SS25 Anesthesia Adjuncts (Exam 4) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the subtypes of β receptors and where are they primarily located?

A
  • β1 - Heart
  • β2 - Lungs
  • β3 - Fat/Muscle (disregard β3)
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2
Q

What type of receptors are β receptors?

A

GPCR

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3
Q

β agonism MOA

A
  1. Ligand (agonist binds)
  2. Activates Adenylyl Cyclase (AC)
  3. cAMP produced
  4. Enhances Ca influx
  5. Expected effects occurs
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4
Q

What effects occur with β agonism?

A
  • Chronotropic
  • Inotropic
  • Dromotropic
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5
Q

What type of antagonism occurs at β receptors?

A
  • Competitive antagonism
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6
Q

βeta-antagonist prevents ________. from binding at the heart, airway smooth muscle, and blood vessels

A
  • catecholamines (or sympathomimetics)
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7
Q

Chronic administration of β blockers results in what effect on receptors?

A
  • Tachyphylaxis
  • Receptor upregulation (aka ↑ # of receptors)
  • Desensitization
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8
Q

T/F: The selectivity of β blockers is dose-dependent but dose depenendency is lost at high doses

A
  • True
  • B blockers are dose-dependent
  • At high doses, no longer selective works on all receptors (B1, B2, B3)
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9
Q

What effects do βeta Antangonist (β-blockers) have?

A
  • May restore receptor responsiveness (maybe take a break from drug & switch to new one)
  • Protect myocytes from perop ischemia & infarct
  • May ↓ arterial vascular tone & ↓ afterload
  • ↓ CO & inhibit renin release
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10
Q

T/F: Patient on B Blockers must be given dose within 24 hr of surgery

A

True

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11
Q

How do β blockers protect myocytes from perioperative ischemia/infarct?

A
  • By ↓O₂ demand on the heart
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12
Q

T/F. β blockers will potentiate renin release.

A
  • False. β blockers will inhibit renin release
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13
Q

How will β blockers affect the cardiac foci action potential?

A
  • Decrease slope = Prolonged Phase 4
  • ↓ rate of spontaneus depolarization
  • ↓ dysrhythmias during ischemia and reperfusion (Ex. CABG, TVAR, Ablation)
  • Myocardium perfuses during diastole

Myocardium perfuses during diastole

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14
Q

Bonus: Myocardium perfuses during diastole
Why?

A
  • During systole, aortic valves leaflets are open and it blocks the opening to coronary arteries
  • During systole, tiny epicardial vessels are constrictricted as well
  • Diastole allows for retrograde flow so better perfusion into coronaries
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15
Q

How will β blockers affect diastolic perfusion time?

A
  • Increases diastolic perfusion time = ↑ filling time
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16
Q

What type of HTN is a possible indication for β blocker therapy?

A
  • Essential Hypertension
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17
Q

Other β- blocker indications:

A
  • Excessive SNS stimulation (noxious stimuli, acute cocaine ingestion)
  • Thyrotoxicosis (↑ thyroid)
  • Cardiac dysrhythmias
  • SCIP
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18
Q

What is SCIP?
- Describe the protocol and its goals.

A
  • Surgical Care Improvement Protocol
  • β-blockers must be given within 24 hrs of surgery for patients at risk for cardiac ischemia and pts already on β-blocker therapy.
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19
Q

What percentage of β receptors in the myocardium are β1 ?

A

75%

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20
Q

Do cardio-selective β-blockers cause vasodilation?

A

No

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21
Q

What non-selective β-blocker has active metabolites and is considered the prototype?

A
  • Propanolol (Inderal)
  • β1 = β2 activity
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22
Q

What were the (3) β1 cardio-selective drugs discussed in lecture?

A
  • Atenolol (Tenormin)
  • Metoprolol (Lopressor)
  • Esmolol (Breviblock)
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23
Q

Differentiate the clearance mechanisms:
- Propranolol
- Metoprolol
- Atenolol
- Esmolol

A
  • Propranolol: Hepatic
  • Metoprolol: Hepatic
  • Atenolol: Renal
  • Esmolol: Hydrolysis (Plasma cholinesterases via cytosol)
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24
Q

Differentiate the E½ of the following:
- Propranolol:
- Metoprolol:
- Atenolol:
- Esmolol:

A
  • Propranolol: 2-3 hrs
  • Metoprolol: 3-4 hours
  • Atenolol: 6-7 hrs
  • Esmolol: 0.15 hrs = 9 minutes
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25
Q

When propanolol is given, what effect lasts longer, negative inotropy or negative chronotropy?
- Why?

