static Flashcards

1
Q

Appointment, posting and promotion of district judges are made by the ___________ in
consultation with the High Court

A. State govt
B. PSC
C. Governor

A

governor of the state

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2
Q

in _________ case in __________, the
Supreme Court held that the power to
amend the Constitution under Article 368
was not unlimited and that the FRs
guaranteed under the Constitution could
not be abrogated or abridged by a
constitutional amendment

A

Golak Nath, 1967

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3
Q

___________ case, SC held that ‘actions of President during a State emergency were open to judicial scrutiny’

A

S R Bommai’s

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4
Q

Article 35A of the Indian Constitution?:

A

It stemmed out of Article 370 and gave powers to the J&K Assembly
to define permanent residents of the state, their special rights, and privileges.

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5
Q

Following
the recommendations of
the ____________, the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 conferred special status on Delhi and
designated it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCTD).
o It added Article ____AA to the Constitution and made Delhi a UT with a legislature and a council of
ministers.
o The Lieutenant Governor (LG) is designated as the administrator of Delhi, operating with the aid and
advice of the council of ministers of Delhi.
* Powers of Delhi Legislature: The Delhi Legislative Assembly has the power to legislate over subjects in
the State List and Concurrent List, except for ____, ____, _____

A

S. Balakrishnan
Committee

239
Police, public order, and land.

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6
Q

Sindhi was introduced by the ______
Amendment Act of 1967, Konkani,
Manipuri, and Nepali by the ____
Amendment Act of 1992, and
Santali, Dogri, Maithili, and Bodo
by the ____nd Amendment Act of 2003.

A

21st, 71, 92

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7
Q

o It is officially known as National Commission for Religious and Linguistic
Minorities.

o Report by Commission (2007) recommended that Scheduled caste status be
completely delinked from religion and be made religion neutral like STs.
o It had recommended permitting Dalits who converted to Islam and Christianity to
avail Scheduled Caste status

____________ headed this Commission

A

Ranganath Mishra

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8
Q

Rule 198 of Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha provides for?

A

no confidence motion

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9
Q

while no confidence motion is speech in support of it is allowed ?

A

Unless leave is granted by the House to move the motion, no speech is permitted in support
of the no confidence motion?

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10
Q

Article ______: Powers and privileges of both
Houses of Parliament and its members
and committees.
o Article ____: Powers, privileges and
immunities of State legislatures and
their members and committees

Article _______ restricts members from
discussing judges’ conduct) and to the rules and procedures of the parliament, under Article 118.
o Article ____: Restricts the courts from inquiring into the validity of any proceeding of Parliament on the
grounds of alleged irregularity of procedure

Constitution provided immunity to ministres ??___________

A

105

194

121

122

NO

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11
Q

Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides legislators freedom from arrest in any civil case ________ days before and after the adjournment of the house and
also during the session of the house.

A

40

ü However, an MP doesn’t enjoy any such
immunity in a criminal case

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12
Q

Privilege Committee
* It is a parliamentary standing committee
present in both Houses of Parliament.
o Consists of ___ members in Lok
Sabha (___ in case of Rajya
Sabha) nominated by the
Speaker (Chairman in case of Rajya
Sabha).

A

15, 10

  • Key Function: Investigate questions
    involving the breach of privileges of House or
    members, as referred to it by presiding officer
    of Houses.
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13
Q

Ethics committee of Lok sabha
* It consists of not more than ____ Members
nominated by the Speaker and shall hold office
for a term not exceeding ___ year

Ethics committee of Rajya Sabha
The committee consists of ___ members, including a chairman. Tenure?

The First Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha was set
up in _______ and of Rajya sabha in __________

Unlike the _______ (under rule 374A), the __________ cannot suspend its members without
passing a motion
(RS, LS)

A

15, one

10, Tenure is permanent

2000, 1997

Lok Sabha, Rajya
Sabha

Side Note =
The Constitution provides for both expulsion and
disqualification. Under disqualification member of the parliament cannot contest the elections further while
under expulsion he/she can

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14
Q

Articles ________ and ________: For disqualification of a MP and a MLA respectively, on grounds of holding
an office of profit, being of unsound mind or insolvent or not having valid citizenship

A. 102, 191
B. 101, 190
C. 103, 193

A

102 (1), 191 (1)

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15
Q

In _______, for the first time in 59 years, no ordinances were promulgated.

