due to pospartum thyroiditis or inflammatory thyroiditis can get what medication for sx control?
beta blocker such as metoprolol or propranolol
458
In patient with cardiogenic shock (acute decompensated heart failure) what is best medication to start?
1. first line: Dobutamine (beta 1 adrenergic agonist - increased cardiac contractility, stroke volume, heart rate, and CO) or dopamine --> (ionotropic support ) 2. Norepinephrine --> can be used in conjunction to dobutamine
459
Both PPV and NPV vary with (BLANK) so this information must be know to calculate PPV and NPV
disease prevalence
460
What is a post hoc analysis?
statistical analysis are conducted after the data has been collected and seen by investigators. - Since these are not originally included in the statistical methodology of the study then they are subject to bias and have a threat to validity
461
Multiple sclerosis 1. tx for acute crisis 2. tx for prevention of crisis?
1. glucocorticoid (dexamethasone) 2. Long term disease modifying treatments (interferon beta therapy or monoclonal Ab)
462
Stroke 1. strongest modifiable risk factor 2. strongest nonmodifiable risk factor
1. HTN (then cigarette smoking) 2. age (then family hx, gender, race/ethnicity)
463
Kawasaki disease 1. CRASH and burn (conjunctivitis, polymorphous rash, adenopathy, strawberry tongue, hand and feet swelling, fever) --> what does tx involve --> what evaluations should these patients have?
1. high dose aspirin, IV immunoglobulin 2. echo and electrocardiography dx: Fever ≥5 days plus ≥4 of the following: -Conjunctivitis: bilateral, nonexudative -Mucositis: injected/fissured lips or pharynx, strawberry tongue -Cervical lymphadenopathy: ≥1 nodes >1.5 cm -Rash: perineal erythema & desquamation; polymorphous, generalized -Erythema & edema of the hands/feet, periungual desquamation
464
How to differentiate between hemophilia A and von willebrand disease 1.sx differences 2. bleeding time 3. PTT
1. Hemophilia A: recurrent hemarthrosis and cutaneous bleeding early in childhood. --> vonWB dx: mucocutaneous bleeding, epistaxis, gingival bleeding, petechiae, easy bruising, and menorrhagia 2. Increased bleeding time in vWB dx 3. very prolonged in hemophilia
465
- recurrent infections (viral, bacterial, fungal starting at birth, failure to thrive, severe lymphopenia) - low CD4+ T cells - Low concn of immunoglobulins - Deficiency in adenosine deaminase (ADA) - Low in T and B cell lineages what is this? --curative therapy?
1. SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency) 2. stem cell transplantation
466
- Mutations in the lysosomal trafficking regulator gene (LYST) --> needed for transportation of lysosomes within the cell -Bacterial infections, oculocutaneous albinism, peripheral neuropathy, and progressive neuro dysfunction
1. chediak higashi syndrome
467
Hyphema
Accumulation of blood within the anterior chamber of the eye - most commonly d/t to blunt ocular trauma and damage to the vasculature of the iris
468
Felty syndrome 1. pathophysiology 2. sx 3. tx
1. More likely to happen in patients with poorly controlled RA who have longstanding disease and positive Rheumatoid factor or anti-citrullinated peptide antibodies ---Neutropenia occurs due to production of antibodies against granulocyte colony stimulating factor or the production of lymphocytes that target neutrophil precursors in the bone marrow 2. New onset fevers, pleurisy, neutropenia, splenomegaly ---underlying infections (particularly lower respiratory tract) 3. Rituximab (Ab against CD20 on B cells) drug of choice for patients already on methotrexate **TNFa antagonists are not efficacious for this!
469
AVNRT (a type of SVT) occurs in structurally normal hearts and is often provoked by (BLANK x5) --characterized by regular rhythm w/abrupt onset and termination
1. alcohol 2. caffeine 3. exertion 4. stress 5. sympathomimetic medications
470
Neck rotation commonly alters blood flow in (BLANK) artery and may lead to transient ischemia especially in pts with existing pathology in artery ---> This artery supplies brainstem, cerebellum, and occipital lobes causing -->vestibulocerebellar sx (ataxia, dysmetria, dizziness, imbalance, vertigo, vomiting, nystagmus) --> contralateral hemiparesis (damage to corticospinal tract) --> potential contralateral homonymous hemianopsia with macular sparing
Vertebral artery --> to prevent future TIAs/Stroke recommend smoking cessation, BP reduction, blood glucose control, healthy diet, regular exercise, use of statin and aspirin
471
Internal carotid artery supplies (BLANK and BLANK) cerebral arteries
Anterior and middle cerebral arteries which supply the anterior and middle cerebral lobe
472
Differentiate between pulmonary angiography vs spiral CT scan
1. Invasive catheter angiographic eval of the pulmonary arteries (going to lungs) 2. images of pulmonary arteries (make up of lungs)
473
- Resistant HTN from renal artery involvement - Sx of brain ischemia (amaurosis fugax, Horner's syndrome, TIA, stroke) - Nonspecific sx (e.g. headache, pulsatile tinnitus, dizziness) from carotid or vertebral artery involvement -PE findings: Subauricular systolic bruit and/or Abdominal bruit - Can also involve iliac, subclavian, visceral arteries --often in women 15-50 1. what is this? 2. dx
1. Fibromuscular dysplasia - abnormal cell development in the arterial wall that can lead to vessel stenosis, aneurysm, or dissection. Most commonly involves the renal, carotid, and vertebral arteries 2. Dx is made via noninvasive imaging (CT angio of the abdomen or duplex U/S)
474
Autoimmune metaplastic atrophic gastritis (AMAG) 1. pathophysiology 2. clinical findings 3. increased risk for what
1. presence of antibodies toward parietal cells, resulting in atrophy and metaplasia of the gastric corpus, hypochlorhydria, and unchecked gastrin production, and toward intrinsic factor 2. More often in women. --macrocytic anemia - dyspepsia, postprandial abd pain, bloating, nausea, heartburn, or regurgitation, 3. gastric adenocarcinoma and neuroendocrine tumors, routine surveillance with endoscopy is indicated
475
What blood disorder causes hydrops fetalis?
alpha thalassemia MAJOR (4 gene loss)
476
Signs of congenital hypothyroidism 1. when does it happen 2. what are the signs
1. weeks to months after birth as maternal T4 wanes 2. Hypometabolism causes low HR and temp, lethargy, poor feeding, hypotonia, constipation, jaundice --Mucopolysaccharide accumulation: macroglossia, umbilical hernia --delayed bone maturation, enlarged fontanelles
477
1. abdominal/flank/groin pain 2. pulsatile mass 3. flank ecchymosis 4. limb ischemia what is this? --> if hemodynamically stable (BLANK) --> If not hemodynamically stable and pathology is not know get (BLANK)
1. Unstable abdominal aortic aneurysm 2. Obtain CT of abdomen and identify AAA 3. Focused abd U/S
478
What murmur is heard when patient has tetrology of fallot?
1. harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur over LUSB reflects stenotic pulmonary artery
479
Central vs peripheral cyanosis
1. central: oral cavity lips, tongue, hands, feet, and mucous membranes 2. peripheral: hands, fingertips, or toes, sometimes circumoral and periorbital
480
When there is concern for fetal growth restriction (FGR) (<10th percentile for gestational age) ---> what assessment should be done?
1. Umbilical artery Doppler U/S to assess placental perfusion -measures intravascular flow and resistance in the umbilical artery. More resistance = worse hypoxia. --measurement identifies patients who require urgent delivery to minimize the risk of fetal demise -- can be caused by maternal vascular disease (e.g. T1DM, chronic HTN). w/less being provided to baby then fluid is moved away from kidney and moved toward brain which causes oligohydramnios
481
Eosinophilic esophagitis 1. patient population 2. pathophysiology 3. dx 4. tx
1. Toddlers (feeding difficulties with solid food, weight loss), school aged (abd pain, vomiting), adolescent (dysphagia, heartburn, food impaction) --> issue with swallowing solids (food sticking in the chest feeling) --> also common in young men 20-30 2. Th2 mediated inflammatory response trigged by food antigen exposure. Comorbid autoimmune diseases common. 3. endoscopy (furrowing, small, whitish exudates and multiple stacked, ringlike esophageal indentations) and esophageal biopsy (eosinophils >15) 4. elimination diety, pharm therapy (PPI, glucocorticoid), feeding therapy --> if not tx can progress to fibrosis leading to strictures that result in progressive dysphagia and food impaction
482
Rupture of membranes for >= (BLANK) hours, intrapartum fever, and fetal prematurity (<37 wks) + unknown GBS status --> require what?
1. 18 horus 2. penicillin - intrapartum Ab prophylaxis
483
Symptomatic cholelithiasis in pregnancy 1. pathophysiology 2. clinical features 3. management
1. increased biliary cholesterol excretion (due to estrogen) --- decreased gallbladder motility due to progesterone 2. recurrent postprandial epigastric/RUQ pain -RUQ U/S with echogenic foci 3. Conservative (pain control), cholecystectomy for complicated, recurrent cases
484
What are the 2 most common causes for neonatal cholestasis or impaired biliary excretion?
1. biliary atresia 2. biliary cyst
485
- presents during early childhood with abdominal pain, jaundice, and/or RUQ mass (classic triad) what is it and what is management?
1. biliary cyst 2. cyst removal to decrease risk of cholangiocarcinoma
486
What is the most common cause(s) of jitteriness in infants of diabetic mothers
1. hypoglycemia 2. If glucose is normal then check calcium bc hypocalcemia is next cause (osmotic diuresis caused by poorly controlled gestational diabetes causes hypomagnesium which leads to hypocalcemia) --hypocalcemia can present with jitteriness, respiratory symptoms, and if severe seizures too correction involves correcting magnesium first then calcium
487
Angiodysplasia is an AV malformation that usually occurs in elderly patients as well as those with (BLANK) and (BLANK) disease
1. Severe aortic stenosis (gastrointestinal bleeding from angiodysplasia is a deficiency of high-molecular-weight multimers of von Willebrand factor which is sheared with aortic stenosis) 2. Chronic kidney disease
488
Right ventricular myocardial infarction 1. changes to right ventricle preload 2. With reduced cardiac output and hypotension what does the RV rely on to maintain blood flow through pulmonary circulation 3. How to treat this? 4. What should be avoided?
1. Increases RV preload 2. hydrostatic pressure to force blood through the pulmonary circulation 3. IV normal saline 4. nitrates, diuretics, and opioids
489
- cachexia - elevated alk phosphatase - tenderness over spinous process indicated mets to spine - elevated AFP - abnormal liver function tests - Risk factors include chronic Hep B infection or environmental toxin exposures what is this likely?
hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) --AFP is a glycoprotein produced by the fetal liver and yolk sac ---Often occurs in setting of chronic liver disease and presents as solitary mass
490
What is post cardiac injury syndrome?
Acute pericarditis is a form of this --> results from immune complex deposition in the pericardium. It can occur following any event or intervention (e.g. MI, CABG, perc coronary intervention) that exposes the immune system to cardiac antigens and typically has a latency period of several weeks to months
491
Chronic radiation proctitis 1. pathophysiology 2. presentation
>3 months to years 1. obliterative endarteritis and chronic mucosal ischemia ---submucosal fibrosis 2. severe bleeding +/- strictures with constipation and rectal pain. --on endoscopy you will see telangiectasias, mucosal pallor and friability
492
Placenta accreta Placenta increta Placenta percreta
1. when the placenta attaches to deeply into the uterine wall (attachment of placental villi directly onto the myometrium rather than the decidua basalis - found usually in 2nd trimester U/S showing low lying placenta, myometrial thinning, and numerous placental lacunae) 2. Placenta attaches into the uterine muscle 3. Placenta goes through uterine wall and attaches to nearby organs
493
Breast milk jaundice 1. pathophysiology 2. unconjugated bilirubin levels 3. when does this appear
1. High beta glucuronidase in breast milk deconjugates intestinal bilirubin and increases enterohepatic circulaiton. 2. increased 3. onset is after first week of life and no signs of dehydration
494
How often should infants be feed?
every 2-3 hrs in the first few weeks of life (8-12 feeds a day)
495
- Weight loss, fatigue, anorexia - Painless jaundice with dilation of the common bile duct on U/S - what is this and what is pathophysiology to these features? - What imaging is done to dx?
1. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma ---tumors in pancreatic head often cause compression of the pancreatic duct and common bile duct resulting in painless obstructive jaundice with elevations in bilirubin and alk phosphatase ***tumors in pancreatic body or tail often present with progressive abd pain W/OUT jaundice 2. Abdominal CT scan - can be used for staging purposes and preop plans
496
Extraintestinal manifestations of celiac dx outside of abdominal pain, distension, bloating, diarrhea
General: failure to thrive/weight loss, short stature, delayed puberty/menarche Oral: enamel hypoplasia, atrophic glossitis Dermatologic: dermatitis herpetiformis Hematologic: iron deficiency anemia (due to malabsorption) Neuropsychiatric: peripheral neuropathy (stocking glove distribution/distal/symmetric - length dependent axonal polyneuropathy), mood disorders (eg, anxiety, depression) Musculoskeletal: arthritis, osteomalacia/rickets* (due to vitamin D malabsorption)
497
HIV management in pregnancy Intrapartum Viral load ≤50 copies/mL: (BLANK) Viral load >50 copies/mL to ≤1,000 copies/mL: (BLANK) Viral load >1,000 copies/mL: (BLANK)
Avoidance of artificial ROM, fetal scalp electrode, operative vaginal delivery Viral load ≤50 copies/mL: ART + vaginal delivery Viral load >50 copies/mL to ≤1,000 copies/mL: ART ± zidovudine + vaginal delivery Viral load >1,000 copies/mL: ART + zidovudine + cesarean delivery
498
HIV management in pregnancy antepartum Testing of HIV-1 viral load every (BLANK) until undetectable, then every 3 months CD4 cell count every (BLANK) months Resistance testing if not previously performed Initiation or continuation of HAART Avoidance of amniocentesis if viral load is detectable
1. monthly 2. 3 months
499
1. HELLP syndrome stands for 2. Etiology is likely 3. tx?
1. Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets 2. LIfe threatening disorder related to preeclampsia w/severe features --etiology is likely abnormal placental development during early pregnancy - placental release of antiangiogenic factors which cause widespread maternal endothelial dysfunction and dysregulation of vascular tone (HTN) 3. Prompt delivery bc removal of placenta is only definitive cure
500
Solid liver masses 1. associated with anomalous arteries. Arterial flow and central scar seen on imaging 2. Women on long term OCP, possible hemorrhage or malignant transformation 3. systemic sx, chronic hepatitis or cirrhosis, elevated AFP 4. single/multiple lesions, known extrahepatic malignancy
1. focal nodular hyperplasia 2. Hepatic adenoma 3. HCC 4. Liver mets
501
what drug keeps pda open and what closes it
1. prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) 2. Indomethacin
502
malignant hyperthermia 1. What triggers this 2. sx and tx 3. diff from NMS
1. anesthetic 2. sudden onset fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, and muscle rigidity -- tx by stopping anesthetic and giving dantrolene 3. NMS is caused by neuroleptic agents (haloperidol, promethazine)
503
Typical sx of gastroparesis
early satiety and postprandial emesis
504
1. hematochezia 2. abdominal pain 3. tenesmus (fecal urgency followed by straining and inability to defecate) **pregnancy is a high risk period for patients with this. What does this do to baby? what is this most likely?
1. Ulcerative colitis *high risk bc placental cytokines worsen colonic inflammation. This can lead to preterm delivery and small for gestational age.
505
What does this have? 1. colloids 2. prothrombin complex concentrate 3. Desmopressin
1. FFP (fresh frozen plasma), albumin 2. Concentrate of vit K dependent cofactors (factors 2, 7, 9, 10 and small amounts of protein C and S) - normalizes INR in patients with warfarin in <=10 min but effects are transient 3. given preoperatively to patients with mild hemophilia A. Indirectly increases factor 8 by causing vWF release from endothelial cells which supports factor 8
506
Risk factors for hyperemesis gravidarum Clinical features
1. hydatidiform mole 2. Multifetal gestation 3. hx of this --Sx: severe, persistent vomiting >5% loss of prepregnancy weight -dehydration -orthostatic hypotension - Hypoglycemia w/ketonuria
507
Abortion types 1. missed 2. threatened 3. inevitable 4. incomplete 5. complete
1. No vaginal bleeding, closed cervical os, no fetal activity or emtpy sac 2. vaginal bleeding, closed cervical os, fetal cardiac activity 3. vaginal bleeding, dilated cervical os, products of conception may be seen or felt at or above cervical os 4. Vaginal bleeding, dilated cervical os, some products expelled and some remain in uterus 5. Vaginal bleeding, closed cervical os, products of conception completely expelled
508
Toxic megacolon --> systemic toxicity (fever, tachycardia, hypotension, leukocytosis), abdominal pain, distension following diarrhea illness Dx is done with CT scan of the abdomen with what 3 typical features? tx?
1. colonic dilation >6 cm 2. loss of normal haustra pattern 3. Irregular mucosal pattern, with areas of ulceration alternating with areas of edema tx: in severe cases exploratory laparotomy and total colectomy can be done
509
1. Nonoperative management of toxic megacolon include 2. TM due to IBD is treated with
1. supportive care, bowel rest, and decompression, broad spectrum Ab and tx of underlying etiology 2. IV glucocorticoids are 1st line therapy
510
1. Polymicrobial infection characterized by fever >24 hours postpartum, purulent lochia, and uterine tenderness - what is this - how is this treated?
1. postpartum endometritis 2. clindamycin + gentamicin (broad spectrum coverage)
511
why does indirect hyperbilirubinemia occur in babies 2-4 days of life (physiologic jaundice)
1. At brith RBC have shorted life span and thus have high turnover 2. This leads to increased unconjugated/indirect bilirubin --> UGT (uridine diphosphogluconurate glucuronosyltransferase) activity does not reach adult levels until 2 weeks so you get build up of indirect bilirubin and inability to excrete 3. Enterohepatic recycling is increased bc low bacterial population in newborn gut results in slower conversion of bilirubin to urobilinogen for fecal excretion
512
Food protein induced allergic proctocolitis is a (BLANK) mediated reaction to a protein (typically cow's milk or soy) that presents with bloody stools in well appearing young infants when does this occur?
Non-IgE mediated allergic reaction 1-4 weeks but up to 6 months *blood and/or mucus streaked stools *Can happen in breastfed and formula fed
513
Acalculous cholecystitis 1. risk factors 2. clinical presentation 3. Dx tests 4. tx
1. severe trauma or recent sx, prolonged fasting or TPN, critical illness - These conditions likely cause gallbladder stasis and ischemia leading to distension, necrosis, and 2ndary bacterial infection. These conditions can cause adynamic ileus, and gaseous small and large bowel distension on imaging 2. Fever, RUQ pain, leukocytosis +/- increased LFTs 3. Abd U/S (HIDA or CT if needed) 4. Enteric Ab coverage, cholecystostomy for initial drainage, consider cholecystectomy once stable
514
2nd stage of labor is period from complete cervical dilation (10 cm) to fetal delivery 2nd stage arrest = 1. (BLANK) - primigravida OR 2. (BLANK) - multigravida
1. >= 3 hrs of pushing in primigravida w/out an epidural (>= 4 w/ epidural) OR 2. >=2 hrs of pushing in multigravida w/out an epidural (>= 3 w/epidural)
515
What is the most common source of liver mets?
colorectal cancer - if multiple liver lesions are seen on CT scan consider colonoscopy to rule out colorectal cancer as cause of mets
516
- cyanosis w/in first 24 hours of life - tachypnea - single S2 on auscultation - egg on a string appearance on chest x-ray what is this likely?
1. Transposition of the great vessels
517
Treatment for C diff infection in most patients, including those with nonsevere or severe disease
1. oral fidaxomicin or vancomycin 2. Metronidazole is now only considered if #1 is not available and only for non-severe dx
518
A (BLANK) is required for dx of triglyceride induced pancreatitis tx includes:
1. lipid panel showing TG >1,000 2. IV fluid, pain control, insulin infusion (limits fatty acid release from adipocytes) or apheresis (removes TG rich plasma)
519
Cardiorenal syndrome - acute heart failure exacerbation leads to increased central venous and renal venous pressure to the point that (BLANK) substantially drops. The reduced forward flow from failing left ventricle also decreases renal arterial perfusion. Tx with IV diuretics reduces central venous and renal venous pressure and improves cardiac output and increases (BLANK)
GFR
520
Acute tubular necrosis 1. caused by what 2. When does recovery phase usually start 3. BUN/Cr ratio 4. casts?
1. ischemic or toxic injury to renal tubular epithelium 2. 7-10 days after initial insult 3. BUN/Cr typically 10-15 (intrinsic renal injury) 4. muddy brown casts
521
ACE inhibitors and ARBS are teratogens -- what do they do to a fetus?
1. fetal renal hypoplasia (bilateral, underdeveloped fetal kidneys) and oligohydramnios
522
How do you identify if there is long QT on ekg? how do you tx it?
Look at R-R interval (between peaks of QRS) and then look at QT interval. If QT is more than half of the RR interval then it is long QT - prolonged QT is >460 ms Tx: beta blockers, specifically nonselective BB like propranolol and nadolol
523
Listeria monocytogenes is a common foodborne infection due to consumption of contaminated food and typically causes (BLANK) --during pregnancy can cause fetal infection and possible fetal demise
1. self limited gastroenteritis
524
Etiology of acute liver failure?
- Viral Hep - drug toxicity (acetaminophen overdose, idiosyncratic) -----> toxicity results from overproduction of toxic metabolite NAPQI which leads to hepatic necrosis. NAPQI is normally safely detoxified through glucuronidation in the liver but if this pathway becomes overwhelmed this can lead to overdose. Chronic alcohol use is thought to potentiate acetaminophen hepatotoxicity. - ischemia - autoimmune hep - wilson disease - malignant infiltration
525
How elevated are aminotransferases in nonalcoholic steatohepatitis, alcoholic hepatitis, and cirrhosis
normal to moderately elevated (<500)
526
Bilateral choanal atresia 1. noise? 2. when does it present?
1. stertor (ie. snorting) 2. immediate neonatal period with cyanosis during feeds and crying alleviates respiratory distress by allowing air exchange via mouth
527
Vascular ring in babies 1. pathophysiology 2. sx
1. great vessels encircle and compress trachea 2. biphasic stridor improved with neck extesnion. Feeding difficulties from esophageal compression
528
What is the difference between central venous pressure and cardiac preload
1. CVP is the pressure in the vena cava near the right atrium. This is not inside the heart. 2. This is the volume that is in the right atrium. *If there is increased pressure in CVP then this decreased volume in the right atrium (cardiac preload)
529
Anal fissures present with pain and rectal bleeding on defecation 1. tx includes increased fiber and fluid intake --stool softeners --sitz baths -- (blank) and (blank)
1. topical anesthetics and vasodilators (e.g. nifedipine and NO)
530
T or F: impaired diastolic filling and let atrial enlargement is seen in athletes heart
False - this is not typical of athletes heart. This is seen in HOCM. --Strength training: concentric LVH (increased LV wall thickness); unchanged diastolic filling and EF --Endurance training: eccentric LHV (increased LV cavity size); increased diastolic filling and stroke volume, unchanged EF
531
1. Transmural inflammation with noncaseating granulomas. Linear mucosal ulcerations. Cobblestoning, creeping fat. 2. Mucosal and submucosal inflammation with no granulomas. Pseudopolyps. what dx is each? -plus complication of each
1. Crohn dx --> fistulae, abscesses, strictures 2. Ulcerative colitis --> toxic megacolon
532
Does pregnancy pathophysiology cause increase or decrease in BP?
1. Decrease - there is increased release of peripheral vasodilators (NO, prostacyclin) and decreased sensitivity to vasoconstrictors resulting in overall decrease in BP by 5-10 mmHg from baseline. *effect is more pronounced between 12-20 weeks gestation w/return to prepregnancy BP levels in 3rd trimester
533
1. Chronic HTN 2. Gestational HTN
1. systolic pressure >=140 and/or diastolic pressure >=90 mmHg prior to conception or at <20 weeks gestation 2. New onset elevated BP at >=20 weeks getation. NO proteinuria
534
Risk factors of sigmoid volvulus?
