State Review Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Binds to narcotic receptor sites in the brain to reverse narcotic - opiate OD

A

Narcan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Narcan to an addict =

A

Withdrawal reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Narcan Adult dose

A

0.4 - 2mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Narcan pedi dose

A

0.1 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fastest administration route =

A

Sublingual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Intradermal injections are done at what degree?

A

10-15 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the Central lines in the body?

A

Internal jugular, femoral, subclavian, GO FOR EXTERNAL JUGULAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

IV therapy complications are?

A

Hematoma, infiltration, cellulitis, air embolism, thrombus formation/infection and phlebitis ( which is infection ) NOT SEPSIS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Destruction of RBC during venipuncture is?

A

Hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Elevating an arm will not?

A

Distend vein for venipuncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Medications combined with fat and oils is what?

A

Emulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mini drip is used for what?

A

Med-line IV’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

KVO = what drip rate?

A

10 gtts/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

1 pint of blood = how many CC’s?

A

500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

1 oz = how many CC’s?

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

60mg = how many grain?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Med-I =?

A

463,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Time required for 1/2 of radio active substance to lose activity =

A

1/2 life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

1/2 life =

A

Radio active decay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Routes of medication from slowest to fastest absorption

A

PO, SQ, IM, ET, IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Parenteral routes of drug administration are?

A

SQ, IM, IV, ET, IO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

SQ injections are contraindicated with a pt in what?

A

Hypovolemic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Parenteral routes =

A

SQ, IM, IV not oral (Enteral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

5% dextrose in H2O should not be given to a pt with what?

A

Pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

5% dextrose and H2O is used for what conditions?

A

Dehydration, Med infusion, and AMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Never give D5w to a pt with what?

A

Head injury or normal glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

IV set with 15 gtts/ml to administer 50ml an hr =

A

13 drops per min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Order 25G dextrose from 100cc amp of 50% dextrose, how many CC’s will be given?

A

50 CC’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

20 drop set in 30 min running at 50 gtts =

A

75 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

60 drop set in 30 min running at 20 gtts=

A

10 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Colloids increase intravascular space the most but take longer to get in due to protein size and molecular weight is what?

A

Hespan/dextran

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Homeostasis AKA?

A

Dynamic steady state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

IV solution closest to plasma is?

A

Lactated Ringers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Reduces the portability of blood transfusion reaction

A

Fresh frozen plasma can be used and does not have to be cross matched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hemorrhagic shock best fluid =

A

Blood ( definitive ) Lactated ringers in the field 3x blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Universal blood donor

A

O neg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

O Negative =

A

Negative AB antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Universal blood recipient is?

A

AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Schedule 1 drugs

A

Heroin, Mescaline, LSD - NOT Cocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Increased amount of a drug to reach a desired effect =

A

Tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Tricyclic Overdose =

A

Sodium Bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Drug of choice for hyperkalemia (increase potassium) is?

A

Calcium chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Benzo overdose (Valium) reversal is?

A

Romazicon/ flumazanil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Morphine is given by what routes?

A

IV and IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Morphine OD causes what symptoms?

A

Hypotension and Resp depression ( same for all opiates, benzo/barbiturates)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Clinical signs of shock do not give?

A

SQ injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Major problems with catheter thru the needle system is?

A

Catheter embolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Bretylium dose

A

5mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Benadryl dose

A

25-50 mg (IVP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

First compensatory mechanism to maintain homeostasis is?

A

Bicarbonate buffer then Resp and renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hydrogen protons that make pH balance is located where?

A

Kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Hydrogen Ions are eliminated by what?

A

Kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Decreased O2 in blood

A

Hypoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Decreased O2 in the lungs

A

Hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Hyperventilation syndrome in a pt is what state?

A

Resp Alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The use of energy to move particles across a membrane

A

Active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Major extra cellular cation

A

Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Major intracellular cation is

A

Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Magnesium , calcium help with

A

Electrical and nerve conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Sodium helps with

A

Fluid regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Excretory function of blood is to remove

A

Urea, creatine, lactic acid and waste ; primarily lactic acid from cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Normal stimulus to breath is

A

Increased PACO2, Arterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

pH less than 7.35 and pCO2 greater than 40 is

A

Resp acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

pH less than 7.35, pCO2 greater than 40 and HC03 or PO2 less than 24

A

Metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

pH greater than 7.45 and pCO2 less than 40

A

Resp Alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Need blood gases for anion gap; should not see as an answer

A

Metabolic Acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Primary treatment of a near drowning victim

A

Management of Hypoxia and Acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Battle signs and raccoon eyes are a contraindication for what airway?

A

NPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Pulmonary ventilation =

A

Remove excess CO2 (normal balance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

One of the major purposes of pulmonary ventilation is

A

The ability to retain or eliminate CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Intubation of a child under 8 =

A

Uncuffed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Macintosh blade is inserted

A

Between epiglottis (vallecula) and base of tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Miller blade lifts

A

Epiglottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

(Mean) =

A

15-17 Resp per min adult RR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Is not an airway sound?

A

Cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Crichothyroid performance =

A

Laryngeal edema and facial trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The EGTA is used on a

A

Comatose adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Complications of a BVM

A

Abd distention, pushes diaphragm down and leads to vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Air in the stomach makes intubation difficult because of

A

Vomiting and also aspiration risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

O2 delivered via NC =

A

22-44%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Narrowest part of adult airway is

A

Glottic opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Contraindication for EOA (combitube) is

A

Less than 16 y/o , esophageal varices, ingestion of caustic substances, positive gag reflex, less than 5’ or over 6’8”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Civil wrong doing such as medical negligence

A

Tort law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

If your dispatched to a scene, you have a ?

A

Duty to act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Comparing your actions under same/similar circumstances with that of other similar trained medics.

A

Standard of Care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

All refusals must be what type of consent?

A

Informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Physicians with the most authority on scene

A

On line physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Negligence =

A

Breech of duty

Duty to act

Proximate cause, damages or harm
* intent not needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The greatest threat for false imprisonment is

A

Psychiatric pt’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Granting privileges by Dr’s to medics to perform skills is called

A

Delegation of authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Malpractice term where cause direct injury to a pt is called

A

Proximate cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Labor and negligence law is

A

Tort law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Standards governing a group of people or profession is called

A

Ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Who are ethical standards developed for?

A

Pt’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Indirect medical control is called

A

Standing orders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

If a medic is charged with negligence they are the

A

Defendant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Directly caused harm or injury in a negligence case is what?

A

Proximate cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Assessment of calls begin when?

A

When the call is dispatched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Ambulance crashes, court will try to prove?

A

Lack of due regard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Difficult or painful breathing

A

Dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Prevents over expansion of the lungs

A

Hearing-Breuer reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Decrease oxygen in the lungs

A

Hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Decrease partial pressure of O2 in the blood

A

Hypoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Increased PACO2 ,Aterial

A

Normal stimulus to breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Hypoxic drive or a pt with COPD’s stimulus to breath is

A

Decreased O2 levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Medications for COPD pt is

A

Aminophylline, albuterol, bronkosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Vasoconstriction causes this condition

A

Skin pallor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Whistling sound during exhalation consider

A

Asthmatic bronchiolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Fluid/ mucous in LARGE airway will have what sound?

A

Rhonchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Stridor at night with seal type bark is what condition

A

Croup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Poor airway compliance seen in

A

Sucking chest wounds / tension pneumothorax / flail chest NOT pleurisy or pleuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

One of the major purposes of pulmonary VENTILATION

A

Ability to retain or eliminate CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

One of the major advantages of RESPIRATION is

A

To increase absorption of O2 by the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Classic sign of Anaphylaxis is

A

Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Chronic bronchitis, an acute exacerbation =

A

Resp acidosis and tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Fever , rhonchi, hot and dry skin NO PEDAL EDEMA

A

Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

20 yr old asthmatic pt has not reacted to normal treatment, use what?

