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Jetblue 320 > SPV > Flashcards

SPV Flashcards

1
Q

You see a flashing amber OPEN light next to the cockpit door switch (and aural alarm). What does this mean?

A

Someone in cabin has started the emergency access procedure

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2
Q

With emergency exit light in the ARM position, what causes the emergency lighting system to illuminate?

A

Exit signs/overhead emergency/floor proximity lights illuminate with loss of electric power

Exit signs only with excessive cabin alt

Exit signs illuminate when LG extends if the NO SMOKING switch is in AUTO

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3
Q

With the STROBE sw in AUTO, when will the strobe lights operate?

A

They come on automatically with Weight Off Wheels

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4
Q

With LAND switches OFF, what is the status of the landing lights?

A

Lights are extended but OFF

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5
Q

Which lights illuminate with the EMER EXIT LT selected ON?

A

Overhead emergency
EXIT lights
Floor proximity emergency escape path

Note: internal battery’s (EPSUs) are not charged in this position and may only last 10 min)

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6
Q

What happens to the nosewheel response to tiller input as gs increases?

A

Deflection response is reduced as speed increases

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7
Q

What does a FAULT light in the TERR PB mean?

A

1) terrain detection function failure

2) basic modes 1-5 still operational

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8
Q

What will occur if TERR PB is selected OFF?

A

Inhibits the database terrain detection function and keeps basic GPWS modes 1-5 operable

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9
Q

What does GPWS SYS FAULT light indicate?

A

Basic GPWS Mode 1-5 malfunction

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10
Q

What is inhibited when the GS MODE PB is selected OFF?

A

Mode 5 Glideslope mode (“glideslope” aural) is inhibited

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11
Q

What will occur if you select the FLAP MODE PB OFF?

A

Flap mode 4 “TOO LOW FLAPS” is inhibited to avoid nuisance warnings when landing with reduced flap setting

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12
Q

What occurs when LDG 3 FLAP PB is selected ON?

A

Flap mode 4 “TOO LOW FLAPS” is inhibited when FLAPS CONF 3 is selected. In this case, the ECAM LDG MEMO displays “FLAPS…3” instead of “FLAPS FULL”

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13
Q

Do we receive an ECAM message when the SMOKE light illuminated and aural alert annunciate?

A

No, system is aftermarket and has no suppression or ECAM alert

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14
Q

What does the RACK POWER SMOKE light and associated aural alert indicate?

A

Smoke detected in the aft avionics rack

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15
Q

If the SMOKE light in the RACK POWER illuminated and the associated aural alert is present, what would you expect to see on the associated ECAM?

A

Nothing

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16
Q

If an emergency access is initiated how much time do you have to select LOCK in order to prevent unauthorized access?

A

Select LOCK within 30 sec to deny entry

That locks the cockpit for 5 mins

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17
Q

Which cockpit lighting is available on battery power only?

A 
The RH (FO) dome light
The CAPT flood lights
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18
Q

With the EMER EXIT LT set to ARM when will the overhead emergency lights illuminate?

A

Loss of normal electrical power

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19
Q

With the EMER EXIT LT set to ARM, when will the EXIT SIGNS illuminate?

A

1) loss of normal electrical power
2) excessive cabin alt
3) with NO SMOKING sign in AUTO, they come on with LG down

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20
Q

With the EVAC switch in the CAPT position and an alert activated from the CABIN, what indications would be present in the cockpit?

A

1) cockpit horn sounds for 3 sec
2) CAPT sw: if activated from the cabin, the signal will only be apparent in the flight deck and will only sound in the fight deck for 3 sec

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21
Q

The lights in the EMER switch flash and you hear 3 long buzzers sound in the flight deck. What does this indicate?

A

An emergency call has been made from the cabin to the flight deck.

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22
Q

Which button should be used to communicate with the cabin in an emergency?

A

EMER CALL button

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23
Q

What happens when you press MECH PB?

A

COCKPIT CALL illuminates down below and a horn sounds as long as button is held

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24
Q

When are the CVR and FDR energized with the RCRD GND CTL PB in AUTO (extinguished)

A

AUTO:
On ground: 5 min after electrical power to the aircraft or after engine start
Stops automatically 5 mins after engine shutdown

In flight: continuously

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25
Q

When does a flashing amber CALL light indicate?

A

Incoming call detected from SATCOM system

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26
Q

What does a flashing ATC MSG indicate?

A

ATC message received by CPDLC

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27
Q

If a CPDLC message is too long to display on one screen, which button is selected to view the next page of the message?

A

PGE +/- button on the RH side of the display

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28
Q

What is the primary difference on the engine warning display (EWD) as associated with the engine monitoring on the NEO Pratt n Whitney engines?

A

N1 replaces EPR (top of display) as primary engine parameter

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29
Q

Due to improved stall margins on the PW1000G, logic for the automatic selection of continuous ignition is changed
Unlike CEO engines , the following DO NOT trigger cont ignition

A
  • engine A/I
  • TOGA or FLX thrust
  • approach idle (flaps >0)
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30
Q

T or F

With the use of DUAL COOLING is it acceptable to start both PW 1100G engines simultaneously?

A

False

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31
Q

Airborne traffic situational awareness (ATSAW) utilizes what technology to provide enhanced traffic awareness?

