Statements of case and interim applications Flashcards

1
Q

A claimant company issues proceedings against a defendant company for breach of an oral contract, entered into by the managing directors of the respective companies. The defendant files and serves a defence in time, which states only that ‘the defendant was not in breach of the terms of the contract, and in any event disputes the terms of the contract as asserted by the claimant’. The defendant’s solicitor writes to the claimant and explains that they are having difficulties contacting the managing director of the defendant company, as he has retired. The claimant makes an application to the court for summary judgment.

Is the claimant likely to be successful in their application?

A-No, because the claimant cannot make an application for summary judgment once a defence has been filed.

B-Yes, because the defendant has filed an insufficient defence and the claimant therefore has a real prospect of succeeding in their claim.

C-Yes, because it would be consistent with the overriding objective to grant summary judgment.

D-No, because only defendants can make an application for summary judgment.

E-No, because there is a compelling reason why the case should be disposed of at trial.

A

Option E is correct because there is a need to allow more time for the matter to be investigated, due to the defendant being unable to contact a key witness. This is particularly likely because one of the central issues, the terms of the contract, will be disputed oral evidence.

Option A is wrong because the claimant cannot make an application for summary judgment until the defence has been filed, otherwise it would not be possible to prove the defendant has no real prospect of successfully defending the claim under Rule 24.2.

Option B is wrong because the claimant must establish that the defendant has no real prospect of successfully defending the claim rather than that the claimant has a real prospect of succeeding on the claim. In addition, if the court found the defendant had no real prospect of successfully defending the claim due to the insufficient defence, the claimant must also prove there is no other compelling reason for the case to proceed to trial.

Option C is wrong because whilst summary judgment is consistent with the overriding objective, this is not itself a ground for summary judgment under Rule 24.2.

Option D is wrong because both claimants and defendants can apply for summary judgment, and in fact such applications are normally brought by the claimant.

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2
Q

A solicitor represents a claimant in a personal injury claim likely to be worth more than £100,000 arising from a road traffic accident. Proceedings have been issued and the time for acknowledgement of service has expired. The claimant’s long-term prognosis is unknown and since the accident they have been unable to work so are struggling financially. Liability has not been admitted however all evidence suggests the defendant is to blame. The defendant has refused to make a voluntary interim payment and the solicitor advises that a court application for an interim payment is likely to succeed.

Is the solicitor’s advice correct?

A-Yes, because the claimant is struggling financially as a result of the accident.

B-Yes, because the claim is worth more than £75,000.

C-Yes, because it is likely the claimant could prove on the balance of probabilities that they would obtain judgment at trial for a substantial amount of money.

D-No, because liability must be admitted or judgment obtained before the court will award an interim payment.

E-No, because the claimant’s long-term prognosis is unknown and the situation in which they are unable to work is ongoing so the court cannot order an interim payment at this stage.

A

Option C is correct because this is one of the grounds which must be satisfied before the court will make an interim payment under CPR Part 25. The evidence suggests that the defendant is to blame, therefore it is likely the claimant could prove on the balance of probabilities they would obtain judgment if the case went to trial. The claim is worth over £100,000 so if the claimant obtained judgment it would likely be for a substantial amount of money (other than costs).

Option A is wrong because this is not a ground under CPR Part 25. The claimant does not need to be in financial hardship to be awarded an interim payment.

Option B is wrong because there is no threshold figure; as above, the court must be satisfied that the claimant would obtain judgment at trial for a substantial amount of money (other than costs).

Option D is wrong because the claimant does not have to have obtained an admission of liability or judgment for the court to award an interim payment (although these are possible grounds under CPR Part 25). As above, the court may still award an interim payment if satisfied that the claimant would obtain judgment at trial for a substantial amount of money (other than costs).

Option E is wrong because if a situation is ongoing the court is more likely to award an interim payment. Here, there is likely to be a delay in assessment of damages because the claimant’s long-term prognosis is unknown.

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3
Q

Generally, the claimant is prevented from making an application for summary judgment in which one of the following situations?

A-Where the defendant has not filed an acknowledgment of service or a defence.

B-Where the defendant has not given its consent.

C-Where the court has not given permission.

D-Where the defendant has not filed an allocation questionnaire.

E-Where the defendant has not filed an acknowledgment of service and a defence.

A

Option A is the correct, unless the Court gives permission or a practice direction provides otherwise, the claimant cannot make an application for summary judgment before the defendant has filed an acknowledgment of service or a defence.

Option B is wrong there is no requirement for the defendant to give consent.

Option C is wrong you do not need the permission of the court to make an application for summary judgment.

Option D is wrong there is no requirement for a defendant to file an allocation questionnaire before an application for summary judgment can be made,

Option E is wrong because there is no requirement for both an acknowledgment of service and a defence. If either have been filed, then a summary judgment may be applied for.

