Step 1 Flashcards Excel 1 30 15

1
Q

What makes up a nucleosome?

A

Negatively charged DNA loops twice around positively charged histone octamer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Histones have a lot of what?

A

Rich in lysine and arginine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Purpose of H1

A

Binds to nucleosome and to linker DNA to stabilize the chromatin fiber: it is the only one NOT in the nucleosome core.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

DNA and histone synthesis during what phase of mitosis

A

S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Nucleosome core histones

A

H2A, H2B, H3, H4 (each x2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Heterochromatin

A

Highly condensed, not active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Euchromatin

A

Transcriptionally active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

DNA methylation in prokaryotes

A

Template strand Cs and As are methylated to allow mismatch repair enzymes to distinguish parent from daughter strand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

DNA methylation in eukaryotes

A

CpG islands to repress transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are CpG islands exactly?

A

Cytosine next to Guanine in a strand of DNA. The cytosine can be methylated, in fact most of the cytosines in CpG islands are.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Histone methylation

A

Usually reversible, represses transcription, but can occasionally activate it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Histone acetylation

A

Relaxes DNA coiling, increasing transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the pyrmidines

A

Pyrimidines CUT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Thymine vs Uracil

A

Thymine has a methyl, uracil is a deaminated cytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Amino acids necessary for purine synthesis

A

GAG-Glycine, Aspartate, Glutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What makes up pyrimidines?

A

Carbamoyl phosphate and aspartate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Nucleoside vs. nucleotide

A

nucleoside is base + sugar, -tide has 3’-5’ phosphodiester bond linked phosphate(s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Basic steps of Purine synthesis

A
  1. Star with sugar + phosphate (PRPP) 2. Add base
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is PRPP?

A

Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (it has a phosphate instead of a base attached to the ribose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Basic steps of Pyrimidine synthesis

A
  1. Make temporary base (orotic acid) 2. Add sugar + phosphate (PRPP) 3. Modify base
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What turns ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides

A

Ribonucleotide reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Carbamoyl phosphate used in what metabolic pathways

A

De novo pyrimidine synthesis and the urea cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Purine base production steps

A
  1. Start with Ribose 5-P2. Turn to PRPP by PRPP synthetase3. Produce IMP through some steps4. AMP and GMP produced (GMP by IMP dehydrogenase?)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does de novo purine synthesis require?

A

Aspartate, glycine, glutamine, and THF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pyrimidine base production steps

A
  1. Combine Glutamine and CO2 with Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II to produce carbamoyl phosphate (uses up two ATP)2. Carbamoyl phosphate + Asparate to produce Orotic Acid3. Orotic acid + PRPP to produce UMP4. UMP to UDP5. UDP to CTP or dUDP with ribonucleotide reductase6. dUDP to dUMP7. dUMP to dTMP by Thymidylate synthase8. Tetrahydrofolate in N5N10methyleneTHF is what is used to add the methyl group.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Draw out the pathways!

A

Writing them out isn’t very useful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Leflunomide target

A

Inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Mycophenolate and ribavirin target

A

Inhibit IMP dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hydroxyurea target

A

Ribonucleotide reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) target AND its prodrug

A

Prodrug is azathioprine. They both inhibit de novo purine synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

5-fluorouracil (5-FU) target

A

Inhibits thymidylate synthase (lowers deoxythymidine monophosphate (dTMP))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Methyotrexate (MTX), Trimethoprim (TMP), and pyrimethamine target

A

Inhibits Dihydrofolate reductase (lowers dTMP) in humans, bacteria, and protozoa, respectively. (MTX in humans, TMP in bacteria, Pyrimethamine in protozoa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Does myophenolate/ribavirin only affect GMP production?

A

Yes, for de novo GTP production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Guanine to Cuanylic acid (GMP)

A

HGPRT + PRPP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hypoxanthine to Inosinic acid (IMP)

A

HGPRT + PRPP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Adenine to Adnylic acid (AMP)

A

APRT + PRPP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Adenosine to Inosine

A

Adenosine deaminase (ADA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Hydroxanthine to Xanthine

A

Xanthine oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Xanthine to uric acid

A

Xanthine oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Draw out the purine salvage deficiencies

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Adenosine deaminase deficiency path

A

Excess ATP and dATP imbalances nucleotide pool via feedback inhibition of ribonucleotide reductase leading to the prevention of DNA synthesis and thus lower lymphocyte count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Adenosine deaminase deficiency and what disease

A

Autosomal recessive SCID (one of the major causes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Lesch-Nyhan path

A

Defective purine salvage from absence of HGPRT. Excess uric acid production and de novo purine synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Lesch-Nyhan genetics

A

X-linked recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Lesch-Nyhan presentation

A

Intellectual disability, self-mutilation, aggression, hyperuricemia, gout, dystonia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Lesch-Nyhan tx

A

Allopurinol or febuxostate (2nd line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Lesch-Nyhan Mnemonic

A

HGPRT: Hyperuricemia, Gout, Pissed off (aggressin,self-mutilation), Retardation, Dystonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is HGPRT?

A

Hypoxantine-Guanine Phosphoribosyltransferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Degenerate code

A

Multiple codons for most amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Methionine codon

A

AUG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Tryptophan codon

A

UGG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is commaless, nonoverlapping code?

A

Commaless means that no codons are used as punctuation, it is read straight through (at least the exons, etc.). Nonoverlapping means one codon in a sequence leads to one amino acid. In viruses, the genes can overlap.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Universal code exception

A

Mitochondria in humans. The codons can be a little different.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Origins of replication in prok. and euk.

A

Prok. have 1! (theta-replication)Euk. have multiple (large chromosomes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Single-stranded binding proteins

A

Prevent strands from reannealing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

DNA topoisomerases

A

Create single or double-stranded breaks in helix to add or remove supercoils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Fluoroquinolones action

A

Inhibit DNA gyrase (prok. topoisomerase II)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Primase

A

RNA primer for DNA pol III initiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

DNA pol III

A

Prok. only, 5’-3’ replication, 3’-5’ exonuclease activity (proofreading). On lagging strand, reads until it gets to primer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

DNA pol I

A

Prok. only. Replaces RNA primer with DNA. 5’-3’ exonuclease activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

DNA ligase

A

Joins Okazaki fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Telomerase

A

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase that adds DNA to 3’ ends of chromosomes to avoid loss of genetic material with every duplication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

HGPRT role

A

Recycling back to nucleic acids. Guanine to GMP, Hypoxanthine to IMP (moves away from xanthine and uric acid!!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

APRT role

A

It is the HGPRT for Adenine. Adenine to AMP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the order of severity of mutations to the genetic code

A

silent«frameshift. Transversions (purine to pyrimidine) is worse than transitions (purine to purine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Most silent mutations found where in codon

A

In the 3rd position (wobble!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Sickle cell caused by what mutation

A

Missense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How to get a frameshift

A

Delete or add nucleotides not a multiple of 3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What mutation is duchenne’s

A

Frameshift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

I have a bulky helix-distorting DNA lesion, what do I use?