A

Aminophyline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Blue bloater, fat, increased mucous production, chronic cough, NOT A PINK PUFFER

A

Chronic bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Pink puffer, Barrel chest, thin, pursed lip breathing to create back pressure to open alveoli, SOB, cough generally in the morning with increased mucous

A

Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Coughing up blood

A

Hemoptysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Cough up pink tinged sputum is

A

Hemoptysis and s/s of Left sided HF / pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Left sided ventricular damage is

A

CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

IV for COPD pt is

A

KVO 55 dextrose in Sterile water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Use N/C or Venturi mask in a pt with?

A

Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Air trapped in the pleural space

A

Pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Neurogenic/ anaphylactic and septic shock cause what due to VASODILATION?

A

Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Neurogenic, anaphylactic and septic shock are all what type of shock?

A

Distributive shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Responsible for the transport and delivery of O2

A

Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Rumbling sound, fever, no edema is what condition?

A

Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is a side effect of hyperventilation

A

Carpal pedal spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Underlying cause of R sided heart failure

A

Cor pulmonade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Hypertension and JVD

A

Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Treatment for pulmonary edema / CHF =

A

LMNO
Lasix (40mg) slow IVP

Morphine sulfate (2mg) slow IVP

Nitro (0.4mg) sublingual

O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Salt water drowning =

A

Respiratory alkalosis, CO2 retention and pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Fresh water drowning =

A

Hemodilution or hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Escape of fluid from vascular space into pleural space = pleural friction rub lung sounds

A

Pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

20 to 30 y/o thin smokers and males more prone to

A

Spontaneous pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Pt 70 y/o with SOB and Orthopnea can’t lie flat DRIED BLOOD on LIPS is

A

Pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Bright red frothy blood at mouth w/ each exhalation =

A

Lung damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Long bone fx at risk of what?

A

Fat embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

RR x tidal volume in one minute is

A

Minute volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Inflammation of the bronchioles with expiratory wheezing.

A

Bronchiolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Sudden onset of wheezing in ONE LUNG / Lobe is

A

Foreign body aspiration ( especially if just finished eating)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Decrease in intrathoratic pressure relative to environment (Active) CONTRACTION OF MUSCLES.

A

Inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

As volume in the thoracic cavity increases = pressure decreases

A

Exhalation (passive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Amount of air inhaled and exhaled during one respiratory cycle

A

Tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Irregular breathing pattern with periods of apnea gradually increasing and decreasing

A

Biots breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Aminophylline aka Theophylline dose

A

5-6 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Average tidal volume in one respiration is

A

500cc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Smooth muscle relaxant used with bronchial asthma is what?

A

Aminophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Knife like pain describes what condition

A

Spontaneous pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Treatment in order for pulmonary edema is

A
  1. O2
  2. Monitor
  3. IV
  4. Nitro .4 mg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Collapsed alveoli with decreased ventilation =

A

Atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Respiratory drive- hypoxic drive aka back up drive is what type of disease

A

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Decreases ventilatory effectiveness

A

Collapse of alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Exchange of gasses between internal and external environment

A

Respirations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Ventilation / perfusion mismatch is called what

A

ARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Transports O2 ( iron containing component of RBC)

A

Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Ventilation problem , thoracic injury which leads to Resp pattern

A

Ataxic respirations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Asthmatics pt’s main treatment is to what?

A

Relieve bronchospasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Signs and symptoms of respiratory distress is

A

Nasal flaring, tracheal tugging, sternomastoid muscle use, intercostal retractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Tension pneumothorax treatment is?

A

O2, decompress, transport, IV en route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Pulmonary Emboli S/S is?

A

Dyspnea, SOB, pleuritic pn, tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

No JVD with ?

A

Pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Tx for anaphylactic shock is ?

A

Epi 1 mg 1:10,000 IV and Benadryl 25-50mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Bee,hornet, wasp stings / PCN injection are the fastest and most frequent cause of?

A

Anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Left sided ventricular damage is called ?

A

CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Use a NC or Venturi mask in pt’s with

A

Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Hyperventilation helps to correct

A

Respiratory acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Air trapped in the pleural space is called?

A

Pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Neurogenic/ Anaphylactic & septic shock cause hypotension due to?

A

Vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Underlying cause of Right sided HF

A

Cor pulmonade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Carpal pedal spasms are a side effect of?

A

Hyperventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Hypertension and JVD are S/S of ?

A

Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Primary concern for a near drowning is?

A

Hypoxia and acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Difficulty breathing while lying down is

A

Orthopnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

70 y/o pt. with SOB and Orthopnea, can’t lie flat with dried blood on his lips

A

Pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Bright red frothy blood at mouth with each exhalation =

A

Lung damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Orthopnea S/S =

A

Pulmonary edema and suggests right sided HF or CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Long bone fx at risk of?

A

Fat embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

RR x tidal volume in one minute =

A

Minute volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Inflammation of bronchioles with expiratory wheezing is ?

A

Bronchiolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Sudden onset of wheezing in one lung / lobe is ?

A

Foreign body aspiration ( especially if just finished eating )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Salt water drowning S/S

A

Respiratory alkalosis, CO2 retention and pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Average tidal volume in one respiration is?

A

500cc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Irregular breathing pattern with periods of apnea gradually increasing and decreasing is what kind of breathing pattern?

A

Biots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Atelectasis means ?

A

Lack of surfactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Transports O2 ( iron containing component of RBC )

A

Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Pulmonary edema can be caused by what?

A

Over Hydrating your pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

O2 saturation in peripheral tissue

A

Pulse Oximetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Aminophylline aka Theophylline dose=

A

5-6 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Smooth muscle relaxant used for bronchial asthma

A

Aminophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Spontaneous pneumothorax description =

A

Knife like pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Collapsed alveoli with decreased ventilation =

A

Atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Complete or partial collapse of a lung or lobe is called ?

A

Atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Exchange of gases between internal and external environment is called?

A

Respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Thrombus formation in deep veins of legs that travel to pulmonary artery are called ?

A

Pulmonary embolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Recent delivery of a child can cause a?

A

Pulmonary embolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Best tool for exposing a cars locking mechanism

A

Air chisel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Repeater in a Telemetry system increases?

A

Transmitting and receiving range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Telemetry system in which voice and ekg can be transmitted at the same time is called?

A

Multiplex system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Radio transmissions can be reduced due to?

A

Holding the radio vertically , no repeater, weak battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

The ability to listen and speak at the same time is what type of telemetry system?

A

Duplex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Group of frequencies close together are called a

A

Band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

VHF and UHF are bands used for?

A

Medical communications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

EKG’s transmitted and decoded is called ?

A

Oscilloscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Malicious writing is called

A

Libel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Malicious words spoken is called

A

Slander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Established policies and procedures of EMS system is called?

A

Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Most fatalities of rescuers happen in ?

A

Confined space rescues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

First step of extrication is?

A

Gaining access to pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Cannot transmit or receive data at the same time is what type of telemetry system?

A

Simplex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

One of the first signs of hypovolemic shock is?

A

Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Earliest sign of any type of shock is?

A

AMS ( Altered Mental Status )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Factor common to all forms of shock?

A

In adequate tissue perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Most reliable indicator of severity of injury in Trauma is

A

MOI ( Mechanism of Injury )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Damage to tissue due to high speed bullet

A

Cavitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Swollen/ protruding / bulging tongue would indicate what?

A

Traumatic asphyxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Traumatic asphyxia is most commonly caused by what?