A

2022

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16
Q

I R Coelho v State of Tamil Nadu (2007) is related to which schedule ?

Kithitho Holan case is related to ?

A

9th schedule

10th Schedule

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17
Q

A _________ majority is needed to pass a
motion for expulsion in each house. ( Simple/ Special)

Is it compulsory to involve ethics committee ?

RPA, 1951: Under Section 8(4), a lawmaker is disqualified for the period of imprisonment and a further ______ years if sentenced for two years or more in prison.

A

simple

Further involvement of the Ethics committee is not always necessary for expulsion.

six

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18
Q

The Anti-Defection Law, as outlined in the Tenth Schedule, mandates that a member who votes or abstains from voting in the House against the party’s directive without prior permission, and if the party fails to condone the action within __________ days, can face disqualification.

The word “WHIP” is mentioned in constitution. ( TRUE/ FALSE)

A

15

False

The office of the ‘whip’ is based on conventions of parliamentary government and is not explicitly mentioned in constitutional documents or parliamentary rules.

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19
Q

Ordinance

Article _____ (Power of President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of
Parliament) and Article ____– (Power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of
Legislature)

A. 132, 231
B. 123, 213

A

123, 213

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20
Q

Kishan Kumar singh Vs state of Bihar (1994) >/?

A. Emergency
B. Ordinance

A

issuance of ordinance is not immune from judicial review

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21
Q

R C Copper Vs Union of India (1970)

D C Wadhawan case (1987)

A

president decision to issue ordinance could be challenged on the ground of “immediate action” is not required

Ordinance should be used in exceptional circumstances

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22
Q

Article ______: Each House of Parliament shall have a separate secretarial staff

____ for state

A

98

Article 187

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23
Q

Articles 243 to 243O??

A

PRI

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24
Q

National Institute of Rural Development and
Panchayati Raj: An autonomous
organisation under the Ministry of ________________ for capacity building of rural
development functionaries, local elected representatives, bankers, NGOs etc

  1. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
  2. Ministry of Rural development
  3. Ministry of Home
A

Rural
Development

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25
Q

It empowers panchayats to impose, collect, and allocate taxes, duties, tolls, and fees

Article - _________–

Article ___________ Setting up a State Finance Commission (FC) every 5 years to review the financial position of
Panchayats and make recommendations to improve their financial position

A. 240-H, 240-I
B. 241-H, 241-I
C. 242-H, 242-I

A

241-H
241- I

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26
Q

PESA Act, 1996
* Based on recommendations of the ___________ Committee
A. Deobar committee
B. Dileep Singh Bhuria

The Ministry of ____________ is the nodal Ministry
for the implementation of provisions of PESA in the
States.

A

Dileep Singh Bhuria
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs

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27
Q

PESA Act is called a ____________

which states have 5th schedule areas?

which state has not introduced PESA uptill now

A

‘Constitution within the Constitution’.

Presently, 10 States viz. Andhra Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh,
Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha,
Rajasthan, and Telangana, have Fifth Schedule
Areas in their respective States.

jharkhand and Odisha

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28
Q

Article __________ (242/243/244) of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas. It states that the provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any State other than the States of _____________

A

244(1)

Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram

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29
Q

Does the Constitution of India mention the term “Special Session”?

________________ determines the date and duration
of parliamentary sessions

A

NO

The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs

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30
Q

Article _______of the Indian Constitution grants immunity or protection to the President
and the governor of the country.
o President and the governor are immune from court scrutiny for their actions and
duties in office.
o Conduct of the President can be reviewed only if either House of Parliament
designates court or tribunal or any other body to investigate the charges under
Article ____________

A

361

61

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31
Q

the power to suspend the pre-decided agenda of the House under Rule 267 is specific to the __________

RS/ LS?

A

Rajya Sabha and does not exist in the Lok Sabha.

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32
Q

Discussion on an adjournment motion should last for not less than __________ hr

A

two hours and thirty minutes

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33
Q

Article 100:

Article 200:

Article 300:

A

Article 100 - Quorum in Houses of Parliament

Article 200 - Assent of the Governor is necessary for a bill to become a law

Article 300 of the Indian Constitution deals with the ability of the Union of India and the States to sue and be sued.

