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Anesthesia > Startprep 1 > Flashcards

Startprep 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Pressure control vs support ventilation

A

Support: always pt-triggered; flow-cycled
Control: pt- or machine-triggered; time-cycled

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2
Q

In pressure-support, inspiration is terminated by ?

A

When inspiratory flow falls to a certain percentage (typically 25%) of peak inspiratory flow

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3
Q

Decelerating flow waveform in volume control

A

lower peak inspiratory pressure

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4
Q

In volume-control, which ventilator settings affect peak inspiratory pressure?

A
  1. TV

2. Inspiratory flow

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5
Q

What does a ventilator control?

A
  1. Volume
  2. pressure
  3. flow
  4. time
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6
Q

assisted vs controlled breath?

Assist control breath (hybrid mode)

A
  1. assisted: Pt initiates breath, which then triggers the ventilator.
  2. controlled: Ventilator initiates breath based on values prescribed by clinician.
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7
Q

auto-peep

A

Given that the alveoli are propped open by the positive pressure you are giving and not allowed time to deflate, this phenomenon is also known as auto-peep.

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8
Q

breath stacking

A

each breath is increasing the volume of lungs in the thorax

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9
Q

Assist-control mode (AC)

A

Detect pt-triggered breath—–>deliver full ventilator driven TV

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10
Q

Coronary perfusion pressure

A

DBP - LVEDP

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11
Q

Mitral vs tricuspid vavle

A
  1. MV: anterior & posterior leaflet

2. TV: septal, anterior, posterior leaflet

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12
Q

aorta

A
  1. intima
  2. media
  3. adventitia
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13
Q

coronary circulation

A
  1. Aortic root—>L & R Ostia–>L & R coronary artery

2.

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14
Q

SA node (Sinoatrial node)

A
  1. @ junction of SVC & RA
  2. single nodal artery: RCA (55-60%), LCX (40-45%)
  3. 60-100 bpm
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15
Q

AV node

A
  1. @ A-V junction
  2. 40-55 bpm
  3. RCA (80%), LCX (20%)
    Note: SA–>atrial–>AV node–>bundels of His–>Purkinje fibers (slowest)–>
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16
Q

Heart-Ach

A

M2

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17
Q

Components of AV valve

A

leaflets, annulus, chordae, papillary muscles

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18
Q

phase of ventricular relaxation

A

(1) Isovolumetric: energy dependent
(2) Rapid filling phase
(3) Slow filling=diastasis (5%)
(4) Final filling during atrial systole (15-25%)

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19
Q

Baroreceptor reflex

carotid sinus reflex

A
  1. Maintenance of BP
  2. Carotid Sinus & aortic arch: circumferential & longitudinal receptors
  3. HTN–>(-) symp–>(-)HR, contractility, vascular tone; HypoNT–>reverse
  4. Blunt: anesthetics
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20
Q

Chemoreceptor reflex

A
  1. Carotid & aortic bodies: chemosensitive cells–>pH, PO2
  2. PaO2sinus nerve of Hering or Vagus–>medulla–>+ventilation
  3. para or symp via adrenal
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21
Q

Bainbridge reflex =atrial reflex

A
  1. stretch receptor: RA & cavoatrial junction
  2. (+) stretch—>vagal afferent—>CV center in medulla–>(-)para–>(+) HR
  3. EA or SA–>(-)sym–>vasodilation–>(-)atrial stretch–>(-)HR
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22
Q

Bezold-Jarisch reflex (BJR)

A
  1. noxious ventricular stimuli—> chemo- & mechano-receptors: LV wall–>hypoTN, bradycardia, coronary A dilatation
  2. bradycardia: atropine
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23
Q

Valsalva Maneuver

A

think

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24
Q

Cushing reflex

A
  1. Increased ICP–>medullary vasomotor center ischemia–>+symp–>HTN–>reflex bradycardia; –>irregular breathing or apnea
  2. Cushing’s triad: HTN, bradycadia, irregular breathing
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25
Q

Oculocardiac Reflex

A
  1. pressure on eye or traction on surrounding structure–>+para–>bradycardia: atropine
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26
Q

principal determinants of myocardial oxygen demand

A
  1. wall tension
  2. contractility
  3. heart rate
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27
Q

Predominant autonomic input to hear

A

parasympathetic via vagus at rest –>normal HR 60-80

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28
Q

Diastolic dysfunction is a major cause of heart failure: true or false?