A

Crush injury to chest or abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

When surveying the scene initially of an MCI you do not have to report ?

A

Life threatening injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

For trauma in the field give 3 times estimated blood loss of ?

A

Lactated ringers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Abdominal evisceration tx consist of what?

A

Treat for shock, O2, cover organs with a moist stable saline soaked dressing. DO NOT PUT ORGANS BACK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Tension pneumothorax S/S

A

Dyspnea, mediastinal shift away from affected area / JVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Explosion tx consist of?

A

Asses airway, ventilate, oxygenate, stop arterial bleeding and treat closed femur fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Blast injury primary phase is?

A

Rupture of large intestines / hollow organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

S/S of Neurogenic shock

A

Hypotension, bradycardia, warm/dry skin below level of injury following trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

ICP, bradycardia, irregular Resp, elevated BP are S/S of what?

A

Cushings triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

S/S of ICP include?

A

Bradycardia, vomiting, irregular or unequal pupils ( NOT HYPOTENSION )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Trauma victim w pulse of 40, BP 200/120 and increased ICP S/S of what condition?

A

Cushings triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

High cervical fracture impairs what?

A

Respirations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Anaerobic metabolism means?

A

Without O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Atropine pediatric dose?

A

0.02 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Atropine adult dose

A

.5-1.0 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Pediatric sodium bicarbonate dose?

A

1 meq/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Adult sodium bicarbonate dose?

A

1 meq/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Bretylium pedi dose?

A

5 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Bretylium adult dose?

A

5 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Epi 1:1000 pedi dose?

A

.01 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Epi pedi dose for a CODE?

A

0.1 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Epi 1:10,000 adult dose?

A

.3-.5 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Epi pediatric dose 1:10,000 CODE only

A

.01 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Haldol adult dose

A

2-5 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Lidocaine pedi dose?

A

1.0 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Lidocaine adult dose?

A

1.0-1.5 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Mag Sulfate adult dose?

A

1-2 g over 1-2 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Morphine adult dose?

A

2-5 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Narcan pedi dose?

A

0.1 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Narcan Adult dose?

A

0.4-2 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Oxytocin adult dose?

A

10-20 units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Valium adult dose?

A

2-10 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

In an adult with a partial FBAO what would be your first intervention?

A

Encourage or to cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Thin shaped valve covering the trachea?

A

Epiglottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Landmark for a cricoid stick is?

A

Cricoid cartilage or depression inferior to Adam’s apple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Contraindication for crichothyrotomy is?

A

Crush injury to the larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Sellicks maneuver/ cricoid pressure is used for what purpose?

A

Displaces esophagus posterior and increases vocal chord visualization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Narrowest part of an adult airway?

A

Glottic opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Good Samaritan act offers protection when?

A

While off duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

The FDA governs what?

A

The safety of drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Granting privileges by Dr’s to paramedics to perform skills is called what?

A

Delegation of authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Malpractice term where direct injury has been caused to a pt is called ?

A

Proximate cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

JVD beat evaluated in what position?

A

Semi fowlers @ 45 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Device that transfers electrical energy into sound waves is called?

A

Transmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Proper radio procedure?

A

Speak clearly and keep message brief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

First phase of EMS is?

A

Public access to 911

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

Best way to avoid anaphylactic reaction is to?

A

Ask allergy hx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

One man carry that’s not used often due to pt’s weight on rescuer is called what?

A

Firemans carry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Technique used with a LSB in narrow spaces as an alternative to the four man roll is called what?

A

Four man straddle slide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

What is the maximum amount of a crystalloid fluid given to an adult trauma victim?

A

2000-3000 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

How long do abdominal bleeds take to occur?

A

2-3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

In a stab wound to the neck at the jugular vein, what should you expect and what would your treatment be?

A

Suspect an air embolism and apply pressure to the wound and position on left side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Ecchymosis behind the ear or mastoid process is called what from what type of injury?

A

Battle signs form basilar skull fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Electrical burns cause what type of of burns?

A

Superficial and deep burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

Route of passage for electrical burns is determined by ?

A

Entrance and exit wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

In electrical burns entrance and exit wounds, the current follows?

A

Nerve pathways and may cause V-Fib and more internal than external damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

MAST/PASG inflation order?

A

L leg, R leg then abd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

MAST/PASG deflation order?

A

Abd, R leg then L leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

AAA stands for what?

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm, femoral pulses in scenario “ do not give nor Epi “

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

For needle decompression place needle where?

A

2nd or 3rd intercostal space mid clavicular or 4th or 5th intercostal space midaxillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

Sequence pleural decompression order is?

A

O2, decompress, transport and IV in route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

MVA pt with HR 120, BP 40 palp what condition is pt in?

A

Hypovolemic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

Left femur, spleen or chest injury and right sides head injury is what condition?

A

Wadell’s triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

Pinching or cutting of nerves and blood vessels is cause by what type of fracture?

A

Severely angulated fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

Spinal injury with intercostal retractions suspect?

A

Cervical spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

15ft fall, pt with flat neck veins /chest Dull to percussion is ?

A

Hemothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Muffled /distant heart sounds , narrowing pulse pressure decreased BP (NOT FLAT NECK VEINS) is what condition?

A

Becks triad

286
Q

Becks triad indicates what?

A

Cardiac tamponade

287
Q

Flat neck veins are seen with what conditions?

A

Dehydration, hypovolemia, hemothorax ( NOT CARDIC TAMPONADE )

288
Q

Alkali burns (strong base) strongest and most severe caused from?

A

Drano or oven cleaner

289
Q

A pt with major burns has hypovolemic shock due to?

A

Plasma loss , interstitial fluid shift

290
Q

Paradoxical respirations is cause by what?

A

Flail chest ( 3+ ribs in 2+ places )

291
Q

In an MVA with a collapsed steering wheel look for?

A

Flail chest

292
Q

Most serious complication of a joint injury is?

A

Nerve damage

293
Q

Fracture straight across shaft of bone is what type of fracture?

A

Transverse

294
Q

Most common fracture in the body?

A

Clavicle

295
Q

Childs most common fx?

A

Green stick

296
Q

Spiral fx in a child suspect?

A

Abuse

297
Q

Fx at the elbow, immobilize in what position?

A

Position found

298
Q

Sprain=

A

Torn

299
Q

Strain =

A

Stretched

300
Q

Affective nerve pathways send what type of messages to the brain?

A

Sensory ( affective = ascending )

301
Q

Effector nerve pathways send what type of messages from the brain to the body?

A

Motor ( descending sends down )

302
Q

Most commonly injured abdominal organ from blunt trauma is?

A

Liver ( RUQ )

303
Q

Motor cycle crash with 3” scalp lac, pt A&Ox3, tachy and low BP treatment is what?

A

Normal saline KVO ( not LR wide open )

304
Q

Trauma with fascia separation is what?

A

Avulsion

305
Q

Most common type of MVA in rural areas are?

A

Frontal or head-on collision

306
Q

The kidneys rely on what for perfusion?

A

Stroke volume

307
Q

Exsanguinate means?

A

Loss of blood to the point that life cannot be sustained / bleeding out

308
Q

Closed head injury tx?

A

Lactated Ringers only ( do not use NS or D5W )

309
Q

Cold windy night, alcoholic unarousable , V-fib, no respiration. Treatment would consist of ?

A

Airway, defib x 3 , CPR and transport

310
Q

Single vehicle MVC, one person dead and another ejected with a badly lacerated scalp and unconscious. Treatment would consist of ?

A

Open airway and stabilize C-spine

311
Q

Pupil response if from what cranial nerve?