A

Nucleotide excision repair. Removes an oligonucleotide containing the damage then DNA pol and ligase fills it in. Pyrimidine dimers and bulky chemical adducts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

I have an altered Base

A

Base excision repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Base excision repair:

A

Base-specific glycosylase recognizes altered base and creates AP site (apurinic,apyrimidinic). One or more nucleotides are removed by AP-endonuclease, which cleaves the 5’ end. Lyase cleaves the 3’ end. DNA pol-beta fills the gap and DNA ligase seals it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

AP-endonuclease action

A

Forms a single strand break. DNA glycosylase just removes the base by cleaving the N-glycosidic bond. AP endonuclease cleaves the 5’ end of the AP site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Lyase action

A

Cleaves 3’ end of AP site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Mismatch repair vs. Nucleotide exicision repair

A

Nucleotide excision for bulky adducts or major distortions to the DNA helix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Mismatch repair

A

Repairs errors that occur during DNA synthesis. Usually just transitional errors (laying a C instead of T)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosum problem

A

Nucleotide excision repair, prevents repair of pyrimidine dimers because of UV exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Spontaneous/toxic deamination repair

A

Base excision repair. It’s the reason why DNA has thymine, because when it deaminates it turns methylated cytosine which is recognizable. Not cytosine if we had uracil instead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer problem

A

Mismatch repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Ataxia telangiectasia problem

A

Nonhomologous end joining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Nonhomologous end joining problem

A

Repairs double stranded breaks. No requirement for homology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Energy for DNA/RNA production

A

5’ end of incoming nucleotide bears the triphosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Protein synthesis direction

A

N-terminus to C-terminus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

mRNA read

A

5’ to 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Phosphate bond reaction

A

Triphosphate bond targeted by the 3’ hydroxyl attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How to block DNA replication

A

Modified 3’ OH, preventing addition of the next nucleotide (chain termination)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

mRNA start codons

A

AUG (rarely GUG):

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

AUG codes for

A

Euk. methionine which may be removed before translation ends. Prok. formylmethionine (f-met.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

mRNA stop codons

A

UAA, UGA, UAG (u are annoying, u go away, u are gone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Promoter regions

A

TATA boxes and CAAT boxes (weak bonds, easy to open)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Enhancers bind

A

Transcription factors, may be found in introns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Silencers bind

A

Repressors, may be found far away, close to, or in an intron, like enhancers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Most numerous RNA

A

rRNA (in ribosomes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Largest RNA

A

mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Smallest RNA

A

tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

RNA pol I

A

rRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

RNA pol II

A

mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

RNA pol III

A

tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Euk. or prok. have 3 RNA pol

A

Euk. have 3 RNA pol, prok. have just 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

alpha-amanitin path

A

inhibits RNA pol II, severe hepatotoxicity, found in Amanita phalloides (death cap mushrooms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Initial mRNA from transcription is called

A

Heterogenous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

mRNA processing

A
  1. 5’ cap (7-methylguanosine cap)2. Polyadenylation at 3’ end (around 200 A’s)3. Splicing out introns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

mRNA quality control

A

Cytoplasmic P-bodies, contain exonucleases, decapping enzymes, and microRNAs; mRNAs may be stored here for future translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are P-bodies?

A

Processing bodies. Decaps and degrades unwanted mRNAs. Stores mRNA for later translation. Aids in translation repression with miRNAs (like siRNAs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Poly-A polymerase template

A

No template needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Polyadenylation signal

A

AAUAAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Splicing

A
  1. Primary transcript combines with small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs) and other proteins to form spliceosome. 2. Lariat-shaped intermediate is generated 3. Lariat is released to precisely remove intron
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Splicing mechanistically

A

A 3’ OH is formed during lariat formation which then allows for an attack at the phosphodiester bond at the 2nd exon leading to splicing out the intron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

anti-smith antibodies

A

Antibodies to spliceosomal snRNPs (anti-Smith antibodies). Highly specific for SLE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Anti-U1 RNP antibodies

A

Highly associated with MCTD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Draw out splicing reaction

A

….

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Abnormal splicing can cause what

A

Oncogenesis, Beta-thal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Exons vs. introns

A

Exons are coding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

tRNA structure

A

75-90 nucleotides. Cloverleaf. CCA at 3’ end which binds the amino acid. Anticodon end is opposite 3’ aminoacyl end. The A in CCA binds the aminoacid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

T-arm of tRNA

A

Contains TPsyC (thymine, pseudouridine, cytosine) sequence necessary for tRNA-ribosome binding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

D-arm of tRNA

A

Contains dihydrouracil residues necessary for tRNA recognition by the correct aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Acceptor stem of tRNA

A

The 3’ CCA is the amino acid acceptor site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

tRNA charging

A

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase checks AA before and after binding to tRNA, if incorrect, it hydrolyzes it because you can’t fix it afterwards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

How many amino acids for each aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

A

One synthetase for every AA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthesis reaction energy

A

ATP used to make the bond, but the new bond is used to form the peptide bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Anticodon for start codon

A

UAC (binding to AUG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

tRNA wobble

A

Only first 2 nucleotide positions of an mRNA codon matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Initiation of translation

A

GTP hydrolysis; initiation factors assemble 40S with initiator tRNA and are released when the mRNA and 60S assemble with the complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Euk. ribosome

A

40S + 60S = 80S (Even (euk.))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Prok. ribosome

A

30S + 50S = 70S (Odd (prOk.))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

ATP-tRNA

A

Activation (charging)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

GTP-tRNA

A

Gripping and Going places (translocation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Initiator methionine binds where

A

P site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Steps in translation

A

Aminoacyl-tRNA binds to A site, peptide bond forms, translocation 3 nucleotides over and repeat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Stop codon reached, then what

A

Release factor comes in and releases the polypetide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

A, P, and E sites

A

Aminoacyl, peptide, and exit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Posttranslational modifications

A

Cleaving N- or C-terminus of zymogen. Phosphorylation, glycosylation, hydroxylation, methylation, acetylation, and ubiquitination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What are heat shock proteins

A

e.g. Hsp60, in yeast, are chaperonins expressed at high temps to prevent protein denaturing/misfolding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Chaperone proteins

A

Can facilitating or maintain protein folding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What regulates cell cycle phases

A

Cyclins, cyclin-dependent kinseases (CDKs), and tumor suppressors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Which phases are variable in time

A

G1 and G0. Not G2, when that begins, there is a set time for when it must go to mitosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Order of the phases

A

G1/G0 to S phase to G2 to Mitosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What regulates G1 to S phase progression.

A

Rb, p53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

CDKs action

A

Constitutive and inactive…????

