ST:1 Flashcards
Before tracer administration, all of the following preparations are required for a 27-year-old woman referred for total-body bone imaging EXCEPT:
(a)removing attenuating materials from the patient
(b) answering the patient’s questions
(c) ruling out pregnancy
(d) explaining the procedure to the patient
(e) swab the injection site with alcohol
(a) Explaining the procedure and answering any questions the patient may have are preparations common to any procedure. If the patient is a female of child-bearing age, the possibility of pregnancy must also be ruled out before administering the tracer. Pregnancy is a contraindication for procedures involving radiation unless the procedure is being performed for emergency reasons. It is not necessary to have the patient remove any attenuating materials until just before he or she is imaged.
Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone images of children?
(a)diaphyses of the long bones
(b) breast tissue
(c) lumbar spine and cranium
(d) costochrondral junctions and epiphyseal plates
(e) metatarsals
(d) In children, normally increased tracer activity appears in areas of active bone growth. These areas include the epiphyseal plates at the ends of the long bones and the costochondral junctions in the ribs.
If tracer concentration is visualized in the skeleton, stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands on a bone image, the most likely explanation for these findings is that the:
(a)patient was imaged too soon after tracer administration
(b) patient’s renal function is compromised
(c) radiopharmaceutical contained excess free [99mTc] pertechnetate
(d) incorrect radiopharmaceutical was administered
(e) radiopharmaceutical contained excess free [18F]sodium
(c) 99mTc-labeled bone agents are prepared by combining medromite or oxidronate with 99mTc-pertechnetate. Typically about 3%-10% of the pertechnetate does not bind to the medronate or oxidronate, so there is always some unbound of “free” pertechnetate in any bone tracer preparation. However, this percentage is small compared with the amount of 99mTc-medronate or -oxidronate in the preparation and is not visualized on the bone image. If the radiopharmaceutical was not properly compounded or the 99mTc-label detached from the chemical compound, the excess 99mTc-pertechnetate taken up by the thyroid, salivary glands, and stomach is visualized on the bone image.
For interpretation of nuclear medicine lung images, a chest x-ray is required to:
(a)rule out possible causes of the patient’s symptoms
(b) determine cardiac size
(c) rule out previous lung surgery
(d) rule out a pulmonary embolus
(e) rule in a pulmonary embolus
(a) Many of the symptoms of pulmonary emboli are similar to those of rib fracture, myocardial infarction, and pneumonia. A chest radiograph allows the interpreting physician to rule out certain of these conditions, thereby increasing the specificity of the lung image findings.
The image shown here was obtained after the administration of [99mTc]MAA, Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the quality of this lung perfusion image? (ANT/POST SPOTTY LUNG, CHRISTMAS TREE LIGHT)
(a) The image shows lung pathology.
(b) There is radioactive contamination on the patient’s skin or the camera detector.
(c) Blood clotted to MAA particles was injected intravenously.
(d) Too many MAA particles were administered to the patient.
(e) A left to right shunt occurred in the heart.
(c) Blood that is withdrawn into the syringe and allowed to mix with the [99mTc]MAA for a prolonged period may cause the MAA particles to clump together and the blood to clot. If this mixture is then injected into the patient, the clumped particles and “labeled” blood clots are trapped in the lung vasculature and appear as multiple small hot spots on the image.
The purpose of a charcoal filter in a xenon delivery unit is to absorb:
(a)bacteria
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) xenon gas
(d) moisture
(e) oxygen
(c) The NRC sets limits on the airborne concentration of 133Xe. For this reason, 133Xe that the patient exhales must be trapped for decay. Certain xenon delivery units use activated charcoal for trapping the xenon.
Radionuclide venography may be performed with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?
(a)[99mTc]pentetate
(b) [99mTc]pertechnetate
(c) [99mTc]exametazime
(d) [99mTc]mebrofenin
(e) [99mTc]MAA
(e) The deep venous system of the lower extremities may be imaged with [99mTc]MAA or 99mTc-labeled red blood cells. If [99mTc]MAA is used, the lungs may be imaged after the venogram to rule out pulmonary embolism.