A
  • Negative Chronotropy (Bradycardia) lasts longer
  • Possibly d/t β1 sub-receptor types (ex. β1A, β1B, etc.)
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26
Q

Propanolol will decrease the clearance of which two important anesthetic drug classes?

A
  • Opioids
  • AmiNe LAs (not amides)
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27
Q

What drug is the most selective β1 antagonist?

A

Atenolol (Tenormin)

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28
Q

What are the three benefits of Atenolol?

A
  • Dosed only 1x daily → Good for non-cardiac sx CAD patients (↓ complications for 2 years)
  • Doesn’t potentiate insulin-induced hypoglycemia
  • Does not cross the BBB (less fatigue)
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29
Q

What is the dose for Atenolol?

A

5mg q10min IV

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30
Q

What 3 effects does Metoprolol (Lopressor) have?

A
  • Bronchodilator, Vasodilator, & Metabolic effects of β2 receptors intact
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31
Q

What is the dose of metoprolol?

A
  • 1mg q5min x 5 (for a total of 5 mg)
  • repeat set if needed
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32
Q

What two PO formulations of Metoprolol are there?

A
  • Metoprolol Tartate
  • Metoprolol Succinate
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33
Q

Compare Metoprolol Tartate & Metoprolol Succinate:
- E1/2 times
- dosing
- which one is more commonly prescribed?

A
  • Metoprolol Tartate:
    -E1/2 = 2 - 3 hrs
    -dosing 2-4x day
  • Metoprolol Succinate
    -E1/2 = 2 - 3 hrs
    -dosing 1x day
  • More likely to Rx Metoprolol Succinate d/t increased compliance but less HR cntrl

(typically see Tartate more in hospital setting

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34
Q

What β blocker would be used for treat intraop noxious stimuli (ie: intubation)?
- dose:
- onset:
- duration:

A

Esmolol
- dose: 20 - 30 mg IV
- onset: (5 mins)
- duration: 10 - 30 mins
- rapid on & offset

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35
Q

Caution should be taken when giving Esmolol with which two conditions present?
Why?

A
  • Cocaine and/or Epinephrine absorption
  • Can cause pulmonary edema/collapse
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36
Q

Based off graph:
- Which drug prevents Tachycardia & HTN associated with intubation?
- Which drug would you give if increased Tachycardia & HTN was rlt to pain?

A
  • Esmolol
  • Fentanyl
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37
Q

Are the effects of CCBs and β-blockers additive?

A

No, synergistic

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38
Q

What two conditions should a β1 cardio-selective be used over a non-selective?

A
  • DM: β2 can cause hypoglycemia by insulin potentiation
  • Airway: β2 potentiates bronchospasm
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39
Q

What volatile anesthetic will cause the greatest additive cardiac depression when combined with a β blocker?
- The least additive cardiac depression?
- Why does this not matter?

A
  • Enflurane = greatest additive depression
  • Isoflurane = least additive depression (best for myocardium)
  • Not significant between 1-2 MAC
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40
Q

αlpha receptors:
- subtypes:
- receptor type:

A
  • α1 & α2
  • GPCR
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41
Q

What occurs with α1 agonism?

A
  1. 2nd messenger synthesis = IP₃
  2. Ca⁺⁺ release from SR
  3. Affect vascular smooth muscle
  4. Determines arterial resistance, venous capacity, & BP
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42
Q

What occurs with α2 agonism?

A
  • ↓ release of NE from presynaptic terminal (brainstem)
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43
Q

Is phenylephrine primarily a venoconstrictor or an arterioconstrictor?

A

More Venous constriction effects

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44
Q

T/F: Phenylephrine is less potent and short-lasting compared to NE.