A

True. Vernticular stiffening causing impaired ventricular filling is a major cause of heart failure

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29
Q

oculo-cardiac reflex is modulated by which CN

A

‘Five & dime’: afferent via trigeminal (V) & efferent via vagus (X) causing bradycardia

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30
Q

chief determinants of wall tension

A
  1. preload

2. afterload

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31
Q

Major determinant of osmotic pressure In capillary

A

Plasma proteins

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32
Q

Phase I vs phase II

A

I: train of four ratio>0.7
II: anticholinesterase drugs–>block
Fade on train of four stimulation

I + II: none has sustained tetanu

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33
Q

High vs low gas flow —> accuracy measuring gas flowing a Thorpe tube w/ a bobbin float

A

High: turbulence, gas density

Low: laminar, viscosity

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34
Q

A 50 year-old African-American woman has a history of chronic pain that has been stable on multimodal daily pain medication. She presents to the emergency room complaining of vivid dreams and feeling weird, which developed about a day after she started taking Isoniazid for tuberculosis.

A

Her pain medication regimen likely includes ketamine, and coadministration of isoniazid would likely decrease the metabolism of ketamine as a result of competitive hepatic metabolism. This increased plasma concentration of ketamine could lead to new side effects.

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35
Q

airway nerve innervation

A
  1. CN V: mucous membranes of nose: V1 anteriorly (anterior ethmoidal nerve), V2 posteriorly (sphenopalatine nerve); palatine N. (sensory fibers from V): palate; lingual N. (br. of V3): anterior 2/3 tongue
  2. CN IX (glossopharyngeal): posterior 1/3 tongue, roof of pharynx, tonsil, undersurface of soft palate; easily blocked where it crosses the palatoglossal arch
  3. Sensation of taste: VII anteriorly, IX posteriorly
  4. X: sensation bellow epiglottis–>superior laryngeal N–>external br. (motor–cricothyroid muscle) & internal br. (sensory–>larynx between epiglottis & vocal cords, hypopharynx posterior to those structures); recurrent laryngeal N–>sensory: larynx below vocal cords & trachea; motor: all laryngeal muscles except cricothyroid muscle
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36
Q

pharynx extends from base of skull to ?

A

cricoid cartilage

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37
Q

larynx

A
  1. epiglottis - lower end of cricoid cartilages
  2. 9 cartilages: 3 single (thyroid, cricoid, epiglotic), 3 paired (arytenoid, coniculate, cuneiform)
  3. cricothyroid membrane: best access–>percutaneous airway
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38
Q

recurrent laryngeal nerve

A
  1. Sensation below vocal cord
  2. all intrinsic muscles of larynx except chricothyroid muscle
  3. can be damaged during thyroid surgery & by ETT cuff laying just below vocal cord
  4. block: transtracheal injection via cricothyroid membrane
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39
Q

superior laryngeal nerves

A
  1. external branch: motor–>cricothyroid muscle

2. Internal: sensoryminimal; bil–>hoarseness & loss of sensation above vocal cords–>aspiration

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40
Q

Vocal Cord Palsies

A
  1. recurrent laryngeal N: unilateral –>hoarseness; bil–>aphonia, stridor, airway obstruction
  2. vagus N bil injury–>both
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41
Q

6 major anatomic differences between infant vs adult airway

A

(1) relatively large tongue
(2) relatively large occiput
(3) more cephalad larynx
(4) epiglottis is narrow, omega shaped, and floppy
(5) vocal cords slant anteriorly(6) narrowest part of the larynx is the cricoid cartilage
* persist until 8 yo

42
Q

Airway topicalization

A

nebulized 4% lidocaine

43
Q

which arteries provide blood supply to larynx?

A

laryngeal branches derived from superior & inferior thyroid arteries

44
Q

Where does trachea become intrathoracic?

A

At 6th cartilaginous ring

45
Q

When doing bronchoscopy, which important landmark helps to distinguish right from left mainstem bronchus?

A

Trifurcation of right upper lobe bronchus with 3 segments is a very important landmark

46
Q

DLco

A
  1. diffusing capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide
  2. independent risk factor for pulmonary resections
  3. preoperative DLCO < 40% of predicted is a reliable marker of severe lung disease
  4. low HCT–> partially correctible cause
47
Q

Apneic Oxygenation

A
  1. relative ability to maintain oxygen saturation in blood during absent ventilatio
48
Q

CO2 rise in apneic person

A
  1. First min–>6 mmHg

2. Thereafter–>3 mmHg/min

49
Q

How is CPAP able to maintain oxygenation?

A

CPAP stents lungs open–inhibiting shunting—>oxygen tension in blood to remain relatively constant

50
Q

Bohr effect?