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4
Q

An events planning company (the claimant) brings a claim against a catering company (the defendant) for breach of a written contract which provided that the defendant would supply the claimant with catering for various events. The claimant alleges the defendant, in supplying food and a catering service, breached implied contractual terms as the food supplied was of a poor standard. The claimant seeks damages for loss of profit plus interest on those damages. The claimant prepares to issue proceedings and drafts the particulars of claim.

Which of the following correctly describes the approach the claimant should take when drafting the particulars of claim?

A-The claimant should confirm that the defendant is a catering company which supplies food for events and catering services.

A

Option A is correct because in a breach of contract claim, where the contract relates to the parties acting in the course of business, the claimant should confirm the defendant’s business in the particulars of claim.

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5
Q

A solicitor is preparing particulars of claim. The claim is for damages for breach of contract following the supply of defective goods by the defendant. The claim has been issued in the High Court. Both parties are limited companies. The written contract of sale provides for payment of the goods within 28 days of delivery, failing which interest at 9% per annum is payable on any overdue balance.

Which of the following best describes how the solicitor should claim interest in the particulars of claim?

A-The solicitor should claim interest at the rate of 9% per annum on any damages awarded as this is the rate specified in the written contract.

B-The solicitor should claim interest under the Late Payment of Commercial Debts (Interest) Act 1998 and the compensation due under that Act.

C-The solicitor should claim interest under section 35A of the Senior Courts Act 1981. The solicitor will need to include the daily rate of interest payable and the total amount of interest due up to the date the claim form was issued.

D-The solicitor should claim interest under section 35A of the Senior Courts Act 1981. The solicitor will need to include the daily rate of interest payable and the total amount of interest due up to the date the claim form was issued.

E-The solicitor does not need to include any claim for interest as this is deemed to have been made.

A

Option D is correct because it will give the court the power to award interest at its discretion under s.35A Senior Court Act 1981.

Option A is wrong because the contractual interest rate only applies where payment for the goods is late, not to a claim for damages.

Option B is wrong because this is only available for debt actions.

Option C is wrong because this is an unspecified claim. Calculation of a daily rate and interest due to the date of issue is only required where the claim is specified.

Option E is wrong because if no claim for interest is made the court will have no power to award interest up to the date of judgment.

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6
Q

A solicitor is preparing particulars of claim. The claim is for the sum of £175,000 being the amount of consideration agreed between the parties for the claimant to supply goods to the defendant. The claim has been issued in the High Court. Both parties are limited companies. The written contract of sale provided for payment of the goods within 28 days of delivery, failing which interest at 20% per annum is payable on any overdue balance.

Which of the following best describes how the solicitor should claim interest in the particulars of claim?

A-The solicitor should claim interest at the rate of 20% per annum as this is the rate specified in the written contract. The solicitor will need to include the daily rate of interest payable and the total amount of interest due up to the date the claim form was issued.

B-The solicitor should claim interest under the Late Payment of Commercial Debts (Interest) Act 1998 at such rate and for such period as the court sees fit to award.

C- The solicitor should claim interest under section 35A of the Senior Courts Act 1981 at such rate and for such period as the court sees fit to award.

D-The solicitor should claim interest under section 69 of the County Courts Act 1984. The solicitor will need to include the daily rate of interest payable and the total amount of interest due up to the date the claim form was issued.

E-The solicitor does not need to include any claim for interest as it is for the defendant, in any defence that is made, to state whether or not the interest rate of 20% per annum provided for in the contract is admitted, not admitted or denied.

A

Option A is the best answer. The claim is for a specified amount of money, namely a debt of £175,000. The written contract provides for interest at the rate of 20% per annum on the debt. The solicitor will need to calculate and include the daily rate of interest payable and the total amount of interest due up to the date the claim form was issued.

Option B is not the best answer. It is correct that interest could be claimed on this commercial debt under the Late Payment of Commercial Debts (Interest) Act 1998. However, as would be expected, the contractual rate of interest (20% pa) is much greater than that under the Act (8% pa above the Bank of England’s base rate). In addition, because it is a specified claim, the solicitor will need to calculate and include the daily rate of interest payable and the total amount of interest due up to the date the claim form was issued. See the feedback to the correct option A.

Option C is not the best answer. As the proceedings are in the High Court, a claim for interest could be made under section 35A of the Senior Courts Act 1981. However, as would be expected, the contractual rate of interest (20% pa) is much greater than that under the Act (normally 1 to 2% pa above the Bank of England’s base rate). In addition, because it is a specified claim, the solicitor will need to calculate and include the daily rate of interest payable and the total amount of interest due up to the date the claim form was issued. See the feedback to the correct option A.

Option D is wrong. Why? Because the proceedings are in the High Court and so it would never be appropriate to claim interest under section 69 of the County Courts Act 1984. See the feedback to the correct option A.