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Cyclins

A

Regulatory proteins that control cell cycle events; phase specfic; activate CDKs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Cyclic-CDK complexes

A

Must be both activated and inactivated for cell cycle to progress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

p53 and Rb

A

Hypophophorylated Rb and p53 normally inhibit G1-to-S progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What happens if you mutate p53 or Rb

A

Unrestrained cell division (e.g. Li-Fraumeni)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is interphase

A

G1, S, and G2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What cell lines are G0

A

Neurons, skeletal and cardiac muscle, RBCs. These are permanent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What cells go from G0 to G1

A

Hepatocytes, lymphocytes. These are quiescent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What cells never go to G0

A

Bone marrow, gut epithelium, skin, hair follices, germ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Rough ER purpose

A

Site of synthesis of secretory (exported) proteins and of N-linked oligosaccharide addition to many proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Example of cells with lots of RER

A

Mucus-secreting goblet cells of the small intestine and antibody-secreting plasma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Nissl bodies

A

RER in neurons, synthesize peptide neurotransmitters for secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What do free ribosomes do

A

Site of synthesis of cytosolic and organella proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Smooth ER purpose

A

Steroid synthesis and detox of drugs and poisons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Cells with lots of SER

A

Liver hepatocytes and steroid hormone-producing cells of the adrenal cortex and gonads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Golgi purpose

A

Movies proteins and lipids from the ER to vesicles and plasma membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Example of specific effects of Golgi

A

Modifies N-oligosaccharides on asparagine. Adds O-oligosacchardies on serine and threonine. Adds mannose-6-phophate to proteins for trafficking to lysosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Mannose-6-phosphate

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Endosomes purpose

A

Take stuff from outside the cell or from the Golgi, sending it to lysosomes for destruction or back to the membrane/Golgi for further use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Inclusion cell disease (I-cell disease) path

A

Inherited lysosomal storage disorder; defect in phosphotransferase. Golgi can’t phosphorylate mannose residues (i.e. dec. mannose-6-phosphate) on glycoproteins leading to extracellular excretion and not delivered to lysosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

I-cell disease presentation

A

Coarse facial features, clouded corneas, restricted joint movement, and high plasma levels of lysosomal enzymes. Often fatal in childhood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Signal recognition particle (SRP)

A

Abundant, cytosolic ribonucleoprotein that traffics proteins from the ribosome to the RER. Absent or dysfunctional SRP leads to proteins accumulating in the cytosol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Vesicular trafficking proteins

A

COPI, COPII, and Clathrin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

COPI functions

A

Golgi to Golgi (retrograde); Golgi to ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

COPII functions

A

Golgi to Golgi (anterograde); ER to Golgi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Clathrin functions

A

trans-Golgi to lysosomes; plasma membrane to endosomes (receptor mediated endocytosis (LDL receptor))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Peroxisome

A

Catabolism of very-long-chain fatty acids, branched-chain fatty acids, and amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Proteasome

A

Breaks down damaged or ubiquitin tagged proteins. Defects in teh ubiquitin-proteasome system have been implicated in some cases of Parkinson’s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Microtubule structure

A

Helical cylinder of polymerized heterodimers of alpha and beta-tubulin. Each dimer uses 2 GTP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Microtubule location

A

Flagella, cilia, mitotic spindles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Microtubule growth

A

Grow slowly (at positive end), collapse quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Microtubule in neurons

A

Slow axoplasmic transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Molecular motor proteins

A

Dynein (retrograde to microtubule (+ to -)Kinesin (anterograde to microtubule (- to +)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Drugs acting on Microtubules

A

Microtubules Get Poorly Very Poorly: Mebendazole, Griseofulvin, Colchicine, Vincristine/Vinblastine, Paclitaxel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Cilia structure

A

9+2 microtubule pair arragement with dynein ATPase linking peripheral 9 doublets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Kartageners syndrome presentation

A

Primary ciliary dyskinesia. Male and female infertility from immotile sperm and dysfunctional fallopian tube cilia. Increased risk of ectopic. Can cause bronchiectasis, recurrent sinusitus, and situs inversus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Actin and Myosin found in

A

Muscles, microvilli, cytokinesis, adherens junctions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Myosin structure

A

Dimeric, ATP driven motors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Intermediate filaments examples

A

Used for structure, vimentin, desmin, cytokeratin, lamins, glial fibrillary acid proteins (GFAP), neurofilaments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Fungal membranes contain what

A

Ergosterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What tissue stains vimentin

A

Connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Tissue stain desmin

A

Muscle (desMin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Tissue stain Cytokeratin

A

Epithelial Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

GFAP tissue

A

NeuroGlia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Neurofilaments tissue

A

Neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Na/K ATPase

A

3 Na out, 2 K in. Net charge of 1 + out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Toxins on Na/K ATPase

A

OuabainCardiac glycosides (digoxin and digitoxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Cardiac glycosides action

A

Directly inhibit the Na/K ATPase, which leads to indirect inhibition of Na/Ca exchange leading to increased intracellular calcium and increased cardiac contractility. Too much sodium in cell prevents movement of calcium into outside.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Oubain MOA

A

Inhibits K+ binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

ATP at what site of Na/K ATPase

A

Intracellular, fires when the sodium is released (first step). K+ comes in last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Which cartilage is the most common

A

Type I: 90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Where do you find Type I, II, III, and IV cartilages (The Important Sites)

A

I: BoneII: Cartilage (cartwolage)III: Blood vessels (big one)IV: Under the floor (four/basement membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Type I cartialge

A

Bone (osteoblasts), skin, tendon, dentin, fascia, cornea, late wound repair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Type II cartilage

A

Cartilage (including hyaline), vitreous body, nucleus pulposus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Type III cartilage

A

Reticulin: Skin, blood vessels, uterus, fetal tissue, granulation tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Type IV cartilage

A

Basement membrane, basal lamina, lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Alport syndrome path

A

Defective Type IV collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Goodpasture path

A

Autoantibodies to Type IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Vascular type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome)

A

Type III; uncommon type!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Mnemonic for cartilage

A

Be So Totally Cool, Read Books. BST C R B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta type I

A

Type I cartilage decreased production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Collagen synthesis steps

A
  1. Synthesis 2. Hydroxylation 3. Glycosylation 4. Exocyotosis 5. Proteolytic processing 6. Cross-linking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q
  1. Collagen Synthesis step
A

Translation of collagen alpha chains (preprocollagen): Gly-X-Y (X and Y are proline or lysine)

202
Q

Amino acids that make up collagen

A

Glycine, proline, and lysine

203
Q
  1. Collagen hydroxylation step
A

Hydroxylation of specific proline and lysine residues requiring vit C

204
Q
  1. Collagen glycosylation step
A

Glycosylation of pro-alpha-chain hydroxyline residues and formation of procollagen via hydrogen and disulfide bonds (triple helix of 3 collagen alpha chains). Then leads to 4. Exocytosis

205
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta path

A

Can’t form triple helix of procollagen.

206
Q

What steps happen in the RER

A

Synthesis, hydroxylation, and glycosylation.

207
Q

Look at a figure for Collagen synthesis steps

208
Q
  1. Proteolytic processing of collagen
A

Cleavage of disulfide-rich terminal regions of procollagen, transforming it into insoluble tropocollagen.

209
Q
  1. Cross linking of collagen
A

Staggered tropocollagen molecules reinforced by covalent lysine-hydroxylysine cross-linkage (by Cu2+-containing lysyl oxidsae) to make collagen fibrils.

210
Q

Ehlers-Danlos path

A

You can’t cross link collagen properly.

