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Statistics Flashcards

1
Q

Formula that relates sample size, power and effect size

A

n = [(Type 1 error)+Power]/Effect size

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2
Q

Regression model that takes into account the time to an event

A

Cox regression

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3
Q

Regression that adjusts for confounders of a continuous variable

A

Linear regression

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4
Q

Regression model for a categorical outcome

A

Logistic regression

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5
Q

Regression model for outcomes that are naturally ordered and categorical

A

Ordinal regression

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6
Q

What type of study generates Odds ratio and why?

A

Case-control because this type of study doesn’t measure incidence of disease

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7
Q

Positive outcomes on MOMS trial

A
  1. decreased need for VP shunt at 12 months
  2. decreased hindbrain herniation at 12 months
  3. increased rates of walking independently at 30 months
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8
Q

TTTS survival rates stage 1 and stage 3

A

stage 1 - 80%

stage 3 - 0-30%

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9
Q

T/F: valproic acid associated with reduced cognitive ability and autism in children

A

True

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10
Q

Conflicting studies regarding teratogenicity of lamotrigine – what did the unfavorable studies find

A

impairment in neurodevelopmental outcomes

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11
Q

Immunosuppressant associated with microtia, cleft lip/palate and miscarriage

A

Mycophenolate

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12
Q

1st trimester maternal steroid exposure associated with what anomaly

A

orofacial cleft

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13
Q

OB complications associated with long term steroid use

A

FGR

PPROM

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14
Q

Effects and secondary effects of 2nd/3rd trimester ACEi/ARB treatment

A

Renal failure and oligohydramnios

Leading to FGR, calvarium hypoplasia, joint contractures, pulmonary hypoplasia

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15
Q

Anomalies associated with 1st trimester ACEi/ARB exposure

A

inconclusive data – but cardiac and CNS anomalies

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16
Q

Anomaly associated with Lithium

A

Ebstein (<1% but still relatively high)

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17
Q

SSRI risk of PPHN due to

A

premature PDA closure

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18
Q

Paroxetine use associated with

A

cardiac defects

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19
Q

1st trimester opioid/codeine exposure associated with

A

cardiac defects

NTD

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20
Q

Isotretinoin associated anomalies

A 
Miscarriage
Intellectual disability
CNS malformations
Microtia or anotia
Micrognathia
Cleft palate
Eye malformations
Conotruncal defects
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21
Q

Isotretinoin SAB rate, structural defect rate, and intellectual disability rate

A

SAB - 22%
defects - 28%
intellectual disability - 47%

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22
Q

Excess vitamin A (retinol) associated anomalies, and at what vitamin A dosing

A

similar to isoretinoin (>10,000 IU daily in 1st tri)

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23
Q

High-dose radiation effects

A

microcephaly
intellectual disability
growth deficiency

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24
Q

GA with highest potential risk of radiation exposure

A

10-17 weeks

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25
Q

Radiation dose associated with abnormalities and recommended max radiation dose

A

50 rad (cGY) to the uterus

Recommendations max of 5-10 rad(cGY) to uterus

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26
Q

Effect of elevated mercury

A

Neurodevelopmental disability

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27
Q

Recommended fish intake

A

8-12 oz or 4oz of big fish

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28
Q

Tobacco use associated anomalies

A 
Cleft lip/palate
Gastroschisis 
Clubfoot
Cardiac
Limb reduction
Ocular
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29
Q

OB complications associated with tobacco

A

FGR
PTB
SAB

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30
Q

Effects of radiation at 0-4 weeks, 4-10 weeks

A

0-4: all or none
4-10: growth issues, microcephaly

**carcinogenic potential at any GA

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31
Q

Risk factors for cerebral palsy

A 
Prematurity (highest <28)
LBW (highest <1500g)
SGA
Intrauterine infection
Neonatal infection
APGAR <7 at 5 minutes
Placental abruption
Obesity/Smoking/Alcohol
Multiples
Pre-eclampsia
RDS/mechanical vent
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32
Q