If ectopic thyroid tissue is suspected, the technologist can expect to find it most commonly in which of the following areas?
(a)in the brain
(b) in the skull
(c) in the nasopharynx
(d) in the mediastinum
(e) behind the optic nerve
(d) Sublingual thyroid tissue occurs when the tissue does not descend from the base of the tongue to the neck during fetal development. It is often associated with hypothyroidism. Mediastinal thyroid tissue is often discovered after investigation of an anterior mediastinal mass visualized on chest x-ray.
During parathyroid imaging, images of the chest as well as the neck are obtained to:
(a)correct the images series for patient motion
(b) visualize substernal thyroid tissue
(c) visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue
(d) diagnose hyperparathyroidism
(e) to localize the parathyroid
(c) The upper mediastinum between the heart and the thyroid is imaged to visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue.
When performing a gated equilibrium cardiac study, which of the following anatomical views best separates the right and left ventricles?
(a)left lateral
(b) left anterior oblique
(c) left posterior oblique
(d) anterior
(e) posterior
(b) The left anterior oblique view is the projection from which the ejection fraction (EF) is calculated. It is extremely important to separate the two ventricles to obtain an accurate EF value. Typically, 35-45 of rotation accomplishes the separation. However, the camera should be positioned according to the patient’s own anatomy to optimize separation of the two structures.
In preparation for a 201Tl stress test, patients are instructed to fast to:
(a)prevent gastrointestinal upsets during exercise
(b) minimize tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tract
(c) enhance myocardial tracer uptake
(d) standardize test conditions among patients
(e) prevent redistribution of the tracer
(b) Digestion directs more of the cardiac output toward the gut. Although this probably will not affect myocardial uptake of the tracer significantly, excessive tracer in the upper abdominal viscera interferes with visualization of the myocardial wall, especially when the patient is supine.
Which of the following agents used for pharmacologic stress testing remain in the plasma for the greatest length of time?
(a)dobutamine
(b) adenosine
(c) nitroglycerin
(d) dipyridamole
(e) regadenoson
(d) Nitroglycerin is not used to induce pharmacologic stress. The plasma half-lives for the agents used in pharmacologic stress testing are:
Adenosine <10 seconds
Dobutamine 2 min
Dipyridamole 35-45 min
SPECT liver imaging with [99mTc]sulfur colloid is performed how soon after tracer administration?
(a)immediately
(b) 10-15 min
(c) 30-45 min
(d) 1-2 hr
(e) 3-4 hr
(b) A 10-15 min time interval is necessary for the colloidal particles to be completely localized within the liver and spleen.
Significantly increased serum bilirubin levels will most likely cause which of the following to be visualized on hepatobiliary images?
(a)kidneys
(b) colon
(c) lungs
(d) spleen
(e) pancreas
(a) Increased serum bilirubin levels indicate poorly functioning hepatocytes. Therefore, these cells cannot efficiently remove the tracer from the blood, causing the tracer to be excreted through the urinary system.
Localization of a Meckel’s diverticulum can be accomplished with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?
(a)[67Ga]citrate
(b) [99mTc]pentetate
(c) [99mTc]MAA
(d) [99mTc]sulfur colloid
(e) [99mTc]pertechnetate
(e) 99mTc-pertechnetate is used to visualize a Meckel’s diverticulum. Often, the Meckel’s diverticulum is lined with gastric mucosa that concentrate this tracer.
In infants, 24 hr images are sometimes performed over what area to demonstrate gastroesophageal reflux?
(a)nasopharynx
(b) lung fields
(c) stomach
(d) upper small intestine
(e) lower esophagus
(b) In infants, 24-hour images are useful for demonstrating aspiration of stomach contents.
Effective renal plasma flow (ERPF) is measured with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?
(a)[99mTc]pentetate
(b) [99mTc]disofenin
(c) [99mTc]medronate
(d) [99mTc]mertiatide
(e) [99mTc]exametazime
(d) ERPF is primarily a measurement of tubular function. Therefore, a renal agent that is secreted by the tubules must be used. 99mTc-mertiatide is secreted by the renal tubules and is used to determine ERPF.