A

False
- less potent & longer-lasting

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45
Q

Phenylephrine clinically mimics NE and ______ releases small amounts of NE.

A
  • Indirectly
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46
Q

Indications for Phenylephrine:

A
  • SNS blockade by regional
  • Inhaled/Injectable anesthetics
  • CAD/A. stenosis (b/c it doesn’t call tachycardia)
47
Q

What is the normal dose of phenylephrine?

A
  • 100mcg/mL IV push
  • Can also do continuous infusion if requiring frequent IV pushes
48
Q

What adverse effect results from phenylephrine?
- How is it resolved?

A
  • Reflex bradycardia d/t very high SVR
  • Stop drug
49
Q

What is Labetalol effects?

A
  • Non-selective β1&2 and Selective α1 antagonist
  • has peripheral effects
  • ↓ SVR = ↓ systemic BP and ↑ reflex tachycardia
50
Q

What is the ratio of β to α blockade for Labetalol?

A
  • 7:1 in IV form
  • 7x non-selective β1&2 v. selective α1 antagonist
51
Q

Which of the following receptors does Labetalol antagonize?

A. α1
B. α2
C. β1
D. β2

A

α1, β1, β2

52
Q

What is the dose for labetalol?
- peak effect:

A
  • 2.5 - 5mg IV; 10mg max
  • 5 - 10 mins
  • Tachyphylaxis (+)
53
Q

Which βeta blocker would you administer to patient sceduled for CABG x4 and forgot to take β blocker at home?

A
  • Metoprolol (Lopressor) IV
54
Q

During extubation from L CEA, BP spikes 214/62. Which β blocker would you give?

  • Labetalol
  • Esmolol
A
  • Esmolol
  • Rationale: Labetolol could drop the DBP too much
55
Q

Sympathomimetics (Vasopressors) uses:

A
  • Increase systemic BP
  • Increase myocardial contractility
56
Q

What are 2 AE that can happen if sympathomimetics lack β1 specificity?

A
  • Intense vasoconstriction
  • Reflex bradycardia
57
Q

Sympathomimetics: MOA

A
  1. Activate directly or indirectly α or β adrenergic GPCRs
  2. cAMP enhance Ca release SRminto cytosol
  3. Actin & Mysin interact forcefully (↑ crossbridging)
58
Q

Which drug(s) is an direct-acting sympathomimetic?
- MOA

A
  • Epi, NE, Phnylephrine, Dopamine
  • Directly activates adrenergic-Rs
59
Q

Which drug(s) is an indirect-acting sympathomimetic?
- MOA

A
  • Ephedrine
  • Aids in release of NE from postganglionic sympatheric nerve endings
60
Q

Image skipped during lecture:

61
Q

Prototype catecholamine

A

Epinephrine
- cardiac cases & ACLS use only

62
Q

What is the single bolus IV push dose for Epinephrine?
- Duration of action

A
  • 2 - 8 mcg IVpush
  • 1 - 5 min
63
Q

Epinephrine:
- infusion dose for β2 effects:
- infusion dose for β1 effects:
- infusion dose for α1 effects:

A
  • 1-2 mcg/min
  • 4 mcg/min
  • 10-20 mcg/min
64
Q

What catecholamine will have the greatest effect on heart rate and cardiac output?

A
  • Epinephrine
65
Q

What catecholamine will have the greatest effect on SVR?

A
  • Phenylephrine
  • pure αlpha
66
Q

Ephedrine single IV dose:

A
  • 5 - 10 mg IV
67
Q

Ephedrine is commonly used in sympathetic depression from what?

A
  • Inhaled/ injectable anesthetics
  • BP response less intense & last up to 10x longer than Epinephrine
  • Tachyphylaxis (+++)
68
Q

Why does tachyphylaxis occur with Ephedrine?

A
  • Ephedrine depletes NE stores
69
Q

What is the preferred sympathomimetic for parturient (woman in labor) patients?
Why?

A
  • Ephedrine can be given d/t hypotension that occurs from spinal SAB
  • It doesn’t effect uterine blood flow
  • Typically given immediatly after spinal placed for c-section to prevent hypotension
70
Q

Compared to Phenylephrine, Ephedrine has an equal BP response, but _________ (higher/lower) umbilical pH in neonates.