Neonatal hypothermia requirements

A
  1. > /= 36 weeks and 16

- 10min APGAR

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33
Q

Thalassemia with elevated A2

A

B-thal

Sickle/B-thal

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34
Q

Hgb chains in A1 and A2

A

A1 - 2 alpha, 2 beta

A2 - 2 alpha, 2 delta

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35
Q

Swan parameters essentially unchanged in pregnancy

A

CVP

PCWP

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36
Q

Type of shock that increases CO

A

Sepsis

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37
Q

Indications for Swan (5)

A
  1. refractory ARDS/shock
  2. CM w/ EF <20%
  3. NYH III or IV
  4. Severe pree with unresponsive oliguria
  5. Severe valve disease
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38
Q

Singleton and twin growth curves are the same until what GA

A

26 weeks

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39
Q

Singleton growth rate per week in grams at early third vs late third trimester

A 
early third (33wk) - 250g/week
late third - 200g/week
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40
Q

What happens to pCO2 in pregnancy and why?

A

pCO2 is slightly decreased due to the hyperventilation of pregnancy

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41
Q

What happens to HCO3 in pregnancy and why?

A

Slight increase to compensate for the respiratory alkalosis

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42
Q

Normal ABG pregnancy

A

pH - 7.4-7.44
PaCO2 - 27-32mmHg
PaO2 - 72-104mmHg
HCO3 - 18-22meq/L

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43
Q

Leading cause of hearing loss in children

A

CMV infection

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44
Q

CMV positive with no ultrasound findings, what is chance of symptoms at birth

A

10-15%

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45
Q

Viral infection associated with PDA, cataracts/glaucoma, microcephaly, thrombocytopenia

A

Rubella

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46
Q

T/F: risk of Rubella is worse<20 weeks

A

True

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47
Q

Virus associated with Hutchinson teeth, mulberry molars

A

Syphilis

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48
Q

Virus associated with cardiac defects, deafness, blindness

A

Rubella

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49
Q

2 viruses rarely transmitted <20 weeks

A

Varicella

Toxo

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50
Q

Viruses rarely transmitted >20 weeks

A

Parvo

Rubella

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51
Q

High IgG avidity for CMV means infection occurred at least ____ months ago

A

Four

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52
Q

How long after acute Parvo infection do you keep checking MCAs

A

8-12 weeks

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53
Q

Chlamydia – first line and 2 alternatives

A
  1. Azithromycin

Alt: erythromycin, amoxicillin

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54
Q

Gonorrhea first line and 2 alternative treatments

A
  1. Ceftriaxone (and treat CT if not ruled out)

Alt: Genta and Azithro, Cefipime (and treat CT if not ruled out)

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55
Q

Local anesthetic agents that are amino amides

A

Lidocaine
Bupivicaine
Ropivicaine

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56
Q

Medication to blunt hypertension at time of GETA induction

A

Labetalol

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57
Q

Best and second best anesthesia agents for asthmatics

A
  1. regional

2. ketamine and succinylcholine (can use enflurane/isoflurane if needed)

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58
Q

Most common respiratory complication of pregnancy

A

Asthma

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59
Q

Risk of asthma exacerbation with SVD vs CS

A

Csection 18-fold increased risk

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60
Q

Treatment/management of IHSS

A

Propanolol

Avoid preload and ephedrine

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61
Q

T/F: PCWP is a measure of LV preload

A

True

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62
Q

Treatment for refractory maternal SVT

A

Digoxin
CCB’s
B-blockers

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63
Q

Variables directly measured versus calculated with a Swan catheter

A

Measured:

  1. HR
  2. CO
  3. CVP
  4. PA pressures in systole and diastole
  5. PCWP

Calculated:

  1. SV
  2. SVR
  3. PVR
  4. LVSI
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64
Q

SVR calculation

A

MAP-CVP/COx80

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65
Q

PVR calculation

A

PAP - PCWP / CO x 80

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66
Q

LVSWI Calculation

A

SV x MAP x 0.0144

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67
Q

T/F: SVR and PVR are measures of afterload

A

True

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68
Q

Swan reading highly predictive of pulmonary edema

A

CO/PCWP <4

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69
Q

What happens to SVR, LVSWI in preeclamspai

A

Increased

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70
Q

CVP that can be massively increased may be due to

A

massive PE

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71
Q

OB complications most–>least predictive of CP

A
  1. Chorio
  2. Prolonged ROM
  3. Maternal infection
  4. FGR
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72
Q