Option E is wrong. It is for the claimant to state any claim for interest. Should the defendant deny that the claimant is entitled to the interest claimed, then that denial should be stated and explained in the defence. See the feedback to the correct option A.

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7
Q

A claimant has issued proceedings against a defendant in negligence. The claim is disputed by the defendant, and the defendant proceeds to file a defence. Upon receipt of the defence, the claimant is unable to file a reply or understand the basis of the defence. The contents of the defence are limited and fail to state the defendant’s allegations in full.

Which of the following statements best describes the action that the claimant should take first?

A-The claimant should make an application to court to strike out the defence for failing to provide sufficient detail.

B-The claimant does not need to do anything as a reply to the defence is not required in the absence of a counterclaim.

C-The claimant should draft the reply to defence based on the information contained within the defence.

D-The claimant should write to the defendant and request further information on the defence.

E-The claimant should make an application to the court to request further information on the defence.

A

Option is D is correct because, the claimant may request further information from the defendant to seek clarification on any matter contained within the defence, especially if the matter is disputed. This is permitted under Part 18 – Request for Further Information.

Options A and E are wrong because, in line with the overriding objective of the CPR, parties should attempt to keep costs to a minimum and assist the court to further the overriding objective. In making applications without fist approaching the defendant, the claimant would be incurring costs and using court time, which may be avoided.

Option B is wrong because, although the claimant is not obliged to file a reply to defence in the absence of a counterclaim, a claimant is still entitled to request for clarity of the defence allegations in circumstances whereby it is difficult to understand what the exact allegations are.

Option C is wrong, because responding to a defence where issues are unclear would be contrary to the overriding objective, as the defence will most likely require amending later in proceedings.

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8
Q

A manufacturing company is the defendant in a misrepresentation claim. The defendant has made an application for permission to amend its defence, as it has realised at the last minute that the defence it has filed does not address all of the allegations set out in the particulars of claim. A hearing has been listed for Tuesday 8 June.

What is the latest date for service of the application notice on the claimant?

A-Tuesday 1 June

B-Wednesday 2 June

C-Friday 4 June

D-Saturday 5 June

E-Monday 7 June

A

Option B is the correct answer. The application notice must be served at least three clear days before the hearing. Clear day’s means that the date of service and of the hearing are excluded, as well as weekends and bank holidays. This means that Wednesday 2 June is the latest day for service, as Thursday 3 June, Friday 4 June and Monday 7 June are the three clear days.

Option A is wrong. Whilst the application notice would have been served in time if served by Tuesday 1 June, this is not the latest date for service.

Option C is wrong. The application notice would not have been served three clear days before the hearing, for the reasons set out above.

Option D is wrong. The application notice would not have been served three clear days before the hearing, for the reasons set out above.

Option E is wrong. The application notice would not have been served three clear days before the hearing, for the reasons set out above.

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9
Q

A company (the claimant) owns a supermarket on a retail park. When making a delivery of food and groceries to the claimant, the defendant loses control of his lorry and crashes into the window at the front of the supermarket causing extensive damage. The cost of rebuilding has been assessed as £28,500. The defendant is refusing to accept liability and so the claimant issues proceedings in the County Court.

Which of the following statements best describes how the claimant should make a claim for interest?

A-The claimant should claim interest pursuant to any relevant term in the contract between it and the defendant.

B-The claimant need not claim interest as this will be automatically added to the claim if successful.

C-The claimant must precisely calculate the amount of interest which has accrued up to the date of proceedings as well as the daily rate of interest which will continue to accrue.

D-The claimant must precisely calculate the amount of interest which has accrued up to the date of proceedings.

E-The claimant should set out the basis of its entitlement to interest, but need not calculate the amount owing.

A

Option E is correct. The court may award interest, but only if it is claimed – as a result, option B is wrong.

As the claim is for damages, and is therefore unspecified in nature, all the claimant is required to do is to set out the basis of its entitlement to interest. In this case, that entitlement comes from s 69 of the County Courts Act 1984. While there may be a contract between the claimant and the defendant, most likely that contract will be limited to the supply of goods by the defendant to the claimant. Any term for interest in that contract will presumably only exist for the benefit of the defendant should the claimant be late in paying any invoices for the supply of those goods. Option A therefore is unlikely to represent the best option on the facts.

It is only when the claim is specified in nature (a claim for monies owing in debt) that the claimant must precisely calculate both the amount of interest which has accrued and the daily rate of interest that will continue to accrue. For this reason, options C and D are both wrong.

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10
Q

The claimant is a company developing information technology systems and they have just developed a new type of social media. One of their employees is offered significant financial incentives to work for a competitor in producing their own product. The employee leaves the company and begins work immediately for the competitor. The company is concerned that the employee will use the confidential information and knowledge they have acquired and this will have a huge impact upon the company’s future profits. They have information that the employee downloaded material onto a mobile device and also that they may be moving to China to work with the competitor there.