A

Cranial nerve #3

312
Q

Upper area of uterus is called?

A

Fundus

313
Q

When does the placenta deliver?

A

End of the third stage of labor

314
Q

During a pregnancy the females blood volume increases by how much?

A

40% with relative anemia ( most blood increase is plasma )

315
Q

Oxytocin is released by what?

A

Pituitary gland

316
Q

Acetylcholine is also released by what?

A

Pituitary gland

317
Q

Small pea shaped glands are called?

A

Parathyroid gland

318
Q

Normal pregnancy length is what?

A

280 days, 9 mos , 10 lunar months and 40 normal weeks

319
Q

Word used to describe a woman’s first pregnancy?

A

Prima gravida

320
Q

Woman who has delivered her first child is called what?

A

Prima para

321
Q

What do you do with a clamped and cut cord that continues to bleed?

A

Clamp again

322
Q

Fertilization of ovum outside the uterus , may stay in the tube is what type of pregnancy?

A

Ectopic

323
Q

Most common Fallopian tube?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

324
Q

The usual place of fertilization in a female pregnancy?

A

Fallopian tubes

325
Q

The umbilical cord has how many veins and arteries?

A

2 arteries and one vein. ( LARGER OPENING ) umbilical cannulation via vein

326
Q

Heimlich in pregnancy is performed by what means?

A

Chest compressions

327
Q

In an MVA save the mom or child?

A

Mom

328
Q

Mom gave birth 24 hrs ago, now sudden onset of SOB/ dyspnea and chest pain suspect what?

A

Pulmonary embolism

329
Q

26 y/o multi gravida with prior c-sections, C/C full term with contractions 3-4 min apart, tearing pn, no signs of bleeding, suspect what?

A

Abruptio placenta

330
Q

Premature separation of placenta from wall of uterus is what?

A

Abruptio placenta

331
Q

Minimal dark red bleeding, rigid uterus and shock, can also be described as a tearing pn is what?

A

Abruptio placenta

332
Q

Placenta covers the cervical opening is ?

A

Placenta previa

333
Q

Bright red blood and painless is the classic differentiation of ?

A

Placenta previa

334
Q

APGAR stands for?

A

Appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiratory rate ( score under 6 intervention required )

335
Q

APGAR is check at what specific times?

A

1 min and 5 minutes

336
Q

40 y/o female with loss of appetite and RUQ tenderness, urine is TEA color is what?

A

Hepatitis

337
Q

22 y/o female with severe pn LRQ, no appetite with constipation, suspect what?

A

Appendicitis

338
Q

Do not allow to clean perineum with this type of pt?

A

Rape victim : tx all major trauma/ emotionally support and allow a family member to be present : female medic is best if available

339
Q

Hypertension, edema, proteinuria are s/s of what?

A

Pre eclampsia ( not seizures )

340
Q

Treatment for eclampsia use what?

A

Mag sulfate (first choice) or 5-10 mg Valium

341
Q

Usually in the 9th month of pregnancy but can occur at anytime during the 3rd trimester.

A

Toxemia of pregnancy

342
Q

Seizures from Toxemia ( Eclampsia ) occur when?

A

In the 9th month but can occur anytime during 3rd trimester.

343
Q

What is the main characteristic of Eclampsia?

A

Seizures

344
Q

What is the primary cause of the transmission of AIDS?

A

Unprotected sex

345
Q

Purple and blue lesions in the mouth and other areas of the body are called what and are a complication of what disease?

A

Karposi’s Sarcoma, HIV

346
Q

32 y/o with excruciating head ache while working out and lost consciousness, unresponsive with bilateral dilated pupils is what condition?

A

Cerebral Aneurysm

347
Q

Common cause of uterine bleed in the first trimester?

A

Threatened abortion, incomplete abortion, ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

348
Q

Amenorrhea of less than 12 weeks/sharp sudden unilateral lower abdominal pain with severe shock NOT 3rd trimester bleeding is what?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

349
Q

22 y/o RLQ pain radiating to RT shoulder, no menses w/ spotting today is what?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

350
Q

Blood and other matter discharged from the uterus during menstruation is called what?

A

Menses

351
Q

BP decreases during what month of pregnancy?

A

Third

352
Q

Time from conception to delivery is called?

A

Prenatal period

353
Q

Before birth AKA prenatal period?

A

Antepartum

354
Q

A baby born within the first few hours is considered?

A

Newborn

355
Q

Birth through one month of age is considered?

A

Neonate

356
Q

Neonates lose body heat mostly via?

A

Evaporation

357
Q

Contractions to dilation is what stage of labor?

A

First stage

358
Q

Dilation to crowning full dilation is what stage of labor?

A

Second stage

359
Q

Delivery of fetus to placenta delivery is what stage of labor?

A

Third stage

360
Q

If you suspect abruptio placenta your treatment would be?

A

High flow O2, Lactated ringers and monitor VS every 5 min

361
Q

Serous membrane covering abdominal organs?

A

Visceral

362
Q

If you suspect abruptio placenta your treatment would be?

A

High flow O2, Lactated ringers and monitor VS every 5 min

363
Q

Medication that stops uterine contractions?

A

Brethine

364
Q

Medication that encourages uterine contractions to decrease bleeding?

A

Pitocin

365
Q

Most common UTI is?

A

Cystitis

366
Q

Hyperglycemia in pregnancy is called?

A

Gestational diabetes

367
Q

PPE for delivery of a baby?

A

Gloves/mask/gown/protective eyewear

368
Q

Most common cause of PID?

A

Gonorrhea

369
Q

All s/s kidney stones except?

A

Frequent urination

370
Q

Frequent urination is a s/s of what?

A

UTI

371
Q

Definite delivery imminent encourage pt to?

A

Push, crowning, contractions 1-2 min apart

372
Q

Retroperitoneal =

A

Kidneys

373
Q

Arm and leg presentation what would you do?

A

Transport immediately PERIOD

374
Q

Normal “fight or flight response” would be?

A
  • Alpha and Beta stimulation
  • Sympathetic Nervous System : clammy skin, tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction , dilated pupils, slowed digestion/ constriction of sphincter muscles
  • sympathomimetic
375
Q

Bilateral dilated pupils usually indicates?

A

Cerebral hypoxia

376
Q

Lower extremity check for paralysis consist of asking pt to do ?

A

Wiggle toes

377
Q

Damage in the brain stem causes what?

A

Decerebrate posturing

378
Q

Damage can be above brainstem, can cause what?

A

Decorticate posturing

379
Q

Body extremities upper comes to the core meaning?

A

Corticate

380
Q

Posturing indicates what?

A

Cerebral injury

381
Q

23 y/o working out in the gym with an explosive headache, what could be the cause of these symptoms?

A

Subarachnoid Aneurysm

382
Q

Eyes don’t move in unison?

A

Dysconjugate gaze

383
Q

Failure of the eyes to rotate simultaneously in the same direction or the eyes gazing in different directions?

A

Conjugate / dysconjugate gaze

384
Q

Extended extremities would indicate what?

A

Decerebrate posturing

385
Q

Epidural hematoma description

A

Fast arterial bleed

386
Q

Subdural hematoma description

A

Slow venous bleed ( problems can occur hours/ days later )

387
Q

Brief period of unconsciousness followed by a return to complete function?

A

Concussion

388
Q

Part of the brain that controls posture?

A

Cerebellum

389
Q

Severed C4 vertebrae would cause what damage to the body?

A

Total paralysis, motor and respiratory paralysis, can’t breathe on their own= quadriplegic

390
Q

Increased ICP should be hyperventilated for?

A

20-24 and mannitol given for ICP

391
Q

Series of increased and decreased respirations followed by apnea is what?