A

Increased oxygen release from hemoglobin in response to higher carbon dioxide tension or lower pH

51
Q

hypopharynx

A

the laryngeal part of the pharynx extending from the hyoid bone to the lower margin of the cricoid cartilage

52
Q

each 1 mmHg increase in PaCO2 (w/I physiologic range (20 -80mm Hg)

A
  1. CBF increase by 1.8ml/100 g brain tissue /min

2. CBV increase by 0.04 ml/100 g brain tissue/min

53
Q

Robin Hood effect

A

In areas of focal ischemia, where vessels are already maximally dilated, the ability of hypoxia to induce vessel dilation is lost. The Robin Hood effect describes the fact that under this circumstance of lost vessel responsiveness to hypoxia in an ischemic region, intentional hyperventilation (by inducing vasoconstriction of surrounding normal vasculature) may transiently improve perfusion of the ischemic tissue bed (shunting blood flow to the “neediest” areas). However, the Robin Hood effect is not predictable. When focal ischemia is suspected, the usual approach is mild hyperventilation.

54
Q

hypercarbia vs MAC

A

Hypercarbia does not affect MAC significantly until PaCO2 exceeds 90-100 mm Hg.

55
Q

PaO2 vs SaO2

A 
PaO2 95 mm Hg -->SaO2 of 97%
95-->97%
40-->75%
26.8-->50% (P50)
40-50-60--->70-80-90
56
Q

apneic threshold

A

normal adult: PaCO2 = 32 mmHg

57
Q

Threshold for substantial increase in ventilation is a PaO2<

A

60 mmHg

58
Q

Which chemoreceptor is more involved in maintaining ventilation: peripheral or central?

A

Central

59
Q

The apneic threshold is___mmHg (above /below) the resting PaCO2

A

The apneic threshold is usually 4-5 mmHg below the resting PaCO2 & is usually about 32 mmHg in normal awake adults

60
Q

fluid requirement of 1 degree centigrade above 37

A

addition of 2.5 mL/kg for every 24 hours

61
Q

diruretics–>? Na+

A

—>hypernatremia

62
Q

glucose treatment

A

Adults can use glucose at a rate of 3 to 5 mg/kg/min, and less in a stress state such as surgery. The rate of disposition of glucose in young children is 4 to 8 mg/kg/min. Healthy infants become hyperglycemic when 5% dextrose is included in maintenance fluids, and 1% dextrose is adequate to prevent hypoglycemia in infants.

63
Q

Clinical signs of hypovolemia

A

Dry mucous membranes, positional blood pressure changes, decreased urine output, decreased sensorium

64
Q

MCC of fluid loss during surgery

A
  1. Evaporation
  2. fluid shift
  3. blood loss
65
Q

FSBG

A

Finger Stick Blood Glucose

66
Q

NS

A
  1. higher osmolality, Chloride
  2. lower pH
  3. w/o K, Ca
  4. > 3 L–>hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
67
Q

LR

A
  1. Lactate: may not –>pyruvate efficiently during lactic acidosis or severe liver failure
  2. K, Ca
68
Q

Normosol

A
  1. most expensive
  2. critically ill ps w.diminished compensatory mechanisms
  3. No Ca–>may used w/ pRBC
  4. K
  5. same as plasmalyte expt pH
69
Q

colloid: protein vs non-protein

A
  1. protein: albumin, gelatin-based (not used in USA)
  2. albumin: well-tolerated: w/o anaphylaxis, infection, coag
  3. Non-protein: Dextrans (used in vascular, but not volume resuscitation) & hydroxyethyl starches (anticoag if hetastarch>20 ml/kg/day; pruritis; higher M & M in critically ill pts)
70
Q

What percentage of anesthetized patients develop atelectasis?

A

90%

71
Q

RBF

A
  1. RBF>20% of resting CO
  2. consume 10% body’s O2 received
  3. 90-95% to cortex
  4. autoregulation: 80-180 mmHg MAP
72
Q

nephron

A
  1. two million/ per kidney
  2. glomerulus + tubule
  3. cortical (85% RBF) vs juxtamedullary (10%); # 7:1
  4. filtriation +reabsorption + secreation –>urine
73
Q

mTAL

A
  1. thick portion of ascending limb of loop of Henle
  2. impermealble to H2O
  3. most energy consuming–>greatest risk of ATN
74
Q

distal tubule

A

major site of parathyroid hormone and vitamin D-mediated calcium reabsorption

75
Q

Cr vs GFG

A

inverse & exponential: doubling of serum Cr = 1/2 GFR)

76
Q

tubular function test :FENa vs FEUrea

A

FENa = Fractional Excretion of sodium–>tubular Na reabsorption

  1. express Na clearance as % of CCr
  2. (U Na/ S Na)/(U Cr/S Cr)x100%
  3. hypovolemic: 3%
  4. inaccurate: diuretic mes
77
Q

FEUrea

A
  1. tubular reabsorption of urea
  2. % of CCr
  3. FEUrea= ( UUrea × PCr ) / ( UCr × PUrea ) × 100%
  4. normal: 35-55%
  5. pre-renal AKI: 55-60%
  6. useful in diuretics used
78
Q

What substances are renal vasodilators?