Which of the following best describes the action that the company could take to protect their position?

A-The company should issue proceedings against the employee claiming damages for breach of contract and wait for the trial to determine these.

B-The company should apply for an interim injunction to prevent the employee from using the confidential information they have obtained.

C-The company should apply for a search order and a freezing injunction against the employee.

D-The company should apply for an interim injunction to prevent the employee from using the confidential information they have obtained, a search order and a freezing injunction.

E-The company should apply for an interim injunction to prevent the employee from using the confidential information they have obtained together with a search order.

A

Option D is correct. The company should apply for an interim injunction to prevent the employee from using the confidential information they have obtained, a search order to compel the employee to allow their premises to be searched for the mobile device and a freezing injunction to prevent them from moving their assets to China. As all three interim remedies are possible on the facts, options B, C and E are not the best ones.

Although option A is a correct course of action, waiting for the trial would mean the damage was done – the competitor would have developed their own social media product and the company would have lost the profits from doing so themselves.

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11
Q

A woman issues proceedings against a company for breach of contract relating to the building of a new house. The company respond with a full defence and a counterclaim for the second instalment, which they allege is owed by the woman for the building works carried out to date. The issues in dispute are complex and highly contested so the litigation is likely to take some considerable time to resolve. The woman has just lost her employment and is in financial difficulties. Her solicitor advises her to apply for an interim payment.

Is the woman likely to succeed in her application for an interim payment?

A-Yes, because the woman can apply for an interim payment as soon as she serves the particulars of claim.

B-Yes, because when deciding whether to grant the application for an interim payment, the court may take into account the woman’s financial hardship.

C-No, because liability has not been determined and the court must have established liability before an interim payment can be awarded.

D-No, because the litigation is complex and highly contested, so the court cannot be satisfied the woman would obtain judgment at trial.

E-No, because the company have served a counterclaim and this precludes the woman from being granted an interim payment.

A

Option D is the correct answer. The woman would not be granted an interim payment as the court is unlikely to be satisfied that, if the claim went to trial, she would obtain a judgment. Given that the case is complex and highly contested, there is real uncertainty as to which of the parties would succeed in the litigation.

Option A is wrong as the woman cannot apply for an interim payment after serving the particulars of claim; she must wait until after the time for acknowledging service has expired. Option B is wrong because the woman’s financial hardship is not a ground on which the court may grant the application.

Option C is wrong because (as stated above) the court may grant an application for an interim payment before liability has been determined provided the court is satisfied that the woman would obtain a judgment for a substantial amount of money against the company should the matter proceed to trial. Option E is wrong because the mere presence of a counterclaim does not preclude the court from granting an interim payment.

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12
Q

A sole trader seeks to bring a claim against a prospective defendant. The sole trader seeks advice from a solicitor, who explains that when the various statements of case for the claim have been finalised, the sole trader may need to sign a statement of truth contained in the statements of case before they are filed at court.

Which of the following phrases best represents the form of a statement of truth signed by the sole trader verifying a statement of case?

A-I believe that the facts stated in this [name document being verified] are true. I understand that I may be guilty of contempt of court if I make a false statement in a document verified by a statement of truth without an honest belief in its truth.

B-I believe that the facts stated in this witness statement are true. I understand that proceedings for contempt of court may be brought against anyone who makes, or causes to be made, a false statement in a document verified by a statement of truth without an honest belief in its truth.

C-I believe that the facts stated in this statement of case are true. I understand that I may be guilty of contempt of court if I make a false statement in a document verified by a statement of truth without an honest belief in its truth.

D-I believe that the facts stated in this statement of case are true. I understand that proceedings for contempt of court may be brought against anyone who makes, or causes to be made, a false statement in a document verified by a statement of truth without an honest belief in its truth.

E-I believe that the facts stated in this [name document being verified] are true. I understand that proceedings for contempt of court may be brought against anyone who makes, or causes to be made, a false statement in a document verified by a statement of truth without an honest belief in its truth.

A

Option E is the correct answer – Civil Procedure Rules, PD22, paragraph 2.1.

Option A is wrong because it does not reflect the correct wording. In particular, it is important to appreciate (and for the client to understand) that they may be liable for contempt of court not just if they make a false statement, but cause someone else to make a false statement without an honest belief in its truth.

Option B is wrong because it refers to a witness statement, which is not within the definition of a statement of case. ‘Statements of case’ is defined in CPR 2.3 to mean ‘a claim form, a particulars of claim where these are not included in a claim form, defence, Part 20 claim or reply to defence.’

Option C is wrong partly because it does not reflect the correct wording (see the feedback to option A above), and also because it refers generically to a ‘statement of case’ rather than identifying the name of the document to be verified.

Option D is wrong because it refers generically to a ‘statement of case’ rather than identifying the name of the document to be verified.