A

Cheyne-stokes

392
Q

Rapid, irregular in rate and volume with periods of apnea is ?

A

Cheyne-Stokes respirations

393
Q

Pt fell from the 3rd floor, R lung sounds absent, fractured leg what’s your tx?

A

Open airway, BVM w/O2, decompress R side, PASG device then transport w/ 2 large bore IV’s

394
Q

Injury to the opposite side of the head or opposite side of injury is called?

A

Countercoup

395
Q

Balance, coordination and motor control all controlled by what part of the brain?

A

Cerebellum

396
Q

Drug used for ICP?

A

Mannitol

397
Q

Halo test checks for what?

A

CSF

398
Q

21 y/o male with C/C of severe headache

A

Aneurysm

399
Q

Unequal pupils suggest?

A

CNS injury or a neurological crisis

400
Q

T4 injury would cause paralysis where?

A

Below the nipple line

401
Q

T10 injury would cause paralysis where?

A

Below the umbilicus

402
Q

Thought, intelligence and higher brain function is controlled by what part of the brain?

A

Cerebrum

403
Q

Slow venous bleed?

A

Subdural

404
Q

Fast Arterial bleed?

A

Epidural

405
Q

Treatment of a pt with a syncopal episode?

A

EKG, IV KVO and accucheck, DO NOT PLACE IN FOWLERS POSITION

406
Q

DO NOT give 5% D5W wide open to a pt who has suffered?

A

CVA or seizure

407
Q

Treatment for a pt who has had a CVA or seizure?

A

O2, airway, EKG

408
Q

Seizures w/o regaining consciousness between 2 or more seizures is called?

A

Status epilepticus

409
Q

Classic S/S of a stroke?

A

Aphasia, loss of memory, hemiplegia

410
Q

Aphasia means?

A

Language disorder, unable to speak properly

411
Q

Hemiplegia means?

A

Paralysis of one side of the body

412
Q

Increased carbon dioxide in the blood is called what?

A

Hypercarbia

413
Q

One pupil slow and non reactive, other slow to respond is what?

A

Neurological crisis

414
Q

Transport stroke pt in what position?

A

Left lateral recumbent

415
Q

Blood under dura?

A

Subdural

416
Q

Outside skull to brain in order?

A

Dura, arachnoid, pia

417
Q

Inside brain to skull?

A

Pia, arachnoid, dura

418
Q

Part of the brain that effects vision?

A

Occipital / injury causes the vision to be affected.

419
Q

If old, Pt’s medical hx: diabetic, stroke, aphasic, syncopal episodes, dementia, recent surgery, immobilized in warm comfortable environment, cool, pale, diaphoretic w/ no apparent or obvious chest pn. Accucheck wnl, consider?

A

Silent MI, monitor for ekg changes

420
Q

Medication and dosage used for seizures?

A

Valium/ diazepam 5-10 mg

421
Q

Status epilepticus treatment?

A

NPA, O2, IV with NS, keep safe DO NOT INTUBATE: medical emergency and priority pt

422
Q

Seizure pt’s deemed a priority if?

A

No response between seizures or in status state.

423
Q

Seizures common in children?

A

Febrile

424
Q

Seizures mistaken for daydreaming?

A

Absence

425
Q

Seizures found in children of short duration w/no LOC can occur 100 times per day are?

A

Focal motor

426
Q

Clonic movements of one hand, one arm, one leg, or one side of the face are what?

A

Focal motor

427
Q

Major contraindication of thrombolytic tx?

A

Bleeding out

428
Q

Major complication of thrombolytic therapy is?

A

Recent surgery

429
Q

Scenario: with a syncopal pt, do all EXCEPT?

A

Lift pt in sitting position

430
Q

EKG-No P waves, SA node is not the pacemaker, assume what rhythm?

A

A-Fib

431
Q

Increased HR ( + chronotrope ) and blood vessel constriction ( Increased PVR peripheral vascular resistance ) fills the tank =

A

BETA receptor stimulation or stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

432
Q

JVD, narrowing pulse pressure, clear lungs, muffled distant heart sounds is what condition?

A

Cardiac Tamponade

433
Q

A late sign of a tension pneumothorax and cardiac tamponade is what?

A

Tracheal deviation

434
Q

Most unstable or lethal ectopic beats originate where?

A

Ventricles

435
Q

Most deaths after an MI occur within what time frame?

A

2 hours

436
Q

Tricyclic OD shows all irregularities on an EKG except?

A

Inverted T waves

437
Q

Part of the heart most commonly damaged?

A

Left ventricle

438
Q

A pain in the chest that has a searing/ tearing sensation that radiates to the neck with no pedal pulses is what?

A

Aortic Aneurysm

439
Q

Stable angina responds to what?

A

Rest and Nitro

440
Q

Stable angina occurs when?

A

During exercise and stress

441
Q

Unstable angina may not subside with rest, if not consider?

A

AMI

442
Q

(DVT) Thrombi in deep part of the legs migrates where?

A

Right Ventricle ( venous side )

443
Q

Pink frothy sputum, cyanosis, rales, tachycardia consider?

A

Pulmonary edema

444
Q

Pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs, which portion of the heart has the lowest amount of oxygen?

A

Right atrium

445
Q

Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood to the heart, which portion of the heart has the highest amount of oxygen?

A

Left atrium

446
Q

Arteries carry blood?

A

Away from the heart

447
Q

Veins carry blood?

A

To the heart

448
Q

PEA=

A

Not pneumonia

449
Q

Pressure of blood against the Arterial wall during heart beats is the definition of what?

A

Systolic BP

450
Q

Pressure of blood against Arterial walls BETWEEN heart beats?

A

Diastolic BP

451
Q

Adrenal glands secrete?

A

Epinephrine

452
Q

The amount of blood EJECTED from the heart during each contraction (systole)

A

Stroke volume

453
Q

If stroke volume does not change but HR decreases?

A

Cardiac output decreases

454
Q

What do coronary arteries do?

A

Perfuse the heart

455
Q

Coronary arteries empty via?

A

Coronary sinus

456
Q

Coronary occlusion =

A

Thrombosis

457
Q

Peripheral vasoconstriction =

A

Pallor

458
Q

Wide bizarre look on the monitor is?

A

V-Tach

459
Q

EKG paper large blocks =

A

.20 seconds

460
Q

EKG paper small blocks =

A

.04 seconds

461
Q

P-R interval greater than .20 sec is a diagnostic for?

A

Heart block

462
Q

P-R interval is measured from the beginning of?

A

P wave

463
Q

P waves get wider until QRS drops =

A

Wenkebach mobitz I

464
Q

Re-entry may cause premature beats meaning?

A

Tachydysrythmias (ex. PAC )

465
Q

Wide QRS rhythm w/ no p waves is what type of rhythm?

A

Idioventricular

466
Q

V- Fib will occur if cardioverted on?

A

T wave

467
Q

Calcium channel blockers decrease?

A

HR

468
Q

Medulla, Pons and aortic arch are all?

A

Chemoreceptors

469
Q

Regulates BP/RR/Pulse?

A

Medulla Oblongota

470
Q

The parasympathetic Neurotransmitter is?

A

Acetylcholine

471
Q

Stimulation of the vagus nerve produces?

A

Acetylcholine

472
Q

Neurotransmitter of the vagus nerve produces?

A

Acetylcholine

473
Q

Side effect of Bretylium is?

A

Postural / Orthostatic hypotension

474
Q

Two sided heart failure =

A

Pulmonary edema

475
Q

85 y/o w/ severe headache, nausea/ vomiting, dizziness BP 210/120 =

A

Hypertensive crisis

476
Q

Epinephrine causes all of the following :

A

Increased automaticity, HR, BP

*NOT DECREASED SYSTEMIC RESISTANCE **

477
Q

Ability of heart to generate its own electrical impulses is what?

