ssa - academy questions

Question 1

When you create a new application, which two of the following best practices apply? (Choose Two)

a1. Design your application for technical efficiency, not end-user experience.
a. Brand your application with your organizational logo.
b. Always choose the UI Kit option from the New Application wizard.
c. Make error messages clear and understandable to end users.
d. Test your new application only after you complete all development.

Answer 1

c & a
Clear error messages in plain (non-technical) language increase user confidence when they use your application.

Branding, such as a logo or vanity URL reassures users that your application is valid.

Question 2

Which two of the following statements represent the benefits of using a template. (Choose Two)

a. You can use the “Search all types” option to find an application template that matches your business requirements.
b. The template automatically sets up all user IDs and accounts for your application.
c. You can add custom Java code to your new application.
d. A template provides reusable case types and data types that are set up for you.
e. You do not need to test applications that you create using a template.

Answer 2

d & a
One benefit of using a template is that much of the setup is automatic. You can then customize the application based on your business needs.

Question 3

You have a requirement to create an email correspondence that built-on applications can reuse. In which two layers of the Enterprise Class Structure could you apply the email correspondence rule? (Choose Two)

a. Pega Platform
b. Organization
c. Division
d. Implementation

Answer 3

B & C
Assets in the Division layer are available for use in built-on applications.

The Organization layer contains reusable rules for use in built-on applications.

Question 4

The ____1___is for traditional development and not recommended when creating a new application.

To create an up-to date-application with many built-in automations and efficient updates, choose ___2___.

Early adopters might consider ___3____ , for the latest client-side graphical interface

A. cosmos react B. theme ui kit C. Theme cosmos

Answer 4

1. B
2. C
3. A

Question 5

What is the purpose of the Enterprise Class Structure (ECS)?

a. ECS references single-value properties and complex properties.
b. ECS is used to alter the performance of Pega Platform.
c. ECS provides a structure that supports rule reuse.
d. ECS documents industry or enterprise standards that applications must contain.

Answer 5

C

ECS has layers with rules specific to that layer. The placement of rules within ECS is a determining factor in how the application chooses which rules to use.

Question 6

Which description is most accurate for skimming and lock and roll versioning options?

a. Skimming saves checked out rules. Lock and roll does not save checked out rules.
b. Skimming carries blocked rules forward. Lock and roll does not carry blocked rules forward.
c. Skimming is the most efficient for major and minor updates. Lock and roll is most useful for patches.
d. Pega provides a skimming wizard but not a lock and roll wizard.

Answer 6

c
Skimming is the process of saving the highest version of a rule into a new, higher ruleset version. In lock and roll, you must select the appropriate rules to copy into a new empty ruleset. Lock and roll is labor-intensive when used for major updates.

Question 7

The lock and roll versioning method ______________ and _____________. (Choose Two)

a. minimizes the rule data that is carried to a higher version of your application
b. filters out rules that are unavailable for rule resolution
c. is used for small changes or patches
d. ensures older versions of application rulesets are preserved unchanged

Answer 7

c & d
Typically, the lock and roll versioning method is used for small changes or patches which do not require application record or access group updates.

The lock and roll versioning method ensures the initial versions of the application rulesets are preserved unchanged.

Question 8

Why is application versioning important?

a. Application versioning preserves prior application versions.
b. Application versioning provides a means to organize applications by priority.
c. Application versioning provides the ability to clone rules.
d. Application versioning provides the ability to version data classes without impacting existing data classes.

Answer 8

a
Application versioning preserves earlier application versions. You can edit application functionality in a new version of the application without changing the initial version.

Question 9

A claims framework contains two rulesets, ClaimsFW and ClaimsFWInt.
An application built on the framework also contains two rulesets, Claims and ClaimsInt.
Which statement is false if all the rulesets are configured as Application Validation?

a. Rules in ClaimsFW can reference rules in Claims
b. Rules in ClaimsInt can reference rules in Claims
c. Rules in ClaimsFWInt can reference rules in ClaimsFW
d. Rules in Claims can reference rules in ClaimsFW

Answer 9

a

Rules using application validation cannot reference rulesets in applications built on the application.

Question 10

A claims application contains two organizational and two application rulesets.
The two application rulesets Claims and ClaimsInt are configured as Application Validation.
The organizational rulesets MyCo and MyCoInt are configured as Ruleset Validation.
The prerequisite for MyCo is MyCoInt and the prerequisite for MyCoInt is Pega-Platform.
Which of the following statements is false?

a. Rules in MyCo can reference rules in Claims
b. Rules in MyCo can reference rules in MyCoInt
c. Rules in Claims can reference rules in MyCo
d. Rules in ClaimsInt can reference rules in Claims

Answer 10

a

When using Ruleset Validation, rulesets can only reference their prerequisites.

Question 11

Select two record types that are involved when configuring a production ruleset. (Choose Two)

a. Access group
b. Application
c. Operator
d. Work group

Answer 11

a & b

Production rulesets are specified on the application and the access group.

Question 12

Which two of the following are prerequisites for creating a branch rule for parallel development? (Choose Two)

a. Create a team application.
b. Create an access group that references the team application. Add developers to the access group.
c. Save a copy of the original rule into the base ruleset.
d. Circumstance the original rule.

Answer 12

a & b
The two prerequisites for creating a branch rule for parallel development are a team development application and an access group with application developers that references the team application.

Question 13

Which two steps do you perform after you develop branch rules and before you merge a ruleset? (Choose Two)

a. Review conflicts and warnings
b. Check out rules to merge
c. Check in rules to merge
d. Use DB trace to identify conflicts

Answer 13

a & c

Check in, review, and resolve conflicts related to merging rulesets before the merge.