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13
Q

A claimant, who is a successful wedding planner, is in dispute with her former clients, a couple who have not yet paid the contract price of £32,000 for her services organising their wedding which was on 1 July. Under the contract, the payment was due by the date of the wedding, and clause 7 of the contract provides for interest at 10% per annum for late payment from and including the date of the wedding. The claimant instructed her solicitor to issue proceedings against the couple (the defendants) and the claim form was issued on 11 November with particulars of claim attached.

Assuming that the figures set out below have been calculated correctly, which of the following best describes the information that the claimant’s solicitor should have included in the paragraph dealing with interest in the particulars of claim?

A-Under statute, the claimant is entitled to interest of 10% per annum on the sum due from 1 July to 11 November, the total amount claimed to date of issue is £1,204.66.

B-Under clause 7 of the contract, the claimant is entitled to interest of 10% per annum on the sum due from 1 July to 11 November, the total amount claimed to date of issue is £1,204.66 and the daily rate at which interest accrues is £8.99.

C-Under clause 7 of the contract, the claimant is entitled to interest of 10% per annum on the sum due from 2 July to 11 November, the total amount claimed to date of issue is £1,195.67 and the daily rate at which interest accrues is £8.99.

D-Under statute, the claimant is entitled to interest of 10% per annum on the sum due from 2 July to 11 November, the total amount claimed to date of issue is £1,195.67 and the daily rate at which interest accrues is £8.99.

E-Under clause 7 of the contract, the claimant is entitled to interest at a rate of 10% per annum on the sum due from 1 July to 11 November.

A

Option B is correct because there is a contractual interest rate of 10% per annum. The interest accrued is calculated from 1 July (as per clause 7 of the contract) until the date of issue on 11 November. The daily interest rate is £8.99 and this is multiplied by 134 days to calculate the interest accrued to date of issue.

Option A is wrong. Statutory entitlements to interest are generally only claimed in the absence of a contractual interest rate. Furthermore, one of those statutes – the Late Payment of Commercial Debts (Interest) Act 1998 – does not apply here as the defendants are customers (the Act only applying where the defendant is another business).

Option C is wrong because the contract states interest accrues from and including the date of the wedding (not the day after).

Option D is wrong because statutory claims to interest would not be relevant here (see the feedback to option A), and the interest would be calculated from and including the date of the wedding rather than the day after, as per the contract (see the feedback to option C).

Option E is wrong because whilst there is a contractual interest rate of 10% per annum, as this is a specified claim the accrued interest and daily rate must be included in the particulars of claim under CPR 16.4(2).

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14
Q

The claimant, a restaurant chain, alleges that the defendant supplied one of their restaurants with a faulty cooker. The cooker burst into flames and the particulars of claim include a claim for damage to the premises and a figure of £150,000. The defendant wishes to obtain more detail about the damage to the premises.

Which of the following best explains the action the defendant should now take?

A-The defendant should telephone the claimant and request further information about the damage to the premises as this is the most cost-effective course of action.

B-The defendant should serve a written request for further information about the damage to the premises on the claimant and must allow 28 days for a response.

C-The defendant should apply to court for further information about the damage to the premises because the information is reasonably necessary to enable the defendant to understand the case against it.

D-The defendant should serve a written request for further information about the damage to the premises on the claimant and provide a reasonable date for a response.

E-The defendant should apply for default judgment against the claimant because the particulars of claim are insufficiently detailed to allow the defendant to understand the case against it.

A

Option D is correct because it would be appropriate to seek further information using Part 18, which requires a party making a request for further information to serve a request in writing on the other party and to provide a reasonable date for a response.

Option A is wrong because a request for further information must be in writing, so it would not be appropriate to make the request via telephone even if this would save costs.

Option B is not the best answer because, although the defendant should serve a written request for further information on the claimant, there is no requirement to allow 28 days for a response. The defendant must provide a reasonable date for a response.

Option C is not the best answer because the defendant should serve a written request for further information on the claimant, and only make an application to court if the request is not responded to or cannot be complied with.

Option E is wrong because default judgment is a process used when a defendant does not respond to proceedings, so is not appropriate in these circumstances.

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15
Q

A junior solicitor is asked to prepare a memo for their supervisor, to remind them of the formalities and content requirements ahead of a meeting with a client to draft a witness statement. The case relates to a very contentious breach of contract claim.

Which of the following should be included in the memo?

A-The witness statement must include a statement of truth signed by the supervisor.

B-The witness statement must include any expert evidence or report relied upon.

C-The witness statement can include any information that the client wants to include as it is their statement of evidence.

D-The client may use their witness statement to argue their case and to make observations about the evidence of other witnesses.

E-The client must indicate which statements are made from their own knowledge and provide the source of any information which is not.

A

Option E is correct as this is a requirement set out in Practice Direction 32.

Option A is wrong as the client must sign the statement of truth, not the supervisor.

Option B is wrong as expert evidence is independent from witness statements of fact and submitted separately.