A 
PG E2, D2, I2
Kinns
Endothelin
Atrial natriuretic peptide
NO
dopamine
Fenoldopam
79
Q

How is oliguria is defined?

A
  1. in previously normal kidneys: UOP <0.5 mL/Kg/hr
80
Q

What substances are renal vasoconstrictors?

A 
Epi
Norepi
AT II
Endothelin
Vasopressin
PG F2
Thromboxane
81
Q

Carbonic anhydrase

  1. acetazolamide
  2. methazolamide)
A
  1. Na-H exchanger: proximal tube
  2. (-) carbonic anhydrase–(-) reabsorption of Na & HCO3–>alkalinized urine–>mild systemic metabolic acidosis
  3. weak: distal compensation
  4. used: alkalinized urine, altitude sickness, open-angle glaucoma
82
Q

osmoticdiuretics

  1. mannitol
  2. urea
A
  1. filtered and no reabsorption

2. In poor cardiac reserve–>acute pulm edema

83
Q

Loop diuretics

  1. furosemide
  2. bumetanide
  3. torsemide
A
  1. (-) Na-K-Cl symporter: ascending limb of loop of Henle
  2. Increase venous capacitance–>LVEDP–>LVF
  3. cirrhosis, renal dz, HF
  4. –>hyponatremia, hypokalemia
  5. ototoxicity: rapid use
  6. Increase non-albumin bound warfarin & clofibrate
84
Q

Thiazide diuretics

A
  1. (-) Na-CI symporter: distal convoluted tubule

2. kypokalemia, hyponatremia, kypercalcemia, metabolic alkalosis

85
Q

K sparing diuretics

A

(-)Na channels–>hyperkalemia
1. triamterene
2. amiloride
mineralocorticoid receptor anagonist: spironolactone–>hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, gynecomastia, hirsutism

86
Q

jugular notch

A
  1. at superior aspect of manubrium between prominent medial portions of clavicles
  2. at level of inferior border of T2
87
Q

sternal angle

A
  1. T4-T5 intervertebral disc
  2. 2nd costal cartilage
  3. tope of aortic arch
  4. tracheal bifurcation
88
Q

nipple

A
  1. Male: 4th intercostal space

2. female: lower

89
Q

sternum

A
  1. T5-9

2. xiphoid process

90
Q

tension pneumothorax—-> emergency thoracocentesis

A

midclavicular line in the second intercostal space

91
Q

Posterior thoracic wall

A
  1. C7: most prominent # palpable
  2. T2 process–>superior angle of scapula
  3. T3 process–>most medial aspect of scapula
  4. T7–>inferior angle of scapula
92
Q

midaxillary line

A

point of bifurcation of intercostal nerves into anterior and posterior branches

93
Q

costal groove

A
  1. inferior internal surface of each rib
  2. contains corresponding intercostal neurovascular bundle
  3. superior–> inferior: V->A->N
94
Q

how many segments in L & R lungs

A

Right: 10
Left: 8

95
Q

lung

A
  1. 3 borders: anterior, posterior, inferior
  2. 3 surfaces: costal, medial, inferior (diaphragmatic)
  3. cupola of pleura & apex of lung: 2 cm superior to medial third of clavicle
96
Q

fissure

A
  1. oblique (R & L): below T3 spine posterior–>6th costal cartilage anterior
  2. horizontal (R): 4th costal cartilage anterior–>horizontally to oblique
97
Q

costodiaphragmatic recess

A
  1. at junction of costal & diaphragmatic pleura

2. 8th to 10 th rib along midaxillary line

98
Q

mediastinum

A
  1. superior: manubriumT1-4 vertebrae

2. inferior: below line from sternal angle to disc between T4-5: anterior, middle, posterior

99
Q

heart surface

A
  1. anterior: RV
  2. diaphragmatic: LV + portion of RV
  3. R pulmonary: RA, 1 cm from sternal boder, posterior to 3rd R costal cartilage
  4. left pulmonary: LV
100
Q

describe surface anatomy of heart

A
  1. One cm Right of sternal border between 3rd & 6th costal cartilage
  2. Left 2nd intercostal space 1 cm from sternal border
  3. Left 5th intercostal space @ midclavicular line

Anesthesia (11 decks)

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