71
Q

What drug would be utilized for catecholamine-resistant hypotension?
- Derivative:
- Single IV dose:

A
  • Vasopressin
    -Derivative of Arginine Vasopressin (ADH)
  • Single dose dose: 1-2 units
72
Q

Vasopressin MOA:

A
  • Stimulates V1 receptors to cause arterial vasoconstriction
  • Increases renal-collecting duct permeability (more water is reabosorped)
73
Q

Vasopressin side effects:
(Cardiac, GI, Other)

A
  • Cardiac: Coronary artery vasoconstriction
    _ GI: Stimluates GI smooth muscle: abd. pain, cramps, N/V.
  • Other: ↓PLT count & antibody formation
74
Q

T/F: Vasopressin can be used for ACE-Inhibitor resistant hypotension?

75
Q

Review image.

76
Q

You just completed induction on a TKA patient w/ hx of DM, OA, & CAD using Propofol, Vecuronium, & Fentanyl. Pt is intubated on Sevo ET 3%. BP 70/30 HR 54. What is your first intervention?

A
  1. ↓ vaporizer: it’s closest & quickest
  2. Give Ephedrine and/or IVF
77
Q

Per lecture, what are the 2 pressor(s) of choice for hypotension in CAD patients (place in order)?

A
  1. Ephedrine
  2. Phenylephrine
78
Q

β-agonist won’t work if fully βeta blocked. You have to give an _____________ agonist.

A

𝜶lpha agonist

79
Q

During maintanence phase: BP 80/42 HR 92. In addition to an IVF bolus, what is the drug of choice?

A
  • Phenylephrine
  • ↑ SVR = ↑ BP without causing tachycardia
80
Q

Pt with hx of uterine cancer and takes ACEIs at home becomes hypotensive and does not respond to Ephedrine pushes x3. What are the next 2 steps?

A
  • IVFs, Vasopressin
  • Vasopressin is a good option for patients already on ACEIs
81
Q

Formula to find MAP:

A

SBP + (2 * DBP) / 3

82
Q

Per lecture, which drugs are considered vasodilators?

A
  • Nitrates (ie: Nitroglycerin)
  • Sodium Nitroprusside
  • Minoxidil
  • Hydralazine
83
Q

How does Nitric Oxide cause vasodilation?

A
  • NO → GC → cGMP → Ca⁺⁺ entry inhibited into smooth muscle → increased uptake in SR
84
Q

Which processes are NO involved in? (6)

A
  1. Cardiovascular tone relaxation
  2. Plt regulation
  3. CNS neurotransmitter
  4. GI smooth muscle relaxation
  5. Immune moduation
  6. Pulmomary Artery Vasodilation
85
Q

Nitro- vasodilators MOA:

A
  • ↓ Systemic BP by:
  • ↓ SVR: arterial vasodilators treat effects of vasoconstriction
  • ↓ Venous Return: venous vasodilators alleviate pulmonary/systemic congestion
86
Q

How can nitro-vasodilators alleviate pulmonary congestion?

A
  • By decreasing venous return via venodilation
87
Q

What vasodilator absolutely requires continuous monitoring and an invasive arterial line monitoring?

A

Sodium Nitroprusside

88
Q

Sodium Nitroprusside: MOA

A
  • Relaxation of arterial and venous vascular smooth muscle
89
Q

What does Nitroprusside dissociate on contact with?
- What is the result?

A
  • Dissociates immediately on contact with oxyhemoglobin → methemoglobin, NO, and cyanide released.
  • cyanide toxicity risk
90
Q

What is the dose of Nitroprusside?
- onset?
- duration?

A
  • Initial 0.3 mcg/kg/min
  • Max: 2 mcg/kg/min
    Duration: INSTANT transient onset
91
Q

When is Sodium Nitroprusside (SNP) used?

A
  • Controlled Hypotension: Aortic, Spine, Pheochromocytoma
  • Hypertensive emergencies & Carotid sx (CEA)
92
Q

What drug is used to treat cyanide toxicity?

A

Methylene blue

93
Q

What signs would tip you off to possible cyanide toxicity secondary to nitroprusside administration?