Options C and D are wrong. The client should only give factual evidence (so it is wrong to say that the statement can include any information that the client wants to include) and it is not the function of the witness statement to argue their case or to make observations about the evidence of any other witnesses.

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16
Q

A solicitor represents a claimant in a claim for breach of contract, arising out of the purchase of a helicopter. The claimant alleges that the aircraft suffers from defects and is bringing a claim against the seller.

The solicitor starts to draft the particulars of breach section of the particulars of claim.

Which of the following, best represents what should appear in this section, under the heading Particulars of Breach.

A-You should state in this section the consequences of the breach.

B-You need to set out the terms that were breached and state how.

C-You should allege loss and set out what the losses are

D-You need to specify the relevant terms of the contract.

E-You only need to set out the terms of the contract that were breached.

A

Option B is the correct answer, you not only need to say that the terms were breached but you need to say how they were breached and put the Claimant’s case.

Option A is wrong the consequences of the breach will be dealt with in a separate paragraph following the particulars of breach.

Option C is wrong the losses will be set out in a different paragraph and you will set out a general allegation of the loss and then particularise it.

Option D is wrong you should set out the terms of the contract before addressing the allegations of breach.

Option E is wrong, as well as stating what terms have been breached you also need to state how they have been breached.

17
Q

A defendant company is being sued in the High Court for damages for breach of contract. The matter is complex and the claimant has refused to agree to a 7 day extension of time sought by the defendant for filing its defence. The defendant’s solicitor considers that the claimant’s stance in refusing the requested extension is unreasonable.

Which of the following statements best describes the next steps that the solicitor should take?

A-File an application notice seeking an extension of time and serve a copy on the claimant at least 2 days before the hearing date set by the court for the hearing of the application.

B-File and serve an application notice seeking an extension of time and ask the court to list the application for a short hearing. Evidence in support of the application should be provided by way of an accompanying letter.

C-File an application notice seeking an extension of time, serve a copy on the claimant as soon as practicable and ask the court to consider the application without a hearing.

D-Write to the court seeking an extension and send a copy of the letter to the claimant but there is no need to file an application notice because of the claimant’s unreasonable conduct.

E-File an application notice seeking an extension of time and serve a copy on the claimant as soon as practicable. At the hearing, the solicitor should also request an order that the defendant’s costs of the application should be paid by the claimant.

A

Option E is correct. On an interim application, the court will take the conduct of the parties into account when deciding what order for costs to make. In this case, because of the claimant’s unreasonable refusal to agree to a request for a short extension of time, the defendant should request that his costs of the application be paid by the claimant.

Option A is wrong because under CPR Part 23, an application must be served on the other party at least 3 days before the court is to deal with the application.

Option B is wrong. Evidence in support of an application should be set out either on the application form or in a separate witness statement. In either case the evidence must be supported by a statement of truth so a letter would not suffice.

Option C is wrong because the matter should be dealt with at a hearing so both parties have the opportunity to make representations to the court.

Option D is wrong because a formal application should be made to the court.

18
Q

Your firm has been contacted by a Company specialising in the provision of commercial kitchens for the catering trade. Recently the Company supplied and installed a state-of-the-art kitchen facility at a fashionable bistro in London owned by the Defendant company. Payment for the kitchen and the installation was due and remains outstanding and the defendant has repeatedly ignored requests for payment.

Proceedings were issued against the Defendant Company for the outstanding debt and an application has been made for summary judgement.

Which of these statements best describes the order that a Judge could make at the conclusion of the hearing of the application?

A-If summary judgment is granted the matter will proceed to a disposal hearing at which damages and costs will be assessed.

B-If summary judgment is granted the matter will proceed to a disposal hearing at which damages and costs will be assessed.

C-If the application is dismissed the usual order is that the defendant will pay the claimants costs and if those cannot be agreed, then they will be decided at a detailed assessment hearing.

D-If the judge is satisfied that it is possible but improbable, that the defence will succeed at trial, they can make a conditional order requiring the Defendant to pay the full amount due into the court within 28 days.

E-If Summary judgment is granted the judge will give further directions for the management of the case to consider whether the Defendant has any further compelling reasons for a trial.

A

Option D is correct where it appears to the court possible that a claim or defence may succeed but improbable that it will do so, the court may make a conditional order, see PD 24 para 4.

Option A is wrong as the claim is for a specified amount of money. Any judgment will therefore be for the final sum due i.e. the amount claimed with interest to the date of the hearing and either fixed costs under Part 45 on the application or agreed (or assessed) costs.

Option B is wrong if the judge is satisfied that the defence has a realistic prospect of succeeding at trial, he should not be making a conditional order unless there is a good reason to do so and this is not indicated here.

Option C is wrong if the application is dismissed the claimant who made the application would not normally be awarded his costs. He lost. A summary assessment should be carried out there and then, the costs should not be subject to a detailed assessment.

