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CHEMICAL TECHNICIAN > SQUAREDEL REVIEWER 2019 ORGCHEM > Flashcards

SQUAREDEL REVIEWER 2019 ORGCHEM Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following structures represents a molecule different from the others?
    I. /\/°\/\ III. /\/°\/°\/
    | |
    °\ \

II. /\/°\/°\ IV. /\/°\/\
| /\
\ H OMe

A. I
B. IV
C. II
D. III

A

D. III

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2
Q
  1. Which is the correct molecular formula of the following molecule?
    /
    ///
    //\//\/

I. C8H8
Il. C8H10
III. C7H8
IV. C7H10

A. II
B. IV
C. I
D. III

A

A. II

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following compounds has an ionic bond?
    I. H2O
    II. NH4Cl
    III. CH3Cl
    IV. CH3Li

A. II
B. IV
C. I
D. III

A

A. II

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4
Q
  1. How many hydrogen atoms are in one molecule of propene?

A. 4
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8

A

C. 6

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5
Q
  1. Which is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?
            Br        CH2CH3
        |          | CH3CH2CHCH=CCH2CH3

A. 5-bromo-3-ethylhept-3-ene
B. 3-ethyl-5-bromohept-3-ene
C. 3-bromo-5-ethylhept-4-ene
D. 1,1-diethyl-3-bromopent-1-ene

A

A. 5-bromo-3-ethylhept-3-ene

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6
Q
  1. In which species are all the carbon atoms considered to be sp2 hybridized?

I. C2H2 II. C2H4 III. C3H8 IV. C4H10

A. IV
B. II
C. I
D. III

A

B. II

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7
Q
  1. For which compound are the empirical and molecular formulas the same?
    I. C6H5COOH
    II. C6H4(COOH)2
    III. HOOCCOOH
    IV. CH3COOH

A. III
B. I
C. IV
D. II

A

B. I

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8
Q
  1. How many different compounds have the formula C5H12?

A. 5
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3

A

D. 3

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9
Q
  1. In which species is the carbon-nitrogen bond the shortest?

I. CH3NH2
II. CH2NH
III (CH3)4N^+
IV CH3CN

A. II
B. I
C. IV
D. III

A

C. IV

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10
Q
  1. What is the hybridization of the carbon atom in a carboxyl group?

A. sp
B. sp^3
C. sp^2
D. dsp^3

A

C. sp^2

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11
Q
  1. Which compound is an aldehyde?
    I. /\/\ III. /\/
    OH O
         O                                  II.     /\\/ \                    


      O
     || IV.     /\\/ \

A. II
B. III
C. IV
D. I

A

B. III

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12
Q
  1. Which compound is NOT an ether?

I. CH.CH.OCH.CH III. CHCOCH.CH

     O II. //\/ \/                                IV. //\/\ /    |  ||                                       | ||O
\\/                                           \\/

A. IV
B. I
C. II
D. III

A

D. III

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13
Q
  1. Which compound is a tertiary amine?
    I. (CH)CNH III. (CH.CH)NH
    CH3 CH3
    | |
    II. CH3.CH2.CNH2 IV. CH3.CH2.NCH3
    |
    CH3

A. II
B. III
C. I
D. IV

A

D. IV

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following hydrocarbon has the lowest boiling point?

I. C4H10
II. CH4
III. C6H6
IV. C2H6

A. IV
B. II
C. I
D. III

A

B. II

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15
Q
  1. Which compound is a tertiary alcohol?
    I. (CH)COH III. (CH.CH.) CHOH
               OH                                      H
           |                                          | II. CH3.CH2.CH.CH3       IV. CH3.CH2.O.CH3

A. III
B. IV
C. II
D. I

A

D. I

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16
Q
  1. How many different alcohols have the molecular formula C4.H10.O?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

A

B. 4

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17
Q
  1. Which compound is expected to be most soluble in water at 25 °C

I. N2 (g)
II. O2 (g)
III. (C2H5)2.NH (l)
IV. C2H5.O.C2H5 (l)

A. III
B. IV
C. I
D. II

A

B. IV

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18
Q
  1. The gentle oxidation of ethanol, CH3.CH2.OH, produces

I. ethanal, CH3.CHO
Il. ethanoic acid, CH3.CO2.H
Ill. carbon monoxide, CO
IV. carbon dioxide, CO2

A. IV
B. I
C. II
D. III

A

B. I

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19
Q
  1. The following compounds have very similar molar masses. What would be the correct order when they are arranged in order of increasing strength of their intermolecular forces.