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34
Q

Article 153
Article 163

A

153- governor
163 - CM plus Council of ministers

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35
Q

All India Services under Article ________

A

312

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36
Q

Article _________- provides that full faith and credit shall be given throughout the territory of India to all the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the Union and every State

A

261

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37
Q

Article ________ provides that the Supreme Court shall, to the exclusion of any other court,
have original jurisdiction in any dispute

A. 131
B. 141
C. 151

A

131

Article 131 of the Indian Constitution grants the Supreme Court original jurisdiction.
It covers disputes between different units of the Indian Federation, such as Centre vs. one or more states, Centre vs. state(s) against one or more states, or between two or more states.
The disputes must involve questions of law or fact determining legal rights, excluding political matters.
Private citizens cannot bring suits against the Centre or a state under Article 131.
Certain disputes like water disputes between states are addressed under different articles.

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38
Q

Article ______ deters the
Supreme Court from
adjudicating
interstate river water
disputes.

A

262

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39
Q

Collegium System:
Judges appointed through a Collegium.
Governed by Articles ______ for Supreme Court and ______ for High Court

A. 114, 207
B. 124, 217
C. 134, 227

A

124(2), 217

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40
Q

The Idea of All India judicial service was Included in Article 312 via _____nd Amendment.

A

42

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41
Q

difference between Arbitration, conciliation, mediation

A

all three methods aim to resolve disputes outside of court, arbitration involves a binding decision by a third party, mediation focuses on facilitating communication and voluntary agreement, and conciliation combines elements of both, with the conciliator potentially offering non-binding recommendations. Each approach has its advantages and may be more suitable depending on the nature of the dispute and the preferences of the parties involved.

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42
Q

sir alexander cardew committee and Mulla committee related to

A

prison reforms

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43
Q

sheela barse vs state of Mah -

A

custodian death

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44
Q

Article _______provides SC power, to do “complete justice” between parties, where,
at times, law or statute may not provide a remedy

A

142

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45
Q

Supreme Court Rules, 2013 prescribe eligibility criteria for an Advocate on record
o ??????????????/

A

Only AoR is entitled to file any matter or document before the SC.
o Senior Advocate is not entitled to appear without AoR in SC

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46
Q

Enactment of _____________ Act led to creation of Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) Scheme.

A

Criminal Law (Amendment 2018

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47
Q

Search Committee for selection of list of candidates for selection of CEC and EC- Headed by the Minister of ____

A. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

B. Ministry of Home

C. Ministry of Law and Justice

A

Law and Justice shall prepare a panel
of five persons for consideration of the Selection Committee.

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48
Q

Article ______ (320/324) for election commission

CEC and other ECs shall hold office for a term of ___________years from the date on which he
assumes his office or till he attains the age of ___________years, whichever is earlier.
* CEC and other ECs shall _______________ for re-appointment.
* Where an EC is appointed as CEC, his term of office shall _____________ in
aggregate as the EC and the CEC.

A

article 324

six
sixty-five

not be eligible

not be more than six years

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49
Q

constitutional Safeguards for Minimum Age for Contesting Elections
* Article _______: Minimum 25 years in Lok Sabha and 30 years in Rajya Sabha.

A

84

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50
Q

Article ______. Minimum 25 years in State Legislative Assemblies and 30 years in
legislative Council
A. 172
B. 173
C. 174

A

173

Ek sath tino MLA ban gaye

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51
Q

_________- was recommended by the Dinesh Goswami Committee.

A

simultaneous elections

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52
Q

N.N. Vohra Committee Report 1993 on ?

A

criminalization of politics

‘Voh Raha’ criminal (pakdo)

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53
Q

How is a Party’s National status decided?

Votes in Lok Sabha (LS), state polls: A party should secure at least___% of votes
polled in ___ or more states in LS or assembly elections, and, in addition, have
at least ___ members in LS.

o Seats in LS: It should have at least __% of total Lok Sabha seats and have candidates from not less than ____ states.
o Must be a state party: in at least ___ states.

