State Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What would be the appropriate equipment to use for drawing from a patient with small, thin, fragile vein?

A

Butterfly with syringe

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2
Q

How much urine would an adult female patient need to produce for STD testing?

A

20/30 mls

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3
Q

If patient is being drawn for a PT/INR test, what medication are they on?

A

Warfarin

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4
Q

If patient comes in asking for results, what should you do?

A

Advise them to make an appt with their doctor

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5
Q

When instructing a patient to collect a stool sample, make sure that you instruct the patient..

A

Do not mix stool and urine

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6
Q

When drawing blood from a hemophiliac patient instruct them to..

A

hold pressure on the site for 2 minutes

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7
Q

How often does a centrifuge need to be calibrated?

A

Every 6 months

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8
Q

What test do you draw for without a tourniquet?

A

Lactic acid

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9
Q

If a patient faints during a blood draw, what is the vital sign that has to be checked before you let them leave?

A

Pulse

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10
Q

How long can plasma sit at room temp?

A

8 hours

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11
Q

How long do you rotate a NP swab in each nostril when collecting a covid screening test?

A

15 seconds

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12
Q

How do you collect a POC glucose test?

A

Strip and a drop of blood

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13
Q

If patient presents to the lab for a fasting glucose blood draw but indicates he or she is NOT fasting, what should the phlebotomist do?

A

Draw anyways and documents “non-fasting”

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14
Q

If you suspect child or elder abuse or neglect, what should you do?

A

Notify your supervisor

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15
Q

What steps is NO LONGER recommended for a patient who is passing out?

A

Ammonia inhalants

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16
Q

How long should a patient fast for a fasting blood sugar?

A

8 hours

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17
Q

What contains documentation of chemical safety and precautions?

A

SDS log

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18
Q

What equipment is needed for a urine C&S?

A

Sterile cup and alcohol wipe

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19
Q

What kind of checks need to be performed on POC equipment in a doctor’s office?

A

Quality Control Checks

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20
Q

What agency mandates a written exposure plan?

A

OSHA

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21
Q

What is the normal BP for an adult?

A

120/80

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22
Q

What is outside of the normal range for BP on an adult?

A

139/94 (high)

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23
Q

If a coworker comes back late from lunch and ask you to cover for him or her, what will you do?

A

Tell them you cannot cover for them

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24
Q

What test will you collect in an amber colored tube?

A

Bilirubin

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25
Q

Abbreviation for FBS

A

Fast Blood Sugar

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26
Q

Abbreviation for QID

A

4 times daily

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27
Q

Abbreviation for PP

A

Post Prandial (after a meal)

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28
Q

Abbreviation for HS

A

Hours of Sleep

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29
Q

When drawing multiple tubes, when would the tourniquets be released?

A

As soon as blood flow is established

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30
Q

What department is responsible for sterile supplies?

A

Central supply

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31
Q

What is the most important part of blood culture collection?

A

Aseptic procedure (cleaning the site)

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32
Q

If you have an order to collect a protime specimen from a patient with IV’s in both arms, where would you draw?

A

The Hand

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33
Q

At what age and weight will you no longer perform a heel puncture?

A

Older than 12 months and more than 21 pounds

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34
Q

What can happen if you draw an EDTA tube before a serum tube?

A

Cross contamination resulting in high potassium levels, and false low calcium levels

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35
Q

What does the term Hematona mean?

A

Blood leaking from the vessel under the skin

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36
Q

What are the special handling requirements for a vitamin B12?

A

Protect from light

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37
Q

When perform a bleeding timed test, how high should the blood pressure cut be inflated to?

A

40 mm Hg

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38
Q

Sweating, looking pale, and complaining of blurred vision can be signs of what?

A

Vasovagal Syncope

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39
Q

Which coagulation tests can be performed at bedside using a point of care instrument?

A

PTT and INR

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40
Q

What tube is a CBC collected in?

A

Lavender

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41
Q

What tube is an Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate drawn in?

A

Lavender

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42
Q

According to OSHA why do we activate the safety feature on a needle?

A

To prevent accidental needle sticks

43
Q

What does FBS stand for?

A

Fasting blood sugar

44
Q

What is the normal range for fasting glucose for an adult?

A

Anything under 100

45
Q

What two analytes are included in an electrolyte panel?

A

Sodium and Potassium

46
Q

If you could draw blood from a patient without his or her consent, what can the phlebotomist be charged with?

A

Battery

47
Q

What is the substanace at the bottom of a serum separator tube?

A

Thixtropic gel

48
Q

What color top will an aluminum be drawn in?

A

Royal Blue

49
Q

How many tubes are needed for a 3 hour GTT?

A

4 tubes

50
Q

When do you change out the sharp container?

A

3/4 full

51
Q

What color tubes are used for a hemoglobin A1C, and a PT/PTT drawin in, and what is the correct order of draw?

A

1.Lt blue, 2. lavender

52
Q

What is the special handling required for paternity testing?

A

Chain of custody

53
Q

If asked to draw a red, lt. blue, blood cultures, and lavender. Which is last?