Option E is wrong as a successful summary judgment application in a debt matter will end the claim -there will be no need for further directions. If there were a compelling reason for a trial then the judge will not have granted the application in the first place. It is the second limb of the test in part 24.2.

19
Q

In a negligence claim the Claimant alleged that his solicitor failed to advise him properly when the solicitor drafted a will on the Claimant’s behalf. The solicitor denied he acted negligently and served a Defence asserting that he had drafted the will in accordance with the Claimant’s instructions. The Claimant has now discovered that the solicitor had not asked him all the relevant questions or obtained sufficient details of his financial assets.

Which of the following best describes what the Claimant should do to be able to rely on this additional information?

A-Apply to the court for permission to serve a witness statement containing the additional information.

B-Amend the Particulars of Claim and ask the court to serve a copy on the Defendant.

C-Ask the Defendant for permission to amend the Particulars of Claim to include the additional information.

D-Amend the Particulars of Claim and send a copy to the court and to the Defendant.

E-Ask the Defendant for permission to serve a witness statement containing the additional information.

A

Option C is correct because in order for the Claimant to include further allegations in the Particulars of Claim he requires the Defendant’s written consent to amend it. CPR 1998 Part 17.

Option A is wrong because the Claimant should include further allegations in the Particulars of Claim rather than in a witness statement.

Option B is wrong because in order for the Claimant to include further allegations in the Particulars of Claim he requires the Defendant’s written consent to amend it.

Option D is wrong because in order for the Claimant to include further allegations in the Particulars of Claim he requires the Defendant’s written consent to amend it.

Option E is wrong because the Claimant should include further allegations in the Particulars of Claim rather than in a witness statement.

20
Q

Short Q info:The Claimant was employed by a Defendant Company in their warehouse and wishes to sue for damages for personal injury allegedly caused by the negligence and breach of statutory duty of the Defendant. The Claimant is concerned about significant delay between commencement of proceedings and the assessment of damages. The Claimant wishes to make an application for an interim payment order. The Claimant has issued the claim form and made a request for the defendant to voluntarily make a payment. The Defendant has not acknowledged service. The period for acknowledging service or filing a defence has not yet expired.

Can the Claimant make an application for an interim payment?

No, the Claimant cannot apply for an interim payment order because the period for acknowledging service has not yet expired.

A

Option C is correct as CPR 25.6(1) provides that an application for an interim payment can only be made once the.

Option A is wrong as the application cannot be made in the pre-action stage.

Option B is wrong as the claimant need to serve the claim form and wait for the period for the defendant to file an acknowledgement of service to expire.

Option D is wrong as the application can be made as soon as the period for acknowledging the claim has expired.

Option E is wrong as the application cannot be made at any time.

21
Q

What best describes the grounds the court will use when deciding whether or not to grant the application for summary judgment?

A

The defendant has no real prospect of successfully defending the claim and there is no other compelling reason why the case should be disposed of at trial.

22
Q

What is a freezing injunction?

A

An order preventing the disposal of assets by the respondent.

23
Q

What is a search order?

A

It requires a defendant to allow the claimant’s representatives to enter the defendant’s premises and to search for, copy and remove documents or material.

24
Q

The Claimant serves Particulars of Claim which states that the Defendant has not exercised reasonable skill and care in the provision of services. The Claimant has withheld payment on this basis. The Defendant disputes the claim and wishes to recover the outstanding debt due plus interest at 10% pursuant to the contract.

What best describes the action the Defendant should now take?

A-The Defendant should serve a Defence denying the allegation of failure to provide services with reasonable skill and care.

B-The Defendant should serve a Defence and Counterclaim. The Counterclaim should claim the outstanding amount and interest by virtue of The Late Payment of Commercial Debts (Interest) Act 1998

C-The Defendant should serve a Defence and Counterclaim. The Counterclaim should claim the outstanding amount and interest at 10% pursuant to the contract.

D-The Defendant should serve a Defence and Counterclaim claiming the outstanding amount and interest at such rate and for such period as the court thinks fit.

E-The Defendant should issue separate proceedings for recovery of the debt.

A

Option C is correct. The Defendant will need to serve a Defence to the claim to avoid judgment in default being entered but can claim the outstanding debt in a Counterclaim rather than in separate proceedings. The contractual interest rate of 10% is better than that available under The Late Payment of Commercial Debts (Interest) Act 1998. = which is 8%

Option A is not appropriate as it does not seek to recover the sum due to the Defendant.

Option B is not appropriate as the rate of interest is lower than the contractual rate

Option D is not appropriate in a debt claim (a specified sum) and would be used in an unspecified claim e.g. for damages.

Option E is not appropriate as there is no need to issue separate proceedings.