A
  • ↑ dosing need for sodium nitroprusside
  • ↑ SvO₂ (mixed venous) & ↑ Metabolic acidosis ↑ b/c tissues are not using O2
  • CNS dysfunction/LOC changes
94
Q

Where does nitroglycerin work?

A
  • Large coronary arteries
  • Venous capacitance vessels
  • Lead to venous pooling & relaxation of vascular smooth muscle @ high doses
95
Q

Would nitroglycerin increase or decrease preload?

A

↓ preload

96
Q

Does nitroprusside or nitroglycerin exhibit tachyphylaxis?

A

Nitroglycerin

97
Q

What tachyphylactic effects that can occur with NTG?

A
  • Dose & Duration dependent
  • Limits vasodilation
  • Drug free interval 12-15 hrs reverses tolerance; may have possibe rebound ischemia .
98
Q

What is the nitroglycerin dose?

A
  • Initial dose = 5 - 10 mcg/min infusion and titrateable
  • No max but ↑ dose not equal ↑resoonse
99
Q

What is the first line treatment for sphincter of Oddi spasm?
What is second?

A
  • Glucagon
  • Nitroglycerin
100
Q

What are the indications for nitroglycerin?

A
  • Acute MI
    -relieves pulm congestion, ↓ O2 requirements, limits MI size
  • Controlled Hypotension
    -Less potent than SNP
  • Sphincter of Oddi spasm
    -Occurs during cholecystectomy/opioid induce
  • Retained placenta
    -Continued bleeding
101
Q

Hydralazine: MOA:

A
  • Direct systemic arterial vasadilator
  • ↓ ITP =↓ Ca⁺⁺ release
102
Q

Hydralazine:
Onset:
1/2 Life:

A
  • Peak: 1 hour
  • ½-life: 3-7 hours

too slow on & off; not good for sx.

103
Q

What is the initial dose of Hydralazine?

104
Q

Hydralazine: Adverse effects

A
  • Extreme hypotension
  • Rebound tachcardia
105
Q

What are the three types of CaCBs?
- Include their selectivity (where they act)

A
  • Phenylalkylamines - AV Node
  • Benzothiazepines - AV Node
  • Dihydropyridines - Arteriolar Bed
106
Q
  • If a CaCB is selective for AV node, the HR will __________ (decrease/increase) more.
  • If a CaCB is selective for the arteriolar bed, there will be more ______________ (vasoconstrictive/vasodilatory) effects.
A
  • decrease
  • vasodilatory
107
Q

CaCBs: MOA

A
  1. Bind to L-type V-G Ca channels
  2. ↓ Ca⁺⁺ influx
  3. Excitation-contraction coupling inhibited
108
Q

CaCBs will ______ blood pressure and ________ coronary blood flow.

A

decrease; increase

109
Q

Effects of CaCBs:

A
  • ↓ vascular smooth muscle contractility
    -Peripheral vasodilation = ↓ SVR & systemic BP
    -↑ coronary BF
    -Dihydropyridines
  • ↓ Speed of conduction mainly via AV node
    -Phenylalkylamines
    -Benzothiazepines
110
Q

Which CCB has the greatest coronary artery dilation and least myocardial depression?

A

Nicardipine (Cardene)

111
Q

Nicardipine:
- Clinical use:
- Dose:
- E 1/2:

A
  • Clinical use: short-term severe HTN (ie: expecting strong stimuli like SBP 220s but wont’t need for prolonged time)
  • Dose: 5 mg/hr
    -Titrate:(↑ 2.5 mg/hr x4 )
    -Max 15 mg/hr
  • E 1/2: 50% decrease 30 mins after d/c
112
Q

Which antihypertensive works primarily through altering venous capacitance?

113
Q

Which antihypertensive will worsen the PaO2 (the most) of an end-stage COPDr who needs emergent BP?

A

Sodium Nitroprusside

114
Q

Surgeon is closing on R CEA. CRNA has reverse muscle relaxant and pt is breathing spontaneously. BP and HR are elevated. What is youre first intervention?

A
  • Give narcotic
  • Based off how high BP is, may need to start Nicardipine (Cardene)