211
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta presentation

A

Brittle bone disease. Multiple fractures from minimal trauma. Blue sclerae because of translucency over the choidal veins. hearing loss (abnormal ossicles). Dental imperfections due to lack of dentin. May be confused with child abuse.

212
Q

Osteo. Imp. genetics

A

Most common form is Aut. dom. with decreased production of otherwise normal type I collagen.

213
Q

Ehlers-Danlos presentation

A

Hyperextensible skin, tendency to bleed (easy bruising), and hypermobile joints. May be associated with joint dislocation, berry and aortic aneurysms, and organ rupture.

214
Q

Ehlers-Danlos types

A

6+ types. May be aut. dom. or rec. Hypermobility type: Most COMMON. Classical type (joint and skin symptoms): Mutation in type V collagen. Vascular type (vascular and organ rupture): Deficient type III collagen

215
Q

Menkes disease

A

Connective tissue disease caused by impaired copper absorption and transport. Leads to decreased activity of lysyl oxidase (copper is a necessary cofactor). Results in brittle, kinky hair, growth retardation and hypotonia.

216
Q

Elastin is found where

A

Skin, lungs, large arteries, elastic ligaments, vocal cords, ligamenta flava

217
Q

Elastin structure

A

Rich in proline and glycine, nonhydroxylated forms. ????

218
Q

Tropoelastin with fibrillin scaffolding?

219
Q

Elastin cross-linking

A

Takes place extracelluarly and gives elastin its elastic properties

220
Q

What breaks down and prevents breakdown of elastin?

A

Elastase breaks down, inhibited by alpha1-antitrypsin.

221
Q

Marfan syndrome

A

Defect in fibrillin, a glycoprotein that forms a sheath around elastin

222
Q

Emphysema

A

Can be caused by alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency

223
Q

Wrinkles of aging caused by

A

Lower collagen and elastin production

224
Q

Diagnosing neonatal HIV or herpes encephalitis

225
Q

Southern blot steps

A

DNA electrophoresed on gel then transferred to filter. Then denatured and exposed to radiolabeled DNA probe.

226
Q

Northen blot

227
Q

Western blot

A

Protein with antibody probe

228
Q

Confirmatory test for HIV

A

Western blot after + ELISA

229
Q

Southwestern Blot

A

DNA-binding proteins (Transcription factors) using labeled oligonucleotide probes

230
Q

Microarrays benefits

A

Can profile gene expression levels of thousands of genes simultaneously to study diseases and treatments. Can detect SNPs and copy number variations (CNVs) for genotyping, clinical genetic testing, forensic analysis, cancer mutations, and genetic linkage analysis.

231
Q

Collagenases are what kind of enzyme

A

MMP matrix metalloproteinases

232
Q

Marfan’s gene

A

Fibrillin-1 gene

233
Q

The PI3K/Akt/mTOR pathway

A

anti-apoptosis, cellular proliferation, and angiogenesis. mutations in these lead to cancer pathogenesis

234
Q

IP3

A

activates Protein Kinase C

235
Q

Branched chain fatty acids undergo what for breakdown

A

Alpha-oxidation

236
Q

problems with ubiquitin-proteasome system can lead to

A

Parkinson and Alzheimer’s

237
Q

Mousy odor in a child with fair colored features

A

Phenylketonuria. Tyrosine is an essential enzyme because they can’t make it from phenylalanine anymore. Can’t produce melanin either.

238
Q

PKU caused by

A

mutation in phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme

239
Q

Nitrates in diet do what to DNA

A

deaminate cytosines, adenines, and guanines

240
Q

In base excision repair….

A

AP endonuclease cleaves 5’ side before lyase cleaves 3’ side

241
Q

Iron deficient anemia can present with

A

Dysphagia (esophageal webs) and dysfigured fingernails (spoon nails (koilonychia))

242
Q

Plummer-Vinson or Patterson Kelly syndrome

A

Iron deficiency anemia with dysphagia from esophageal webs??

243
Q

Pernicious anemia classic presentation

A

Older, mentally slow woman of northern European descent who is “lemon colored” (anemic and icteric) with a smooth shiny tongue of atrophic glossitis and a broad shuffling gait.

244
Q

Cobalamin deficiency path

A

Homocystinemia due to impaired methionine re-synthesis.

245
Q

Maturing erythrocytes lose the ability to synthesize heme when what happens…

A

When they lose their mitochondria

246
Q

HbC is made of what

A

Lysine instead of glutamate residue so the Hb molecule is more positive and does not electrophorese as far compared to even HbS (valine is nonpolar)

247
Q

ELISA stands for

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

248
Q

Indirect ELISA

A

A test antigen used to determine if an antibody is in the patient’s blood, second antibody used to detect the first antibody.

249
Q

Direct ELISA

A

Test antibody used to detect antigen in patient’s blood, second antibody is used to detect the antigen

250
Q

Positive ELISA result

A

Lights up brightly

251
Q

Indirect ELISA test

A

anti-HIV antibody detection

252
Q

Fluorescent in situ hybridization.

A

Using fluorescent DNA or RNA probe to bind specific gene site of interest on chromosomes.

253
Q

Uses of FISH

A

Microdeletions that can’t be detected by karyotype

254
Q

Steps of cloning

A

Isolate euk. mRNA, use reverse transcriptase to make cDNA, insert cDNA into bacterial plasmids with ABx resistance genes, transform recombinant plasmid into bacteria, grow on Abx medium to get the bacteria that produces the cDNA.

255
Q

How to get DNA into a mouse

A
  1. Random insertion into mouse genome. 2. Trageted insertion or deletion of gene through homologous recombination with mouse gene.
256
Q

What is homologous recombination

A

Uses a complementary dsDNA template (like the other chromosome) to fix dsDNA breaks. Can also be used for cloning………

257
Q

Cre-lox system

A

Can induce genes at specific developmental points……………………………..

258
Q

RNA interference (RNAi)

A

dsRNA complementary to target mRNA used to degrade target mRNA

259
Q

What tissues can be karyotypes

A

blood, bone marrow, amniotic fluid, or placental tissue.

260
Q

alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency is inherited in what way

A

Codominance………….

261
Q

Neurofibromatosis type 1 inheritance

A

variable expressivity

262
Q

Example of pleiotropy

A

PKU with light skin, retardation, and musty body odor

263
Q

what diseases have anticipation

A

Huntington, fragile x, myotonic dystrophy

264
Q

Do oncogenes need loss of heterogeneity

A

No, loss of heterogeneity only applies to tumor suppression genes

265
Q

Explain dominant negative mutation

A

It’s a dominant mutation but it has the the negative, suppressive effect. Like a nonfunctional transcription factor preventing the functional wildtype protein from working.

266
Q

Linkage disequilibrium for individuals or population

A

Measured in a population, not in a family

267
Q

When is McCune-Albright a viable condition

A

Only if it is inherited mosaically

268
Q

What is McCune-Albright syndrome

A

Genetic syndrome with 2 out of 3 of following: autonomous endocrine excess (e.g. precocious puberty), polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, unilateral cafe au lait spots.