25
Q

A claimant has realised that he has incorrectly stated various dates in his particulars of claim. These errors would not give the basis for a new claim but could mean the claimant may have incorrectly limited the period for which he could claim losses. The claimant therefore wishes to make an application to amend the particulars of claim. The limitation period has ended since the particulars of claim were filed and served.

Will the court give the claimant permission to amend the particulars of claim?

A-No, because permission to amend statements of case will not be given after the limitation period has expired if the claimant has not sought the defendant’s consent to the amendment.

B-Yes, because the court can give permission to amend the statement of case after the limitation period has ended where the court considers that doing so would satisfy the overriding objective of dealing with the case justly and at proportionate cost.

C-Yes, because the court may give permission to amend the statement of case after the limitation has ended where it is satisfied that this is necessary to correct any genuine mistake.

D-No, because the court will not give permission to amend the statement of case after the limitation period has ended where the amendment relates to incorrectly stated facts such as dates.

E-No, because the court will not give permission to amend the statement of case after the limitation period has ended where allowing the amendment would lead to any other parties to the proceedings being disadvantaged by the amendment.

A

Option D is correct, as where the limitation period has ended, the court may allow an amendment only in the following three circumstances:

a) to add or substitute a new claim, if this arises out of the same or substantially the same facts as an existing claim;

b) to correct a (genuine) mistake as to the name of a party;

c) to alter the capacity in which a party claims.

Option A was wrong as the court will only consider the overriding objective if the limitation period has not yet ended.

Option B is wrong as the court will only allow the amendment if one of the above circumstances apply.

Option C was wrong as the court will only consider allowing an amendment correcting a genuine mistake as to the name of a party after the limitation has ended.

Option E was wrong as the court may only allow an amendment in specified circumstances once the limitation period has ended.

26
Q

A solicitor is instructed by a client in a breach of contract dispute. The client entered into a written contract last year with a company for the company to supply and install a central heating system at the client’s premises for the sum of £18,750. The client paid the full price under the contract upon installation of the system. The client alleges that the heating system has malfunctioned on several occasions. The client has obtained expert evidence confirming there are manufacturing faults in the heating system. Proceedings have been issued in the County Court on behalf of the client claiming damages from the company for breach of contract. The solicitor is drafting the particulars of claim.

Which of the following statements concerning the drafting of the particulars of claim is correct?

A-All facts which the Claimant relies on must be included in the particulars of claim.

B-A copy of the written contract may be attached to the particulars of claim.

C-The particulars of breach should not include specific details of the manufacturing faults in the heating system.

D-The allegation of loss and damage should appear before the particulars of loss and damage.

E-There should be a calculation for interest which includes a figure for the daily rate of interest.

A

Option D is correct as the allegation of loss and damage should appear before the particulars of loss and damage. See QBD Guide para 6.7.4(6).

Option A is wrong as the particulars of claim should only include a concise statement of the facts the Claimant relies on rather than all the facts, see R16.4(1)(a) Civil Procedure Rules 1998 (“CPR”).

Option B is wrong. The claim is based on a written contract and by PD 16 para 7.3(1) CPR, a copy of the written contract should be attached to the particulars of claim.

Option C is wrong as the particulars of breach should include specific details of the manufacturing faults in the system.

Option E is wrong. This is a requirement under R16.4(2)(b) CPR where the claim is specified. However the client’s claim is unspecified.

27
Q

A company which owns a fine-dining restaurant is the claimant in a claim for nuisance. The defendant company owns a nightclub next door to the claimant’s restaurant. The claimant alleges that the defendant regularly holds 12-hour events and the noise generated from these events has resulted in a loss of business to the claimant’s restaurant. The claimant seeks an interim injunction to prevent the defendant from holding these events. The defendant has provided evidence that it will go out of business within 2 months if it is prevented from holding these events.

Which of the following best describes a determination the court is likely to make when deciding whether to grant the interim injunction?

A-The defendant has a real prospect of successfully defending the claim.

B-The claimant cannot show a serious question to be tried.

C-Damages are not an adequate remedy for the defendant.

D-The claimant has a good arguable claim.

E-There is a compelling reason why the case should proceed to trial.

A

Option C is correct. When deciding whether to grant the interim injunction, the court will apply the guidelines set out in American Cyanamid Co (No 1) v Ethicon Ltd [1975] UKHL 1. Based on the facts, damages are not an adequate remedy for the defendant as it will go out of business if the injunction is granted.

Option A is wrong. The question of whether a party has a real prospect of success is relevant to applications for summary judgment, not interim injunctions.

Option B is wrong. Whilst the court will consider whether the claimant can show a serious question to be tried, on the facts it appears that the claimant will be able to satisfy this test.

Option D is wrong. The question of whether the claimant has a good arguable claim is relevant to applications for a search order. When considering applications for interim injunctions, the court considers whether there is a serious question to be tried.

Option E is wrong. The question of whether a there is a compelling reason why the case should proceed to trial is relevant to applications for summary judgment, not interim injunctions.