I. C3H8
II. CH3.O.CH3
Ill. CH3.CH2.OH

A. II < I < III
B. III < I < II
C. I<II<III
D. III < II < I

A

C. I<II<III

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20
Q
  1. A reaction in which a carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol to form an organic compound and
    water is called

A. saponification
B. esterification
C. neutralization
D. hydrolysis

A

B. esterification

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21
Q
  1. Which class of compounds consists exclusively of saturated hydrocarbons?

A. alkenes
B. aromatics
C. alkynes
D. alkanes

A

D. alkanes

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22
Q
  1. What is the position of the bromine atom relative to the methyl group in 3-bromotoluene?

A. meta
B. para
C. ortho
D. trans

A

A. meta

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23
Q
  1. The smell of rancid butter is due to the presence of butyric (butanoic) acid. What is the formula for this compound?
    I. C4H8.O2
    Il C4H10.O
    Il. C5H10.O2
    IV. C5H12.O

A. IV
B. II
C. III
D. I

A

D. I

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24
Q
  1. Which compound has the highest boiling point?
    I. CH3.CH2.CH3 III. CH3.OCH2.CH3

II. CH3–C–CH3 IV. CH3.CH2.CH2.OH
||
O

A. I
B. III
C. II
D. IV

A

D. IV

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25
Q
  1. Which combination of reactants produces an ester?

A. aldehyde and potassium permanganate
B. acid and alcohol
C. acid and aldehyde
D. alcohol and aldehyde

A

B. acid and alcohol

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26
Q
  1. In crystallization, the solution which is obtained after filtration is the ___________.

A. clear solution
B. colloidal solution
C. suspended solution
D. None of the given answers

A

A. clear solution

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27
Q
  1. In crystallization, the crystal phases can be inter-converted by varying ____________

A. temperature
B. pressure
C. viscosity
D. size

A

A. temperature

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28
Q
  1. Which separation technique is based on differences in the volatility of the compounds to be
    separated?

A. solvent extraction
B. distillation
C. paper chromatography
D. filtration

A

B. distillation

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29
Q
  1. Fractional distillation is different from distillation because of the presence of a

A. Fractionating column
B. Condenser
C. Conical flask
D. Distillation flask

A

A. Fractionating column

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30
Q
  1. The process of heating a liquid mixture to form vapors and then cooling the vapors to get a pure component is called

A. Distillation
B. Chromatography
C. Crystallization
D. Sublimation

A

A. Distillation

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31
Q
  1. A common measure of efficiency in a fractionating column is the

A. length of the condenser used in the setup
B. number of distillation types
C. number of components in the solution
D. number of theoretical plates in the column

A

D. number of theoretical plates in the column

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32
Q
  1. Five grams of an organic solid was dissolved in 100 mL of distilled water. Which of the following extraction methods can remove the largest amount of organic solid from an aqueous solution?

A. Extract the aqueous solution with a 150-mL portion of ether.
B: Extract the aqueous solution with three 50-mL portions of ether.
C. Extract the aqueous solution with a 150-mL portion of acetic acid.
D. Extract the aqueous solution with three 50-mL portions of acetic acid.

A

B. Extract the aqueous solution with three 50-mL portions of ether.

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following funnels should be used to filter hot mother liquor during recrystallization?

A. Buchner funnel
B. Hirsch funnel
C. Long stem funnel
D. Short stem funnel

A

D. Short stem funnel

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34
Q
  1. What is the key step in a recrystallization process?

A. Taking the melting point of wet crystals
B. Dissolving the solid in a large quantity of cold solvent
C. Allowing the hot solution to cool slowly and let crystals grow
D. Removing the soluble impurities by vacuum filtration

A

C. Allowing the hot solution to cool slowly and let crystals grow

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following is the example of crystallisation process?