A

6%
four
four

2
three
four

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54
Q

A National party Can have up to ___-star campaigners while others can have up to _____-star
campaigners

Need ______ (1/10/20) number of person to propose a candidate’s name to file nominations.

A

40, 20

only one

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55
Q

Digital Publisher Content Grievances Council (DPCGC):

Independent self-regulatory body for Online Curated Content (OCC) providers.
Established under _____________
Recognized and registered by the Ministry of ______________ as Level II Self-Regulatory Body under Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021.

Structure of DPCGC:
Online Curated Content Publishers (OCCP) Council: Composed of OCC publishers as members.
Grievance Redressal Board (GRB):

Consists of a chairperson (retired Supreme Court/High Court judge) and ________ members from media, entertainment, child rights, minority rights, and media law fields.

Functions of GRB:
Ensure alignment and adherence to the Code of Ethics by OCCP Council members.
Provide guidance on the Code of Ethics.
Address unresolved grievances within 15 days.

Hear grievances and appeals from complainants.
Online Curated Content (OCC) Platforms:
Companies curating and presenting diverse content via online video-on-demand platforms.
Examples include Amazon Prime, Netflix, Hotstar, Zee5, etc.
Operate on a “pull model”, allowing customers to choose and view content at their convenience.

A

the Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI).

Information & Broadcasting

six

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56
Q

Article ______ and Article _______ Reservation
of 1/3rd seats for women in the Lok Sabha
and State legislative assembly
respectively.
ü It also includes reservation of 1/3rd
seats for women under seats reserved
for SCs/STs under Article ________ and Article
_______-

A

330A, 332A:

330, 332

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57
Q

____________ ministry oversees RTI implementation.

A

The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions

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58
Q

CIC appointment committee
tenure
Composition
reappointment

A

PM - LOO, Cabinet minister

3 year - 65 years age

CIC + 10

NO

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59
Q

Good Governance day ________
started since __________

A

25th December
2014

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60
Q

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a governmental body established to enforce the _____________ Act.

Composition: The CCI consists of a Chairperson and _______ Members appointed by the Central Government. They are experts in fields like law, economics, finance, etc.

affiliated office to Ministry of ___________

Introduced innovations like the ‘______” for automated approval of transactions, clearing over 50 such cases

A

Competition, 2002

six

Ministry of corporates

Green Channel’

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61
Q

__________ committee recommended a cadet organization to be established in schools and
colleges at a national level

A

Pandit H.N. Kunzru

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62
Q

if individuals are caught red-handed taking bribes, then do CBI require consent from state to investigate ?

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) operates under the Ministry of ___________

A

NO

Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions of the Government of India

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63
Q

The ED can investigate and arrest individuals for violations of the PMLA 2002 and FEMA 1999 ________ a formal FIR (First Information Report) by the police.

A. Only with a
B. without

A

without

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64
Q

ED is under _____ministry
Chairperson is appointed as per provisions of ___ act

A

dept of revenue mini of finance
CVC act

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65
Q

Delimitation Commission:

Constitutional Mandate: Article ________ of the Constitution empowers Parliament to enact a Delimitation Act.

This Act is responsible for readjusting the number and boundaries of constituencies in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies after each Census.

Final Decision: The decisions made by the Delimitation Commission are Binding??________

Reporting Procedure: While copies of the Commission’s orders are presented before the House of the People and the State Legislative Assembly concerned, no modifications can be made by them.

Composition: The Delimitation Commission is typically chaired by a ______________, also includes ______

The Delimitation Commission has been set up
_____ times since independence i.e. in __________

In 1976, the ___nd Constitutional Amendment
froze this delimitation exercise until the first
Census after 2000 was published

In 2002, the ___th Constitutional Amendment
further extended the freeze for 25 years till 2026

A

82

considered final and cannot be challenged in any court of law.

sitting or retired Supreme Court judge. It also includes the Chief Election Commissioner of India or a nominee, as well as the Election Commissioner of the respective state.

4 times 1952, 1963, 1973, and 2002.

42, 84

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66
Q

In 1966, the term ‘Lokpal-Lokayukta’, coined by _______

there shall be a director of inquiry, not below the rank of ___________, who shall be
appointed by the government
o to conduct preliminary inquiries referred to the _____________ by the Lokpal

A

L. M.
Singhvi,

joint secretary, Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)

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67
Q

Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
Specifications Details
Composition * Lokpal consists of a chairperson and a maximum of_________members, of which ____
shall be judicial members and ____ shall be from SC/ST/OBCs, minorities and women.