269
Q

What is locus heterogeneity

A

Mutations at different loci producing the same phenotype

270
Q

What is allelic heterogeneity

A

Different mutations in the same locus produce the same phenotype

271
Q

Heteroplasmy

A

Having normal and mutated mtDNA, causes variable expression in mitochondrial inherited disease.

272
Q

How is homologous recombination used in cloning

273
Q

Uniparental disomy

A

Receiving 2 copies of a chromosome from one parent. and 0 from the other.

274
Q

Hetero vs. isodisomy

A

Hetero occurs in meiosis I, iso in meiosis II. Iso can also happen post-zygotically with a chromosomal duplication and loss of the other chormosome.

275
Q

When to consider UPD

A

When an individual has a recessive disorder but only one parent is carrying the trait.

276
Q

How bad is UPD usually

A

Usually normal phenotype

277
Q

Frequency of an X-linked recessive disease in males and females

A

males: qfemales: q^2

278
Q

Hardy-Weinberg equillibrium requires

A

No mutation occurring at the locus, natural selection is not occuring, completely random mating, no net migration

279
Q

Prader-Willi and Angelman on what chromosome

280
Q

Prader-Willi inheritance

A

Prader lacks Faddah. Maternal imprinting: maternal gene is silent and paternal gene is deleted/mutated

281
Q

AngelMan inheritance

A

Misses Muddah. Dad gene is normally silent and maternal gene is deleted/mutated.

282
Q

P-W presentation

A

Hyperphagia, obesity, intellectual disability, hypogonadism, and hypotonia

283
Q

Angelman presentation

A

Inappropriate laughter (happy puppets, seizures, ataxia, and severe intellectual disability)

284
Q

Specific genetics about P-W

A

25% of cases due to maternal UPD, remaining are mutuation or deletion

285
Q

Specific genetics about Angelman

A

5% of cases due to paternal UPD, remaining are mutuation or deletion

286
Q

Are P-W and Angelman genes on maternal and paternal side both normally silent????

A

No…one is usually active. So if you lack the father’s chromosome from deletion but the maternal side is not imprinted…will you not have the disease. Or is one or the other imprinted……………………

287
Q

Which diseases tend to be worse, aut. rec or aut. dom.

A

Aut. rec., they tend to pop up in childhood, aut. dom. are often pleiotropic

288
Q

Why aren’t x-linked recessive passed male to male

A

Because the father gives the son the Y chromosome

289
Q

X-linked dom. inheritance

A

Mothers pass on to 50% of sons AND daughters, fathers transmit to all daughters but no sons

290
Q

Example of x-linked dom. inheritance

A

Hypophosphatemic rickets

291
Q

Hypophosphatemic rickets

A

vitamin-D resistant rickets. Increased phosphate wasting and proximal tubule.

292
Q

Mitochondrial myopathies presentation

A

Myopathy, lactic acidosis, and CNS disease, secondary to failrue in ox phos

293
Q

Muscle biopsy of mitochondrial myopathies

A

Ragged red fibers

294
Q

Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease genetics

A

85% of cases due to mutation in PKD1 (chromosome 16); remainder due to mutation in PDK2 (chrom. 4)

295
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis genetics

A

APC gene, chrom. 5

296
Q

Familial hypercholesterolemia

A

Defective/absent LDL receptor, can have tendon xanthomas (Achilles!!)

297
Q

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasis

A

Telangiectasia, recurrent epistaxis, skin discolorations, AVMs, GI bleeding, hematuria.

298
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis genetics

A

spectrin or ankyrin defects

299
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis CBC w/ diff results

A

Elevated MCHC

300
Q

Huntington genetics

A

Chrom 4, trinucleotide repeat disorder (CAG)n.

301
Q

Marfan’s genetics

A

fibrillin-1 gene mutation

302
Q

Marfan syndrome presentation

A

Tall with long extremities, pectus excavatum, hypermobile joints, and long, tapering fingers and toes (arachnodactyly), cystic medial necrosis of aorta leading to aortic incompetance and dissecting aortic aneurysms, floppy mitral valave. Subluxation of lenses upward and temporally.

303
Q

MEN2 gene

304
Q

NF1 (von Recklinghausen disease)

A

Neurocutaneous: cafe-au-lait spots, cutaneous neurofibromas, aut. dom., 100% penetrance, variable expression. CHROMOSOME 17

305
Q

NF2

A

Bilateral acoustic schwannomas, juvenile cataracts, meningiomas, and ependymomas. CHROMOSOME 22

306
Q

Tuberous sclerosis

A

neurocutaneous disorder with numerous benign hamartomas, incomplete penetrance, variable expression

307
Q

von Hippel-Lindau disease

A

VHL gene (tumor suppressor) on chromosome 3 (3p).

308
Q

Cystic fibrosis genetics

A

Aut. rec, CFTR gene on chrom. 7, most commonly a deletion of Phe508, most common lethal genetic disease in caucasians

309
Q

Function of CFTR gene

A

ATP-gated Cl- channel that secretes cl- in lungs and GI tract and reabsorbs Cl- in sweat glands.

310
Q

CF patho

A

mutations cause misfolded protein that is retained in RER and not transported to cell membrane leading to less Cl- (and H2O) secretion and more Na+ reabsorption to compensate for incrased ICF cl- leading to even less ECF water causing very thick mucus

311
Q

CF membrane potential

A

Increased Na+ reabsorption causes mroe negative transepithelial potential difference….how….I thought the inside is negative because the na/k atpase pushes an extra cation out, wouldn’t this just ruin the membrane potential.

312
Q

CF diagnosis

A

Cl- conc. >60 mEq/L in sweat is diagnostic, can cause a contraction and hypokalemia (ECF effects like taking a loop diuretic) Renal K+/H+ wasting

313
Q

CF CXR

A

Reticulonodular pattern

314
Q

CF genitals

A

Infertile men (no vas deferens, no sperm)

315
Q

CF PNA

A

recurrent Pseudomonas

316
Q

CF tx

A

N-acetylcysteine to loosen mucus plugs (cleaves disulfide bonds within mucus glycoproteins). Dornase alfa (DNAse) to clear leukocytic debris

317
Q

X-linked recessive disorders

A

Be Wise, Fool’s GOLD Heeds Silly HOpe.Bruton agammaglobulinemia, Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome, Fabry disease, G6PD deficiency, Ocular albinism, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, Duchenne (and Becker) muscular dystrophy, Hunter Syndrome, Hemophilia A and B, Ornithine transcarbamoylase deficiency

318
Q

CF transepithelial potential difference

A

More negative because more sodium is being reabsorbed. This is different from membrane potential because I think that actually goes up because of the sodium rushing in, unless the Cl- still makes it more negative.