Question 14

A branch ruleset is a ruleset that ______________ and __________. (Choose Two)

a. prevent developers from seeing work of all team members
b. is based on another ruleset
c. is designed for large projects
d. contains rules that are not in active development

Answer 14

b & c

A branched ruleset is based on another ruleset and is designed for large projects.

Question 15

Based on the information below, if you execute the rule when .Dept=Accounting, which version does Pega Platform™ use?
Rule Version      Circumstance
01-01-01            None
01-01-01           .Dept=Accounting
01-01-15           None
01-01-25           None, base rule selected
01-01-30           .Dept=Accounting
01-01-35           None

a. 01-01-25, None, base rule selected
b. 01-01-01, None
c. 01-01-30, .Dept=Accounting
d. 01-01-01, .Dept=Accounting

Answer 15

c
This version is the circumstanced version in the highest ruleset version above the ruleset in which the base rule flag was selected. All the rules before the base rule selected version are not applicable.

Question 16

Which of the following statements is true about circumstancing?

a .OrderDate is not a valid property to circumstance.

b. When a circumstanced rule is withdrawn, rule resolution selects the next non-circumstanced rule in a higher ruleset version.
c. Multivariate circumstancing on start date and end date properties cannot also include additional circumstancing on a time property.
d. You need a template for circumstancing on more than one property.

Answer 16

d

Multivariate circumstancing requires a template, while single variable circumstancing does not.

Question 17

In which of the following two situations do you use circumstancing? (Choose Two)

a. A new manager is assigned to the team from the first of next month until the end of the quarter.
b. Format requirements change for postal code address when a user selects United States or Canada.
c. The sales tax rate changes at the first of next year.
d. Attach PDF file of expense list to approval request when total amount is more than USD1,000.
e. Employee PTO accrual rate varies by number of years in service.

Answer 17

c
Circumstancing is helpful in such situations where calculations can change by current date.
d
This is accomplished by circumstancing a flow rule with that criteria.

Question 18

Based on the information below, if you execute the rule when .Dept=Engineering, which version does Pega Platform™ use?
Rule Version      Circumstance
01-01-01          None
01-01-01         .Dept=Engineering
01-01-15          None
01-01-20         .Dept=Engineering
01-01-25          None, base rule selected
01-01-35          None

a. 01-01-35, None
b. 01-01-01, .Dept=Engineering
c. 01-01-01, None
d. 01-01-20, .Dept=Engineering

Answer 18

a
Rule version 01-01-25 has the base rule selected. All the rules before this version are no longer applicable. When the system looks at only those rules available for ranking, the circumstance for Engineering is not applicable. The system chooses the highest version of the rule without any circumstances defined.

Question 19

The ____1____is the rule that defines the properties used to determine if the circumstance is applicable, whereas the ____2______ defines values

a. circumstance definition
b. circumstance template

Answer 19

1. template

2. definition

Question 20

Which of the following statements is true about the relationship between base rules and circumstanced rules?

a. A base rule is created by removing circumstancing condition from a rule.
b. The name of circumstanced rule remains same as the base rule.
c. A base rule is needed as a backup if a circumstanced rule gets deleted.
d. A new circumstanced rule always gets created in next higher ruleset version.

Answer 20

b
The name of the rule remains same, which is why it is crucial to pay attention to ruleset versions during rule resolution.

Question 21

Which rule availability setting can you use to force the system to look for an instance of the rule in the next highest class or ruleset?

a. Available
b. Blocked
c. Withdrawn
d. Final

Answer 21

c
When a rule marked as Withdrawn is found during rule resolution, the system looks for an instance of the rule in the next highest class or ruleset.

Question 22

if a rule instance is blocked, what happens?

Answer 22

The rule instances are blocked, and an error is logged if there is no circumstanced rule, and a higher version of the rule is set to Blocked.

Question 23

Which two of the following statements are true about the rule resolution process? (Choose Two)

a. If a user does not have access to the selected rule, the system sends a message that the rule is not authorized for execution.
b. Rule resolution applies to rules that are instances of classes derived from the Rule- and Work- base classes.
c. The rule purpose takes precedence over the rule availability.
d. If the system finds more than one rule instance during rule resolution, users are provided with a choice of which rule to use depending on context.

Answer 23

a: The rule resolution algorithm verifies that the user has authorization to access the selected rule.
c: The algorithm checks the rule availability after checking the rule purpose.

Question 24

do withdraw rule affect circumstance rules?

Answer 24

No. The withdrawn rule masks all lower versions of the non-circumstanced rules. The circumstanced rules have their own availability value. The rule request meets the condition for the High Risk circumstanced rule.

Question 25

base rule

Answer 25

The rule resolution runs the highest ruleset version of the base rule in the class MyCo-PL-Loan, ignoring any circumstanced rules.

Question 26

Which two components does the Application Packaging wizard prompt you to include when you generate an archive file? (Choose Two) a. Product rules b. Data types c. Data instances d. Checked-out rules

Answer 26

b & c Settings in the product rule and Application Packaging wizard let you automatically include data instances and data types.

Question 27

You use the Application Import wizard to import an archive file on a destination system. When does the destination system begin executing the imported rules? a. Pega Platform™ ensures that the entire ZIP file is imported before users can execute the imported rules. b. Users can start executing rules as soon as the rules are imported. c. Users can start executing the new rules the next time they log in regardless of whether the import is complete or not. d. Pega Platform™ ensures that an entire ruleset is imported before the rules in it start executing.