Tenure of office
* Chairperson and members of Lokpal are appointed for term of ____ years or until
attaining age of ___ years, whichever is earlier.

Selection Committee (SC)
* Chairperson and Lokpal Members shall be appointed by __________ on recommendations of a Selection committee.
o Selection Committee constitute ______

o As per Lokpal Act of 2013, ______________ needs to create a list of candidates who are interested to become the chairperson or members of
Lokpal.

A

eight , 50%, 50%

five, 70

President

Prime Minister (Chairperson), LS Speaker,
Leader of Opposition, CJI (or his nominee) and eminent jurist (nominated by President based on recommendation of other members of panel).

Department of Personnel and Training

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68
Q

Lokpal and Lokayukta

Timelines:

Enquiry: _____ days for completion of inquiry and __ months for investigation by CBI.
Extension: The __-month investigation period can be prolonged by Lokpal upon written request from CBI.
Power over CBI:

Superintendence: Exercises control and direction over any investigative agency, including CBI, for cases referred by Lokpal.

Transfer Approval: Approval from Lokpal is necessary for transferring officers of CBI investigating Lokpal-referred cases.

Removal Process: Lokpal Members and Chairperson can be removed by the _______after an inquiry by the Supreme Court, initiated by a petition signed by at least _______ Members of Parliament (MP).
Jurisdiction:

Coverage: Extends to Prime Minister, except in cases related to ______________, Ministers, MPs, and officials of central government, along with societies, trusts, or bodies receiving foreign contributions exceeding ₹__ lakh.

Lokayuktas:

State Equivalents: Corresponding bodies at the state level, e.g., established by Maharashtra (1971) and Kerala (1999).
Jurisdiction: Over Chief Ministers, Ministers, MLAs, state government employees, and select private entities,

including religious institutions???______

A

60, 6, 6

President ,100,

allegations of corruption concerning international security, public order, atomic energy, and space
10
yes

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69
Q

Data Protection Board of India (DPBI):

Established by the Central government.
Monitors compliance, imposes penalties, directs actions in case of data breaches, and hears grievances.
Appeals against its decisions lie with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

Varying penalties for offenses,
including up to ₹____ crore for non-compliance with children’s data protection and ₹____ crore for failing to secure against data breaches.

A

TDSAT (Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal)

200

250

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70
Q

Article ___ of the Indian Constitution defines the term “Indian State” for the purpose of the Constitution

A. Article 12
B. Artilcle 365
C. Article 366
D. Article 248

A

366

Article 366 does define the term “Indian State”, although it does not define the general term “State” used in other parts of the Constitution

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71
Q

10th scheduled added via ___ amendment

A

52nd

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72
Q

eleventh and twelfth schedule ______ amendment

A

73 and 74

73
Q

prerogative writs taken from which constitution

A

British

74
Q

parliamentary privileges taken from which constitution

A

British

75
Q

Impeachment of president taken from which constitution
selection of president taken from which constitution

A

USA
Irish

76
Q

Removal of SC and HC judge taken from which constitution

A

USA

77
Q

Nomination to Rajya sabha taken from which constitution
election of member of Rajya sabha

A

irish
south africa

78
Q

advisory jurisdiction of SC taken from which constitution|
a. USA
b. UK
c. Canada

A

canadian

79
Q

procedure for amendment to constitution
taken from which constitution

A

South Africa

80
Q

Procedure established by Law

A

Japanese

81
Q

Digital India Corporation is a not-for-profit company established by the Ministry of _________

A

Electronics and Information Technology

82
Q

All foreign national, except _____ require a Protected area permit to visit certain parts of India

A. Nepal
B. Bhutan
C. Myanmar
D. Sri Lanka

A

Bhutan

83
Q

Protected area which are protected under protected area permit are located in

A

Aruna
HP
Ladakh
Raj
Sikkim
Uttarakhand

84
Q

protected area permit is issued under ____ act

A

foreigners act 1946

85
Q

Inner line permit is issued under ____ act

A

Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act 1853

86
Q

Ministry of _____ administers permits related to protected area permit

A. Foreign
B. Home
C. Defense

A

Home

87
Q

_____ amendment done away with classification of states into group

A

7th

88
Q

article 2
article 3

A

2 - admission of states which are not in India - admission of goa from Portuguese
3 - re-adjustment of boundary of existing states - ex - separation of telangana and andra

88
Q

Article 3 may change karna ho to president ki prior permission?