319
Q

Duchenne mutation

A

X-linked frameshift

320
Q

Gower manuever

A

using upper extremities to help kids stand up

321
Q

Duchenne age of onset

A

Before 5 yrs

322
Q

MCC of death in Duchenne’s

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

323
Q

Dystrophin purpose

A

connects intracellular cytoskeleton (actin) to the transmembrane proteins alpha and beta-dystroglycan, which are connected to the ECM. without in you get myonecrosis

324
Q

Duchenne’s bloodwork

A

Increased CPK and aldolase scene

325
Q

Duchenne’s dx

A

Western blot and muscle biopsy confirm diagnosis

326
Q

Becker mutation

A

X-linked point mutation

327
Q

Becker onset

A

Adolescene or early adulthood

328
Q

Myotonic dystrophy type 1 genetics

A

CTG trinucleotide repeat expansion in the DMPK gene leading to abnormal expression of myotonin protein kinase

329
Q

Myotonic type 1 presentation

A

Myotonia, muscle wasting, frontal balding, cataracts, testicular atrophy, and arrhythmia

330
Q

Myotonia is

A

Delayed relaxation with prolonged contraction, muscle may be warmed up to limit the myotonia

331
Q

Fragile X genetics

A

FMR1 gene on X chrom. affecting the methylation and expression of the FMR1 gene.

332
Q

Fragile X epidemiology

A

2nd MCC of genetic intellectual disability (after Down’s)

333
Q

Fragile X presentation

A

Post-pubertal macroorchidism (enlarged testes), long face with a large jaw, large everted ears, autism, mitral valve prolapse

334
Q

Fragile X genetic path

A

Trinucleotide repeat disorder (CGG)

335
Q

Fragile X mnemonic

A

eXtra large testes, jaw, and ears

336
Q

GAA

A

Friedreich ataxia

337
Q

CAG

A

Huntington

338
Q

CTG

A

Myotonic dystrophy

339
Q

CGG

340
Q

Mnemonic for Trinucleotide repeat disorders

A

X-Girlfriend’s First Aid Helped Ace My Test (the middle letter of each repeat)

341
Q

Down syndrome presentation

A

MR, flat facies, epicanthal folds, palmar crease, gap between 1st 2 toes, duodenal atresia, Hirschsprung’s, congenital heart disease (ostium primum-type ASD), Brushfield spots. Inc. risk of ALL, AML< and Alzheimer’s (>35 years old)

342
Q

Down’s genetics

A

1:700. 95% due to nondisjunction. 4% due to reobersonian translocation. 1% due to mosaiciism (post-fertilization mitotic error)

343
Q

Down syndrome First trimester diagnosis

A

US: Inc. nuchal translucency and hypoplastic nasal boneSerum: PAPP-A is down, betahCG is up

344
Q

Down syndrome Second trimester diagnosis

A

Serum: low AFP, high beta-hCG, low estriol, inc. inhibin A

345
Q

Edwards syndrome presentation

A

Severe MR, rocker-bottom feet, micrognathia, low set Ears, clenched hands, prominent occiput, cong. heart disease, death within 1 yr

346
Q

Edwards syndrome genetics

A

(E)lection age (18)1:8000, most common trisomy resulting in live birth after Down’s

347
Q

Edwards serum

A

PAPP-A and free betahCG down in first trimester. Quad screen: low AFP, low betahCG, low estriol, low or normal inhibin A

348
Q

Patau syndrome presentation

A

severe MR, rocker bottom feet, microphthalmia, microcephaly, cleft liP/Palate, holoProsencephaly, Polydactyly, congenital heart disease, death within 1 yr

349
Q

Patau genetics

A

(P)uberty 13

350
Q

Patau serum

A

First-trimester: low betahCG, low PAPP-A and increased nuchal translucency

351
Q

Draw out a table of the three viable trisomies bloodwork in pregnancy

352
Q

Draw out nondisjunction

353
Q

What are acrocentric chromosomes

A

have centromeres near the ends

354
Q

Robertsonian translocation

A

Acrocentric chromosomes fuse with loss of both short arms, can be balanced or unbalanced

355
Q

Which chromosomes can undergo robertsonian translocation

A

paris 13, 14, 15, 21 and 22

356
Q

What happens to the short arms in a robertsonian translocation

A

The reciprocal product is formed from the long armed chromosome but because they have useless genes they are usually lost quickly.

357
Q

Cri-du-chat syndrome genetics

A

Congenital microdeletion of short arm of chrom. 5 (46,XX or XY, 5p-)

358
Q

Cri-du-chat presentation

A

Microcephaly, moderate to severe MR, high-pitched crying/mewing, epicanthal folds, cardiac abnormalities (VSD)

359
Q

Williams syndrome genetics

A

Congenital microdeletion of long arm of chrom. 7 (deleted region includes elastin gene)

360
Q

Williams presentation

A

Elfin facies, MR, hypercalcemia (incr. sensitivity to vit. D), well developed verbal skills, extremely friendly, CV problems

361
Q

What are the 22q11 deletion syndromes

A

DiGeorge and Velocardiofacial syndromes

362
Q

CATCH-22

A

Cleft palate, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cardiac defects, hypocalcemia secondary to parathyroid aplasia, due to microdeletion at chromosome 22q11.

363
Q

22q11 deletion path

A

Aberrant development of 3rd and 4th branchial pouches

364
Q

DiGeorge syndrome presentation

A

thymic, parathyroid, and cardiac defects

365
Q

Velocardiofacial syndrome

A

palate, facial, and cardiac defects

366
Q

B1

A

thiamine (TPP)

367
Q

B2

A

riboflavin (FAD,FMN)

368
Q

B3

A

niacin: NAD+

369
Q

B5

A

pantothenic acid (CoA)

370
Q

B6

A

pyridoxine (PLP)

371
Q

B7

372
Q

B9

373
Q

B12

374
Q

What B vitamins stored in liver

A

B12 and folate, the rest are peed out

375
Q

B-complex deficiencies typical presentation

A

Dermatitis, glossitis, and diarrhea

376
Q

Vitamin A is used as treatment for

A

Treats measles and AML, subtype M3. Retin-A for wrinkles and acne

377
Q

Vitamin A phys

A

Antioxidant, visual pigments (retinal), normal differentiatino of epithelial cells into specialized tissue (pancreatic cells, mucus cells), prevents squamous metaplasia

378
Q

Vit A Deficiency

A

Night blindness (nyctalopia); dry, scaly skin (xerosis cutis); alopecia; corneal degeneration (keratomalacia); immune suppression

379
Q

Vit A Excess

A

Arthralgias, skin changes (scaly), alopecia, pseudotumor cerebri, cerebral edema, osteoporosis, hepatic abnormalities, teratogenic (cleft palate, cardiac abnormalities), so a negative preg. test and relaiable contraception are needed before isotretinoin is prescribed for severe acne

380
Q

Thiamine function

A

Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP): cofactor for several dehydrogenase enzyme reactions: pyruvate dehydrogenase, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (TCA cycle), transketolase (HMP shunt), Branched chain ketoacid dehydrogenase

381
Q

Thiamine mnemonic

A

ATP: alpha-ketoglutarate dehyd., transketolase, pyruvate dehydroganase ….and throw in branched chain ketoacid dehydrogenase

382
Q

Thiamine deficiency presentation

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff: triad (confusion, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia); confabulation, personality change, memory loss (permanent).Ber1Ber1: Dry: polneuritis, symmetrical muscle wasting. Wet: high output cardiac failure (dilated cardiomyopathy), edema.