Answer 27

b | The import process does not need to complete before the rules may execute.

Question 28

You create a product rule to generate an application archive file for export. Which two actions do you perform before creating the archive file? (Choose Two) a. Unlock the application rulesets. b. Check in the rules that are in the application ruleset. c. Create a new version of the application. d. Associate application data instances with application rulesets.

Answer 28

b: Check in the rules to make sure that the rulesets are current and complete. d: Associating application data instances with application rulesets helps ensure that the archive file contains all the data instances required for the application

Question 29

1. This property records case urgency. 2. This property responds to urgency calculated based on the service-level agreement rule. 3. This property allows users to manually adjust the urgency. 4. This property records assignment urgency. a. pxUrgencyAssign b. pxUrgencyAssignSLA c. pxUrgencyWork d. pyUrgencyAssignAdjust

Answer 29

1. c 2. b 3. d 4. a

Question 30

The initial urgency on the case type is set to 0. An assignment service-level agreement is configured with the following details: - Initial urgency: 10 - Assignment ready: Timed delay of 1.5 hours - Goal: 1.5 hours and increase urgency by 15 - Deadline: 3 hours and increase urgency by 25 - Passed deadline: 1 hour, increase urgency by 5, and limit events to 5 What is the assignment urgency 5 hours after the case reaches the assignment? a. 55 b. 60 c. 50 d. 25

Answer 30

c The assignment is ready after 1.5 hours and has an urgency of 10. After 3 hours, the Goal elapses, and the urgency increases to 25. After 4.5 hours, the Deadline elapses, and the urgency increases to 50. The Passed deadline interval does not elapse, and the urgency remains at 50.

Question 31

In your organization, employees work between 8:00 AM and 5:00 PM EST only. Some assignments are sent to the employee work queue between 5:01 PM and 07:59 AM, but work does not begin until regular business hours start. For assignments that come in after hours, which Assignment Ready option do you use to delay the start of service-level agreements until 8:00 AM each day? a. Immediately b. Dynamically defined on a property c. Time delay d. No configuration needed

Answer 31

b The Dynamically defined on a property option uses a DateTime property value to determine when users are expected to start work on assignments.

Question 32

When the workflow in your case is _____, you can use _____ to run one or more _____ in the same stage _____ to allow users to perform tasks independently to complete the work in the stage. a. complex, pre-processing, spinoffs, simultaneously b. complex, post-processing, subprocesses, simultaneously c. complex, parallel processing, subprocesses, simultaneously d. complex, typical processing, subprocesses, simultaneously

Answer 32

c | Complex workflows using parallel processing can run one or more subprocesses simultaneously.

Question 33

An Order fulfillment process includes a request for quotes from multiple shippers. You want the system to automatically call a quote request subprocess for each vendor. How do you configure your process? a. Add a Split For Each shape and run the request subprocess for each vendor on a page list. b. Add a Split For Each step to the case life cycle and run the subprocess for each vendor on a page list. c. Add a Subprocess shape for the request subprocess and specify the Spinoff option. d. Add a Split Join shape and run the request subprocess for each vendor on a page list.

Answer 33

a | The Split For Each shape runs a subprocess for each item on a page list.

Question 34

In a Prepare job offer process, you configure a Split For Each shape. The shape runs a compensation approval subprocess to a list containing four managers. The prepare job offer process resumes as soon as one manager completes the approval process. Which join condition in the Split For Each shape supports this requirement? a. A Some join condition b. An Iterate join condition c. An All join condition d. An Any join condition

Answer 34

d | This condition resumes the main flow when only one of the subprocesses completes.

Question 35

The Purchase request case type locking strategy options are Allow one user and Allow multiple users. If the ____1___ case locking strategy is selected on the Purchase Request case type, case locking strategy options are unavailable on the Purchaser Order case type. If both the Purchase Request and Purchase Order cases are locked until a user submits or closes the case, the locking strategy on the Purchase Request case type is set to ___2____ and the _____3___ option on the Purchase Order case type is unchecked. a. allow multiple users b. allow other users to access parent case when the child case is opened c. allow one user

Answer 35

1. a 2. c 3. b

Question 36

When multiple users attempt to save the same case, the Allow multiple users case-locking strategy gives each user the choice of which version to save. True False

Answer 36

false

Question 37

Your application has a top-level Purchase Request case type and a Purchaser Order child case type. The company determines that only one user at a time may open and work on a case. However, users working on purchase orders should not lock out users working on purchase requests. How do you configure the lock settings for both case types? a. Select the Allow multiple users locking option on the Purchase Request case type and select the Allow access for the parent case when the child case is opened option on the Purchase Order case type. b. Select the Allow one user locking option on the Purchase Order case type and the Allow access for the parent case when the child case is opened option on the Purchase Order case type. c. Select the Allow one user locking option on the Purchase Order case type and the Allow access for the parent case when the child case is opened option on the Purchase Request case type. d. Select the Allow one user locking option on the Purchase Request case type and select the Allow access for the parent case when the child case is opened option on the Purchase Order case type.

Answer 37

d. Select the Allow one user locking option on the Purchase Request case type and select the Allow access for the parent case when the child case is opened option on the Purchase Order case type.

Question 38

You created a data transform to concatenate the first and last name values of a user name. You add the concatenate data transform to a flow action as a post-processing action. What occurs when the flow runs? a. The data transform runs after the user enters data in the first name and last name fields. b. The data transform runs after the flow action runs if the user enters data in the first and last name fields. c. The data transform runs every time the user performs the flow action run. d. The data transform runs before every flow action run.

