Staphylococci & Related gram + Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the epidemiology of staphylococcal infection.

A
Found in external environment
Found on skin and mucous membranes
Anterior nares - 20-40% of adults
Intertriginous skin folds
Perineum
Axillae
Vagina
Significant opportunistic pathogen under appropriate conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List virulence factors associated with S. aureus

A
Capsules 
Protein A 
Panton-Valentine Leukocidin (PVL) 
Coagulase
Hemolysins (lysins, toxins)
enzymes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Identify species of staphylococci that are coagulase and slide latex positive

A

S. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List the clinically significant species of coagulase-negative staphylococci and describe the diseases they are associated with

A
Staphylococcus epidermidis (infections of inter dwelling devices) 
Staphylococcus saprophyticus ( acute UTIs)
Staphylococcus lugdunensis (same as S. aureaus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List six settings that have been associated with community-acquired MRSA outbreaks

A

Sports participants: football, wrestlers, fencers - MPSM **
Correctional facilities: prisons, jails
Military recruits
Daycare and other institutional centers
Newborn nurseries and other healthcare settings
Men who have sex with men - MSM **

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List five severe disease syndromes in which MRSA should be considered in the differential diagnosis

A
  1. skin and soft tissue infections (SSTI’s)
  2. Sepsis syndrome
  3. Osteomyelitis *
  4. Necrotizing pneumonia
  5. Septic arthritis
  6. Necrotizing fasciitis *
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe effective infection prevention measures to control MRSA infections in the hospital

A

** MRSA testing of all patients entering ICUs and contact precautions for all patients testing positive, produced: A 75% decrease in MRSA bacteremia in ICUs . And a 67% drop hospital wide **

Careful, compulsive hand hygiene for all patient interactions (behavioral change)

Standard and transmission based Contact/Droplet precautions:
Gowns Gloves Masks

Effective cleaning of the patient care environment
Clean shared/dedicated equipment
Stethoscopes BP cuffs
Thermometer TV Remotes

Appropriate use of antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what diseases are Micrococci associated with

A

none- not considered clinically significant when isolated from human specimens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Staphylococci
 Key Characteristics

A

Gram-positive cocci arranged single cells, pairs, tetrads and short chains, but mostly grape-like clusters
Non-motile
Non-spore-forming
***Catalase positive
Facultative anaerobes, except S. aureus subsp. anaerobius and S. saccharolyticus (these two also catalase negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Staphyloccoci are aerobic or anaerobic

A

Facultative anaerobes,

except S. aureus subsp. anaerobius and S. saccharolyticus (these two also catalase negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Staphylococci aureus

A

gram + with grape like clusters

blood agar plate - grow fairly large in 24 hrs, creme color, and a clearing zone around the colonies

found on skin and mucous membranes

Significant opportunistic pathogen under appropriate conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Staphylococcus aureus
 infections

A
Pyoderma
Furuncle (or boil)
carbuncle
Scalded skin syndrome
Toxic-shock syndrome
Food poisoning
Disseminated Infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

function of staph aureus’ capsule

A

prevent ingestion of organism by PMNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Protein A function in staph aureus

A

binds Fc region of IgG, interfering with opsonization and ingestion of organism by PMNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Panton-Valentine Leukocidin (PVL)

A

an enzyme that alters cation permeability of rabbit and human leukocytes resulting in white cell destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Coagulase

A

binds to prothrombin catalyzing conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, which in turn acts to coat bacterial cells with fibrin, rendering them more resistant to opsonization and phagocytosis

17
Q

α-hemolysin

A

Lyses RBCs of several animals
Dermonecrotic on subcutaneous injection
Leukocyte toxicity

18
Q

β-hemolysin

A

Sphingomyelinase, varying lysis of RBCs from different animals due to differences in membrane sphingomyelin content
Produces “hot-cold” lysis (hemolysis enhanced at low temperature after 35 C incubation)

19
Q

δ -hemolysin

A

Produced by 97% of S. aureus and 50-70% of coagulase negative Staph

Acts as surfactant that disrupts the cell membrane, interacts with membrane to form channels that increase in size over time resulting in leakage of cellular contents
Some coagulase-negative staphylococci produce enough delta toxin to cause NEC in neonates