1. chronic constipation 2. colonic dysmotility
535
Predictors for severe acute pancreatitis include 1. patient factors - age (BLANK) 2. Clinical findings - AMS - SIRS criteria (BLANK, BLANK) 3. Lab findings - (blank) - (blank) 4. Radiologic findings - CXR: (blank) - Abdominal CT scan (blank)
Patient factors: Older age (eg, age >55) Comorbidities, including obesity (BMI >30 kg/m2) Clinical findings: Altered mental status SIRS (eg, leukocytes >12,000/mm3, temperature >38 C [100.4 F]) Laboratory findings of intravascular volume depletion: ↑ BUN (>20 mg/dL) and/or ↑ creatinine (>1.8 mg/dL) ↑ HCT (>44%) Radiologic findings: CXR: pulmonary infiltrates, pleural effusions Abdominal CT scan: severe pancreatic necrosis
536
Fetal growth restriction is estimated fetal weight <10th percentile or a birth weight <3rd percentile. --Fetal adaptation to uteroplacental insufficiency places infants at risk for (5 things)
1. Polycythemia - chronic hypoxia induces increased EPO 2. Hypoglycemia - chronic nutrient deprivation = lower plasma glucose and insulin concn leading to decreased liver and muscle glycogen stores 3. Hypothermia - shunting blood to vital organs causes decrease in subcutaneous fat and increased heat loss 4. Hypocalcemia - placenta dysfunction decreases calcium transfer to fetus 5. Perinatal asphyxia and meconium aspiraiton: small infants have a difficult respiratory transition
537
Gaucher disease (autosomal recessive) 1. (BLANK) deficiency causes (BLANK) accumulation in macrophages 2. Clinical features --> age --> visceral organ involvement --> bone --> growth
1. glucocerebrosidase deficiency 2. at any age --> splenomegaly (severe), hepatomegaly --> bone marrow infiltration: anemia, thrombocytopenia, bone pain --> failure to thrive, delayed puberty
538
What are risk factors for adult hip osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis) (5)
1. femoral head fracture 2. glucocorticoids 3. excessive alcohol use 4. sickle cell disease 5. systemic lupus erythematosus
539
NON-pupil sparing CN III palsies --> caused by (BLANK) --dx: Pupil sparing CN III palsies --> caused by (BLANK) --dx:
1. This is when ptosis (due to paralysis of levator palpebrae superioris) and paralysis of inferior oblique, superior, inferior, and medial recti (all of which are innervated by CN III) can result in a down and out position of eye. --> Pupillary dilation occurs in non-pupil sparing form. --> this is caused by external compression. The somatic (motor) components of CN III run w/in the nerve while parasympathetic nerves run outside of the CN III Fascicle. External compression can affect both. --> dx: MR or CT angiography to evaluate for aneurysm (mass effect) 2. This is caused by microvascular ischemia and often associated with diabetes, HTN, hyperlipidemia, and advanced age. This is ischemia of the inner motor portion so it spares the pupil. --> dx: no other test, just supportive care and tx of underlying condition
540
SNRI is associated with dose dependent (BLANK)
HTN due to increased NE reuptake inhibiton at higher dose ranges - BP should be assessed before starting venlafaxine and regularly monitored
541
Comorbidities in turner syndrome 1. cardiovascular 2. renal 3. MSK 4. vision and hearing 5. autoimmune
1. Aortic coarctation, bicuspid aortic valve --high risk of aortic dilation/dissection in pregnancy --Metabolic syndrome 2. horseshoe kidney 3. Osteoporosis due to lack of ovarian produced estrogen 4. strabismus, myopia --recurrent otitis media, hearing loss 5. Celiac disease --Hypothyroidism
542
When someone has overdosed on both alcohol and benzos how do you differentiate what symptoms come from what drug
1. alcohol - can cause peripheral vasodilation and volume depletion via diuresis that can lead to hypotension --> this is not commonly seen in benzos 2. Benzos cause slurred speech, ataxia, hyporeflexia, and sedation. Does not cause extreme CNS depression and pts solely on this are still arousable
543
What is morphine active metabolite excreted by?
active metabolites such as morphine 6 glucuronide is renally excreted --> someone with impaired kidney function should avoid this and favor instead opioids that don't go through kidney (methadone) or dont have active metabolites (fentanyl)
544
Patient with diffuse atherosclerosis (coronary intervention, carotid intervention) has recurrent flash pulmonary edema despite normal ejection fraction + severe HTN -what is this likely and what test to dx
1. Renal artery stenosis --can result in chronic kidney disease. Urinalysis is typically bland. 2. Renal U/S with doppler
545
Leriche syndrome 1. pathophysiology 2. classic triad
1. atherosclerotic occlusion at the bifurcation of the aorta into the common iliac arteries restricting blood flow through - External iliac artery - claudication of the hip, thigh, and distal lower extremity - Internal iliac artery - creating gluteal claudication - internal pudendal artery - restricting blood flow to the penis and causing ED 2. bilateral hip, thigh, and gluteal claudicaiton -absent or diminished femoral pulses - erectile dysfunction
546
What is best treatment for mild carpal tunnel syndrome
nocturnal wrist splinting, holds the wrist in neutral position and prevents excessive flexion during sleep
547
Distinguishing features that differentiate marfan syndrome and homocystinuria --- both have marfanoid body habitus
1. Marfan - autosomal dominant -normal intellect -aortic root dilation -upward lens dislocation 2. Homocystinuria -autosomal recessive - Intellectual disability - Thrombosis - Downward lens dislocaiton - Megaloblastic anemia - Fair complexion
548
Kartagener syndrome 1. pathophysiology 2. sx
1. primary ciliary dyskinesia. Dysmotile cilia that results from aberrant production or attachment of ciliary dynein arms. Poor clearance of secretions and chronic infecitons. 2. situs inversus, recurrent sinusitis, bronchiectasis
549
Patients at high risk for preeclampsia (e.g. multiple gestations) are prescribed (BLANK) at 12-28 weeks for prophylaxis
1. low dose aspirin (optimally before 16 weeks) -high risk of preeclampsia include Prior preeclampsia Chronic kidney disease Chronic hypertension Diabetes mellitus Multiple gestation Autoimmune disease
550
What is salvage therapy in cancer tx?
Tx for a dx when standard therapy fails -This is different from adjuvant therapy bc adjuvant therapy is given in addition to standard therapy (afterwards)
551
Heel pain differential - what is each? 1. maximal plain on first stepping out of bed. Pain and tenderness at medial plantar heel, worse w/toe dorsiflexion 2. Posterior heel pain. Swelling and tenderness 2-6 cm proximal to tendon insertion. 3. Pain that is worse with activity. Pain reproduced by medial-lateral squeezing of the calcaneus. 4. Pain, paresthesia, and numbness on the sole of the foot. Percussion tenderness over the posterior tibial nerve in the tarsal tunnel what is each?
1. Plantar fasciitis 2. Achilles tendinopathy 3. Calcaneal stress fracture (confirmed by x-ray or MRI) 4. Tarsal tunnel syndrome
552
Takayasu arteritis 1. risk factors 2. sx 3. exam findings 4. dx and tx
1. Female, asian, age 10-40 2. constitutional, arteriocclusive (claudication, ulcers) in upper extremities, arthralgias/myalgias 3. BP discrepencies, pulse deficits, bruits 4. elevated ESR, chest x-ray (aortic dilation, widened mediastinum), CT/MR angio: wall thickening, narrowing of lumen --tx: systemic glucocorticoids
553
Acute fatty liver of pregnancy 1. when does this usually present 2. platelet count levels? 3. pain location?
1. 3rd trimester 2. thrombocytopenia 3. acute right upper quadrant pain (diff from nonalcoholic fatty liver dx which is usually asymptomatic)
554
Bupropion - 1. what are contraindications for this drug and why?
1. Bupropion can lower seizure threshold so it is contraindicated in patients with bulimia nervosa, anorexia nervosa, or epilepsy - on lab work if you see hypokalemia and hypochloremia then these are classic signs of self induced vomiting
555
Minimal change disease - more commonly nephrotic syndrome in childrne 1. pathophysiology 2. clinical features 3. dx
1. T cell mediated injury to podocytes (cytokine induced) --leading to increased molecular permeability to albumin 2. edema, fatigue, abdominal pain 3. Urine: nephrotic-range proteinuria -serum: hypoalbuminemia +/- hyperlipidemia -kidney bx: diffuse effacement of foot processes on EM
556
What does VACTERL stand for
V: Vertebrae (spine) A: Anorectal (anus and rectum) C: Cardiac (heart) - VSD T: Tracheal (windpipe) - tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) w/esophageal atresia E: Esophagus (food pipe) R: Renal (kidneys and urinary tract) L: Limb (arms, hands, legs, and feet) *commonly seen with duodenal atresia (causing complete bowel obstruction and polyhydramnios)
557
Tertiary hyperparathyroidism 1. pathophysiology 2. calcium levels 3. phosphate levels 4. PTH levels
1. Patients with long-standing chronic kidney disease often have hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia, which can lead to chronic parathyroid stimulation.  Over time, this can cause parathyroid hyperplasia and autonomous parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion.  2. hypercalcemia 2. Hyperphosphatemia 3. EXTREMELY HIGH PTH levels
558
What age does meckels diverticulum typically manifest?
older children >6 months and its associated with complications like obstruction, perforation, intussusception
559
What do androgenic steroids do to HPG axis? what about opioids?
1. inhibit GnRH 2. leads to low LH, FSH, testosterone, and sperm counts 1. opioids also suppress GnRH and LH secretion leading to reduced Leydig cell testosterone synthesis, decreased spermatogenesis, and testicular atrophy
560
Absent sperm concentration with normal hormone levels (FSH, LH, testosterone) are consistent with ...
obstructive azoospermia -sperm cannot be ejaculated due to impaired transport. Disorders primarily include abnormalities of the epididymis and vas deferens.
561
What is typical treatment of lung abscess caused by oropharyngeal anaerobic bacteria ?
1. ampicillin-sulbactam, imipenem, meropenem 2. alternate: clindamycin
562
(BLANK) is a chronic inflammatory condition that can present with vulvar pruritus, white vulvar plaques, and loss of normal architecture (loss of labia minora). --> (BLANK) is recommended to confirm dx and rule out vulvar cancer
1. Vulvar lichen sclerosus 2. punch biopsy
563
Does chronic liver disease cause poor wound healing and gingival changes? What else can?
1. NO it does not. 2. Scurvy (vit c deficiency) - occurs in setting of severe malnutrition due to alcohol use disorder, substance, psych dx. --> prominent cutaneous findings (follicular hyperkeratosis, perifollciular hemorrhage, ecchymosis, petechiae) --> gingivitis --> impaired wound healing
564
- Diaphragmatic hernia - rocker bottom feet - clenched hands with overlapping fingers
Trisomy 18 (Edward syndrome)
565
Breast discharge eval -pathologic- 1. age <30 2. age 30-39 3. age >= 40
1. Ultrasound +/- mammogram 2. mammogram +/- ultrasound 3. mammogram + ultrasound if both are negative, can get MRI of breast
566
What are the top 3 causes for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis
1. Nontypeable H influenzae 2. Strep pneumo 3. Moraxellla catarrhalis
567
Subclavian steal syndrome 1. what part is occluded?