Answer 38

c | Pre- and post-processing data transforms and activities run every time you invoke the flow action.

Question 39

Which two statements about adding a pre-processing action to a flow action are true? (Choose Two) a. The action runs each time the user returns to the assignment. b. The user can opt to skip the pre-processing action. c. The action automatically runs if the flow action has the highest likelihood for the assignment in the process flow. d. The action runs only the first time the flow action is performed on an assignment.

Answer 39

a: A pre-processing action runs each time the flow action is performed on an assignment. If the user returns to an assignment, the pre-processing action is repeated. c: The flow action with the highest likelihood on an assignment automatically runs when the user reaches the assignment.

Question 40

In an online Purchase Order case, the customer enters their details in the Enter customer details step, then selects the products they want to purchase in the Select products step. The customer needs to view the selected products in the Review selected products step before proceeding with the payment. The selected products are copied to a new field in the Review selected products step. Which configuration best achieves the requirement? a. Configure an activity in the pre-processing action for the Select products step. b. Configure a post-processing data transform for the Review selected products step. c. Configure an activity in the post-processing action for the Review selected products step. d. Configure a post-processing data transform for the Select products step.

Answer 40

d The post-processing data transform for the Select products step copies the selected products and displays them in the Review selected products step.

Question 41

You add a new work group to an application. Which two organization rules do you need to update? (Choose Two) a. Unit b. Operator ID c. Class groups d. Work queue

Answer 41

b & d | operators & work queues belong to work groups

Question 42

Which of the following is not part of the organizational structure? a. Organization b. Unit c. Division d. Work group

Answer 42

d A work group is used to allow managers to monitor, report, and assign work among operators and work queues across the organization.

Question 43

The TGB organization structure has a Sales unit, and it belongs to a Marketing division. TGB plans to add new units for the East, Central, and West geographical sales regions. These regional units report to the Sales unit. How do you configure the organizational hierarchy to support the new structure? a. Add the regional units as sub-units to the Sales unit. b. Add a new Regional unit to the Marketing division and add the East, Central, and West regional units as child units to the Regional unit. c. Add the regional units to a Marketing division. d. Add the regional units to the TGB organization.

Answer 43

a | The regional units report to the Sales unit. Therefore, the regional units are subunits to the Sales unit.

Question 44

You create an edit validate rule to ensure that users enter a valid serial number for products. Which two options can you configure to ensure that the edit validate rule is applied during case processing? (Choose Two) a. Configure a validate rule to call the edit validate rule when submitting the appropriate form. b. Apply the edit validate rule to the appropriate case stage. c. Reference the edit validate rule from the property rule for the serial number field. d. Reference the edit validate rule on the case type rule.

Answer 44

a & c Reference an edit validate rule from a validate rule to call the edit validate rule when submitting a form. Reference an edit validate rule on a property rule form to apply the validation logic when a user exits the corresponding field.

Question 45

Which of the following validation requirements must you satisfy with an edit validate rule? a. A user must enter a valid date within a 120-year range. b. A support request must include a product number, issue type, and description. c. A user must enter the security code for a credit card, which is exactly three digits long. d. An insurance quote requires a user to enter an operator license number in the correct format

Answer 45

d | Use an Edit validate rule to test whether an entered value matches a required pattern.

Question 46

Which of the following use cases is best implemented by configuring a keyed data page that allows multiple pages per key? a. In a Purchase Order case, the billing address must be copied to shipping address when the user selects the Same as billing address check box. b. An online shopping application displays the list of available products. A list of selected products is displayed to the customer before proceeding with the payment process. c. A stock purchase case requires that the real-time currency exchange rates display when a user selects a stock for purchase. d. A telecommunication provider displays a list of available plans to the customer based on zip code. Thousands of customers per day view the details of the selected plan to learn more about the specifications of each plan. The available plans change quarterly.

Answer 46

d A keyed data page handles the frequent customer queries of available plans and allowing multiple pages per key enables multiple plans to display based on zip code.

Question 47

1. Auto-populate a hospital intake form when a new patient provides insurance card information. 2. Display saved payment options when a user opts to change the default payment option. 3. Display a list of homes in need of a visit from a census taker. Display home details when a home is visited. 4. Display a list of insurance packages to an eligible employee. Display the insurance details when a package is selected. a. keyed data page b. non-keyed data page

Answer 47

1 & 2: b | 3 & 4: a

Question 48

When users select the model of their vehicle, the application displays the specifications for the model. There are hundreds of vehicle model requests per day and the vehicle model information is only updated once a month. Which is the best implementation for this use case? a. Configure a keyed data page that allows multiple pages per key. b. Create a parameterized vehicle information data page which loads the desired vehicle information. c. Create a keyed data page with vehicle information. d. Create a vehicle information data page for each vehicle model.

Answer 48

c A keyed data page frontloads the data from the data source and then uses one or multiple keys to locate and return matching instances. The keyed data page is the best implementation when there are frequent unique queries before the information becomes stale.

Question 49

in which order are rules & data instances applied for a connector? 1. data transform (from app data to clipboard) 2. data transform (from clipboard to app data) 3. data page/ activity 4. connect rule 5. map rule (from format by service to clipboard) 6. map rule (from clipboard to format specified by target)

Answer 49

3. data page/ activity 1. data transform (from app data to integration) 4. connect rule 6. map rule(from int to format by the target) 5. map rule(from format to int clipboard) 2. data transform (from int to app data structure)

Question 50

A connector can be directly referenced from __________ and __________? (Choose Two) a. activities b. data pages c. flows d. data transforms

Answer 50

a & b

Question 51

Select two benefits of using Application Settings. (Choose Two) a. Application Settings improves the performance for integration with the external system. b. Application Settings affords greater flexibility for changing values between environments when working with external systems. c. Application Settings allow you to manage settings throughout the application's page views and channel interfaces d. Application Settings allows you to define settings for your different environments in one location.