A

Lagti hai

89
Q

laws made under article 2 and 3 are amendment ?

A

no
article 4

90
Q

to cede territory
do we need amendment

A

yes

91
Q

formation of states sequence

A

Mah Guj
Dadra and Nagar Haveli
Goa, Daman Diu
Puducherry
Nagaland
Haryana-Chandigarh-HP
Manipur-Tripura-Meghalaya
sikkim
Mizoram-Aruna-Gao
Chhattisgarh-UK-Jharkhand
Telangana

92
Q

Arrange according to order of precedence

Chief Justice of India; Speaker of Lok Sabha
Vice-Chairperson, NITI Aayog
Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
Judges of the Supreme Court
Former presidents
Deputy Prime Minister

A

Former presidents
Deputy Prime Minister
Chief Justice of India; Speaker of Lok Sabha
Vice-Chairperson, NITI Aayog
Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
Judges of the Supreme Court

93
Q

For Scheduled Castes, ______ seats are reserved in Lok Sabha. For Scheduled Tribes, _____ seats are reserved
in Lok Sabha.

_________ states have one seat each in the Lok Sabha -

________ and _________ are not represented in
Rajya Sabha

A

84 , 47
Mizoram, Nagaland,
Sikkim, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu,
Lakshadweep, Pondicherry.

Basically all UT except Delhi

Ladakh, Chandigarh

94
Q

Special provisions with respect to state of Manipur: Article _______ makes the following special
provisions for Manipur :
o The __________ ( President/ Governor) is authorized to provide for the creation of a committee of the Manipur Legislative Assembly consisting of the members elected from the Hill Areas of the state.

A

371c
President

95
Q

The states and Union territories that have one seat each in the Rajya Sabha are:

A

All Seven sisters except Assam
Goa
Sikkim
PODUCHEERY

96
Q

__________ state with highest seats reserved for SC in Lok Sabha

_____ state with highest percentage of Seats reserved for SC in LS

The state with the highest number of Members of Parliament (MPs) from Scheduled Tribes is __________

A

UP
Punjab
Madhya Pradesh

97
Q

National commission for women is a statutory body or not?
chairperson should be compulsorily women

A

yes its a statutory body National Commission for Women Act, 1990
NO

98
Q

The Constitution of India provides that a person to be appointed as Attorney General (AG) must be
a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of _____________

A

the Supreme Court.
article 76

99
Q

A. Article 12 defines the term ‘State” only with the relation to part III of the constitution
B. According to constitution, Private bodies working as an instrument of state falls withing the meaning of state.

Only A
only B
A and B
none.

A

Only A

SC not constitution included private bodies as state

100
Q

In ______ case a 50% ceiling on quotas was introduced

A

mandal case

101
Q

________ committee was established to identity creamy layer in OBC
A. Madal committee
B. Ram Nandan committee

A

Ram Nandan committee

102
Q

77th
81st
85th
amendment act

A

Reservation in promotion of SC and ST
Backlog vacancies can increase and break 50% celling
Consequential seniority

103
Q

President can be arrested under civil cases after __ months of notice

A

two

104
Q

Preventive detention period without obtaining advice of board

A

3 months

105
Q

out of article 25 and 26 which is subjected to restriction to other provisions of constitution

A

25 only

106
Q

religious denomination criteria

A

doctrine
common org
distinct name

107
Q

National conference on monitoring, Evaluation, and learning

A
108
Q

against whom mandamus can not be issued

A

private
dept inst
contratual
president and governor
CJ of HC
duty is discretionary

109
Q

can certiorari issued against admin autho?
Legislative body?
private individual?

A

yes
no
no

110
Q

can qua-warranto issued against ministerial office?