Hallmark lab values of AFLP

A

Elevated bilirubin, ammonia, ALP

Decreased glucose, ATIII, fibrinogen

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73
Q

Dermatosis of pregnancy associated with deposit of complement in basement membrane

A

pemphigoid gestationis

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74
Q

Dermatosis with perivascular T-lymphocytic infiltrate with Eosinophils

A

PUPPS

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75
Q

Dermatosis with spongiosis and a perivascular mononuclear infiltrate

A

Atopic dermatitis

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76
Q

Dermatosis with spongiform pustules with neutrophils

A

pustular psoriasis

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77
Q

Medication classes that can lessen OCP effectiveness

A

ABX - PCN, tetracyclines
Antiepileptic
St Johns Wort
Rifampin

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78
Q

Sx of immediate (IgE) allergy

A 
Anaphylaxis
Hypotension
Angioedema
Respiratory distress
Urticaria
Laryngeal edema
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79
Q

Biologic precurose of NO

A

L-Arginine

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80
Q

Medication that has a long half-life, delay pregnancy for 2 years

A

Etidronate - used for psoriasis

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81
Q

Most common malformations with anti-seizure drugs (most–> least (3))

A
  1. cleft lip/palate
  2. cardiac
  3. ONTD
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82
Q

Drugs to avoid in Myasthenia Gravis

A

Magnesium
Vecuronium/Rocuronium
Aminoglycosides
Ester anesthetics - chlorprocaine, tetracaine

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83
Q

HPV treatments OK and not OK to use

A

Ok: laser, cryo, TCA, bicholroacetic acid

Not OK: 5FU cream, Podophyllin, Imiquimod, Interferon

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84
Q

MOA of glyburide

A

stimulate insulin release from pancreas

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85
Q

Homolog of HPL/HcSommato.

A

GH and prolactin

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86
Q

HPL half life

A

10-30 mins

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87
Q

Treatment of HTN from pheo

A

phenoxybenzamine

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88
Q

meds that provoke a pheo

A

b- blockers
reglan
high dose steroids

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89
Q

Recommended serum PKU levels in pregnancy

A

2-6mg/dL

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90
Q

Rate limiting step in PG synthesis

A

Cyclooxygenase and Phospholipase A2

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91
Q

4 ethical principles

A

Autonomy
Beneficence
Non-maleficence
Justice

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92
Q

Most common GA for heart block from SSA/SSB

A

18-25 weeks

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93
Q

Vesicocentesis results you want/aim for (Na, Cl, Osm, Ca, B2-microglobulin)

A 
Na - <100mEq/L
Cl - <90 mEq/L
Osm - <210 mEq/L
Ca - <2 mmol/L
B2-microglobulin - <2 ug/L
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94
Q

Most common causes of macrosomia

A
  1. enhanced intrinsic growth potential
  2. abnormal glucose tolerance
  3. obesity (might be higher risk than glucose intolerance)
  4. parental sizes
  5. multiparity
  6. prolonged gestation
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95
Q

Fetal effects of uncontrolled maternal PKU

A

Phenylalanine crosses the placenta

  1. pregnancy loss
  2. microcephaly
  3. cardiac defects

long term - mental retardation, hypopigemntation of hair/eyes/skin

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96
Q

PI and RI formulas

A

PI = S-D / mean

RI = S-D/ S

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97
Q

GA when diastolic flow in Doppler starts to be seen

A

~15 weeks

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98
Q

UA resistance higher/lower close to placenta

A

Lower

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99
Q

Major fatty acid in surfactant phospholipids

A

Palmitic acid

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100
Q

Substances that delay fetal lung maturation

A

Androgens
Insulin
TGF-Beta

101
Q

Substances that promote fetal lung maturation

A 
Steroids
TRH/T3
Prolactin
TGF-alpha
Estrogen
Bombeisin 
B-agonists
102
Q

Enzyme lacked by the (1) fetus and (2) placenta

A

(1) 3-betaOHSD (can’t make pregnenlone –> progesterone)