Severe stenosis or occlusion in the left subclavian artery before/proximal to the origin of the vertebral artery occurs -when person uses their arm it takes away from the brain and reverses blood flow away from brain and into subclavian artery which leads to dizziness and CNS sx
568
Antiphospholipid syndrome Clinical manifestations: Dx: Positive serology for 1 of 3 Tx:
Clinical manifestations: Fatigue Thrombocytopenia Probable mitral regurgitation (holosystolic murmur heard at cardiac apex) Thrombotic event - DVT or arterial thrombus or pulmonary embolism or ischemic stroke Pregnancy morbidity → fetal loss, severe preeclampsia, placental insufficiency Dx: Positive serology for 1 of 3 Anticardiolipin antibody Anti-beta2-glycoprotein-1 antibody Lupus anticoagulant Lupus anticoagulant effect: PTT prolongation not reversed on plasma mixing studies False positive RPR test is not uncommon (syphilis antigen used in RPR testing contains cardiolipin) Tx: Anticoagulation for life (heparin product or warfarin) With concomitant SLE → hydroxychloroquine is also added
569
Vaccines during pregnancy 1. recommended (3) 2. indicated in high risk patients (6) 3. contraindicated (4)
1. Tdap, inactivated influenza, Rho(D) immunoglobulin (around 28 weeks) 2. Hep B, Hep A, pneumococcus, H influnzae, meningococcus, varicella-zoster immunoglobulin 3. HPV, MMR, Live attenuated influenza, varicella
570
Emergency contraception 1. first line (0-120 hrs after intercourse) 2. 2nd line (0-120 hrs after intercourse) 3. 3rd line (o-120 hrs after intercourse) 4. 4th line (0-72 hrs after intercourse) 5. 5th line (0-72 hrs after intercourse)
1. copper IUD 2. progesterone IUD 3. Ulipristal 4. Oral levonorgestrel (plan B - high dose of progestin which inhibits LH surge, thereby delaying ovulation + cervical mucus thickening and thinning of endometrial lining) 5. Oral contraceptives
571
What fluids should be used for initial fluid resuscitation vs maintenance fluid
1. normal saline 2. D5 normal saline
572
Optic neuritis (inflammation of the optic nerve, which can lead to blurred or dim vision, pain, and swelling in one or both eyes) Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (an eye movement disorder that impacts the ability to look to the side with both eyes at the same time) Brainstem or cerebellar disorder Transverse myelitis ( when a section of the spinal cord is inflamed, causing pain, weakness, sensory problems and dysfunction in the body at the point of the spine and below) what are these suspicious symptoms of?
Multiple sclerosis * 2 separate neuro deficit that cannot be explained by a single lesion * constitutional sx *worsened by heat exposure dx via MRI of brain and spine to find lesions.
573
1. what does finkelstein test determine (what does it look like) 2. what does tinel and phalen test determine (what do they look like)
1. De quervain tenosynovitis (fist with fingers covering thumb and then move fist down - toward ulnar side - if pain by thumb then positive test) 2. Tinel - tap on anterior wrist; phalen - bring back of hands together to collapse wrist area. Both determine carpal tunnel syndrome
574
- benign estrogen sensitive fibroepithelial tumor - usually in adolescent and women <30 - unilaterall, firm, mobile, well circumscribed mass in upper outer quadrant - cyclic changes with menses what is this? management
1. fibroadenoma 2. Observe and repeat exam in adolescents - U/S in adults or patients with persistent mass
575
- what is a mono like initial illness with several weeks of fever, malaise, fatigue, absolute lymphocytosis with >10 % atypical lymphocytes (large basophilic/blue cells with extra/a lot of cytoplasm surrounding nucleus) -Mild elevations in LFTs - Mild pharyngitis, LAD, and splenomegaly
1. CMV - will have negative heterophile monospot test - Positive CMV IgM serology
576
- X linked recessive - Deficiency in hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (causing hypoxanthine and uric acid accumulation) - delayed milestones and hypotonia - Early childhood shows intellectual disability, extrapyramidal symptoms (dystonia, chorea), pyramidal sx (spasticity, hyperreflexia), self mutilation - Gouty arthritis in late untreated dx what is this?
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
577
Mallory weiss tear vs Boerhaave syndrome 1. etiology and pathology 2. Clinical presentation
Mallory-Weiss Tear 1. sudden increase in abd pressure causes mucosal tear in esophagus or stomach (submucosal arterial or venous plexus bleeding) 2. vomiting, retching, hematemesis, epigastric pain. Most heal spontaneously. Boerhaave syndrome 1. severe retching, penetrating trauma, or complication of endoscopy causes esophageal rupture 2. Acute chest pain, subcutaneous emphysema, left sided pleural effusion. Often shortly after procedure if caused by endoscopy
578
*Infections* Pain with hip flexion most likely --> Pain with hip extension most likely -->
1. Hip septic arthritis 2. Psoas abscess
579
a potentially fatal cellulitis of the submandibular space, is caused by bacterial spread from adjacent infection, most commonly dental abscesses
Ludwig angina
580
CA-125 1. What causes elevation in this 2. How does this help categorize simple appearing masses on bimanual exams 3. What should be done if it is elevated?
1. Only should be checked in women with adnexal masses and who are postmenopausal. (in premenopausal women these benign appearing masses can be managed with reassurance) 2. if post menopausal then CA-125 is checked to risk stratify and be able to decide next steps 3. Elevated CA-125 indicates further imaging has to be done to assess extent of disease and guide management *CA-125 is released by cells from the peritoneum and mullerian structures like uterus and fallopian tubes
581
What medications can cause acute angle glaucoma (sudden onset of severe eye pain, N/V, unilateral conjunctival injection, and a dilated pupil with poor light response)
1. anticholinergics - such as trihexyphenidyl which is used for parkinson disease --anticholinergic meds cause mydriasis which can precipitate ACG
582
Hx of swallowing difficulty 1. oropharyngeal dysphagia vs esophageal dysphagia = (explain) --> if oropharyngeal dysphagia get (BLANK) --> if esophageal dysphagia determine if motility disorder or mechanical obstruction (how do you differentiate each) --> for esophageal dysphagia get (BLANK) --> for mechanical obstruction get (BLANK)
1. oropharyngeal dysphagia - difficulty initiating swallow, cough, choking, nasal regurgitation esophageal dysphagia-difficulty w/food passing through esophagus. Food gets "stuck" feeling 2. videofluoroscopic modified barium swallow 3. Motility disorder = dysphagia with solids and liquids at onset --mechanical obstruction - dysphagia to solids with progression to liquids 4. --> for esophageal dysphagia get barium swallow followed by manometry w/endoscopy --> for mechanical obstruction get upper GI endoscopy (+/- barium swallow before hand)
583
Ovarian masses 1. heterogeneous composition and variable density. On U/S is seen as partially calcified mass (e.g. teeth) with multiple thin, echogenic bands (e.g. hair) 2. encapsulated collections of old blood - appear as homogenous cystic masses 3. simple, small, thin walled cysts +/- free fluid. Usually asymptomatic. Ovulation may cause unilateral pelvic pain mid-cycle 4. complex mass with solid components but typically not calcified or hyperechoic 5. large, bilateral cystic masses. Arise from markedly elevated beta hcg
1. cystic teratoma 2. endometrioma 3. follicular cysts 4. serous ovarian cancers 5. theca lutein cysts
584
Patients with neutropenic fever are at risk for an overwhelming bacterial infection - monotherapy with a broad spectrum gram negative agent that provides antipseudomal coverage (BLANK) should be started as soon as possible. Gram positive coverage is added as needed
Pip-tazo, cefepime
585
(pathophysiology) located behind the eyes and beneath the brain --usually blocks blood flow from the brain, which can damage the brain, eyes, and nerves, and increase pressure in the sinuses. -Can be caused by a bacterial infection that spreads from the sinuses, teeth, ears, eyes, nose, or skin of the face, or by traumatic injury or surgery.
Cavernous sinus thrombosis (CST)
586
CLASSIC TRIAD - dx seen in newborns 1. chorioretinitis - inflammation and scarring of the retina and choroid 2. diffuse intracranial calcifications 3. Hydrocephalus +seizures, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, rash, growth restriction what is this? dx? tx?
Congenital toxoplasmosis 1. toxoplasma serology or PCR 2. Pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, folinic acid
587
- Hyperkinetic movements (chorea, dystonia) - sensorineural hearing loss - gaze abnormalities (e.g. eyes are crossed) --> This is (BLANK) which is due to extreme unconjugated bilirubinemia
Bilirubin induced neurologic dysfunction/Kernicterus --> Unbound bilirubin crosses the BBB Other sx Acute encephalopathy ( ± Reversible (treatment: phototherapy, exchange transfusion)): Lethargy or inconsolability Hypotonia (early) or hypertonia (late) Apnea/respiratory failure, feeding difficulties, seizures Chronic encephalopathy (Irreversible) Developmental delay Sensorineural hearing loss Choreoathetoid movements Upward gaze palsy
588
Rett syndrome is caused by (BLANK) gene mutation -affects girls and begins after 6 months- sx?
MECP2 gene 1. speech regression 2. abnormal gait 3. loss of purposeful hand movements (e.g. repetitive hand wringing) - Microcephaly, seizures, breathing abnormalities, sleep disturbance, autistic features
589
- benign sex cord-stromal tumors that typically occur in postmenopausal women - secrete estrogen and cause abnormal uterine/postmenopausal bleeding - do not cause virilization
Ovarian thecoma
590
Occurs after an unsterile and/or incomplete procedure for elective abortion. --fever, heavy vaginal bleeding, purulent discharge and uterine tenderness what is this and what is tx?
Septic abortion - medical emergency that requires prompt tx with broad spectrum antibiotics and surgical evacuation of the uterus (e.g. suction curettage)
591
Migraines 1. abortive therapies (5) 2. preventatives (4)
1. simple analgesics (e.g. NSAIDs, acetaminophen) - antiemetics (metoclopramide, prochlorperazine) - Triptans - Ergotamine, dihydroergotamien - CGRP receptor antagonists (rimegepant) 2. Antiepiileptics (e.g. topiramate, divalproex sodium) - TCAs - BB (propranolol) - CGRP monoclonal Ab (e.g. erenumab) * During pregnancy first line preventative is BB (propranolol, metoprolol), after first line then can consider CCB too (verapamil)
592
Hypothyroidism and hyperprolactinemia can cause central hypogonadism --> what tx should be started to return to normal function?
levothyroxine therapy normalizes reproductive function. *Hypothyroidism causes menstrual irregularities bc low TH causes decreased responsiveness of the pituitary to GnRH --> causing decreased FSH, LH --> no estrogen for ovulation --- >Thyrotropin releasing hormone is upregulated in hypothyroidism which stimulates TSH and prolactin production (hyperprolactinemia) from anterior pituitary
593
Early vs late neurosyphilis manifestations
1. Early - meningitis - ocular: uveitis and optic neuritis - Otologic: hearing loss and tinnitus - Meningovascular: meningitis + ischemic stroke 2. Late - General paresis: progressive dementia - Tabes dorsalis: sensory ataxia and lacinating pains
594
- Not neural axon length dependent. Can cause both proximal and distal muscle weakness - Sx develop >8 weeks - Motor >> sensory sx - Involves peripheral nerves so will show LMN signs pathophysiology: immune mediated demyelination of peripheral nerves and nerve roots what is this?
Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy - tx: glucocorticoids, IV immunoglobulin, plasmapheresis
595
Patients with preeclampsia typically have generalized arterial vasospasm leading to increases systemic vascular resistance and high afterload. --> in response the heart becomes hyperdynamic and this increases pulmonary (BLANK) which causes (BLANK)
1. capillary pressure - which drives fluid from the capillaries into interstitium causing pulmonary edema --> increased permeability promotes decreased serum albumin levels and decreased capillary oncotic pressure --> causing third spacing --> normal diuresis is impeded due to decreased renal function
596
Benign appearing endometrial cells on pap testing are normal in (BLANK) Benign appearing endometrial cells on pap testing are abnormal and require additional evaluation (endometrial bx) in (BLANK)
1. premenopausal women particularly within the first 10 days of the menstrual cycle 2. post menopausal women **all polyps in postmenopausal pts require histologic evaluation
596
1. enlarged uterus and abnormal uterine bleeding after pregnancy. Affects women of childbearing age. Secretes high levels of hCG. Metastasis can occur often to lungs and vagina. 2. rare but aggressive malignancy. Presents as a uterine mass that causes bulk symtpoms (pelvic pressure, constipation) and abnormal postmenopausal bleeding. --> often indistinguishable from benign leiomyomata (ie, uterine fibroids); however, it should be suspected in postmenopausal women who have taken tamoxifen or have other risk factors (eg, pelvic radiation).
1. choriocarcinoma (ie. gestational trophoblastic neoplasia) - --> vaginal mets include bloody or purulent vaginal discharge. 2. uterine sarcoma
597
IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schonlein Purpura) 1. pathogenesis 2. clinical manifestations 3. tx
1. perivenular leukocytoclastic (neutrophils and monocytes) vascultitis. Deposition of IgA, C3, and fibrin in small vessels 2. palpable purpura/petechiae on lower extremities (often butt) - arthritis/arthrlagia -abd pain/intussusception -renal disease (similar to IgA nephropathy) 3. supportive care, systemic glucocorticoids for severe symptoms
598
Why does hyperthyroidism appear with hydatidiform mole?