A

NO

111
Q

a compensation should be given if state acquires a land which is under personal cultivation and under statutory limit

____ amendment act

A

17th

112
Q

________ amendment act provided for compensation to acquire land of minority institution

A

44

113
Q

86th Amendment act?

A

Article 21A
changed subject matter of Article 45 (upto six year)

114
Q

President can declare National emergency only after written declaration by Council of ministers

True or False

A

False
Cabinet

115
Q

National emergency must be approved within ___ months

A

One

116
Q

Proclamation or continuance of National emergency
Parliament requires ______ majority

Discontinuance by ______majority

A

Special
Simple
Infact president himself can revoke without parliamentary approval

117
Q

1/10th of members of lok sabha give written notice to the speaker or president a special sitting of the house should be held within _________ days

A

14

118
Q

_____- commission for inquiry into circumstances of declaration of emergency during indira gandhi time

A

shah

119
Q

________amendment act made the satisfaction of president invoking article 356 as final conclusive beyond judicial review
The ______ Amendment Act of the Constitution of India made it compulsory for the President to give his assent to Constitutional Amendment Bills.

A. 24
B. 38

A

38th

24th

120
Q

during Financial emergency the parliament is authorised to pass money bill of any state

True / False

A

False

121
Q

on delhi the president’s rule is applied from which article

A

article 239AB

122
Q

what happens to laws made on state list during national emergency once the emergency is over?

A

it cease to be inoperative six months after NE is over

123
Q

effective majority
used to remove?

A

total strength - vacancies
Vice president, Speaker, deputy speaker and deputy chairperson

124
Q

Amendments in 5th and 6th schedule requires Simple majority?
True/ False?

A

True

125
Q

Guwahati HC has jurisdiction over which states?

A

Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh

126
Q

Review petition has to be filed within ___ days of Judgment

A

30

127
Q

SC Collegium
a. CJI + 2
b. CJI +4
c. CJI + 5

A

b

128
Q

SC Collegium meeting come under RTI?

A

NO

129
Q

Civil and criminal contempt of court ?

A

civil - wilful disobey of Court order

Criminal - obstructing the execution of Justice
Publishing article to lower the authority of court

130
Q

Special leave of SC can’t be given against _____courts

A

Military courts

131
Q

Allowances and privileges are determined for Supreme court judges by Union govt

True and false

A

false
By parliament

132
Q

If motion of removal of a judge of SC or HC is admitted by speaker then, a three member committee is formed_______

A
  1. Judge ofSC
  2. Judge of HC
  3. A distinguished Jurist
133
Q

Pensions of HC judge by?

A

Parliament

charged on consolidated fund of India

134
Q

HC can issue writs beyond its jurisdiction?

True or False

A

True

135
Q

Securities Appellate Tribunal
Act _____
Presiding officer is appointed by _______
Appeal against it lies where ?__________

A

SEBI 1992
Central Govt in consultation of CJI
SC

136
Q

Doctrine of severability also known as Separability is?

A

Is whole law is inconsistent with the constitution or just some parts ?

137
Q

Doctrine of Eclipse

A

Law that violative of FR is not null and void only its not enforceable

138
Q

National Human Rights commission lays report to ___________

A

central Govt
Not president

139
Q

THe council of minister are collectively responsible to Parliament ?

True or False

A

False
Responsible to Lower house

140
Q

principle of collective responsibility means that cabinet decision is bound to all ministers
Yes or NO

A

yes

141
Q

it is required for a public act by president to be countersigned by minister ?

Yes or NO

A

NO

142
Q

Council of ministry have no collective functions
yes or NO

A

Yes

143
Q

Lok Sabha rules defines “MINISTER”
Yes or NO

A

NO
Salaries and Allowances act 1952

144
Q

The word cabinet was inserted in constitution via____amendment act

A

44th

145
Q

84th amendment act

A

allocation of seats till 2026 on 1971
allocation of constituencies - 1991

146
Q

Speaker gives his resignation to president?

yes / NO

A

NO
deputy speaker

147
Q

disqualification under 10th _____ has final say
disqualification under RPA and Constitution _____has final say

A

speaker
president

148
Q

during the resolution of removal of speaker is under go
can he vote?

Can Vice-president vote during resolution of his removal?