A. Purification of alum
B. None of the given answers
C. Separation of gases from air
D. Purification of sea water

A

A. Purification of alum

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36
Q
  1. A constant boiling mixture of two or more components in a solution is called a/an

A. azeotrope
B. Ideal solution
C. non-ideal solution
D. eutectic mixture

A

A. azeotrope

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37
Q
  1. A compound is known to decompose at its boiling point. Which of the following methods can be used to purify this substance?

A. Steam distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Liquid-liquid extraction
D. Vacuum distillation

A

A. Steam distillation

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38
Q
  1. When the solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium, the temperature of the system

A. decreases gradually
B. none of the given answers
C. increases gradually
D. remains constant

A

D. remains constant

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39
Q
  1. Which is the INCORRECT statement among the following?

A. An impure sample of the substance has a different melting point.
B. Two different pure substances have the same melting points.
C. Melting point serves as the criterion of purity of a solid substance.
D. Every pure solid crystalline substance has a characteristic and unique melting point.

A

B. Two different pure substances have the same melting points.

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40
Q
  1. The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapor pressure is

A. lesser than internal pressure
B. equal to internal pressure
C. equal to external pressure
D. greater than internal pressure

A

C. equal to external pressure

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Solid reactants can be weighed directly in the weighing pan of the analytical balance.
B. Weight of liquids is approximately equal to its density.
C. Solid reactants can be transferred to a reaction flask by using a metal spatula.
D. Volatile liquids can be weighed by getting the mass of the empty vial with cap first.

A

D. Volatile liquids can be weighed by getting the mass of the empty vial with cap first.

42
Q
  1. A reaction mixture needs to be cooled to -77°C after refluxing. What is the best method to be used?

A. Place the reaction vessel in an ice bath.
B. Pace the reaction vessel in the freezer.
C. Place the reaction vessel in a salt and crushed ice mixture.
D. Place the reaction mixture in a dry ice-acetone mixture.

A

D. Place the reaction mixture in a dry ice-acetone mixture.

43
Q
  1. What should be the buret reading as shown?

A. 22.40
B. 22.30
C. 22.3
D. 22.36

A

D. 22.36

44
Q
  1. Which of the following reactions will consume the most oxygen?

A. complete combustion of one mole of octane
B. complete combustion of one mole of 2,3-dimethylhexane
C. complete combustion of one mole of 2,3,4-trimethylpentane
D. All the given compounds will consume the same amount of oxygen.

A

D. All the given compounds will consume the same amount of oxygen.

45
Q
  1. Which of the following techniques can be used to heat a reaction to 200°C?

A. Use a Bunsen burner to heat the reaction vessel.
B. Use a heating mantle with stirring.
C. Place the reaction vessel in a sand bath with stirring.
D. Place the reaction vessel in a water bath with stirring.

A

C. Place the reaction vessel in a sand bath with stirring.

46
Q
  1. When proteins are broken down by enzymes, the products are

A. amino acids
B. fatty acids
C. nucleic acids
D. carbohydrates

A

A. amino acids

47
Q
  1. Which alkyl halide will most likely undergo SN2 mechanism?

A. 2-bromobutane
B. bromomethane
C. 2-bromo-2-methylpropane
D. 1-bromobutane

A

B. bromomethane

48
Q
  1. Aldehydes and ketones generally react by

A. nucleophilic substitution
B. nucleophilic addition
C. electrophilic addition
D. electrophilic substitution

A

B. nucleophilic addition

49
Q
  1. AICI, is a catalyst used in the alkylation of aromatic compounds. It is a

A. a Lewis acid
B. a Lowry-Bronsted
C. an Arrhenius acid
D. a Lewis base

A

A. a Lewis acid

50
Q
  1. An industrial source of alcohol is

A. Fats
B. Coal
C. Sugar acid
D. Ethers

A

C. Sugar acid

51
Q
  1. The reaction rate is defined as the rate at which the concentration of the reactants _________
    time or the rate at which the concentration of products __________ with time.