(2) 17-alpha hydroxylase

103
Q

Incidence of CP when 5 min APGAR

A

5% at 5 mins

IF >20 mins then 20%

104
Q

ACOG hypoxia/asphyxia definition

A
  1. acidemia
  2. persistent Apgar 5 minutes
  3. evidence of neuro sequelae
  4. organ system dysfunction
105
Q

AF volume at its maximum at what GA

A

32-36weeks

106
Q

Hgb concentration higher in umbilical or uterine artery

A

uterine artery

107
Q

SCA associated with AMA

A

47, XXX

47, XXY

108
Q

Karyotype in UPD

A

46 XX or 46 XY with a deletion

109
Q

AD conditions associated with advanced paternal age

A

Achondroplasia
Marfans
Apert syndrome
Neurofibromatosis

110
Q

Risk of having an affected child with a paternal inversion

A

no previously affected children - 1-3%

previously affected children - 5-10%

111
Q

Difference between reciprocal and robertsonian translocation

A

roberstonian - involves accrocentric chromosomes

reciprocal - involves the same chromosome

112
Q

Highest –> lowest risk of T21 offspring: roberstonian, reciprocal, T21

A
  1. reciprocal (all)
  2. trisomy 21 (30%)
  3. roberstoniant (5-10%)
113
Q

% infants with T21 born to women <35

A

80%

114
Q

Effect of smoking on AFP levels

A

increases

115
Q

Blood product with high level of fibrinogen

A

Cryo

116
Q

FFP contains ____

Cryo contains _____

A

FFP - all clotting factors but no platelets

Cryo - fibrinogen, factors VIII and XIII

117
Q

Blood product with highest Hep B transmission

A

Factor VIII or IX concentrate

118
Q

Hemoglobinopathy most likely to present for first time in pregnancy

A

HgbSC

119
Q

MAC prophylaxis (first line and alternative)

A

Azithromycin

Rifabutin

120
Q

Methyldopa MOA

A

central alpha-2 agonist, leads to reduced SVR

121
Q

Clonidine MOA

A

alpha-2 agonist

122
Q

Lyme disease treatmen

A

Amoxicillin

Cefuroxime, Ceftriaxone

123
Q

Top causes of pneumonia

A
  1. strep

2. h influenza

124
Q

early onset versus late onset GBS timing

A

early - birth to 7 days

late - >7days

125
Q

risk of neonatal GBS with GBS+ mother

A

1%

126
Q

T/F: Delta OD450 may not be reliabel in Kell

A

True

127
Q

Potential neonatal effects of FGR

A

polycythemia
hypoglycemia
acidosis
hypercapnea

128
Q

Where can prostaglandin dehydrogenase be found

A

Chorion

129
Q

Sources of PGF2 alpha and E2 in uterus

A

E2 - fetal membranes

F2alpha - decidua

130
Q

Why is Mg >Dilantin for use

A

better efficacy

131
Q

Top 3 causes of thrombocytopenia

A

1 gestational
2 pree
3 ITP

132
Q

How does NO lead to smooth muscle relaxation

A

stimulates production of cGMP which leads to activation of MLC phosphatase

133
Q

Function of MLC phophatase

A

dephsophorylation of the MLC ultimately leading to smooth muscle relaxation

134
Q

Atosiban MOA

A

Oxytocin receptor antagonist

135
Q

ALPS benefit

A

decrease in composite outcome of need for respiratory support and decrease in severe respiratory morbidity composite

136
Q

Who gets ALPS

A

high risk of delivery within next 7 days and before 37 weeks

137
Q

ALPS inclusion/exclusion

A

Inclusion:
Singleton (twin reduction <14)
34-36+5 weeks
Delivery: PTL w/ intact membranes >/= 3cm or 75%, SROM, indicated delivery