383
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoff path

A

Damage to medial dorsal nucleus of the thalamus, mammillary bodies

384
Q

Thiamine deficiency path

A

Impaired glucose breakdown, ATP depeltion worsened with glucose infusion; highly aerobic tissues (brain, heart) affected first.

385
Q

Thiamine def. cause

A

Malnutrition and alcoholism

386
Q

Thiamine def. diagnosis

A

Increased RBC transketolase activity following thiamine administration

387
Q

Thiamine is what B vitamin

388
Q

Riboflavin function

A

Part of FAD and FMN, used as cofactors in redox reactions, e.g. succinate dehydrogenase reaction in the TCA cycle

389
Q

Riboflavin deficiency

A

Cheilosis and Corneal vascularization (2 C’s of B2)

390
Q

Niacin function

A

NAD+, NADP+.

391
Q

Niacin tx

A

dyslipidemia, lowers VLDL and raises HDL

392
Q

Niacin synthesis

A

Need tryptophan, synthesis requires B2 and B6

393
Q

Niacin deficiency

A

Glossitis. Severe is pellagra (caused by Hartnup disease and malignant carcinoid syndrome), and isoniazid.

394
Q

Pellagra presentation

A

3 D’s of B3: diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis

395
Q

Dermatitis in pellagra

A

Casal necklace or hyperpigmentation of sun-exposed limbs

396
Q

Tryptophan metabolism in Hartnup, carcinoid, and isoniazid

A

Hartnup: dec. trypt absorptionCarcinoid: Inc. trypt metabolismIsoniazid: decreased B6

397
Q

Niacin excess

A

Facial flushing (prostaglandin, not histamine), hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia

398
Q

Pantothenate function

A

Coenzyme A and fatty acid synthase

399
Q

B5 is

A

“pento”thenate

400
Q

Pantothenate deficiency

A

Dermatitis, enteritis, alopecia, adrenal insufficiency

401
Q

Pyridoxine function

A

Converted to pyridoxal phosphate, used in transamination (ALT and AST), decarboxylation reactions, glycogen phosphorylase. Synthesis of cystathionine, heme, niacin, histamine, serotonin, epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine, and GABA

402
Q

Pyridoxin deficiency

A

Convulsions, hyperirritability, peripheral neuropathy (isoniazid and oral contraceptives), sideroblastic anemias due to impaired hemoglobin synthesis and iron excess

403
Q

Biotin Function

A

Cofactor for carboxylation enzymes (which add 1-carbon group)

404
Q

Biotin mnemonic

A

Avidin in egg whites avidly binds biotin

405
Q

Biotin reactions

A

Pyruvate carboxylaseAcetylCoA carboxylasePropionyl-CoA carboxylase

406
Q

Biotin deficiency

A

Rare. Dermatitis, alopecia, enteritis. Caused by abx or excessive ingestion of raw egg whties

407
Q

folate function

A

Turned into tetrahydrofolate for 1-carbon transfer/methylation reactions. Synthesizing nitogenous bases in DNA and RNA

408
Q

Folate sources

A

Leafy green vegetables, absorbed in jejunum. Folate from Foliage.

409
Q

Folate deficiency

A

macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia; hypersegmented PMNs, glossitis, no neurologic symptoms

410
Q

folate def. labs

A

increased homocysteine, normal methylmalonic acid

411
Q

folate def. in US

A

most common vit. deficiency, seen in alcoholics and pregnancy

412
Q

folate def. causes

A

Phenytoin, sulfonamides, methotrexate

413
Q

Cobalamin function

A

cofactor in homocysteine methyltransferase (transfers methyl groups as methylcobalamin) and methlmalonyl-CoA mtuase

414
Q

Cobalamin deficiency

A

macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia; hypersegmented PMNs, paresthesias, subacute combined degeneration due to abnormal myelin

415
Q

What is subacute combined denegeration

A

degeneration of dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts, and spinocerebellar tracts.

416
Q

Cobalamin blood work

A

elevated serum homocysteine and methylmalonic acid levels

417
Q

Permanent effect of prolonged B12 deficiency

A

irreversible nerve damage

418
Q

Cause of B12 deficiency

A

Only made by microorganisms, only from animal products. Veganism, malabsorption (Diphyllobothrium latum), lack of intrinsic factor (pernicious anemia, gastric bypass surgery), or absence of terminal ileum (Crohn’s).

419
Q

Diagnosis of pernicious anemia

A

Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies

420
Q

Draw out reactions for B12 and B6

421
Q

What are the B12 reactions

A

Homocysteine to Methionine via Homocysteine methyltransferase AND methylmanolyl-CoA to succinyl-CoA via methylmalonyl-CoA mtuase

422
Q

What are the B6 reactions

A

Homocysteine to cysteine and Succinyl-CoA to Heme….but not all of them??

423
Q

Folates (B9) reactions

A

Used in reaction from homocysteine to methionine but not in forming succinyl-CoA (which is used for myelin synthesis)

424
Q

Vit C functions

A

helps iron absorption by reducing to Fe2+ stateHydroxylating proline and lysine in collagenNeeded for dopamine Beta-hydroxylase to convert DA to NE

425
Q

Treatment for methemoglobinemia

A

Vit C is ancillary tx by reducing Fe3+ to Fe2+

426
Q

Scurvy presentation

A

swollen gums, bruising, hemarthrosis, anemia, poor wound healing, perifollicular and subperiosteal hemorrhages, corkscrew hair, weakened immune systhem

427
Q

Vit. C excess

A

N/V/D, fatigue, calcium oxalate kidney stones. Increased risk of iron toxicity for people who receive transfusions, hereditary hemochromatosis

428
Q

D2

A

ergocalciferol: from plants

429
Q

D3

A

cholecalciferol: milk, sun-exposed skin (stratum basale)

430
Q

Vit D storage form

431
Q

Vit D active form

A

1,25-(OH)2D3 (calcitriol)

432
Q

Vit D function

A

Inc. intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate, inc. bone mineralization

433
Q

Vit D def.

A

Rickets in kids, osteomalacia in adults, hypocalcemic tetany

434
Q

Breastmilk and Vit D

A

Low in Vit D, breastfed babies need oral vitamin D

435
Q

Vit D Excess

A

HyperCa, hypercalciuria, loss of appetite, stupor

436
Q

Causes of Vit D excess

A

Sarcoid (inc. activation of vitamin D by epitheliod macrophages)

437
Q

Vit E is also called

A

tocopherol and tocotrienol

438
Q

Vit E function

A

Antioxidant (protects RBCs and membranes from free radical damage)

439
Q

Vit E and blood thinners

A

Can enhance anticoagulation due to warfarin

440
Q

Vit E Def.