A. decrease, decrease
B. increase, increase
C. decrease, increase
D. increase, decrease

A

C. decrease, increase

52
Q
  1. Hydrogenation of an alkene yields

A. alcohol
B. aldehyde
C. alkane
D. alkyne

A

C. alkane

53
Q
  1. Which of the following is produced when hydrogen is reacted with 2-butanone

A. tertiary alcohol
B. aldehyde
C. primary alcohol
D. secondary alcohol

A

D. secondary alcohol

54
Q
  1. Which of the following reactions are favored by polar aprotic solvent?

A. Both SN1 and SN2 reactions
B. SN1 reactions
C. None of the given choices
D. SN2 reactions

A

D. SN2 reactions

55
Q
  1. Benzene and its derivatives undergo substitution reactions instead of addition reactions because

A. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable pi-bonding pattern remains intact
B. the benzene ring is sterically crowded, hence, only substitution can occur
C. the hydrogens of benzene are relatively loosely bound
D. the benzene ring is electron rich

A

A. the integrity of the benzene ring and the stable pi-bonding pattern remains intact

56
Q
  1. Quantitative analysis of compounds can be done using

A. Ion exchange chromatography
B. Liquid chromatography
C. Gas chromatography
D. Thin layer chromatography

A

C. Gas chromatography

57
Q
  1. A mobile phase can be classified as
    I Solid Il Liquid III Gas

A. Il only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I only

A

C. II and III only

58
Q
  1. The lon exchange resin with a functional group of HSO3 exchanges ions with

A. Small cations and anions
B. Cations
C. Large cations and anions
D. Anions

A

B. Cations

59
Q
  1. In thin layer chromatography, the solvent or mobile phase contained in a closed chamber is a mixture of

A. a liquid and a gas
B. liquids
C. solids
D. gases

A

B. liquids

60
Q
  1. The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography plate is made up of

A. Wood
B. Fibre
C. Metal
D. Glass

A

D. Glass

61
Q
  1. Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis and isolation of

A. All of the given answers
B. Insoluble starch substances
C. Enzyme tyrosinase
D. Antibodies bound with a covalently-attached antigen on cellulose column

A

A. All of the given answers

62
Q
  1. Retardation factor is the ratio of

A. Distance moved by solvent from base line to distance moved by the substance from base line
B. Distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line
C. Distance moved by solvent from top line to distance moved by the substance from top line
D. Distance moved by substance from top line to distance moved by the solvent from top line

A

B. Distance moved by substance from base line to distance moved by the solvent from base line

63
Q
  1. Gas-solid chromatography is __________ chromatography as per basic principle involved.

A. Absorption
B. Adsorption
C. lon-exchange
D. Exclusion

A

C. lon-exchange

64
Q
  1. In chromatography, the relative solubility of solute in both the phases determines the

A. Rate of disappearance of solute
B. Rate of movement of solvent
C. Rate of disappearance of solvent
D. Rate of movement of solute

A

D. Rate of movement of solute

65
Q
  1. Which of the following chromatographic methods is most suitable for the analysis of high molecular weight compounds that are soluble in non-polar solvents?

A. gas-liquid
B. gel filtration
C. ion-exchange
D. gel permeation

A

D. gel permeation

66
Q
  1. In thin layer chromatography, the relative adsorption of each components of the mixture is expressed in terms of its ____________
    |
    A. Retardation factor
    B. Solubility factor
    C. Acceleration factor
    D. Both acceleration and retardation factor
A

A. Retardation factor

67
Q
  1. Column chromatography is based on the principle of __________

A. lon-exchange
B. Differential adsorption
C. Absorption
D. Exclusion principle

A

B. Differential adsorption

68
Q
  1. The components of the mixture in column chromatography are eluted in order of _________

A. Increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
B. Decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
C. Increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
D. Decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio

A

C. Increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio

69
Q
  1. Benzene has a smaller distribution ratio, D, in squalene than cyclohexane.
    Squalene is a aliphatic type of hydrocarbon. What is the order of elution of the two compounds from the GC column?
    D = [concentration of sample in stationary phase]/ [concentration of sample in mobile phase]

A. Benzene will be eluted first.
B. Cyclohexane will be eluted first.
C. The order of elution cannot be determined.
D. The two peaks will overlap.