Exclusion:
Prior BMZ
Stress dose steroids
Demise or know major anomaly
Maternal BMZ contraindciation
Pregestational DM
Delivery expected within 12hr (pit held for 12hrs)
Chorio or NRFHT
>/=8cm
138
Q

Antiseizure med associated w/ vit K deficiency in neonate

A

Phenytoin
Primidone
Phenobarbital

139
Q

Anomalies associated w/ phenobarb and primidone

A

phenobarb - CHD

primidone - cleft lip

140
Q

Is TRH polypeptide, carbohydrate or hormone

A

polypeptide

141
Q

Principal risk of prolactinoma

A

will pregnancy lead to an increase in size sufficient to cause neurologic symptoms, most importantly visual impairment (low risk with microadenoma, higher with macroadenoma)

142
Q

Ok to breastfeed with prolactinoma?

A

Yes - not associated with adenoma growth

143
Q

How to estimate fluid deficit in DKA

A

100mL/kg

144
Q

Fluid replacement in DKA

A

Isotonic Saline:
1st hr - 1L
2nd and 3rd hr - 500mL

250cc/hr thereafter of LR or .45NS

145
Q

Goal of K in DKA

A

4.5-5

146
Q

Typical agents for chemo in breast cancer

A

doxorubicin + cyclophosphamide OR

Doxorubicin + cyclophosphamide + 5-FU

147
Q

Trastuzumab associated with

A

oligohydramnios

148
Q

Drugs to avoid with pseudocholinesterase deficiency

A

succyincholine

ester local anesthetics

149
Q

Ester local anesthetics

A

Chlorprocaine
Benzacaine
Procaine
Tetracaine

150
Q

Fetal effect of paracervical block

A

fetal bradycardia

151
Q

Lidocaine dosing with and without epi

A

4mg/kg no epi

7mg/kg epi

152
Q

Local anesthetic that rapidly crosses placenta

A

chloroprocaine - but such short half life

153
Q

If a preeclamptic needs GETA for delivery what can be a complication

A

Worsened hypertension

154
Q

One bag of FFP/cryo will increase fibrinogen….

A

10mg/unit

155
Q

Factors in cryo

A

vwF
Fibrinogen
Factor 1, 5, 8, 13

156
Q

Clotting factors requiring Vit K

A

Factors 7, 9, 10, prothrombin (2)

157
Q

Labetalol MOA

A

alpha1 , beta 1 and beta 2 blockers

158
Q

Anti-HTN that (1) increase and (2) decrease cardiac output

A

Increase: hydralazine
Decrease: Thiazide, propanolol

159
Q

propanolol MOA

A

pure b-block

160
Q

Anti-HTN that (1) increases and (2) decreases renal blood flow

A
  1. Hydralazine

2 Thiazide, Propranolol

161
Q

Top OB adverse outcomes with cHTN

A
  1. Preeclampsia
  2. PTB
  3. FGR
  4. Perinatal death
  5. Abruption
162
Q

Prazosin MOA

A

vasodilation via alpha agonist

163
Q

Preeclamptic women are more sensitive to what substance

A

Angiotensin II – this sensitivity is seen before clinical evidence of disease

164
Q

What happens to preeclamptics when they are exposed to endogenous pressors (norepinephine, angiotensin ii)

A

MBP significantly increases

165
Q

T/F: in normal pregnancy there is unchanged sensitivity to norepinephrine, epinephrine, and vasopressin

A

True

166
Q

Factors causing right shift in hemoglobin curve

A

decreased O2 affinity, give tissues O2

Acidosis
Fever
Increased 2-3,DPG

167
Q

Factors causing left shift in oxygen-saturation curve

A

DecreaseO2 offloading

Alkalosis
Reduce 2,3-DPG
Hypothermia

168
Q

PaO2 that is 50% Hgb saturation

A

27

169
Q

K repletion in DKA

A

Start repletion once K is <5

If >4 give 10-20mEq
If <4 give 30-40mEq

170
Q

What is the cytokine shift that happens at implantation to prevent host rejection