20
Q

γ-hemolysin

A

found in some S. aureus strains, also causes lysis of variety of cells

21
Q

Exfoliatins or epidermolytic toxins

A

responsible for “staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome,” dissolves the mucopolysaccharide matrix of epidermis, causing separation of skin layers; rare in adults

22
Q

Enterotoxins

A

heat-stable molecules responsible for clinical features of staphylococcal food poisoning, probably most common cause of food poisoning in U.S. Toxin produced in contaminated food by toxigenic strains, vomiting with or without diarrhea (2-8 hrs), quick recovery (24-48 hrs)

23
Q

Fibrinolysins

A

break down fibrin clots and facilitate spread of infection to contiguous tissues

24
Q

Hyaluronidase

A

hydrolyzes intercellular matrix of acid mucopolysaccharides in tissue acting to spread organisms to adjacent tissue

25
Q

Phospholipase C

A

described in patients with ARDS and DIC. Tissues affected by this enzyme become more susceptible to damage and destruction by bioactive complement components and products during complement activation.

26
Q

ARDS

A

acute respiratory distress syndrom

27
Q

DIC

A

disseminating intracellular coagulation

28
Q

pyrogenic toxin superantigens

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) of S. aureus
Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPE)
Streptococcal superantigens

29
Q

characteristics of super antigens

A

Pyrogenicity
Superantigenicity
Enhance lethal effects of minute amounts of endotoxin

*All induce polyclonal T-cell proliferation

30
Q

Latex Agglutination

A

Alternate coagulase test

latex beads coated with plasma. Fibrinogen bound to latex detects clumping factor. In addition, Ig molecules also on beads detect Protein A (staphylococcal cell-wall protein that binds IgG by the Fc region)

takes less than a minute, you look for the presents of beads = + (S. aureus)

31
Q

Tube coagulase

A

free 
coagulase. Reacts with 
substance in plasma
called coagulase-reacting 
factor that converts fibrinogen to fibrin

32
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis

A
  • Most frequently isolated clinically significant coagulase-negative staphylococci
  • normally a very common skin flora that is non-virulent
  • Associated with infections of indwelling devices
  • Virulence related to production of extracellular slime that promotes adherence of organism to surfaces of foreign bodies forming biofilm
  • Biofilm also protects organisms from antimicrobial agents, therefore removal of foreign bodies often necessary for resolution of infection
33
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A
  • Cause of acute urinary tract infection in young women
  • 2nd most common cause of uncomplicated cystitis (after E. coli) among women of college and child-bearing age
  • Identification based on negative coagulase and resistance to novobiocin**
34
Q

Staphylococcus lugdunensis

A

causes the same diseases as S. aureus

the only species that is both PYR and Ornithine Positive **

35
Q

An organism identified as gram-positive cocci in clusters is isolated from the urine of a 21 year female with symptoms of acute cystitis. The laboratory reports that the organism is coagulase-negative, furozolidone susceptible and novobiocin resistant. What is the most likely identification of this bacterium?

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

36
Q

who gets MRSA most commonly

A

patients in hospitals and healthcare facilities (such as nursing homes and dialysis centers) who have weakened immune systems

In hospitals, the most important reservoirs of MRSA are colonized or infected patients (self inflicted)

37
Q

mecA Gene

A
  • makes S. aureus MRSA
  • Encodes for altered “penicillin-binding protein 2a” (PBP2a)
  • Has decreased binding affinity for ß-lactam antibiotics (doesn’t allow penicillin like drugs to bind) and allows peptidoglycan synthesis even in the presence of B-lactam antibiotics
  • mecA is carried on a mobile genetic element called “staphylococcal cassette chromosome mec” (SCCmec)
38
Q

gene Xpert MRSA assay

A

real time PCR used to detect MRSA - gives results in under an hour from nasal swabs (both nares)

can be affected by: Whole blood, Mucus, and Nasal Spray

39
Q

What is the most important reservoir of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in hospitals?

A

Colonized or infected patients