A

A. Benzene will be eluted first.

70
Q
  1. The elution power of a solvent is determined by ________

A. Its overall polarity
B. The polarity of the stationary phase
C. All of the given answers
D. The nature of the sample components

A

C. All of the given answers

71
Q
  1. What is the wavelength range for UV spectrum of light?

A. 400 nm - 700 nm
B. 10 nm to 400 nm
C. 700 nm to 1 mm
D. 0.01 nm to 10 nm

A

B. 10 nm to 400 nm

72
Q
  1. Which is the correct statement from the following?

A. Molecular spectra is more complicated than atomic spectra
B. Molecular spectra arises from the transition of an electron between the molecular energy levels
C. In molecular transitions, electronic, rotational and vibration transitions occurs
D. All of the given choices

A

D. All of the given choices

73
Q
  1. The different types of energies associated with a molecule are _______

A. Electronic energy
B. Rotational energy
C. All of the given answers
D. Vibrational energy

A

C. All of the given answers

74
Q
  1. Alcohol and ether are often used as solvents. What is the disadvantage of using these compounds to dissolve analytes for spectroscopic analysis in the UV-visible region?

A. They react with the analyte given the energy at this region.
B. There solvents prevent the analyte from absorbing light.
C. They also absorb light at the UV-visible region.
D. They interfere in the transition of the electrons of the analyte.

A

D. They interfere in the transition of the electrons of the analyte.

75
Q
  1. Which of the following compounds would show the longest wavelength max in its UV spectrum?
                    O             O
               ||            ||               /\            /\ /    \         /    \              /\\  |  ||       |  ||          ||    ||        ||   |    \/            \/                 \   /               \//
                               ||
                                O I.             II.                  III.             IV.

A. I
B. III
C. II
D. IV

A

B. III

76
Q
  1. Which of the following is an application of electronic spectroscopy?

A. Study of kinetics of chemical reaction
B. Control of purification
C. All of the given answers
D. Detection of impurities

A

C. All of the given answers

77
Q
  1. Which of the following is a NOT a characteristic of chromophores?

A. May contain extensive conjugated double bonds
B. Contains unsaturated functional group
C. Added to ions that do not strongly absorb light in the UV-visible region
D. Absorbs strongly at 800 nm

A

D. Absorbs strongly at 800 nm

78
Q
  1. Which of the following is an application of molecular spectroscopy?

A. All of the given answers
B. Basis of understanding of colors
C. Structural investigation
D. Study of energetically excited reaction products

A

A. All of the given answers

79
Q
  1. A compound with a formula of C7H14O exhibits an IR peak at 1715 cm-1. The compound may be a/an

A. ketone
B. ether
C. ester
D. alcohol

A

A. ketone

80
Q
  1. At which region can be found the peaks due to N-H, C-H and O-H stretching and bending
    motions?

A. 2500 to 2000 cm-1
B. 1500 to 1000 cm-1
C. 4000 to 2500 cm-1
D. 2000 to 1500 cm-1

A

C. 4000 to 2500 cm-1

81
Q
  1. Hazardous wastes by definition may be all of the following EXCEPT _______

A. Explosive
B. Toxic
C. Corrosive
D. Reactive

A

A. Explosive

82
Q
  1. Which treatment of wastes can be done in site?

A. Air stripping
B. Chemical degradation
C. All of the given answers
D. Biodegradation

A

C. All of the given answers

83
Q
  1. Which treatment method is NOT typically used to remove organic compounds?

A. Thermal
B. Biological
C. Physical
D. Chemical

A

A. Thermal

84
Q
  1. The following are requirements for hazardous waste storage EXCEPT ________

A. The floors should be impermeable to liquids and resistant to attack by chemicals.
B. Drums should be preferably stored upright or pallets and stacked no more than four drums high.
C. The facility should be enclosed but ventilated.
D. The facility should be properly secured and can be easily accessed by anyone.

A

D. The facility should be properly secured and can be easily accessed by anyone.

85
Q
  1. Waste solvents which are halogenated should be placed in separate containers from non- halogenated waste solvents because _________

A. Non-halogenated waste solvents are more toxic.
B. They are not compatible with each other.
C. They will react with each other.
D. The cost to properly dispose halogenated waste solvents is higher.

A

D. The cost to properly dispose halogenated waste solvents is higher.

86
Q
  1. All of the following about hazardous waste containers are true, EXCEPT for the following ________

A. Containers must be closed except when removing or adding waste.
B. Any type of container, including food containers, can be used to contain hazardous waste.
C. Contents must be compatible with the type of waste containers.
D. Containers must be clean on the outside.