A

Automaticity

478
Q

Hypotensive pt treatment?

A

Dopamine, fluid bolus, Epi drip, trendelenburg

* NOT FOWLERS*

479
Q

60 y/o pt, 110 lbs, heart palpitations, pulse 145, BP 110/60, RR 24, EKG = wide complex tachycardia. Treatment would be?

A

Lidocaine 1-1.5 mg/kg or 50 mg IVP

480
Q

Epi stimulates the heart in?

A

Asystole

481
Q

Causes vasoconstriction ( alpha 1 property )

A

Nor Epi

482
Q

Decreased workload and decreased preload is caused by what?

A

CHF

483
Q

JVD=

A

Increased venous pressure

484
Q

Right heart failure ( man sitting at 45 degrees ) causes what?

A

JVD

485
Q

Adult female who’s tachycardic, VS are WNL, she does not meet cardioversion criteria, what would you do?

A

Try to calm her, O2 and vagal

486
Q

Central venous pressure is aka?

A

Right Arterial pressure

487
Q

Procainamide is a?

A

Antiarythmic

488
Q

Used for PVC’s, V-Tach, maintenance of NSR after conversion from A-Fib and A-Flutter

A

Procainamide

489
Q

Adrenal glands release?

A

Epi and Nor Epi ( sympathetic nervous system “fight or flight” )

490
Q

Norepinephrine is what stimulant?

A

Alpha and Beta

491
Q

Atropine given to slow causes?

A

Paradoxical bradycardia

492
Q

Atropine works by blocking what?

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

493
Q

Atropine side effects:

A

Tachycardia, blurred vision, dry mouth

** NOT SWEATING ***

494
Q

Blocks the effects of the vagus nerve?

A

Atropine

495
Q

Used to treat asystole, bradycardia, 2nd degree heart block?

* NOT PSVT*

A

Atropine

496
Q

Alpha 1 stimulation causes what?

A

Increased HR, skeletal muscle contraction and Arterial constriction

* NOT BRONCHODILATION**

497
Q

If pt is in V-Tach, unconscious, No VS, defib at?

A

200j / 300j / 360j

498
Q

Pt’s with PVC’s and Bradycardia do not give ?

A

Lidocaine

499
Q

Early s/s of lidocaine toxicity is?

A

Muscle twitching or tremors/ parasthesia ( numbness and tingling )

500
Q

Lidocaine overdose S/S?

A

Hypotension and seizures

501
Q

If the question says toxicity or OD they are looking for

A

Seizures, hypotension, tremors, paresthesia ( numbness and tingling )

502
Q

Side effects of lidocaine are?

A

Hypotension and bradycardia

503
Q

A build of lactic acid during cardiac arrest causes the body to be in what state?

A

Metabolic acidosis

504
Q

Lidocaine dose for pulseless v-tach is?

A

1 mg/kg then 1.5 mg/kg

505
Q

Lidocaine can be administered via what routes?

A

ET,IV,IO

506
Q

Lidocaine dose for a code is

A

1.5 mg/kg followed by 1.5 mg/kg

507
Q

Next drug after lidocaine for multifocal PVC’s is?

A

Procainamide

508
Q

A lidocaine drip using 60 gtts/min at 20 gtts/min will deliver what amount in 30 min trip to the hospital?

A

10 ml

509
Q

Lidocaine drip of 2 G in 250 ml bag of D5W is ?

A

15 drops

510
Q

Lidocaine drip 2 G in 500 ml bag of D5W is?

A

30 drops

511
Q

Lidocaine drip 2 G in 1000ml bag of D5W is ?

A

60 drops

512
Q

Lidocaine dose for a pt that weighs 110lbs would be?

A

50 mg then 2-4 mg/min

513
Q

Lidocaine dose for an 80 kg pt with PVC’s is?

A

100 mg

514
Q

Intubate a cardiac arrest pt when?

A

Right away

515
Q

R on T phenomenon can cause?

A

V-tach / V-fib

516
Q

Synchronized cardioversion occurs on what point of an EKG?

A

R wave

517
Q

On fast patches, the Gel on the patches decreases what?

A

Defibrillation/ paddle resistance to increase conduction

518
Q

Gallop heart sound classified as S3 is a S/S of what?

A

CHF

519
Q

If you shock a pt with a pacemaker, where would you not place the fast patch and at what joules would you set the monitor?

A

200 j and not over the pacemaker

520
Q

Rhythm strip on the monitor shows some kind of indiscernible block what would your treatment be?

A

O2/ monitor and transport

521
Q

Morphine is a ?

A

Vasodilator

522
Q

A major side effect of certain diuretic treatments is what?

A

Hypokelemia

523
Q

Ascites means?

A

Fluid in the abdomen

524
Q

Fluid in the lungs ( ascites ) is usually a result of what medical conditions?

A

CHF or liver dysfunction

525
Q

Verapamil side effects are?

A

Hypotension, coronary artery dilation, bradycardia.

NOT TACHYCARDIA

526
Q

Other names for verapamil are?

A

Isotopin/ Calan ( calcium channel blockers )

527
Q

Treatment of a pt with pulmonary edema?

A

LMNO :

Lasix, morphine, nitro, O2

* NOT SOLUMEDROL

528
Q

All are vasopressors except?

  1. Levephed
  2. Nor Epi
  3. Intropin
  4. Atropine
A

Atropine

529
Q

Beta blockers are used to treat what?

A

Cardiac dysthymia, hypertension

530
Q

When beta blockers are stimulated the heart rate is increased causing the body to do what?

A

Vasodilation, increased myocardial o2 demand

* NO BRONCHOCONSTRICTION*

531
Q

A beta agonist natural normal response is what?

A

Increased HR, chronotrope,

532
Q

Verapamil is contraindicated in pt’s with what?

A

Wolf Parkinson’s white

533
Q

Side effects of verapamil?

A

Tachycardia (WPW problems)

534
Q

Rapid A-Fib, A-flutter and SVT are all rhythms that can be treated with what drug?

A

Verapamil

535
Q

Wolfe Parkinson’s white with no S/S treat with O2, if hemodynamically unstable in PSVT treat with?

A

Adenosine 6mg if no change 12mg/12mg fast IV push

536
Q

Pathophysiology of adenosine?

A

Slows conduction through the AV node, slows all cations

537
Q

Pulseless V-tach defibrillate at?

A

200j/300j/360j

538
Q

Symptoms due to tachycardia are related to ?

A

Decreased ventricular filling, time and stroke volume

539
Q

Drug with positive inotrope will cause?

A

Contractility, increased force of the contraction

540
Q

Epi given IV during cardiac arrest does all of the following :

A

Increased myocardial blood flow, increases peripheral resistance

541
Q

Side effects of Epi SQ or IV can be?

A

Palpations and hypertensions

542
Q

The Dr. Needs present complaints and history on a pt with ?

A

MI

543
Q

Elevated T waves is what?

A

Hyperkalemia

544
Q

Works in loop of henle, is a loop diuretic, decreases pre load, prevents reabsorption of sodium, causes vasodilation within 5 minutes

A

Lasix

545
Q

You draw up 800 mg of dopamine which comes 25mg/CC. How many CC’s will you put in the IV bag?

A

32 CC’s

546
Q

Medication first given for SVT?

A

Adenosine

547
Q

Adenosine side effects?

A

SOB/ chest pn/ dizziness

TACHYCARDIA IS NOT A SIDE EFFECT

548
Q

Isoproterenol dose?