Answer 51

b & d Application Settings maximizes reusability and flexibility as applications are deployed to different environments. Application Settings allow you to define values for settings that can vary depending on the environment without requiring the update of integration rules and data instances.

Question 52

You are building a web service connector for an application. The configuration values for the endpoint URLs change between staging and production phases. What is the best configuration to ensure that these values update between development phases? a. Configure a data transform to update the endpoint URL values as the production phase changes. b. Create new Application Settings that contain the configuration settings for the endpoint URLs for the staging and production phases. c. Configure a When rule to update the endpoint URL values as the production phase changes. d. Create two application versions, one for staging and one for production, using the correct endpoint URL values.

Answer 52

b This ensures that endpoint URLs and hostname settings update between phases without the need for additional configuration or manual update.

Question 53

You are building an application with several development teams. Requirements state that the respective support contact name from each team appears on the header of the application as it moves through the various development phases. What configuration best allows you to accomplish this requirement? a. Create a new Application Settings configuration entering the appropriate support contact names for each respective development phase. Direct the header to reference the Application Settings to display the support contact name. b. Create multiple applications, one for each development phase that lists the appropriate support contact name on the header. Release a new application for each development phase. c. Configure a data transform to populate the appropriate support contact name for each respective development phase. Update the data transform as each production phase changes and direct the application's header to use the name value sourced from the data transform. d. Configure a When condition to update the the support contact name depending on what production phase the application is in. Have your application display the appropriate name value sourced from conditional logic.

Answer 53

a. | This approach maximizes reusability, as only the value in the Application Settings needs to change.

Question 54

Which two of the following statements are the most accurate with respect to the error handler flow? (Choose Two) a. The error handler flow is the recommended way to handle all integration errors. b. The error handler flow is invoked if the error is not handled elsewhere. c. The standard connector error handler flow can help recover from transient errors. d. The standard error handler flow is final and cannot be customized.

Answer 54

b & c The error handler flow is always enabled and invoked if the error is not handled in the data page or activity. The standard error handler flow retries sending the request in order to recover from transient errors.

Question 55

An error is generated when a connector invokes a remote service. Which of the following is an example of a transient error? a. The request is sent to the wrong system. b. The total of a returned order is incorrectly calculated. c. The service does not understand the request format. d. The service is running on a system that is temporarily unavailable.

Answer 55

d | This is a transient error because the situation is temporary.

Question 56

Which of the following allows you to write all errors that are detected when loading a data page to a log file? a. Use the error handling flow. b. Use an existing function in the error handling data transform. c. Invoke the error handler from the post-processing activity in a data page. d. Use a transition condition.

Answer 56

b | There is an existing function for writing messages to a log file.

Question 57

You can call any of the Pega API services by using ___________. a. standard HTTP methods b. SOAP web services c. out-of-the-box Pega rules d. a data transform

Answer 57

a You can call a Pega API from outside a Pega Platform application by using standard HTTP methods such as GET, POST, or REST.

Question 58

Which two situations would you choose to use a Pega API rather than a custom API? (Choose Two) a. As the manager of a golf course, you need to be able to access specific player score details from a Pega Platform application, perform calculations on that data, and then send newly created data to an external system of record. b. As an orchestra director using a mobile rehearsal time and note logging app, you want to view a list of your musicians' time logs. c. As a member of a golf course maintenance crew, you want to be able to submit maintenance reports and view their status. d. As a financial auditor, you need an external system to notify a Pega Platform application that a specific event in a child case has occurred.

Answer 58

c This use case does not require any specific action from an external caller, so you can use Pega APIs. b This situation illustrates using more generically available case data such as time logs without the need to act on them in any way.

Question 59

Which three service protocols are available in the Service Wizard? (Choose Three) a. HTTP b. JAVA c. SOAP d. IOTP e. REST

Answer 59

a, b, c | HTTP, JAVA, SOAP are available in the service wizard

Question 60

Which two of the following operations are directly supported by Pega API? (Choose Two) a. Update a decision table. b. Access data from a data page. c. Add a property to a data class. d. Create a new case.

Answer 60

b & d | With Pega API, you can create new cases and access data from a data page.

Question 61

You create a report that uses data from two classes. Which of the following reporting requirements requires the use of a subreport? a. Columns to display are: Manager, Name, and Count of operators that report to each manager. Filter by Managers with more than five direct reports. b. Columns to display are: Operator Name, Last updated Case ID, Last updated Case Status, and Update Date. c. Columns to display are: Operator Name, Operator Division, and Count of Purchase Requests created by the operator. Filter the results by unresolved status. d. Columns to display are: Operator Name, Operator Division, Count of Purchase Requests created.

Answer 61

a | You use an aggregate function in a subreport to determine the count of direct reports for each manager.

Question 62

Which report requires joining classes? a. A list of flow actions and average turnaround time, categorized by Performer b. A list of all cases created by the operator along with the work status of each case c. A list of all child cases showing the work urgency of their parent case d. A list of all worklist assignments grouped by the operator who is performing the action

Answer 62

c You would join the case and subcase classes by matching the subcase cover ID (pxCoverInsKey) to the case identifier (pzInskey).