Evaluating the quality of a bolus injection is best accomplished by which of the following techniques?
(a)generating a time-activity curve for the superior vena cava
(b) calculating the cardiac transit time
(c) determining the heart to lung ratio
(d) imaging the injection site for residual activity
(e) visually inspecting the bolus
(a) Evaluating the quality of a bolus injection is accomplished by generating a time-activity curve over the superior vena cava and measuring the full width at half maximum (FWHM). If the left ventricular ejection fraction is being determined, a FWHM <=1 second indicates a technically satisfactory bolus injection. For a right ventricular ejection fraction, a FWHM of 2-3 sec is adequate.
Which of the following is/are NOT normally visualized on a 67Ga image acquired 72 hr after tracer administration?
(a)nasopharynx
(b) lacrimal glands
(c) kidney
(d) liver
(e) sternum
(c) In the first 24 hours after administration, the kidneys excrete almost one-third of the 67Ga injected. Hence, renal activity is normally visualized on images up to 48 hours after tracer administration. After 48 hours, renal activity indicates disease.
Which of the following statements about “transmission-based precautions” is FALSE?
(a)These precautions are applied when a patient is known to be infected with a communicable disease.
(b) These precautions replace “standard precautions.”
(c) These precautions include guidelines for airborne- and droplet-borne diseases.
(d) These precautions include guidelines for contact transmitted diseases.
(e) These precautions must be implemented in the case of diseases such as varicella, tuberculosis, and mumps.
(b) Transmission-based precautions are applied along with standard precautions when a patient is known to be infected with a communicable disease. They are a second level of precautions that include additional safety measures depending on the method in which the disease in question is transmitted.
Which of the following statements about pentetreotide is TRUE?
(a)It exhibits no human antimurine antibody (HAMA) effect.
(b) It is a labeled antibody.
(c) It is a labeled antigen.
(d) It is excreted exclusively through the kidneys.
(e) It is labeled with 99mTc.
(a) Pentetreotide is an analog of the hormone somatostatin that is labeled with 111In. It is a peptide rather than an antibody and, for this reason, does not induce the HAMA effect in patients. The tracer is mostly excreted through the urinary system, but a small amount is also excreted through the gastrointestinal tract.
The purpose of using acetazolamide in conjunction with a brain agent is to:
(a)Tranquilize the patient.
(b) Localize brain tumors.
(c) Localize the area of the brain from which seizures arise.
(d) Evaluate cerebrovascular hematoma.
(e) Evaluate cerebrovascular ischemia.
(e) Acetazolamide (Diamox) is used in conjunction with SPECT brain imaging in patients with transient ischemic attacks, carotid artery disease, and cerebrovascular disease, among others. This technique is used to identify ischemic areas in the brain. Acetazolamide induces cerebral vasodilation. After is is administered, normal blood vessels dilate but diseased ones do not.
The technologist’s responsibilities during tracer administration for a cisternogram include:
(a)ensuring that personnel and the surroundings are not contaminated with radioactivity
(b) obtaining consent to perform the procedure
(c) delivering antihistamines for any adverse reactions to the procedure
(d) testing the pressure of the cerebrospinal fluid
(e) performing the lumbar puncture
(a) Frequently, the radiopharmaceutical for cisternography is administered outside the nuclear medicine department. It is typically the technologist who transports the tracer to the area where the lumbar puncture is being performed and oversees its administration. One of the responsibilities of the technologist is to protect personnel in the work environment by limiting their radiation exposure and confining radioactivity to prevent the spread of contamination. In this instance, the technologist is the onsite expert in handling radioactive materials. Therefore, the technologist should ensure that any contaminated materials used during the lumbar puncture are collected for proper disposal. The administration area should be monitored for contamination and any personnel who handled the radiopharmaceutical should be monitored before they are permitted to leave the area.
Sodium phosphate 32P may be used to treat which of the following conditions?
(a)liver metastases
(b) lupus
(c) rheumatoid arthritis
(d) malignant effusions
(e) polycythemia vera
(e) Sodium phosphate 32P is administered intravenously and may be used to treat polycythemia vera.