1. hCG and TSH have similar structure so elevated in hCG can mimic TSH and cause increase in thyroid hormones
599
Medulloblastoma 1. population 2. location 3. sx 4. tx
1. most common MALIGNANT pediatric brain tumor 2. posterior fossa tumor - originates in cerebellum and often compresses 4th ventricle 3. Cerebellar dysfunction, Obstructive hydrocephalus which increases ICP (headache, vomiting, papilledema, abducens nerve palsy) - CN VI nerve has long intracranial course which makes it particularly vulnerable to compression 4. resection, craniospinal radiation, chemo
600
Granulosa cell tumors Brennor tumor Embryonal carcinoma Yolk sac tumors
Granulosa cell tumors Malignant sex cord-stromal tumors of the ovary that secrete estradiol Large ovarian mass and postmenopausal bleeding due to unopposed estrogen Brennor tumor Epithelial ovarian tumor that is typically found incidentally in asymptomatic patients Embryonal carcinoma Type of ovarian germ cell tumor that occurs in young women Secrete alpha fetoprotein and hCG Yolk sac tumors Germ cell tumor that are more common in young women Secrete alpha fetoprotein Grow rapidly so patients have acute onset of pelvic pain
601
present with right upper quadrant pain elevated aminotransferases, and IUFD fulminant liver failure (eg, scleral icterus, encephalopathy), leukocytosis, and platelet count ≤100,000/mm3.
Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
602
Galactosemia (autosomal recessive) Pathophysiology: Sx: Labs: Tx: galactose free diet
Pathophysiology: GALT deficiency causes galactose accumulation after lactose or galactose ingestion Sx: Jaundice and hepatomegaly. Vomiting, poor feeding/failure to thrive, cataracts, increased risk for E. coli sepsis. Possibly seizures due to low glucose Labs: increased bilirubin, AST, ALT. Decreased glucose. + urine reducing substances.
603
TMP-SMX is avoided in the third trimester because of
risk for neonatal kernicterus
604
Bronchiolitis obliterans Major manifestation of chronic lung transplant rejection and is common in transplant recipients (BLANK) years post transplant Pathophysiology:
>5 years post transplant Chronic lymphocytic inflammation of the small airway submucosa which eventually leads to ingrowth of fibromyxoid tissue into the airway lumen. Some small airways become obstructed trapping air distally causing obstructive pattern.
605
Chiari I malformation Chiari II malformation - describe each and their associations
Chiari I malformation Inferior displacement of cerebellar tonsils Syringomyelia is commonly associated with this Chiari II malformation Herniation of the cerebellar tonsils and vermis as well as inferior displacement of medulla Associated with myelomeningocele
606
How do you differentiate between brachial plexus injury (shoulder injury) from C5-6 nerve root radiculopathy (such as cervical radiculopathy from cervical spondylosis)
Brachial plexus injury Significant pain with passive or active motion of the arm Most occur during high impact trauma Pain and muscles weakness C5-6/cervical radiculopathy nerve root radiculopathy Weakness in myotome Sensory loss in a dermatome
607
First line pharmacotherapies for alcohol use disorder (2) First line therapies for smoking cessation (2)
First line pharmacotherapy for alcohol use disorder - Naltrexone (long acting opioid receptor antagonist) - it can be initiated in opioid free patients w/out significant liver dx - Acamprosate is option for those using opioids - Disulfiram and gabapentin First line therapies for smoking cessation - Bupropion - Varenicline
608
Suspected appendicitis - what diagnostic imaging should be done?
If pregnant → U/S +/- MRI Not pregnant → Abdominopelvic CT scan
609
Acute stress disorder vs PTSD
Acute stress disorder: sx must last >= 3 days and <= 1 month following trauma exposure PTSD: sx persist for >1 month
610
Clozapine side effects
Greatest risk of causing seizures in 2nd generation antipsychotics Neutropenia/agranulocytosis Seizures Myocarditis
611
contraindications to breastfeeding that include
active untreated tuberculosis varicella infection herpetic breast lesions current chemotherapy active substance use (eg, cocaine, phencyclidine).
612
Otitis externa Pathophysiology: Pathogens: Clinical sx: otalgia, pruritus, discharge, hearing loss, pain with auricle manipulation, ear canal erythema, edema, debris. TM spared. Tx:
1. Caused by water exposure, trauma, foreign material, dermatologic conditions 2. Pseudomonas or staph aureus 3. Topic antibiotic (e.g. floroquinolone) +/- topical glucocorticoid
613
Severe pain with swallowing No dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) No thrush
Viral esophagitis - common in patients with HIV (especially CD4 <100) Viruses involved include HSV (circular or ovoid vesicular and ulcerated lesions) and CMV (large, linear distal esophageal ulcers)
614
Tourette syndrome Tx includes: (2)
Tx includes: 1. Antidopaminergic drugs (VMAT 2 inhibitors work as dopamine depleters) 2. Alpha 2 adrenergic receptor agonists (guanfacine, clonidine - can be considered in patients with comorbid ADHD or behavioral sx)
615
Rotator cuff impingement or tendinopathy 1. pain with (BLANK) and (BLANK) rotation 2. subacromial tenderness 4. Normal range of motion with positive (BLANK) tests
1. abduction and external rotation (like rotator cuff tear) 2. - 3. impingement tests like Neer (point thumb down and move arm in flexion) and Hawkins (have forearm in front of chest w/palm facing down. Then move hand downward while stabilizing elbow) - both are positive if there is pain with these movements. Indicate impingement
616
What is prophylaxis for Neisseria meningitidis?
1. rifampin 2. ceftriaxone 3. ciprofloxacin (adults only) *ppx should be given to asymptomatic close contacts regardless of vax status
617
SHiN organisms are encapsulated organisms that can cause sepsis in patients with SCD but which one is more common and why?
1. strep pneumoniae - the other two are rare in vaccinated patients
618
What is each of these? 1. Grey/milky/off white discharge. Fishy odor. Positive amine test (whiff test) - Clue cells and elevated pH (>4.5) 2. Yellow/green frothy discharge. Foul smell. Flagellated protozoa and elevated pH (>4.5) 3. Thick white curd like discharge, normal pH, pseudohyphae
1. Bacterial vaginosis (gardnerella vaginalis, coccobacilli) --> if asymptomatic then do not require tx. Tx is avoided bc it may resolve spontaneously and tx can lead to sx vaginal candidiasis. 2. Trichomonas vaginalis 3. Candida albicans
619
- purulent monoarthritis OR - Triad of tenosynovitis, dermatitis (pustular lesions), migratory polyarthralgia what is this?
disseminated gonococcal infection
620
(BLANK) and (BLANK) are most common causes of acute, unilateral cervical lymphadenitis in children
1. staph aureus 2. strep pyogenes
621
Primary amenorrhea eval 1. Uterus is present 2. check FSH levels a. if FSH is low what is next step? (BLANK A) b. if FSH is normal what is likely dx (BLANK B) c. if FSH is high what is next step? (BLANK C)
A. TSH and prolactin. Cause of amenorrhea can be hypothyroidism, prolactinoma. Or if levels are normal then functional hypothalamic amenorrhea. B. imperforate hymen C. Karyotype to determine if Turner syndrome (45, XO) and if not then likely primary ovarian insufficiency (common in women with FMR1 gene mutation)
622
In addition to the presence of dementia, a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies requires the presence of ≥2 of the following clinical features: (4)
1. parkinsonism 2. Fluctuating cognition 3. visual hallucinations 4. rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder.
623
Clinical features of Alzheimer disease Early findings 1. (BLANK) memory loss 2. Visuospatial deficits 3. (BLANK) difficulties 4. Cognitive impairment with progressive decline Late findings 1. (BLANK) 2. (BLANK) (eg, difficulty performing learned motor tasks) 3. Lack of insight regarding deficits 4. Noncognitive neurologic deficits (eg, pyramidal & extrapyramidal motor, myoclonus, seizures) 5. Urinary incontinence
Clinical features of Alzheimer disease Early findings 1.Anterograde memory loss (ie, immediate recall affected, distant memories preserved) 2.Visuospatial deficits (eg, lost in own neighborhood) 3.Language difficulties (eg, difficulty finding words) 4.Cognitive impairment with progressive decline Late findings 1. Neuropsychiatric (eg, hallucinations, wandering) 2. Dyspraxia (eg, difficulty performing learned motor tasks) 3. Lack of insight regarding deficits 4. Noncognitive neurologic deficits (eg, pyramidal & extrapyramidal motor, myoclonus, seizures) 5. Urinary incontinence
624
Spinal epidural hematoma - potential complication of neuraxial anesthesia (epidural block), lumbar puncture, or spinal surgery 1. more common in patients taking... 2. Sx: 3. management:
1. antithrombotic meds 2. Bleeding within the spinal canal results in progressive motor and sensory dysfunction in the distribution of the affected nerve root. --bowel and bladder dysfunction - localized back pain and point tenderness - bleeding source is typically venous which is why sx are usually slowly progressive 3. urgent MRI of spine --surgical emergency and requires urgent decompression (e.g. laminectomy)
625
Is uterine cavity distortion a contraindication to IUD?
yes
626
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 1. pathophysiology, what part of CNS is affected 2. sx
1. neurodegenerative disease. UMN and LMN are affected. Degeneration of cells in the anterior horn of the spinal cord. 2. Asymmetric weakness with upper and lower motor neuron signs. -
627
Initial management of ischemic stroke 1. If <4.5 hr give thrombolysis --> (BLANK) 2. If >= 4.5-24 hours not eligible for thrombolysis --> (BLANK) 3. If >= 24 hr not eligible for thrombolysis --> (BLANK) -->For 1-3, the ones that go on to get CTA of head and neck a. if large vessel occlusion is noted --> (BLANK) b. if large vessel occlusion is absent --> (BLANK)
Initial management of ischemic stroke 1. If <4.5 hr give thrombolysis --> CTA of head and neck 2. If >= 4.5-24 hours not eligible for thrombolysis --> CTA of head and neck 3. If >= 24 hr not eligible for thrombolysis --> standard postischemic stroke management (e.g. antiplatelet therapy, investigate for embolic source) -->For 1-3, the ones that go on to get CTA of head and neck a. if large vessel occlusion is noted --> mechanical thrombectomy b. if large vessel occlusion is absent --> standard postischemic stroke management (e.g. antiplatelet therapy, investigate for embolic source)
628
What is typically the first sign of puberty in most girls? -at what age?
1. thelarche (breast development) 2. around 10 but as early as 8 years old --breast buds - enlargement of areola, elevation of the papilla, and growth of a small mound of breast tissue. Firm, retroareolar mass that may be slightly tender. It is normal for breast bud to be unilateral in early stages.
629
Breast masses 1. Results from trauma and presents as firm, irregular, nontender mass 2. subcutaneous, painless, soft tissue mass that occurs in women
1. fat necrosis 2. lipoma
630
MRI showing bilateral hyperintensity of the globus pallidus is highly sensitive to (BLANK)
Hypoxic conditions like CO poisoning
631
What is the DUMBBELLS mnenomic for? 1. what medication is often used to counteract this pathology?
CHOLINERGIC toxicity 1. atropine (reverses muscarinic sx) --> pralidoxime reverses nicotinic and muscuarinic sx (administer after atropine)
632
Explain how these changes happen w/thiazide diuretics 1. Hyponatremia 2. Hypokalemia 3. Hypercalcemia 4. Hyperglycemia 5. Hypercholesterolemia 6. Hyperuricemia
1. Inhibition of Na/Cl cotransporter in distal convoluted tubule 2. compensatory rise in renin & aldosterone leads to K release 3. Increased Ca reabsorption in distal tubule 4. Decreased insulin secretion and increased insulin resistance 5. same as above 6. Increased uremia reabsorption in proximal tubule
633
Treatment resistant schizophrenia and/or schizophrenia associated with suicidality ---> what is best tx for this?
--> clozapine
634
Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction is a rare but potentially fatal condition due to transfusion of mismatched blood (eg, ABO incompatibility).  - sx: - dx:
1. Patients can develop fever, hypotension, flank pain, hemoglobinuria, and disseminated intravascular coagulation within minutes to hours of transfusion.  2. Diagnosis is with a positive direct Coombs test.