Question 63

You create a report in a work class that displays the assigned operator and task name for each open case. Which two ways can you combine data in the Assign-Worklist class for your report? (Choose Two) a. Use a Worklist Assignment association rule to join the Work class to the Assign-Worklist class. b. Use a Worklist Assignment association rule to join to the Assign-Worklist class. Specify a join filter where the pxRefObjectKey in the join class is equal to an object identifier in the work class. c. Use a class join to the Assign-Worklist class. Specify a join filter where the Worklist Assignment association rule is equal to an object identifier in the work class. d. Use a class join to the Assign-Worklist class. Specify a join filter where the pxRefObjectKey in the join class is equal to an object identifier in the work class.

Answer 63

a The association rule defines the join operation and enables you to select data objects in the class. ``` d The class join specifies the class you are joining and a filter that describes how the data between the classes are joined. ``` *you don't use join filters on association rule

Question 64

Which of the following requirements satisfy the inheritence of permissions from parent class? a. Users can modify cases in Work-Claims-BodilyInjury but not in Work-Claims-VehicleDamage. b. Auditors must have read only access to cases in the Work-Claims-VehicleDamage and Work-Claims-BodilyInjury classes. c. Users can create cases in Work-Claims-BodilyInjury but not in Work-Claims-VehicleDamage. d. Managers can edit cases in Work-Claims-VehicleDamage but not in Work-Claims-BodilyInjury classes.

Answer 64

b | Instances of Work-Claims-VehicleDamage and Work-Claims-BodilyInjury inherit the permissions from Work-Claims.

Question 65

Which are two principles of General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)? (Choose Two) a. Process data transparently b. Maximize personal data collection c. Ensure data integrity and confidentiality d. Share personal data without restriction

Answer 65

a & c

Question 66

You want to restrict access to a specific flow action to certain users. Which two steps must you perform? (Choose Two) a. Override the Access Deny record to the flow action. b. Add the privilege to the users’ access group. c. Add the privilege to the flow action record. d. Add the privilege to a user role that is available to the users’ access group.

Answer 66

c Add the privilege to the flow action to require that users have the privilege to perform the action d: Add the privilege to a user role to allow users to perform the action.

Question 67

In a rental application, prospective tenants must attach a bank statement from the past three months. You want to ensure that members of the Rental Agency work queue can view the attachment, but no one can delete attachments. What two configuration settings, when used in combination on the attachment category, achieve this behavior? (Choose Two) a. Add the RentalAgencyWorkQueue privilege and select the Edit action. b. Add the RentalAgencyWorkQueue privilege and select the View action. c. Add the Always when rule and select the Delete any action. d. Add the Never when rule and select the Delete any action.

Answer 67

b & d This configuration allows users to view the attachment if they have the RentalAgencyWorkQueue privilege. This configuration creates an always-false condition to deny the Delete action for users.

Question 68

Which requirement do you implement with an access control policy? a. Only a specialized appraiser can provide an appraisal of art for a homeowner’s insurance policy. b. Only a customer service representative can view an unmasked account number. c. Only a manager can authorize a refund exceeding USD1000. d. Only an administrator can delete a duplicate address change request.

Answer 68

b | You mask a property value to obscure sensitive data with an access control policy rule.

Question 69

As a developer for an online shopping application, you decide to encrypt credit card details that customers enter in an order case type. Which data encryption approach do you choose to encrypt the data? a. Class level b. Application level c. Case level d. Property level

Answer 69

d Property-level data encryption is appropriate for encrypting credit card details, including the credit card number, expiration date, and CVV number.

Question 70

What are two benefits of data encryption? (Choose Two) a. Data encryption improves data access time. b. Data encryption reduces data storage complexity. c. Data encryption provides security for data while being stored and transported. d. Data encryption maintains data integrity.

Answer 70

c The main purpose of data encryption is to provide security whether data is moving or at rest. d Data encryption protects data from unauthorized access. Altered encryped data can indicate that the data is corrupted, which helps you to determine data integrity.

Question 71

1. In an order case, if a customer requests a backordered item, a new backorder case is created automatically. 2. At runtime, when a customer changes their street address, the ZIP/Postal Code field is populated automatically. 3. After a customer enters their personal information in a gym membership application case, updates are pushed to the database during off-peak hours to minimize impact on users. 4. Without user action, expense report cases advance from the Rejected stage to the Submission stage to allow employees to correct their expense report. a. OOTB automation b. new activity

Answer 71

1. a 2. b 3. b 4. a if it can be done without input, OOTB automation, else new activity

Question 72

Which three of the following statements about activities are true? (Choose Three) a. Use the Log-Message method in the activity to add a message to the PEGA log. b. Limit your activities to fewer than 25 steps. c. You can not call an activity, from an activity. d. When an activity rule is appropriate, use the standard activities whenever possible.

Answer 72

a : The Log-Message method is used to append a message to the PEGA log when the step is reached. Depending on the method parameters and the current logging level, a line is added to the PEGA log on the current node. b: Keep activities short to align with Pega's best practices and maintain peak application performance. d: Pega Platform includes hundreds of useful standard activities that your application can call. The activities are reviewed and performance tested by internal Pega teams. Using the standard activities reduces your application development time.

Question 73

Every activity step has multiple parts. Which part of an activity step indicates the action to perform? a. Description b. Jump c. Method d. Label

Answer 73

c: The method indicates the action the system performs on a step.