A

Lavender

54
Q

What is the recommended disinfectant to clean up blood, or other bodily fluid contamination?

A

Sodium Hypochorite (bleach)

55
Q

Informed consent is required for _____

A

Invasive surgery and Biopsy

56
Q

Red top used for the following tests

A

Blood pregnancy and hepatic panel

57
Q

Which vein is the first choice for a routine venipuncture?

A

Median cubital

58
Q

Tiger top is used for a..

A

Thyroid panel

59
Q

After the needle is withdrawn, what is the NEXT step?

A

Activate the safety

60
Q

Is it okay to use 70% isopropyl alcohol for cleansing the site when drawing blood for ethanol testing?

A

No

61
Q

What is the FIRST thing you will do in case of an accidental needle stick?

A

Wash the site for 30/60 seconds with soap and water

62
Q

When drawing from a patient who has had a mastectomy where is the appropriate place to draw?

A

Opposite side in the hand

63
Q

What is the best side for a dermal puncture on an adult?

A

Middle Finger

64
Q

If the processing lab is backed up on resulting, what will you do with your samples?

A

Send them anyways

65
Q

When drawing from an HIV patient, what extra precautions do you need to take?

A

None, always wear gloves

66
Q

What would be a reason for a light blue top to be rejected for processing?

A

QNS (Quantity Not Sufficient)

67
Q

What is the proper blood to additive ration for a light blue top tube?

A

9:1

68
Q

When does a phlebotomist wash their hands?

A

Before and after the draw

69
Q

What PPE is required when drawing and handling blood products?

A

Gloves

70
Q

What is the additive in a dark green tube?

A

Sodium Heparin

71
Q

How do you explain a phlebotomy procedure to a young child?

A

In simple terms

72
Q

What uses heat, steam, and chemicals?

A

Sterilization

73
Q

What can be caused by leaving the tourniquet on too long?

A

Hemoconcentration

74
Q

What are the special handling requirements for an ammonia sample?

A

Place on ice

75
Q

If a hematoma starts to form and the patient says it hurts, what should the phlebotomist do?

A

Stop the draw, apply pressure, reassess

76
Q

What BBP can remain on surfaces up to 7 days if not properly disinfected?

A

HBV (hepatitis B)

77
Q

If a Dr. orders a CMP, CBC, PT and blood cultures, what is the correct order of draw?

A

blood cultures, light blue, SST (gold) and lavender

78
Q

Where is the proper place for the tourniquet to be placed during a vein puncture?

A

3-4 inches above the site

79
Q

What is the appropriate equipment used for a hand draw?

A

23 gauge butterfly

80
Q

What does warming the site do?

A

increases localized blood flow

81
Q

Where does FDP (fibrin degradation products) go for processing?

A

Coagulation

82
Q

What is the purpose of checking the arm band on an in-patient who has lab orders?

A

avoiding patient identification errrors

83
Q

If a patient extends his or her arm, this is an example of what type of consent?

A

Implied consent

84
Q

What is the #1 way to prevent cross contamination of microorganisms from one patient to another?

A

Handwashing (hand decontamination)

85
Q

How long should a specimen draw in an SST tube be allowed to sit and clot before centrifugation?

A

30 to 60 minutes

86
Q

According to the CLSI standards, what is the maximum time a specimen (plasma or serum) should be left at room temp before centrifugation?

A

2 hours

87
Q

What is it that states that a patient has the right to refuse medical procedures and be informed in all consequences in doing so?

A

Patient bill of rights

88
Q

If a patient is on blood thinners or an aspirin regimen, what should be used after the draw?

A

Coban wrap

89
Q

Out of red, green, light blue, and lavender top tubes, which will produce serum?

A

Red

90
Q

What agency is responsible for the health and safety of workers?

A

OSHA

91
Q

Once the draw is complete, what is the next step?

A

Dispose of the needle into a puncture resistant container (sharp container)

92
Q

Why is it important to ask for feedback when communication with a patient?

A

To make sure they understand what is being said

93
Q

What type of isolation requires special handling and ventilation?

A

Airborne isolation

94
Q

If a specimen is lipemic, what can this be an indication for?

A

Patient not fasting

95
Q

What is used to collect DNA samples by swabbing the inside of the cheek?

A

Buccal swab

96
Q

What is the purpose of patient ID numbers being on the tube labels?

A

Avoiding confusing patients with the same first and last name

97
Q

What carries blood away from the heart?

A

Arteries

98
Q

What does a sputum test for?

A

Tuberculosis

99
Q

At what position angle do you use a semi-fowler?

A

30-45 degrees

100
Q

Aseptic sterile techniques be used in?

A

Blood culture

101
Q

What is a semi-fowler used for?

A

Lung expansion

102
Q

A patient taking blood thinner should use what after a blood is drawn?

A

Coban

103
Q

What is the correct labeling for specimen?

A

Patient last, first name, patient’s ID number, time and date of collection, PB initials

104
Q

The ability of the body to repair and maintain itself to achieve a “steady state” defines what term?

A

Homeostasis