635
Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome 1. when does this present 2. pathogenesis? 3. Xray findings
1. immediately after birth, in premature babies 2. surfactant deficiency causing increases alveolar surface tension and diffuse atelectasis 3. ground glass opacities, air bronchograms, decreased lung volumes
636
Meconium aspiration syndrome 1. pathogenesis 2. xray findings
1. bronchiolar obstruction and inflammation due to particulate matter (ie. meconium) 2. hyperinflated lungs and streaky, linear densities
637
Impaired clearance of alveolar fluid causes respiratory distress within hours of birth and causes transient tachypnea of newborn --Chest x ray shows
- fluid in interlobar fissures - severe hypoxia requiring invasive respiratory suppor
638
Acute stress disorder vs adjustment disorder
1. Acute stress disorder -- exposure to life threatening traumatic event. Reexperiencing events (intrusive memories, flashbacks), avoidance, negative mood, dissociation, and hyperarousal lasting 3 days - 1 month 2. mood and behavioral symptom onset within 3 months of identifiable stressor. Marked distress and/or functional impairment.
639
Skin conditions and associated dx 1. multiple skin tags
1. insulin resistance 2. pregnancy 3. crohn disease
640
Skin conditions and associated dx 1. porphyria cutanea tarda 2. cutaneous leukocytoclastic vasculitis (palpable pupura) secondary to cyroglobulinemia 3. lichen planus
1. hep c
641
Skin conditions and associated dx 1. dermatitis herpetiformis
celiac disease
642
Skin conditions and associated dx 1. sudden onset severe psoriasis 2. recurrent herpes zoster 3. disseminated molluscum contagiosum
1. HIV infection
643
Skin conditions and associated dx 1. severe seborrheic dermatitis
1. HIV infection 2. Parkinson disease
644
Skin conditions and associated dx 1. explosive onset multiple, itchy seborrheic keratoses
GI malignancy
645
Skin conditions and associated dx 1. Pyoderma gangrenosum
1. inflammatory bowel disease
646
Lymphaganitis 1. pathophysiology 2. pathogen that causes this 3. manifestations 4. tx
1. pathogen invasion of lymphatics in deep dermis 2. strep pyogenes & MSSA 3. tender, erythematous streaks proximal to wound, regional tender LAD, systemic sx 4. cephalexin
647
Pathophysiology of cardiac dysfunction in kawasaki disease?
1. systemic inflammation leading to infiltration of lymphocytes and macrophages into cardiac tissue and vasculature leading complications like a. coronary artery aneurysm b. ventricular dysfunction c. pericardial effusion
648
Antibiotics for surgical site infection prevention 1. Clean (uninfected, uninflammed, the viscus is not entered) a. 1st line b. alternatives 2. Clean contaminated (Viscus is entered under controlled conditions) a. typical contaminants b. antibiotics based on surgical site, broader coverage often indicated
1a. cefazolin 1b: vancomycin, clindamycin --> skin flora are typical contaminants 2a. skin flora (strep, staph, coagulase neg staph), gram neg bacilli, enterococci, endogenous flora of the viscus
649
Posttransplantation lymphoproliferative disorder 1. pathogenesis 2. sx 3 labs
1. Immunosuppression following solid-organ or stem cell transplantation → suppressed cytotoxic T-cell immunosurveillance → unchecked viral replication → immortalized lymphocytes or plasma cells (EBV is an oncogenic virus bc it makes proteins that lead to B cell proliferation and B cell immortalization) Epstein-Barr virus causes >95% of cases, but other human herpesviruses (eg, HHV8) can also trigger the disease 2. fever, LAD, hepatosplenomegaly, leukopenia, masses in nonlymphatic tissue 3. high viral titers, bx evidence of lymphoid or plasma cell proliferation
650
Gram stain and shape 1. clostridium perfringens 2. corynebacterium 3. Enterococcus faecalis 4. Listeria 5. staph aureus 6. GBS
1. gram positive rods 2. gram positive rods 3. gram positive coccus that organizes into pairs and chains 4. gram positive rod 5. gram positive cocci in clusters 6. gram positive coccus that organizes into pairs and chains
651
Miliary TB is caused by (BLANK) spread of mycobacterium tuberculosis -- rare but serious complication of primary TB infection in hosts with poor T cell function such as infants and immunocompromised persons --can disseminate through the body including (BLANK) --The ineffective T cell response in these patients means that (BLANK) is often falsely negative
1. lymphohematogenous 2. LN, liver, spleen, bones and marrow, and CNS 3. interferon based testing
652
Acute splenic sequestration --> abdominal pain, palpable splenomegaly, hypotensive shock and signs of anemia --> acute drop in Hgb, reticulocytosis, thrombocytopenia 1. what are the steps in treatment?
1. IV fluids 2. Packed RBC transfusion to help restore circulatory volume and correct the anemia (administer cautiously, half of normal volume) 3. If recurrence rate of splenic sequestration is high then this may warrant splenectomy but this is not done in acute setting
653
acute acetaminophen overdose 1. <4 hr --> 2. 4-24 hours --> -when do you consider empiric NAC (N-acetylcysteine) *once acetaminophen level available...(BLANK)
1. administer activated charcoal then do #2 2. check acetaminophen level >=4 hr post ingesttion --consider empiric NAC for a. any evidence of liver injury b. >= 8 hrs since ingestion or level not avail c. >=8 hrs post ingestion *once acetaminophen level available the nplot on Rumack-Matthew nomogram and administer NAC if level is above tx line
654
a form of allergic conjunctivitis in which redness, pruritus, and tearing are common, but patients have chronic (not acute) symptoms, often with photophobia and a foreign body sensation.  Moreover, signs of chronic eyelid inflammation (eg, thickened, lichenified skin) are typical.
Atopic keratoconjunctivitis
655
Acute conjunctivitis - what is each? 1. unilateral/bilateral watery/mucoid discharge. Diffuse injection/follicular (bumpy/granular feeling) conjunctival appearance. 1-2 weeks tx? 2. unilateral/bilateral purulent discharge. Diffuse injection/non follicular conjunctivitis. Unremitting discharge/reaccumulates in minutes. 1-2 weeks. tx? 3. bilateral watery discharge. Diffuse injection/follicular (bumpy/granular feeling) conjunctival appearance. Ocular pruritus. Lasts <30 minutes tx?
1. viral - also with viral prodrome, can have itchiness, can have mild crusting --> none 2. bacterial --> gentamicin 3. allergic --> olopatadine (mast cell stabilizer), hydrocortisone
656
1. Huntington is associated with degeneration of (BLANK) producing neurons in caudate nucleus and putamen 2. Parkinson is associated with loss of (BLANK) producing neurons in substantia nigra
1. GABA producing neurons (inhibitory) 2. Dopamine producing
657
1. inherited, commonly x linked. Mutation type IV collagen. 2. nephropathy (hematuria, progressive renal insufficiency, proteinuria, HTN) ---b/l sensorineural hearing loss ---anterior lenticonus (lens protrusion) what is this ? dx?
Alport syndrome 1. genetic testing --renal biopsy: longitudinal splitting of GBM
658
-Mesangial IgA deposition in mesangium usually within days of URI -URI can trigger production of pathogenic IgA -Complement is normal bc of weak complement fixing activity of IgA -Often benign disease with no chronic kidney injury -Hematuria with RBC casts -Nephritic syndrome -Flank pain, low grade fever, and HTN may be present what is this? dx?
IgA nephropathy Dx -Typically clinical but can be confirmed with kidney biopsy -Urinalysis: positive protein, RBCs, RBC casts Serum -Normal C3 and C4 -Increased creatinine
659
-- Mesangial and glomerular capillary deposition of C3 and IgG.  --Patients typically have edema, hematuria, and hypertension.  --symptoms usually develop 1-3 weeks after sickness what is it?
poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis *symptoms usually develop 1-3 weeks after streptococcal pharyngitis or impetigo, and the C3 level is decreased (not seen in this patient).
660
--a progressive glomerulonephritis accompanied by pulmonary disease (ie, alveolar hemorrhage) -- biopsy reveals linear IgG deposition in the GBM. 
Goodpasture syndrome.
661
pediatric traumatic brain injury 1. high risk features for age <2 --AMS, LOC, severe mechanism of injury (fall > (BLANK) ft, high impact, MVC) - Nonfrontal scalp hematoma - palpable skull fracture 2. high risk features for age >=2-18 --AMS, LOC, severe mechanism of injury (fall > (BLANK) ft, high impact, MVC) -vomiting, severe headache - basilar skull fracture signs (ex BLANK) manage with?
1. 3 ft 2. 5 ft 3. CSF rhinorrhea - manage with head CT w/out contrast
662
Measurement of (BLANK) concentration can confirm appropriate dosing of levothyroxine
serum free thyroxine (FT4)
663
What does prednisone do to 1. wound healing 2. lipid metabolism 3. other changes
1. delayed wound healing 2. impaired lipid metabolism 3. insulin resistance 4. osteoporosis 5. weight gain 6. HTN 7. adrenal suppression --exerts anti-inflammatory properties by inhibiting the production and function of T lymphocytes
664
Sulfasalazine used for crohn diseae adverse effects?
1. drug induced neutropenia other drugs that do this: TMP-SMX, antithyroid drugs (methimazole), clozapine
665
Initial pharmacotherapy for heart failure with reduced EF (3)
1. BB 2. RAAS inhibitor (ACEi/ARB) 3. Diuretic
666
Wolf-parkinson white -ekg findings
1. shortened PR interval with delta wave (slurred upstroke of the QRS complex)
667
What is likelihood ratio equation
LR = true positive/false positive
668
1. How do ACEi affect kidney function in unilateral vs bilateral renal stenosis?
ACEi - inhibit function of angiotensin II which is constricting the efferent arterioles to increase GFR and filtration pressure, especially when renal perfusion is low 1. Unilateral + ACEi: one kidney is getting underperfused so will activate RAAS system but ACEi will prevent this. This decreases GFR in singular stenosed kidney but other healthy kidney will compensate and increase its filtration. 2. Bilateral + ACEi: both kidneys are underperfused so RAAS system activates. ACEi prevents this and so both kidneys experience decreased GFR and thus acute kidney injury
669
Polycythemia vera - gene mutation - pathophysiology - lab/cell line changes - sx - tx
1. JAK2 mutation 2. increased production of erythrocytes (but also eosinophils and platelets) 3. leukocytosis, thrombocytosis, increased erythrocyte mass and hematocrit (which causes hyperviscosity syndrome) 4. Pruritus, burning pain in digits w/red-blue discoloration, splenomegaly, congestion of vessels seen as plethora 5. tx with therapeutic phlebotomy
670
Tx for patients presenting with severe hyponatremia + sx like confusion, stroke like sx, or seizures --> first line tx?
IV administration of 3% saline Safe rate of correction rate < 12 mEq/L in 24 hrs or < 19 mEq/L in 48 hrs --when serum Na is <120 then correction should not exceed 8 mEq/L in 24 hrs
671
-acute onset of pruritic rash followed by development of innumerous smaller macules and patches - patches are ovoid and scaly with a rim of scale around the leading edge -May occur following a viral illness and has been associated with HHV 6 or 7 what is this? tx?
1. pityriasis rosea 2. observation, resolve in 6-8 weeks without treatment *lesions are longitudinal axis and lined up with the relaxed skin tension lines on the trunk
672
The most frequent underlying histopathology of vulvar carcinoma is (BLANK)
1. squamous cell carcinoma --incidence is greatest between 55-85 --presents with a vulvar nodule, papule, or plaque. Rare occasions can be seen as verrucous carcinoma with a large cauliflower like growth
673
What is first line tx of epiglottitis?
- emergent endotracheal intubation. Should be done in operating room under direct visualization with a laryngoscope
674
duration of action of hydromorphone?
2-3 hrs
675
- X linked recessive defect in CD40 ligand on T helper cells, a ligand that interacts with B lymphocytes to induce class switching of immunoglobulins - present with severe pyogenic infections as well as infections with opportunistic organisms - B and T cell populations normal what is this?
Hyper-IgM syndrome
676
what is agranulocytosis? tx?