A

2-20 mcg/min

549
Q

Causes blurred vision , dizziness , decreased HR, positive chronotropic is what?

A

Digitalis

550
Q

Any diuretic treatment can cause?

A

Hypokalemia

551
Q

Digitalis is contraindicated in?

A

Heart blocks

552
Q

Do not shock a pt that is taking what medication?

A

Digitalis

553
Q

Amount of blood ejected in one contraction?

A

Stroke volume (500 ml)

554
Q

Heart rate x stroke volume =

A

Cardiac output

555
Q

Do not shock a pt that is taking what medication?

A

Digitalis

556
Q

Cardiac output x peripheral vascular resistance =

A

Blood pressure

557
Q

If a pt is taking digitalis and is weak, dizzy, vs wnl treatment would be?

A

Monitor, IV and transport

558
Q

If a pt has chest pain, your questions should include questions about what?

A

GI problems and muscular skeletal issues

559
Q

If pt has a bundle branch block you should?

A

Transport, can’t rule out cardiac event

560
Q

Normal cardiac output per heartbeat is what?

A

500 ml

561
Q

Systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure or difference between systolic and diastolic is what?

A

Pulse pressure

562
Q

Intrinsic ventricular firing rate is?

A

20-40

563
Q

Treatment for a pt suffering a heat stroke would be?

A

Aggressive cooling methods, 2 IV’s wide open

564
Q

Failure of heat regulating mechanisms causes what condition?

A

Heat stroke

565
Q

TB S/S include?

A

Weakness and weight loss, night sweats , fever, hemoptysis, and SOB

566
Q

No substernal cheat pn with?

A

TB

567
Q

Contamination via dirty linens is considered?

A

Indirect contamination

568
Q

Fast ascents from diving causes joint pain, tingling in legs and abd pn. All components of what?

A

Decompression sickness

569
Q

Hot dry skin, summer, pt’s temp 106 and unconscious. Pt is suffering from what condition?

A

Heat stroke

570
Q

Profuse sweating indicates what condition?

A

Heat exhaustion

571
Q

Salt and water loss via sweating and evaporation is what?

A

Heat exhaustion

572
Q

Legs cramp from lactic acid accumulation is what condition?

A

Heat cramps

573
Q

Most neurotoxic venom is from what type of snake?

A

Corral snake

574
Q

Compression of hollow organs particularly small intestines/ bowel and ear drum problems is from what?

A

Blast injuries

575
Q

Lungs are the least likely to collapse in what?

A

Blast injury

576
Q

DT’s occur how long after decreasing or no longer consuming alcohol in a chronic alcohol abuse case?

A

48-72 hrs

577
Q

Green tongue is an indication of what?

A

Chronic alcohol abuse

578
Q

If pt is tachy and talking very fast consider?

A

Amphetamine use, look for pin point pupils

579
Q

CAGE questionnaire is used for what?

A

ETOH evaluation

580
Q

Transport scuba diver in what position?

A

LLR

581
Q

If flying with a scuba driver pt you must?

A

Fly as low as possible

582
Q

Most common route of poisoning is what?

A

Ingestion

583
Q

Caisson disease or the bends is a diving illness from what?

A

Ascending to fast

584
Q

Absorption of toxins occur within where?

A

Small intestines

585
Q

Most common route for toxins/ hazmat is?

A

Respiratory and absorption through the skin

586
Q

Tricyclic overdose antidote?

A

Sodium bicarbonate , crucial EKG monitoring, Torsades commonly seen

587
Q

Tricyclic and lithium and salicylate overdose antidote?

A

Sodium bicarbonate, alkalinize urine and hasten elimination process

588
Q

Cyanide poisoning antidote?

A

Amyl nitrate + sodium nitrate solution + sodium thiosulfate solution

589
Q

Benzodiazepine overdose antidote?

A

Flumazenil

590
Q

Opiates overdoses antidote?

A

Narcan

591
Q

Acetaminophen overdose antidote?

A

Mucomyst

592
Q

Nitrates overdose antidote?

A

Methylene blue

593
Q

Atropine overdose antidote?

A

Physostigmine

594
Q

Pt with IDDM requires what?

A

Insulin on a daily basis

595
Q

Weak and rapid pulse, weakness and incoordination, seizures, cool and clammy skin are S/S of what condition?

A

Hypoglycemia

596
Q

Obvious diabetic ketoacidosis S/S is what?

A

Warm and dry skin

597
Q

Deep and gasping respirations seem in DKA/Hyperglycemia

A

Kussmauls respirations

598
Q

Stupor, slurred speech, bizarre behavior, cool/clammy skin are all S/S of what?

A

Hypoglycemia

599
Q

Pediatric dose for D50W =

A

12.5 G also termed D25W

600
Q

Body cannot use glucose over what range?

A

180 mg/dl

601
Q

Normal glucose range

A

80-120 mg/dl

602
Q

All are S/S of DKA except , no kussmaul respirations and no fruity breath is what?

A

HHNK

603
Q

Osmotic diuresis with no ketones being used/ burned for energy is what?

A

HHNK

604
Q

Scenario: diabetic pt with headache what’s the most important question to ask pt?

A

How long have you had this headache

605
Q

DKA can be caused by a pt who does not ?

A

Take their insulin

606
Q

Administering glucose stimulates the release of?

A

Glucagon

607
Q

Releases glycogen from liver?

A

Glucagon

608
Q

Psychiatric condition with wide mood swings is called what?

A

Manic depression

609
Q

Mood swings from euphoria to depression is what condition?

A

Manic depression

610
Q

Drug taken for bipolar disorder aka manic depression?

A

Lithium

611
Q

If pt is disoriented, try to get pt to focus on?

A

Person, place, time and situation

612
Q

Medications used for psychiatric pt’s particularly schizophrenia are what?

A

Thorazine, Mellaril, Haldol

613
Q

Reversal of tricyclic OD is what?

A

Sodium bicarbonate

614
Q

Psychotic pt vs. neurotic pt main difference is what?

A

Psychotic pt not in touch with reality

615
Q

Extrapyramidal reaction to antipsychotic Med’s treatment would be?

A

Benadryl 25-50 mg

616
Q

Elderly, dementia, deterioration of mental status with neuro disease are all S/S of what?

A

Alzheimer’s

617
Q

Most common cause of injury in elderly pt’s is ?

A

Falls

618
Q

Increase fall injuries in elderly pt’s?

A

Dementia

619
Q

If pt is delusional, having hallucinations or a lack of reality it is important that EMS personnel do not?

A

Feed into delusions etc.

620
Q

Most common form of abuse in the elderly is?

A

Neglect

621
Q

Most common form of child abuse is?

A

Physical

622
Q

If an infant has rib fractures, suspect?

A

Abuse

623
Q

If a baby is lethargic with no other S/S, do not rule out?

A

Shaken baby syndrome

624
Q

Most likely person to abuse children is?

A

Caregiver

625
Q

Most likely to abuse elderly parents?

A

Son

626
Q

If the story does not match the injury to a person of any age suspect?

A

Abuse

627
Q

If a pt is healing in various stages suspect?

A

Abuse

628
Q

Scalding circumferentially with no splash marks consider?

A

Abuse

629
Q

Look directly at pt, do not yell and speak slow are all things that should be considered when working with what type of pt?

A

Deaf

630
Q

Lower tones are better heard by pt’s that are what?

A

Hard of hearing ( best to use a male medic )

631
Q

Discrimination against AIDS/Communicable disease pt’s is a violation of?

A

Americans with disabilities act.

632
Q

Unreasonable confinement in elderly pt’s is considered?

A

Elderly abuse

633
Q

If you use the fireman’s drag, sit pt up. Do not?