A

Shift from Th1 to Th2 cytokine profile

171
Q

Cells that are thought to act locally to prevent fetal-parental rejective

A

Tregs

172
Q

Most predominant immune cell in the uterine decidua

A

NK cells

173
Q

Suspected role of NK cells

A

spiral artery remodeling

174
Q

predominant antigen presenting cell in pregnancy

A

macrophages

175
Q

Villous vascular development is driven by what cells

A

cytotrophoblasts

176
Q

Cells that produce the following hormones in the placenta:

  1. Prolactin
  2. GnRH
  3. hPL
A
  1. Decidua
  2. Cytotrophoblast
  3. Synctiotrophoblast
177
Q

Immune cells that are increased

A

Th2 (increase IL 4, 6, 13)
Granulocytes and CD8 lymphocytes
C3 and C4

178
Q

Dose alterations of amide local anesthetics in what patients

A

patients with renal or liver disease

179
Q

Lido toxicity - which symptom first

A

Neuro then cardiac toxicity symptoms

180
Q

Bupivicaine toxicity - which symptoms first

A

Neuro and cardiac at same time

181
Q

Anti-HTN medication for mysathenia patients

A

Hydralazine or methyldopa

182
Q

Potential fetal effects of maternal myasthenia

A

Poly
DFM
Arthrogryposis

183
Q

Reason Graves disease improves in pregnancy

A

decrease in TSH receptor antibody concentrations

184
Q

what type of virus is HIV

A

RNA retrovirus

185
Q

Verapamil + Digoxin for fetal SVT =

A

risk of feta cardiac arrest/depression

186
Q

Possible effects of thiazide use near time of delivery

A

lyte abnormalities
thrombocytopenia
bleeding issues

187
Q

loop diuretic with possible fetal ototoxicity

A

ethacyrnic acid

188
Q

fetal concern w/ lasix

A

PDA closure

189
Q

treatment of anthrax exposure

A

anthrax vaccine

Cipro

190
Q

Drug associated with neonatal hypothermia

A

Valium (diazepam)

191
Q

Precursor for deoxycortisol

A

progesterone (via 21-hydroxylase)

192
Q

Can cause fetal virilzation

A

Aromatase deficiency

Luteoma of pregnancy

193
Q

Byproduct of carbohydrates and proteins

A

Carbs - CO2

Protein - NH3

194
Q

Amniotic fluid volume at different GA

A 
8wk - 10cc
12wk - 50cc
20wk - 400cc
22wk - 630cc
28wk - 770cc
30-34 - max
36-38 wk - plateau around 500cc
195
Q

Compared to fetal plasma the amniotic fluid is….

A

isotonic in first trimester

hypotonic after that

196
Q

What is volume of intermembranous space? intervillous space?