1. Neutrophil counts of less than 100/mm3 (neutropenia is absolute neutrophil count of less than 1500/mm3) tx: withdrawal of implicated medication, tx of any underlying infection and administration of granulocyte colony stimulating factor
677
What is the most common causative pathogen of bacterial meningitis outside of the newborn period (first 4 weeks)?
strep pneumoniae (gram positive lancet shaped coccus) --> In infants --> bulging of anterior fontanelle, petechiae may be present, leukocytosis, etc
678
What tests should be done in a pregnant female who has had or was exposed to parvovirus B19 infection in 2nd and 3rd trimester?
1. Determine whether she has been infected through measurement of serum specific IgG and IgM concentrations
679
- sudden onset jaw pain, headache, neurologic deficits that begin while exercising or manipulation or trauma - Pts in 4th-5th decade of life, underlying connective tissue - Ipsilateral head, neck, or face pain - Horner syndrome, cranial neuropathies, sx consistent with ischemia to anterior or middle cerebral artery distribution what is this? dx? tx?
1. carotid artery dissection 2. CT or MR angiography 3. antiplatelet agents, alteplase, mechanical thrombectomy, and/or endovascular stenting
680
Decrescendo diastolic murmur at the 3rd intercostal space on the right --> Soft and single S2 with inspiration w/ late peaking crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at RUSB. radiates to carotids; S4 may be present (concentric LVH) Diminished and delayed pulses (pulsus parvus et tardus) Opening snap with mid diastolic rumble at cardiac apex Holosystolic murmur best heard at cardiac apex, radiates to axilla midsystolic click that varies in timing w/changes in left ventricular blood volume midsystolic with wide and fixed splitting of S2
aortic insufficiency (aortic valve regurgitation) --> on left side indicates valve dx, on right indicates root disease Aortic Stenosis Mitral stenosis Mitral regurgitation Mitral valve prolapse Atrial septal defect
681
Zenker (pharyngoesophageal) diverticulum 1. occurs bc of an... 2. sx 3. dx
1. uncoordinated swallowing mechanism which results in muscle spasms of the cricopharyngeus 2. asymptomatic or initially dysphagia. Halitosis, regurgitation of UNDIGESTED food or pills. Appearance of neck mass 3. barium swallow
682
1. CMV prophylaxis for patients with HIV and CD4 count < (BLANK) 2. Mycobacterium avium complex prophylaxis with azithromycin is indicated when CD4 count < (BLANK) 3. PCP prophylaxis with TMP-SMX when CD4 count < (BLANK) 4. Toxoplasma gondii prophylaxis with TMP-SMX when CD4 count < (BLANK)
1. 50 2. 50 3. 200 4. 100
683
what are these parts of the bone 1. epiphysis 2. physis 3. metaphysis 4. diaphysis
1. ends of bone 2. line indicated growth plate and in between 1 and 3 3. neck portion 4. middle of bone
684
Major structures adjacent to distal humerus include 1. (BLANK) nerve posteriorly near the medial epicondyle 2. (BLANK) artery and (BLANK) nerve in the midline atneriorly 3. (BLANK) nerve anterior to the lateral epicondyle
1. ulnar 2. brachial artery, median nerve 3. radial *brachial artery bifurcates into the radial and ulnar arteries just distal to elbow joint
685
Difference between thoracentesis vs chest thoracostomy tube in setting of hemothorax
1. thoracentesis works as more of a diagnostic and small volume 2. able to get rid of large volume and can be left in place to trend and monitor ongoing bleeding
686
- recurrent UTI, pelvic or lower abdominal pain, dysuria or painful ejaculation -urinary frequency, urgency, or difficulty voiding - Bloody or discolored ejaculate - decreased libido or erectile dysfunction - Risk factors: multiple sexual partners, unprotected anal sex, concomitant STI what is this? dx?
1. bacterial prostatitis (chronic does not show fever) 2. two glass test - urine sample is collected before and after prostatic massage to localize the infection to the prostate
687
- infection of the trachea commonly by strep pneumo, H influenzae, staph aureus - difficulty breathing, cough, hoarseness - severe cough, intercostal retractions, inspiratory stridor + clear lung sounds, fever - Chest x ray - peribronchial cuffing and tracheal air column with irregular borders (shaggy) what is this?
Bacterial tracheitis
688
What would indicate placing a percutaneous nephrostomy tube?
a temporary measure to prevent progression of kidney failure prior to definitive management of the vesicuoureteral reflux or ureteral obstruction
689
When is d-dimer vs spiral CT scan of chest used when considering PE
1. d-dimer is when there is low suspicion for DVT or PE 2. when there is high risk (according to wells score) that PE has occured
690
right ventricular infarction (V4-V6) --> often present with cardiogenic shock and are (BLANK) dependent so should be tx with (BLANK) as part of initial stabilization
1. preload dependent 2. IV crystalloids (e.g. saline) --also get antiplatelet agents (aspirin, clopidogrel), anticoagulants (e.g. heparin), pain meds, coronary revascularization
691
the most common cause of low back pain is (BLANK) -pain that worsens with flexion, on valsalva maneuver, coughing, or sneezing. + more - what is first step in imaging/diagnosis?
Degenerative disc disease --the nutrient gradient from the cartilaginous endplates decreases with aging along wit ha declining water content of nucleus pulposus resulting in loss of disc height x-ray series of lumbar spine to evaluate degenerative changes --often tx with NSAIDs, hot or cold compress, weight loss, activity modification, PT
692
Osteomyelitis 1. most common bacteria implicated in pediatric pts 2. antibiotic?
1. Staph aureus, GAS, strep pneumo, H influenzae 2. Vancomycin (effective against MRSA and MSSA)
693
Patients that lack a functional spleen such as in SCD patients are at risk for severe infection or sepsis with encapsulated bacteria --what is done to protect these patients?
1. vaccination against the SHiN organisms 2. prophylaxis with penicillin or amoxicillin daily
694
- Family hx - chronic H pylori infection - chronic gastritis - pernicious anemia - chronic ingestion of salt and salt preserved foods - obesity - smoking - exposure to N-nitroso compounds through diet what are these risk factors for?
Gastric carcinoma
695
urinalysis will show proteinuria and presence of oval fat bodies --pt has edema, foamy, or dark colored urine, hypoalbuminemia, and protein - primary amyloidosis due to overproduction and deposition of immunoglobulin chains in brain, heart, kidneys, and other organs
- Multiple myeloma
696
effectiveness vs efficacy in clinical trials?
1. Efficacy - ability of tx to produce a desired effect in an ideal patient under ideal circumstances (phase 2 trials) 2. Effectiveness - ability of the tx to produce a desired effect in a general pt population and in real world settings - taking into consideration conditions/challenges of actual clinical practice (phase 3)
697
How does hypothyroidism affect HMG-CoA
HMG-CoA is enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis --LOW thyroid hormone causes decrease in activity of this enzyme. The body compensates for decreased cholesterol synthesis by increasing absorption from the GI tract. -Hypothyroidism also decreases production of LDL receptors in the liver further increasing serum cholesterol concn.
698
- thickening of the bronchi that results from recurrent necrotiznig infections and chronic inflammation - Frequent cough, excessive sputum that can be blood tinged, frequent respiratory exacerbations --wheezing on pulm exam -Hx of recurrent episodes of pneumonia in childhood and adolescence what is this? dx/
1. bronchiectasis 2. CT scan of the chest Conditions associated: chronic bronchial obstruction, tobacco use, cystic fibrosis, primary immunodeficiency disorders, Kartagener syndrome, and allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
699
Treatment of temporal arteritis?
high dose corticosteroid such as prednisone should occur immediately after dx to preserve vision sx: headaches, hx of preceding transient vision loss, jaw claudication, tenderness of the scalp, and pale optic disc this is autoimmune inflammatory vasculitis of medium and large vessels *tx does not compromise biopsy results needed for dx as long as bx is done within 1-2 weeks
700
ABI = SBP in ankle/SBP in brachial artery <= 0.9 : 0.91 - 1.13: > 1.3 : Tx: Step 1A: Step 1B: Step 2: Step 3: Percutaneous or surgical revascularization
ABI = SBP in ankle/SBP in brachial artery <= 0.9 : diagnostic of PAD 0.91 - 1.13: Normal > 1.3 : suggests calcified and incompressible vessels Tx: Step 1A: risk factor management → smoking cessation, BP and DM control, Antiplatelet (aspirin) and statin therapy Patients diagnosed with PAD should undergo aggressive management of cardiovascular risk factors to reduce risk of MI and stroke Step 1B: Initial treatment is supervised exercise program Step 2: Pharmacological → cilostazol Step 3: Percutaneous or surgical revascularization
701
Acute limb ischemia (arterial occlusion or acute vascular injury) -severe pain out of proportion to exam -paresthesia -pulselessness -pallor -poikilothermia what is dx imaging/test?
Arteriography of extremity with contrast MR angio of extremity
702
Fibrocystic breast disease
diffuse, BILATERAL changes (lumps, cysts, dense, irregular, and bumpy consistency) --may change with hormone chnages
703
Galactocele 1. when does it happen 2. sx? 3. dx?
1. weeks to months after cessation of breastfeeding and is due to blockage with resulting milk accumulation 2. soft, mobile, non tender mass in the subareolar region 3. U/S and needle aspiration
704
(BLANK) should be suspected in patients with persistent abd pain, fever, RUQ pain 2-10 days after lap chole
Biliary leakage - lab studies show elevated LFTs, bilirubin, normal appearing bile ducts
705
first line tx for bulimia nervosa
SSRI _ CBT
706
(BLANK) will appear as pseudohyphae with budding yeast forms (BLANK) appears as septate hyphae
Candida (budding yeast forms is blastoconidia) *this is on KOH prep or fungal culture of skin Dermatophytes (ex: tinea cruris)
707
erythematous, pustular rash affecting the central face, consistent with (BLANK) - what are the 4 primary manifestations?
ROSACEA 1. erythematotelangiectasisa: erythema and facial flushing, telangiectasias, roughness or scaling, and burning 2. Papulopustular : papules and pustules resembling acne 3. phymatous: chronic, irregular thickening of the skin, usually involving the nose 4. Ocular rosacea: involvement of the cornea, conjunctiva, and lids w/burning or foreign body sensations
708
Acute liver failure is characterized by the triad of ..
1. elevated aminotransferases 2. hepatic encephalopathy 3. prolonged prothrombin time in pt w/out underlying liver disease
709
Where is the lesion for decerebrate vs decorticate posture
1. Decerebrate (contains multiple E's - for extension): lesion in brain is in red nucleus where neurons are that allow for flexion. Since these are not working then extension occurs. 2. Decorticate (includes word core-involves arm movement toward body, less severe) - lesion in cerebral cortex where neurons that inhibit red nucleus are located. When these are not working well then flexors predomiante.
710
Rule of 4s for stroke symptoms 1. 4 cranial nerves originate (BLANK), 4 in (BLANK), and 4 in (BLANK) 2. 4 midline CN divide equally into 12 except 1 3. Midline structures that start with M have 4 roles ... 4. Side structures that start with S have 4 roles...
1. above pons (2 in midbrain), pons, and in medulla 2. -- 3. Motor pathways/corticospinal tract (opposite motor weakness) -medial lemniscus (posterior column - opposite deficits) -medial longitudinal fasciculus (unable to coordinate lateral eye movements - same side of lesion look left, right stays straight) -medial CN 4. Spinocerebellar pathway (same ataxia in arm, leg) -spinothalamic (opposite pain/temp deficit) -sensory portion of CN 5 (same face sensation) -sympathetic pathway (same Horner)
711
Tramadol
analgesic medication with serotonergic activity
712
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, obstructive sleep apnea, active smoking, obesity, and advanced age are risk factors for postoperative pulmonary complications such as pneumonia.  (BLANK) helps reduce the postoperative risk of pneumonia and shortens postoperative hospital stay.
Preoperative physical therapy
713
- prolonged bloody diarrhea and abd pain after travel to a resource limited country - dx modality is stool PCR or antigen testing -what is this?