A

B. Any type of container, including food containers, can be used to contain hazardous waste.

87
Q
  1. Segregation of waste organic solvents is very important because _________

A. The costs for disposal of waste solvents differ.
B. Some waste solvents can still be recycled.
C. Waste solvents differ in proper treatment.
D. All of the given answers

A

D. All of the given answers

88
Q
  1. Which method is considered an unacceptable means of disposing waste?

A. All methods given are unacceptable
B. Pouring down the sink
C. Placing in the regular trash
D. Pouring down the drainage canal

A

A. All methods given are unacceptable

89
Q
  1. If you discover that a hazardous waste container has a minor leak, what should you do?

A. Patch the leaking hazardous waste container.
B. Place the leaking container on to a secondary container so that the waste will be properly collected until it is removed from the laboratory.
C. Immediately transfer the hazardous waste to another empty container in good condition.
D. Immediately notify the Pollution Control Officer so that an environmental report may be filed with the regulatory agency.

A

C. Immediately transfer the hazardous waste to another empty container in good condition.

90
Q
  1. How is clean, unbroken or broken glass waste to be disposed of?

A. Into a cardboard box lined with a black bag and taped. For small quantities of broken glass, put into sharps containers.
B. Into containers lined with black bags
C. Into containers lined with yellow bags.
D. Into containers lined with clear bags

A

A. Into a cardboard box lined with a black bag and taped. For small quantities of broken glass, put into sharps containers.

91
Q
  1. When a chemical splashes in the eye, rinse for

A. 10 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 5 minutes
D. 15 minutes

A

D. 15 minutes

92
Q
  1. Which of the following colors used on the “NFPA diamond” chemical hazard warning label represents the health hazard?

A. Red
B. Blue
C. Yellow
D. White

A

B. Blue

93
Q
  1. Which is the correct procedure for mixing acid and water?

A. Pour acid into water
B. Pour them at the same time
C. Pour water into acid
D. Let the supervisor pour them

A

A. Pour acid into water

94
Q
  1. The sign shown below indicates what type of safety hazard? (there is fire in image)

A. Chemical-hazardous liquids; danger to skin and other materials
B. Flammable - possible burn hazard; use caution
C. Toxic-poisonous if touched, swallowed, or inhaled
D. Radioactivity - radioactive materials; use caution

A

B. Flammable - possible burn hazard; use caution

95
Q
  1. Which of the sign shown below indicates warning about corrosive chemicals?
    I. Chemicals
    II. Skull
    III. Fire
    IV. Lightning

A. II
B. IV
C. I
D. III

A

C. I

96
Q
  1. Which of the following is an acceptable practice when working in a chemical laboratory?

A. Wearing a laboratory coat and safety goggles while performing the analysis
B. Wearing sandals or open-toed shoes
C. Eating and drinking inside the chemical laboratory
D. Wearing gloves to touch door handles, elevator buttons, etc.

A

A. Wearing a laboratory coat and safety goggles while performing the analysis

97
Q
  1. Which of the following pair is not correct about NFPA diamond chemical label hazard warning?

A. Blue: 0 highly toxic
B. Blue: health
C. Red: flammability
D. Red: 0 non-flammable

A

A. Blue: 0 highly toxic

98
Q
  1. What type of safety hazard is indicated by the sign shown below (image shows fan like picture)

A. Toxic - poisonous if touched, swallowed, or inhaled
B. Biological - harmful to humans.
C. Radioactivity - radioactive materials; use caution
D. Chemical-hazardous liquids; danger to skin and other materials

A

C. Radioactivity - radioactive materials; use caution

99
Q
  1. Flammable liquids burn only when their vapor is mixed with air in the appropriate concentration. When handling flammable liquids you should _____

A. avoid nearby sources of ignition
B. use adequately ventilated work areas
C. keep containers closed except during transfer of contents
D. minimize the creation of flammable vapors

A

A. avoid nearby sources of ignition

100
Q
  1. Organic peroxides are particularly dangerous when _________

A. concentrated
B. all of the above
C. when ethyl ether or tetrahydrofuran is left open to the air and allowed to evaporate
D. heated

A

B. all of the above

CHEMICAL TECHNICIAN (4 decks)

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