A

intermembranous - 200-500cc

intervillous - 140cc

197
Q

Type of alkaline phosphatase made by placenta

A

Heat stable

198
Q

most reliable initial sign of malignant hyperthermia

A

hypercarbia

followed by: tachycardia, masseter muscle rigidity, general muscle rigidity

199
Q

meconium present, which FLM test is still valid

A

phosphitdylglycerol

200
Q

what makes up most of surfactant

A

saturated lipids

201
Q

FLM test that can be incorrect if high/low amniotic fluid

A

lamellar body counts

202
Q

What you can and can’t use for FLM in diabetics

A

don’t use PG testing as it can be present if bad glycemic control

can use surfactant:albumin or lamellar body counts

203
Q

MMA levels are elevated in what deficiency

A

Vit B12

204
Q

Elevated homocysteine levels can be seen in what type of anemia

A

Vit b12 or folate

205
Q

T/F: glanzman = normal ristocetin test

A

true

206
Q

Which subtype of IgG play a role in hemolytic disease of newborn

A

1 and 3 — 1 in first trimester, 3 is the most hemolytic

2 and 4 not associated w/ HLDN

206
Q

Which subtype of IgG play a role in alloimmunization

A

1 and 3 — 1 in first trimester, 3 is the most hemolytic

207
Q

Neonate compressions:ventilation per minute

A

90 compressions:30 ventilations/minute

208
Q

Phenylephrine is choice for epidural hyoptension, except in what cases

A

bradycardia - use ephedrine

209
Q

Top complications associated with renal transplant

A
  1. preterm birth
  2. low birthweight
  3. preeclampsia
  4. SAB`
210
Q

Most glucogenic amino acid

A

glutamate

211
Q

CD4 count for AIDS

A

<200

212
Q

What happens to platelets in preeclampsia

A

decrease in number

decrease in aggregation

213
Q

How can ion trapping happen w/ local anesthetic administration and the fetus

A

if fetus is more acidotic than mom then increased local will cross placenta (the ionized local gets trapped in fetal circulation)

214
Q

another name for hypogastric artery

A

internal iliac

215
Q

ARPKD fetal findings

A

enlarged echogenic kidneys

oligohydramnios frequently

216
Q

ADPKD fetal findings

A

enlarged echogenic kidneys (not as much as ARPKD)
typically normal AFI
can sometimes see cysts

217
Q

layers of hemochorial placenta

A 
maternal capillary
intervillous space
syncytiotrophoblast
cytotrophoblast
fetal mesenchyme
fetal capillary endothelium
fetal capillary
218
Q

deformation

A

genetically normal structure becomes abnormal due to mechanical force (contractures from oligohydramnios)

219
Q

association

A

anomalies occur together but not linked to a reason (CHARGE)

220
Q

% of blood leaving RV that travels through PDA

A

90%

221
Q

Most important surfactant protein

A

SP-A

222
Q

Surfactant is most beneficial because it decreases risk of

A

death

223
Q

Most common causes of acute pyelo

A

E coli
Klebsiella
Proteus
Enterobacter

224
Q

Tocolytic that can cause hypokalemia

A

Terbutaline (ritodrine)

225
Q

GBS is most resistant to what drug

A

Erythromycin

226
Q

Prevalence of asx bacteriuria

A

5%

227
Q

% of HSV2 positive individual with subclinical shedding

A

1-3%

228
Q

Why are dex and beta able to cross placenta and have fetal effects

A

They’re fluorinated, don’t get broken down by placental hydroxylase

229
Q

Decrease risk of PVL – which steroid?

A

Beta (not dex)

230
Q

Highest glucocorticoid potency

A

Beta
Dex
Methylprednisolone

231
Q

Steroids with highest minerocorticoid properties

A

Hydrocortisone and cortisone

232
Q

Most common problem for term FGR infant

A

hyperbilirubinemia

233
Q

immunotropism

A

immunologic stimulation of trophoblasts

234
Q

PVL damages what part of fetal brain

A

white matter

235
Q

autonomic dysreflexia – will items above or below lesion vasoconstrict?

A

below lesion = vasoconstriction

236
Q

Medication to avoid in patient with spinal cord lesion to avoid hyperkalemia

A

Succinylcholine (will release stored K from denervated muscles)

237
Q

heart lesion most essential to prevent hypotension and drop in SVR

A

Eisenmengers

238
Q

Most common aneuploidy when severe FGR <22 weeks

A

T18

239
Q

embryo sex differentiation at what GA

A

6-7 weeks

240
Q

Leydig cells make ____, Sertoli cells make____

A

Testosterone, AMH

241
Q

46XX with ambiguous genitalia differential

A

virilized from maternal androgen exposure
CAH (21-hydroxylase, 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency)
Maternal androgen secreting tumor

242
Q

SLO clinical manifestations

A

Holopros
polydactyly or syndactyly
FGR
Ambiguous genitalia

243
Q

Which subtype of 11-betaOHSD converts cortisol to cortisone

A

type II

244
Q

17-hydroxylase function

A

c21 to c19 steroids

245
Q

Fetal leptin site of production

A

mostly fetal adipose followed by placenta

246
Q

hPL is most similar to which hormones

A

hGH and prolactin

247
Q

Hormone needed by the adrenal gland to support its growth in late gestation

A

ACTH

248
Q

T/F: spiral arteries lose their smooth muscle layer during cytotrophoblast invasion

A

True

Written MFM Boards (3 decks)

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