Question 74

An application for a retail company runs an activity nightly to identify and discount aged inventory. For each aged item, the activity discounts the unit price by 20 percent, then rounds the price down to end in $0.97. If the price already ends in $0.97, the item is already discounted and is skipped. Using the Obj-Browse method, the first step generates a list of items that expire within one week. The PageName parameter provided to the Obj-Browse method is DiscountItems. The second step updates the unit price property of each qualifying item. Which step page is best for the iteration in step two? a. No Step page is necessary b. DiscountItems.pxResults c. DiscountItems d. pyWorkPage

Answer 74

b: The search results are contained in the embedded .pxResults page of the DiscountItems page.

Question 75

1. Best for periodic or recurring tasks 2. Directly handles read/write transactions on database objects 3. Runs at a specific time 4. Standard or dedicated processing available 5. Save and commit steps included in the activity a. job scheduler b. queue process

Answer 75

1. a 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. a

Question 76

How does a developer review information about queue processors running in their system? a. In Admin Studio, navigate to the Jobs landing page. b. In Dev Studio, from the case life cycle, select the Run in background automation. c. In Admin Studio, navigate to the Queue processors landing page. d. In Dev Studio, from the Records Explorer, select Queue Processor.

Answer 76

c: From the Queue processors landing page in Admin Studio, you can view, trace, and change the state of queue processors in your system.

Question 77

___1____are used for simple queue management. ___2____ can be used when the task is delayed for processing. a. standard queues b. dedicated queues

Answer 77

1. a | 2. b

Question 78

Refund requests are queued for overnight processing. What two pieces of information are required to queue the refund request? (Choose Two) a. The ID of the queue processor. b. The date and time at which the queued item can be processed. c. The case ID of the refund request case. d. The ID of the customer requesting the refund.

Answer 78

a: For a dedicated Queue processor configured to process items on a delay, you must specify the queue processor ID. b: For a dedicated Queue processor configured to process items on a delay, you must provide a Date time property for the queued object.

Question 79

Which of the following options is a reason to have a Declare OnChange rule suspend all processing on a work item? a. When you have performance issues. b. To replace a declare expression. c. To test that the Tracer returns a result. d. When an unexpected business exception occurs.

Answer 79

d: Pausing processing on a work item allows the business to verify that an outcome is correct before moving forward.

Question 80

Creating ____1___ to run ___2___ automatically when the value of ___3___ changes, is a form of ____4__. a. an activity b. declare onChange rules c. a specified property d. automatic forward chaining

Answer 80

1. b 2. a 3. c 4. d

Question 81

A Declare OnChange activity can call or branch to other activities, but only if they have an activity type of _______. a. Assign b. OnChange c. Activity d. Rule Connect

Answer 81

b: The activity type would be set to OnChange.

Question 82

The ____1___ appender records system events such as errors, while the ____2____ appender records events that affect performance. a. PEGA b. ALERT

Answer 82

1. PEGA | b ALERT

Question 83

Log files capture notification of ___1____. Each log is managed by an _____2___. To download a log file, you need ___3___ credentials for the application server that hosts Pega Platform. a. appender b. events c. administrative

Answer 83

b. events a. appender c. administrative

Question 84

A user reports that your application requires more than 10 seconds to load and display the contents of a form. The performance threshold for displaying the contents of a form is one second. Which option allows you to determine the cause of the performance issue experienced by the user? a. tracer tool b. clipboard tool c. My alerts display d. PEGA log

Answer 84

c. The My Alerts display contains entries generated when an operation exceeds a performance threshold.

Question 85

Which three of the following represent Pega PlatformTM logging levels? (Choose Three) a. Warn b. Alert c. Fatal d. Trace e. Comment

Answer 85

a: The Warn logging level documents potential issues that might cause adverse performance. b: The Alert logging level is used to log a performance-related issue such as an event that exceeds a performance threshold. c: The Fatal logging level documents the server errors that can cause the application to terminate.

Question 86

The PegaRULES Log Analyzer (PLA) is a standalone web application available from the Marketplace on Pega Community. True False

Answer 86

true

Question 87

As you run a case instance, you notice it takes a significant amount of time to advance from one view to the next view. You run the case multiple times and notice the same slow performance. How do you proceed? a. You use the Performance Profiler tool. b. You use Pega Predictive Diagnostic Cloud™ (PDC). c. You use the Performance Analyzer (PAL). d. You use the Database Trace tool.

Answer 87

c: You use the Performance Analyzer (PAL) to understand the system resources consumed by processing a single requestor session.

Question 88

In which scenario is it most appropriate to leverage Predictive Diagnostic Cloud™ (PDC)? a. A company has multiple Pega Platform™ applications and is interested in monitoring the health of all active applications. b. A company has a Pega Platform™ application and is interested in browsing a list of performance-related alerts. c. A company has multiple Pega Platform™ and non-Pega Platform applications and is interested in receiving guidance to avoid system performance issues. d. A company has a Pega Platform™ application and is interested in finding the cause of an error that occurs during case processing.

Answer 88

a: PDC can actively gather, monitor, and analyze real-time performance and health indicators from all active Pega Platform™ applications.

Question 89

Which performance tool do you use to collect performance data for individual steps in a data transform? a. Performance Analyzer (PAL) b. Performance Profiler c. Clipboard tool d. Database Trace

Answer 89

b: You use the Performance Profiler to collect performance data for individual steps in a data transform.

Question 90

The reason you want to run a process immediately before you take performance readings is ____________. a. to ensure that there are no bugs in the system b. to allow the rules to assemble c. to train the system which process you are going to measure d. to ensure that you know which buttons to click so you can test quickly

Answer 90

b. Run through the process to ensure first use assembly (FUA) has taken place

Question 91

Which performance tool do you run to examine a query made to the database? a. The PegaRULES Log Analyzer (PLA) b. The Performance Analyzer (PAL) c. The Performance Profiler tool d. The Database Trace tool

Answer 91

d: The Database Trace tool can trace all the SQL operations like queries or commits performed.