A

Yes
but not in the case of equality of vote

NO

149
Q

on substantive motion can the conduct of Speaker be criticised ?

Yes/NO

A

YES

150
Q

LOO in LS AND RS statutory status in ________

A

1977
salaries and allowance = cabinet minister’

151
Q

private member’s resolution is discussed only on _____ and in the afternoon sitting

A

Friday

152
Q

Short duration discussion for ___ hr for ___ days
Half-an-Hour discussion for ___ days in the week

A

2 hr for 2 days
3 days

153
Q

Government resolution can be taken from any day from _______ to __________

A

Monday to Thursday

154
Q

Abolition remission alternation of tax by local body in the bill makes it money bill

Yes/ no

A

NO

155
Q

Financial Bill I and II deal with article _____

A

117

156
Q

Who is not given parliamentary privilege among the following
a. President
b. Vice-president
c. Attorney general
d. Solicitor general

A

A
B
D

157
Q

Number of ministers including CM shall not be more than ____

A

12

158
Q

_______ of the total members of LC are indirectly elected and ____ are nominated by Governor

A

5/6
1/6

1/3 - local bodies and municipalities
1/12 - Graduates ( 3 years)
1/12 - Teacher - ( 3years)
1/3 - MLAs from LA

159
Q

Min strength of LC _____

A

40

160
Q

The chief justice of HC is appointed by president after consultation with _________

A

CJI + Governor

161
Q

HC judge can resign from office after giving resignation letter to _________

A. President
B. Governor
C. Chief justice of India
D. Chief justice of HC

A

president

162
Q

jurisdiction of power of HC can be changed or increased by ______

A

parliament and State legislature

163
Q

is dispute regarding election of member of parliament an exclusive jurisdiction of SC?

A

NO
HC can also

164
Q

northeastern states that have HC

A

Tripura meghalaya manipur
Ti megha manipur wali HC la geli

165
Q

subordinate judge can decide cases with imprisonment upto ____ years
judicial magistrate can decide with imprisonment upto ____ years

A

7 year
3 years

166
Q

peculiarly jurisdiction of permanent lok adalat

A

1 crore

167
Q

article 244?

A

special system for administration of certain areas designated as scheduled areas and tribal areas

168
Q

Right to property was deleted by ____ amendment

A

44th

169
Q

Reserbvation in promotion for SC and ST ____ amendment

A

77th

170
Q

Lok Sabha seats were increased from 525 to 545 _____amendment act

A

31st amendment act

171
Q

parliamentary committee on Official language
members?
report submit to?

A

30
20LS 10RS
president

The Chairman of the Committee is elected by the members of the Committee. As a convention, the
Union Home Minister has been elected as Chairman of the Committee from time to time

172
Q

A no-confidence motion is ___________
A vote of confidence, on the other hand, is __________

out of 27 no-confidence motion ___ were passed

Out of ___ vote of confidence ____ were defeated

A

moved by the opposition to express lack of confidence in the government. If the motion is passed, the government must resign.

initiated by the government to prove its majority in the house. If the government fails to win the confidence vote, it is required to resign.\

0
9, 3 (morarji, gowda, vajpayee)

173
Q

Article 311?

A

places two restrictions on the above ‘doctrine of pleasure’. In other words, it provides two
safeguards to civil servants against any arbitrary dismissal from their posts:
o A civil servant cannot be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was
appointed.
o A civil servant cannot be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which he
has been informed of the charges against him and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in
respect of those charges.
* The protection under Art. 311 is available only when the dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank is
by way of punishment. In Parshotham Lal Dhingra v Union of India, the Supreme Court has laid
down two tests to determine whether termination is by way of punishment -
o whether the servant had a right to hold the post or the rank (under the terms of contract or under any
rule)
o whether he has been visited with evil consequences If it amounts to punishment

174
Q

Article ____________ empowers both the Centre and the states to make any grants for any public purpose,
even if it is not within their respective legislative competence

A

282

175
Q

Article 169

A

specifies the majority that is needed to pass such a resolution to create or abolish LC. Such a specific resolution must be passed by the state assembly by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the
assembly present and voting

176
Q

does constitution prescribes the manner of election of legislative council ?

A

The Constitution has
prescribed the manner of election of the members of the legislative council

article 171

177
Q
A