A

Tie hands together

634
Q

Crying spells, anorexia, unkempt, lethargic with physical exam showing no abnormalities is considered what condition?

A

Depression

635
Q

28 y/o with depression history, unconscious, sweating, pinpoint pupils, skin and fine motor fasciculations and tearing excessively are all S/S of what?

A

Lithium OD

636
Q

Management of suicide crisis?

A

Every attempt needs to be evaluated by physician

637
Q

Valium routes of administration:

A

Rectal, IV, IM

638
Q

If a psychiatric pt is violent you should?

A

Wait for assistance / call LE

639
Q

Experience a sense of deed or fear, distress over real or imagined threat to one’s own mental or physical well being is considered what?

A

Anxiety

640
Q

Old lady thinking neighbors are out to get her, you should?

A

Remove her from the situation and keep her talking

641
Q

Person witnesses a murder, he appears paralyzed while PE reveals no injury/ abnormality consider what?

A

Conversion hysteria

642
Q

Woman threatening to kill herself with barbiturates, she is willing to talk but not with the door open, you should?

A

Conduct the interview outside door and call police

643
Q

Someone that is frightened by heights, can’t ride an elevator. This is a?

A

Phobia

644
Q

How to deal with the effects of a pt’s behavior during a physical exam?

A

Modify the exam if necessary

645
Q

You have A pt that is exhibiting hostile aggressive behavior, you would?

A

Contact police and remove bystandards from scene

646
Q

Dealing with a hostile pt, you and your partner should?

A

Stand apart from each other at an equal distance

647
Q

Distraught elderly person urinates while on the stretcher and does not inform you until he/she is finished. This type of behavior is considered?

A

Regression

648
Q

How to restrain a pt:

A

Lay pt in the prone position, 1 arm at their side and the other arm above their head with ankles together

649
Q

Part of the lymphatic system, found in the LUQ?

A

Spleen

650
Q

Committing if green/ yellow bike… fatty meals will also cause this?

A

Choleosystitis

651
Q

Enzyme produced in the liver and stored in the gall bladder is what?

A

Bile

652
Q

Pouch like herniations through the muscular layer of the colon, usually found in the LLQ?

A

Diverticulitis

653
Q

Colored portion of the eyeball that surrounds the pupil?

A

Iris

654
Q

Sclera white of the eye yellows due to?

A

Jaundice

655
Q

Transmits sight to back of the eye for brain interpretation?

A

Optic nerve

656
Q

Neurological findings during or after dialysis as a result of imbalance of intracellular and extracellular fluids in the brain is?

A

Disequilibrium syndrome

657
Q

Hyperthyroidism which increases thyroid hormone circulating in the bloodstream is AKA?

A

Grave’s disease

658
Q

Master gland, secretes oxytocin and ACTH

A

Pituitary gland

659
Q

Duct glands excrete directly through ducts to epithelial cells ( sweat/ salivary)

A

Exocrine glands

660
Q

Removal of toxins from blood through a semi-permeable membrane is called what?

A

Dialysis

661
Q

Toxins in the blood are called?

A

Hemotoxins

662
Q

Hormone released by beta cells in the pancreas ( isles of lagerhans )

A

Insulin

663
Q

You will not see a decreased HR in what type of pt?

A

Dehydrated

664
Q

Activated charcoal dose?

A

1g per kg

665
Q

Hands placed on abdomen for what maneuver?

A

Heimlich

666
Q

Not a sign of dehydration?

A

Polyuria

667
Q

Fever, chills, nausea, vomiting ( common in blood transfusion )

A

Pryrogenic reaction

668
Q

Prophylactic HIV treatment to begin in ?

A

48 hours

669
Q

Female, fat and in her 40’s having RUQ pain after eating fatty foods, what would cause this condition?

A

Cholecystitis

670
Q

Measles, mumps and chicken pox are all spread by what means?

A

Droplets

671
Q

Hepatitis A is spread by what route?

A

Fecal to oral

672
Q

Very virtulant and can stay on surfaces for days?

A

Hepatitis B

673
Q

Fungus, bacteria and viruses are examples of what?

A

Microorganisms

674
Q

Stiff neck, high fever, headache and backache are all S/S of?

A

Meningitis

675
Q

Newborns are obligatory breathers through what?

A

Nose

676
Q

At what age do kids have magical thinking?

A

3-5

677
Q

This condition is caused by sudden temperature changes, usually self limiting and require minimum treatment. Treatment should include gentle cooling measures such as remove clothing / blankets and tepid water used. Should be transported to the hospital, what condition would this be?

A

Febrile seizures

678
Q

Merconium staining is caused by what?

A

Fetal distress

679
Q

Treatment for a newborn that has merconium staining?

A

First intubate and suction prior to first breath.

680
Q

Seizures, convulsions are most common in children from what age to what age?

A

6 mos to 6 yrs due to febrile illness

681
Q

Single indicator of neonatal distress is?

A

Bradycardia

682
Q

Pediatric lidocaine dose?

A

1 mg/kg

683
Q

Pedi dose of lidocaine for a 20 lb child is?

A

9 mg

684
Q

Vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, diaphoresis, clammy can lead to metabolic acidosis all S/S of what type of OD?

A

ASA

685
Q

Pediatric pt that weighs 67 lbs needs SQ Epi, what is the dose?

A

.3 mg

686
Q

Pediatric dose of SQ Epi for allergic reaction is?

A

.01 mg/kg

687
Q

Pediatric pt with bradycardia, first line drug would be?

A

O2

688
Q

Unilateral chest wheeze in a 6 y/o child consider?

A

FBO

689
Q

In general DO NOT lie any child flat if

A

Dyspneic or drooling (epiglottis) or w S/S of Croup

690
Q

Positive pressure ventilations are given to infants with a HR less than?

A

100 bpm

691
Q

Rapid onset of fever higher than 101 degrees usually indicates what?

A

Epiglotitis

692
Q

Slow onset of fever usually between 100-104 degrees is a sign of what?

A

Croup

693
Q

Ominous sign of respiratory failure in a 6 y/o

A

Hypothermic breathing 6x/ minute

694
Q

Makes intubation easier and can be used with infants?

A

Stylet

695
Q

A single important indication in neonatal distress is?

A

Bradycardia

696
Q

Best way of delivering O2 to an asthmatic child in acute distress?

A

Humidified O2

697
Q

Placement of IO in pediatrics?

A

Proximal Tibia

698
Q

Infant not breathing for 1-2 minutes then suddenly begins spontaneous respirations. What would you do for this pt?

A

Assist ventilations

699
Q

Bones not yet fused, slightly sunken and may pulsate, Normal.

A

Anterior fontanelle

700
Q

What does a sunken fontanelle usually indicate?

A

Possible Dehydration

701
Q

ICP, over hydration, traumatic injury, coup -counter coup, shaken baby syndrome are indicated by what?

A

Bulging fontanelle

702
Q

If a pediatric ingests lye what would you give?

A

Milk

703
Q

Vomiting, diarrhea,Fever, burns are all signs of what in a child?

A

Dehydration

704
Q

Location for IO in a ped?

A

2 fingers Below tibial tuberosity on medial surface of tibia

705
Q

What to expect in a child that inhales freon?

A

PVC’s, VTach, VFib

706
Q

The escape of fluid into a cavity

A

Effusion

707
Q

Connects bone to muscle?

A

Tendon

708
Q

Connects bone to bone?

A

Ligaments

709
Q

Connects descending aorta to spine

A

Ligamentum Arteriosum

710
Q

Subluxation mean what?

A

Partial dislocation of a joint that remains in place but is deformed

711
Q

The liver produces?

A

Bile

712
Q

The gallbladder stores?

A

Bile