Question 92

Which of the following options can you use along with system alerts to determine if your application performance needs optimization? a. Database Trace b. Performance Analyzer (PAL) c. Performance Profiler d. Live UI tool

Answer 92

b: Performance Analyzer (PAL) uses existing performance data, so it does not slow down the application.

Question 93

Which two approaches reduce the possibility of rule caching causing performance issues in your application? (Choose Two) a. Remove branch rulesets in your production system. b. Classify the nodes in your system. c. Only allow rule checkout for operators who need to work in checked out rules. d. Create multiple access groups.

Answer 93

a: Branch rulesets are typically used in a development environment and are not needed in a production environment. c: Restricting the number of operators who can check out rules reduces the number of personal rulesets.

Question 94

Which two types of issues are identified by using Pega Platform alerts? (Choose Two) a. Functional b. Security c. Performance d. Configuration

Answer 94

b: You can identify security issues such as Cross-site forgery and Unauthorized access. c: You can identify performance issues such as the query time that exceeds a threshold and the commit operation time that exceeds a threshold.

Question 95

Which performance tool do you run to determine which specific step executed by your requestor session that is causing a problem? a. The Database Trace tool b. The Performance Analyzer (PAL) c. The Performance Profiler tool d. The PegaRULES Log Analyzer (PLA)

Answer 95

c: The Performance Profiler tool is run to narrow down which specific step is causing a problem.

Question 96

How do you make a relevant record unavailable in App Studio? a. Remove the relevant record designation from the record itself. b. Mark the relevant record as inactive from the Relevant Records landing page. c. Mark the relevant record as unavailable from the record itself. d. Remove the relevant record designation from the Relevant Records landing page.

Answer 96

b: To make a relevant record unavailable in App Studio, mark the record as inactive from the Relevant Records landing page. From the landing page, you can mark the record as active to make it available in App Studio.

Question 97

Which of the following use cases benefits from leveraging relevant records? a. A developer wants to ensure a SLA rule is available at run time. b. A developer wants to make a common cancellation flow available in App Studio. c. A manager uninvolved in application development must make changes to a SLA rule as business conditions change. d. A developer configures a flow with a post-processing data transform for use by multiple case types.

Answer 97

b: In this situation, it is appropriate to mark the flow as a relevant record. The process is subsequently available in App Studio for the rest of the application development team.

Question 98

Which three rule types can be reused through the use of relevant records? (Choose Three) a. Field values b. Decision trees c. Sections d. Flows e. Paragraphs

Answer 98

c, d, e

Question 99

You want to configure a Pega Web Mashup gadget to use the value of an element from the host page as the value of a gadget attribute or an action parameter. Which of the following options is the correct syntax? a. [page/function/token] where token is a string that has meaning to the function b. [gadget/gadgetName/property] where gadgetName is the name of the mashup, and property is the name of a property that is used in a Pega application c. data-pega-parameters="{Customer:'[page/id/Account]', Level:'gold'}" d. data-pega-parameters="{Customer:'[page/id/Account]'}" where the Document Object Model (DOM) element is named "Account"

Answer 99

d: Use [page/id/elementID], where elementID is the name of an element from the host page.

Question 100

Which two of the following statements are true about Pega Web Mashup? (Choose Two) a. The Pega Web Mashup can be created using Dev Studio only. b. The Generate Mashup code option generates HTML code. c. Opening a new case is an example of an action that can be done through a Pega Web Mashup. d. When using a Pega Web Mashup, an operator ID is not required to access a Pega Platform™ application.

Answer 100

b: The Generate Mashup code option opens a window that provides the necessary HTML for you to copy, paste, and view within the web page. c: Mashups generated by Pega Web Mashup provide the same rich application experience users normally have in a Pega Platform application. Common actions that can be defined inside a mashup include opening a new case, displaying a user's worklist, and selecting and performing an assignment.

Question 101

Which two of the following steps are required to create a Pega Web Mashup? (Choose Two) a. Configure a list of approved sites for the site origin. b. Generate the mashup code. c. Define attributes to defer for the default action. d. Set the data-pega-resizetype attribute to customize the mashup width.

Answer 101

a: To open a channel between the host site and the Pega Platform™ application, configure the application permissions by specifying a list of trusted domains in the Pega Application rule. b: In App Studio, create a new Mashup channel interface and configure the channel with the desired action and case type to generate the appropriate mashup code.

Question 102

Your company has developed a process in Pega Platform™ for tracking orders. Your company also has an existing Android app. You are asked to create a mobile app solution to include the new order tracking process in their existing app. How do you build the mobile app? a. Export an unsigned app b. Create a signed SDK app c. Create an SDK app d. Build a native Android app

Answer 102

c: SDK apps allow you to embed parts of an application, like a process in Pega Platform, into existing mobile apps.

Question 103

You are part of an interdepartmental development team and are asked to create a stand-alone iOS app. Since your team does not have an iOS signing certificate, you need to deliver the iOS app to another department, which signs the app locally before submitting for review and distribution to the App Store. How do you create the mobile app? a. Create a signed SDK app b. Create a signed native iOS app c. Create an SDK app d. Export an unsigned native iOS app

Answer 103

d: An unsigned iOS app can be signed locally by another individual or team who has an iOS signing certificate.

Question 104

You can use the same certificate sets to build and distribute iOS and Android apps. True False

Answer 104

false