Entamoeba histolytica - Liver abscess cause RUQ pain, fever tx: metronidazole + intraluminal antibiotic
714
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) what does ABPA mnemonic mean
1. Asthma 2. Bronchiectasis 3. Positive Aspergillus skin test and/or IgE (elevated serum IgE, Eosinophilia) *ABPA is a hypersensitivity to inhaled aspergillus fumigatus and typically presents in pts with underlying asthma or CF. --> can have recurrent infiltrates, fever, cough productive of brown sputum, and hemoptysis tx: oral corticosteroids for several months + itraconazole
715
Hereditary hemochromatosis causes abnormal iron deposition and commonly presents with (BLANK), (BLANK), (BLANK) - classic triad of cirrhosis, DM, and skin pigmentation is rare
1. fatigue, arthropathy, and hypogonadism (can cause ED, loss of libido) 2. dx can be confirmed by genetic analysis of HFE mutations
716
Failure modes and effects analysis (FMEA) - is a prospective, systematic analysis that seeks to identify and reduce potential errors in a process what are the steps in analysis
Form multidisciplinary team Define process to be studied Construct flowchart of process Analyze error risks at each step Identify potential corrective actions Implement plan
717
- proximal leg weakness (legs>arms) - decreased or absent reflexes - improvement in strength and reflexes following isometric contraction - autonomic dysfunction (e.g. dry mouth) What is this? what is associated neoplasm? what testing should be done?
1. Lambert-eaton syndrome 2. small cell lung cancer 3. CT of the chest to evaluate for lung mass
718
Individuals age >50 with malaise, fever, proximal muscle pain and weakness -elevated ESR - Tx with low dose prednisone improves sx what is this?
Polymyalgia rheumatica
719
- several months of anal pain and bleeding with evidence of an anal ulcer and painless LAD (firm, nontender) - develops from squamous epithelial cells due to HPV infection - Greatest in men who have receptive anal intercourse and those with advanced HIV - sx: rectal bleeding, anal pain, and/or sensation of anal pressure what is this?
Anal cancer - dx requires bx of the lesion - may be falsely attributed to hemorrhoids if the tumor is located above the anal sphincter, hiding it from view
720
What is each of these? 1. pain with BM, small amount of rectal bleeding. Lesions typically heal in <6 weeks 2. Large, painful genital ulcers with gray-yellow exudate and severe LAD that may suppurate. 3. Arise after anorectal abscess and manifest with chronic purulent perianal drainage and intermittent rectal pain. 4. Usually asymptomatic but may cause tenesmus, anorectal pain, and mucopurulent discharge 5. anogenital ulcer (primary), lymphadenitis (secondary), and fibrosis/strictures of the anogenital tract (tertiary).
1. Anal fissures 2. chancroid (H. ducreyi) 3. Anal fistulas 4. Gonococcal proctitis 5. Lymphogranuloma venereum (caused by chlamydia trachomatis)
721
Mastoiditis 1. infection of mastoid air cells. Complication of acute otitis media most commonly due to (BLANK) pathogen 2. fever and otalgia, inflammation of mastoid, protrusion of auricle 3. management?
1. Strep pneumo 2. - 3. IV antibiotics, drainage of purulent material. ---Imaging is not required for dx but is indicated if meningitis, FND are suspected, if no response to tx. Imaging is CT scan of temporal bones or MRI w/contrast
722
Livedo Reticularis (LR) is a transient latticelike rash caused by impaired blood flow in the superficial venules - often a benign finding but can be a sign of vasculitic or vasooclusive disorder. - Most common dermal manifestation of (BLANK)
anitphospholipid syndrome (associated w/ prolonged PTT but NOT PT
723
(BLANK) Cancer clinical manifestations 1. asymptomatic 2. postcoital bleeding 3. intermenstrual bleeding 4. increased vaginal discharge 5. pelvic/low back pain This is an (BLANK) defining illness
Cervical cancer (lower uterine segment mass can cause obstruction on ureters, blood vessels, lymphatics ) dx: cervical bx on colposcopy AIDS defining illness
724
Treatment of hypocalcemia due to inadvertently removed parathyroid glands during thyroid surgery require treatment with supplements (oral calcium and calcitriol/active form of Vit D) A calcium phosphorus product >55 increases risk of (BLANK)
Soft tissue calcification in the basal ganglia - which can lead to extrapyramidal manifestations (e.g. movement disorders) calcium phosphorus product (calcium level X phosphorus levels = ??)
725
What are favorable prognostic factors in schizophrenia
1. acute onset (lack of prodrome) 2. identifiable precipitant 3. older age at onset 4. Presence of predominantly positive (as opposed to negative) psychotic symptoms 5. No family history 6. short duration of active symptoms 7. female sex
726
1. anthracyclines (e.g. doxorubicin, daunorubicin, epirubicin, idarubicin) are chemo agents that are commonly implicated in (BLANK) what is it and pathophysiology? 2. Tastuzumab related cardiotoxicity is due to (BLANK) and usually manifests as an asymptomatic decline in left ventricular EF 3. Radiation therapy to the chest for patients for hodgkin lymphoma can lead to (BLANK- cardio)
1. Chemotherapy induced cardiotoxicity --> cardiomyocyte replacement by fibrous tissue. Myocyte necrosis and destruction. This is type I 2. Myocardial stunning/hibernation without myocyte destruction. Loss of myocardial contractility/stunning. Type II. 3. thickening and fibrosis of the pericardium
727
Longitudinal, pigmented bands in the nail plate - involves multiple nails, is stable over years - lesions are larger, have indistinct borders, change appearance over time, extend into the nail folds what is this?
Nail melanomas that first were longitudinal melanonchia
728
Borderline personality disorder tx?
Dialectical behavior therapy - psychotherapy
729
1. Granulomatous reaction to a blocked meibomian tear gland. --occur more often in upper lid - Usually painless, eyelid swelling and erythema, rubbery, nodular lesion - resolve spontaneously but larger lesions can benefit from warm compresses 2. Acute inflammatory nodule arising from an eyelash follicle (external/stye) or from a meibomian gland under eye lid (internal). Typically d/t infection with staph aureus. - painful - develops closer to the lid margin what is each?
1. Chalazion - Occur more commonly in patients with rosacea or eyelid margin blepharitis. 2. Hordeolum
730
Benign but locally aggressive tumor in long bone epiphysis - imaging reveals soap bubble appearance what is this?
Osteoclastoma (giant cell tumor of bone)
731
Postop dark red, sanguineous drainage and increasing incisional pain are consistent with (BLANK) Risk factors are obesity and hypocoagulability
1. incisional hematoma - collection of blood at incision site often due to inadequate surgical hemostasis --> tx by opening incision, evacuating clot, obtaining hemostasis, and reclosing incision
732
Maternal hyperglycemia in first semester increases risk of baby having (4) Maternal hyperglycemia in 2nd and 3rd semester increases risk of baby having (2)
1. congenital heart disease 2. neural tube defects 3. small left colon syndrome 4. spontaneous abortion 1. fetal hyperglycemia 2. Hyperinsulinemia
733
Maternal hyperglycemia in 2nd and 3rd semester increases risk of baby having fetal hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinemia -- what can this lead to at birth? 5 scenarios
1. Increased metabolic demand causes hypoxia so baby can develop polycythemia 2. organomegaly 3. neonatal hypoglycemia 4. macrosomia can lead to shoulder dystocia (brachial plexopathy, clavicle fracture, perinatal asphyxia) 5. increased glycogen synthesis, glycogen deposition in interventricular septum can lead to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
734
What does DRESS syndrome stand for? *has long latency (2-8 weeks)
1. drug - most commonly allopurinol and antiepileptics (e.g. phenytoin, carbamazepine) 2. reaction (rash) - morbiliform eruption that starts on the face or upper trunk and becomes diffuse and confluent, facial edema 3. eosinophilia 4. systemic symptoms: fever, malaise, diffuse LAD *tx is stopping drug
735
What is translocational hyponatremia?
Severe hyperglycemia and a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state. Excess of osmotically active substance (e.g. glucose) in the bloodstream draws intracellular water out and dilutes extracellular fluid. - serum osmolality is elevated bc of elevated serum glucose
736
(BLANK) of the oral cavity often manifests as nonhealing ulcer with indurated edges. Tobacco is an important risk factor. Bx is required for diagnosis
Squamous cell carcinoma - Leukoplakia or erythroplakia are precancerous plaques that progress to ulceration and deeper tissue invasion
737
pediatric patient who has fever, refusal to bear weight, leukocytosis, and elevated ESR is consistent with (BLANK) - most common organisms are staph aureus and GAS - Can follow URI or skin infection where there may be intermittent bacteremia allowing for (BLANK)
1. septic arthritis 2. hematogenous spread of bacteria into joint space - will want to maintain hip externally rotated. dx and tx: blood cultures, arthrocentesis (purulent synovial fluid >50,000 leukocytes), prompt surgical drainage, IV antibiotics
738
- watery and nocturnal diarrhea - fecal urgency and incontinence - risk factors: >50 years old, female, smoking, possibly NSAID use - colonoscopy shows inflammatory infiltrates with a monocytic predominance
1. Microscopic colitis stool studies should be done to exclude other common causes of diarrhea
739
Macrocytic anemia with hyposegmented neutrophils - likely cause? + explain lab findings?
1. Myelodysplastic syndrome - clonal neoplasm of hematopoietic progenitor cell that results in cytopenias and blood cell line dysplasias --CBC shows normocytic or macrocytic anemia w/insufficient reticulocytes - Leukopenia with immature neutrophil cells - thrombocytopenia
740
- D/t contaminated water in hospital, travel - fever, relative bradycardia, GI (diarrhea, vomiting, cramps), pulmonary - Hyponatremia - Chest x ray - lobar infiltrate, multiple lobe and segment involvement what is this? dx? tx?
1. legionella pneumonia 2. sputum gram stain: PMNs, few/no organisms -- urine legionella antigen 3. respiratory fluoroquinolone or newer macrolide
741
Isoretinoin - tx severe inflammatory acne (e.g. nodular) - decreases sebum production, inhibits cutibacterium acnes proliferation and inflammation, normalizes follicular epithelial proliferation and desquamation Lab monitoring includes (3)
1. pregnancy test (2 negative pregnancy tests are required before starting + monthly pregnancy testing during tx) 2. liver function test 3. lipid panel adverse effects are 1. teratogen 2. pseudomotor cerebri 3. hypertriglycerides 4. dry skin or mucous membranes 5. acne fulminans (initial worsening of acne) 6. elevated LFTs
742
- elevated IgM - hyperviscosity syndrome, neuropathy, bleeding, hepatosplenomegaly, LAD - peripheral smear shows rouleaux - bone marrow biopsy shows >10 % clonal B cells what is this? pathogenesis? dx? tx?
1. waldenstrom macroglobulinemia 2. rare B cell malignancy characterized by excessive production of IgM. 3. dx with serum protein electrophoresis (M-spike) and bone marrow biopsy 4. tx: plasma exchange
743
What antibodies are increased in multiple myeloma?
1. IgG, IgA, light chains - also has rouleaux formation and >10% clonal plasma cells
744
How does PE cause syncope?
Massive PE can lead to a sudden occlusion of >50% of the pulmonary arterial circulation, causing a rapid increase in pulmonary vascular resistance and right ventricular (RV) pressure load.  This can result in acute RV dysfunction and sudden loss of cardiac output.  ---Depending on the degree of compensation for these cardiovascular changes, patients can present with sudden cardiac death, syncope, or presyncope.  ---Acute PE can also cause syncope due to cardiac arrhythmia induced by RV strain and ischemia, or due to a vasovagal response to PE.
745
Acute cerebelar ataxia
1. acute post infectious cerebellar ataxia which often follows viral illness -1-3 weeks after infection and generally resolves spontaneously - ataxia, symmetric involvement of the extremities, staggering gait, intention tremor, and nystagmus. - Sensation and deep tendon reflexes are preserved
746
What is first line treatment for condylomata accuminata (anogenital warts) during pregnancy?
1. trichloroacetic acid -warts tend to increase in size and number during pregnancy due to physiologic, pregnancy associated immunosuppresion - Other first line tx include imiquimoid, pdophyllotoxin but this IS NOT FOR PREGNANT PTS bc of teratogenicity ---> excisional bx is typically avoided due to increased anesthetic and surgical risks in pregnant pts but can be done in nonpregnant **c section does not reduce risk of vertical transmission of HPV so it is only done if there is large condylomata blocking introitus
747
inpatient pneumonia is treated with (2 drugs together) outpatient pneumonia treatment? (2 options)
azithromycin and ceftriaxone amoxicillin or doxycylcine