A

hemolytic anemia, acanthocytosis, muscle weakness, posterior column and spinocerebellar tract demyelination

441
Q

Vit E def. simply explained

A

Like B12, with no anemia, PMN changes, or increased serum methylmalonic acid levels

442
Q

Vit K function

A

Cofactor for gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues on proteins for blood clotting (II, VII, IX, X) and proteins C and S

443
Q

Vit K def. presentation

A

Inc. PT and aPTT with normal bleeding time

444
Q

Vit K def. causes

A

Neonates (no bacteria in gut), prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics

445
Q

Vit K and breast milk

A

Not in breast milk, neonates need an injection at birth

446
Q

Zinc function

A

Essential for the activity of 100% enzymes. Zinc fingers (transcription factor motifs)

447
Q

Zinc def.

A

Delayed wound healing, hypogonadism, less adult hair, dysgeusia, anosmia, acrodermatitis enteropathica, may predispose to alcoholic cirrhosis

448
Q

What reactions happen in the mitochondria

A

Beta-oxidation, acetyl-CoA production, TCA cycle, Ox phos

449
Q

What reactions happen in the cytoplasm

A

Glycolysis, fatty acid synthesis, HMP shunt, protein synthesis (RER), steroid synthesis (SER), cholesterol synthesis

450
Q

What happens in both mitochondria and cytosol

A

Heme synthesis, Urea cycle, Gluconeogenesis (HUGs take two)

451
Q

What is a phosphorylase

A

Adds phosphate without ATP (e.g. glycogen phosphorylase)

452
Q

What is a carboxylase

A

Transfers CO2 groups with the help of biotin (e.g. pyruvate carboxylase)

453
Q

Mutase does

A

relocates a functional group within a molecule

454
Q

Know what type of enzyme specific ones are??

455
Q

What cofactor is needed for ethanol metabolism

A

NAD+ (turned into NADH)

456
Q

limiting reagent in ethanol metabolism

457
Q

Kinetics of alcohol metabolism

A

zero-order kinetics

458
Q

NADH/NAD+ ratio in alcohol metabolism

A

Increases in liver

459
Q

What is the effect of the NADH/NAD+ ratio on pyruvate, oxaloacetate, and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

A

Lactate, malate and glycerol-3-phosphate

460
Q

Fomepizole

A

Inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase (used to treat methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning)

461
Q

Disulfiram

A

Inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase (acetaldehyde accumulates, contributing to hangover sxs)

462
Q

Elevated NADH/NAD+ prevents TCA production of NADH causing increased utilization of acetyl-CoA for ketogenesis (ketoacidosis) and lipogenesis (hepatosteatosis)

463
Q

Kwashiorkor….

464
Q

Kwashiorkor

A

Protein malnutrition! Skin lesions, edema, liver malfunction (fatty change due to dec. apolipoprotein synthesis). Small child with swollen belly.

465
Q

Kwashiorkor mnemonic

A

MEAL: Malnutrition (protein), Edema, Anemia, Liver (fatty)

466
Q

Marasmus

A

Total calorie malnutrition resulting in tissue and muscle wasting, loss of SubQ fat, and variable edema

467
Q

How much net ATP via malate-aspartate shuttle

A
  1. because NADH is used in cytosol and matrix so you don’t lose anything.
468
Q

Net ATP via glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle

A
  1. because you end up with reduced FADH2, so you end up losing 2 ATP per glucose (2.5(NADH)-1.5(FADH2)=1 (the loss of energy from one pyruvate formed)
469
Q

Malate-aspartate shuttle

A

Needed because NADH can’t cross the inner mitochondrial membrane. In cytosol OAA is converted to malate and this then enters matrix to produce a new NADH in the TCA cycle. Aspartate is the way OAA can move from matrix to cytosol.

470
Q

Glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle

A

DHAP formed in glycolysis is reduced to glycerol-3-phosphate which is then oxidized by glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase which gives its electrons to FADH2, hence the loss. It also is a way of regenerating NAD+ for glycolysis.

471
Q

Glycolysis net ATP production

472
Q

Arsenic effect

A

Causes glycolysis to produce 0 net ATP

473
Q

What does CoA and lipoamide carry

A

Acyl groups

474
Q

What does Biotin carry

A

COOH (carboxylic acid group)

475
Q

What does THFs carry

A

1-carbon units

476
Q

What does SAM carry

A

Methyl (CH3) groups

477
Q

What does TPP carry

478
Q

What family of molecules in NAD+ and NADP+

A

Nicotinamides from vitamin B3 (Niacin)

479
Q

What family is FAD+

A

Flavins (Riboflavin B2)

480
Q

NAD+ for what general reactions

A

Catabolic (for energy production)

481
Q

NADPH+ for what general reactions

A

Anabolic processes (steroid and fatty acid synthesis), Respiratory burst, Cytochrome P-450 systemGlutathione reductase

482
Q

First step of glycogen synthesis in the liver?

A

Glucose to glucose-6-phosphate

483
Q

Know all the differences between Hexokinase vs. Glucokinase…

A

Location, Km, Vmax, Induced by Insulin, Feedback-inhibited by glucose-6-P, gene mutation associated with maturity onset diabetes of the young (MODY)

484
Q

What does it mean that hexokinase is feedback-inhibited by glucose6P

A

Excess glucose-6-P will stop hexokinase which makes sense in muscles where you only use the pathways to make energy. In liver, you’ll have excess glucose-6-P but you don’t want to slow it down so it does not feedback-inhibit.

485
Q

What is MODY

A

Aut. dom. gene disrupting insulin production. (monogenic diabetes) Type I and Type II are multigenic

486
Q

What does phosphofructosekinase-1 reaction do

A

Fructose-6-P to Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate

487
Q

What reactions in glycolysis produce ATP?

A

1,3-BPG to 3-PG by phosphoglycerate kinase ANDPhosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate by Pyruvate Kinase

488
Q

Why does fructose-2,6-BP induce PFK-1?

A

Because when glucose is in high supply it is produced by PFK-2 and activates PFK-1

489
Q

Why does alanine slow down pyruvate kinase?

A

alanine is made from pyruvate so if you have too much alanine, you probably have a lot of pyruvate, hence pyruvate kinase not needed.

490
Q

Know regulation by F2,6BP

491
Q

Are Fructose bisphosphatase-1 and PFK-1 the same enzyme with different phosphorylations too?

A

No. They are not the same. PFK-1 reaction is unidirectional.

492
Q

Where is pyruvate dehydrogenase complex and what does it do?

A

it is mitochondrial and links glycolysis to TCA cycle

493
Q

When is PDH active?

A

In fed state

494
Q

PDH has how many enzymes

495
Q

Name the PDH cofactors

A
  1. Pyrophosphate (B1, thiamine; TPP)2. FAD (B2, riboflavin)3. NAD (B3, niacin)4. CoA (B5, pantothenate)5. Lipoic acid
496
Q

What activates PDH

A

Exercise which also increases Ca2+, ADP, and NAD+/NADH ratio which all increase PDH

497
Q

What is the basic reaction for PDF

A

pyruvate+NAD+ +CoA leads to acetyl-CoA+CO2+NADH

498
Q

PDH is like what TCA cycle complex

A

alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex (same cofactors, simlar substrate and action)

499
Q

Arsenic does what to PDH

A

Inhibits lipoic acid

500
Q

Arsenic presentation

A

Vomiting, rice-water stools, garlic breath