A

ADS-B in/ADS B out

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32
Q

Turbulence detection has been extended to ___mi and is indicated in ___ on the ND with the enhanced “Hazard V2” weather radar

A

60 / magenta

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33
Q

The soft go around function automatically adapts the thrust to maintain approx what rate of climb?

A

2000 FPM

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34
Q

To initiate soft Go around pilot should move the thrust levers to:

A

TOGA initially then back to FLX/MCT detent

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35
Q

What is the position of the Pack Flow Control valves when the APU BLEED is on?

A

High flow is provided if the APU is supplying bleed air(and in single pack operation regardless of selector position)

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36
Q

What happens to the ENG BLEED valves when the APU BLEED valve opens?

A

They close

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37
Q

Regardless of sw position, what pack flow is provided during single pack operations?

A

High

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38
Q

What is indicated by a FAULT light in the HOT AIR PB

A

Duct overheat

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39
Q

If the APU BLEED VALVE is open and the X BLEED selector is in AUTO, what is the position of the X BLEED valve?

A

Open

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40
Q

With the LDG ELEV selector in auto, how is the LDG elev set?

A

FMGC database

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41
Q

What does the FAULT light in the MODE SEL switch indicate? (CABIN PRESS PANEL)

A

Both CAB PR systems have failed

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42
Q

What happens to the ventilation system when either the BLOWER or EXTRACT PB are selected to OVRD?

A

Air is added to the ventilation air from the air conditioning system

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43
Q

What happens when the DITCHING PB is selected ON?

A

Closes the inlets and valves below the “water line”

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44
Q

With both ENGs running, APU supplying bleed air, and the X BLEED sw in AUTO, what is the position of the X BLEED valve?

A

X BLEED OPEN

ENG 1/2 VALVE CLOSED

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45
Q

On takeoff what speed does SRS command with both engines operating?

A

V2+10

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46
Q

On takeoff what speed does SRS command of an engine failure is detected?

A

V2 or current speed, whatever is greater but not more than V2+15

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47
Q

When does the airplane exit SRS Mode?

A

Automatically at acceleration alt or when another vertical mode is selected

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48
Q

With V/S active what would happen if you select a higher speed?

A

Thrust will increase (up to CLB if needed) until the selected speed is attained. Then the thrust will reduce to maintain selected speed

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49
Q

Based on the PFD shown, what thrust is being commanded? (Speed selected is below indicated in a descent)

A

Thrust at idle since speed selected is below indicated in a descent

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50
Q

During a normal takeoff when will the A/THR become engaged?

A

After the thrust lever is moved to the CLB detent

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51
Q

In a managed climb, what FMA changes will occur if you pull HDG?

A

NAV Mode will change to HDG, CLB Mode will change to OP CLB

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52
Q

In a managed descent what FMA changes will occur if you pull HDG?

A

NAV Mode will change to HDG
DES Mode will change to V/S
THR Mode will change to SPEED

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53
Q

During an ILS apch, at approx what alt will the LOC/GS indication change to LAND on the FMA and what does that mean?

A

Below 400’ RA
LAND means LOC and GS are locked, no action on the FCU will disengage the LAND mode FLARE and ROLLOUT modes will successively engage

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54
Q

During an automand when do expect the FMA FLARE indication to appear?

A

40’ RA

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55
Q

During an auto land, with the FMA FLARE displayed, what actions are occurring with the autopilot and autothrust?

A

A/P aligns yaw axis with runway centerline and flares in pitch

AT reduced thrust to idle if engaged

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56
Q

During autoland what does ROLL OUT mean?

A

The AP is guiding the aircraft along the runway centerline

The yaw bar is displayed on the PFD

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57
Q

What are 3 ways you can disconnect auto thrust?

A

1) press AUTOTHRUST INSTINCTIVE DISCONNECT PB
2) move both thrust levers to IDLE
3) push A/THR PB on FCU (this causes thrust lock)

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58
Q

In level flight with thrust levers in the CL detent, what will happen to the thrust of you press the instinctive disconnect PB?

A

Thrust will go to CL to match actual lever position

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59
Q

What does THR LK mean?

A

Thrust is fixed at current setting

To fix: move thrust levers

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60
Q

How do you get out of THR LK?

A

Move the thrust levers

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61
Q

What triggers A.FLOOR protection to engage?

A
  • a predetermined AOA

- A/THR will command TOGA thrust regardless of TL position

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62
Q

When the A.FLOOR mode triggers what does A/THR command?

A

TOGA

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63
Q

What does TOGA LK mean?

A

TOGA thrust is still being commanded after alpha floor triggering cond no longer met

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64
Q

How do you get out of TOGA LK?

A

Disconnect A/THR

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65
Q

During a go around what FMA indications will confirm that the a/c has entered GA phase?

A

MAN TOGA, SRS

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66
Q

The aircraft is in normal law and autothrust is off. Is ALPHA FLOOR available?

A

Yes

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67
Q

When the aircraft leaves A.FLOOR what FMA changes will occur?

A

A. FLOOR changes to TOGA LK

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68
Q

If AC bus 1 fails, will the AC ESS BUS remain powered?

A

Yes

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69
Q

If AC bus 1 fails, what bus supplies AC ESS BUS?

A

Ac BUS 2

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70
Q

What is indicated by a FAULT LT in the GEN PB?

A

ASSOCIATED GCU trips

In line contractor opens (except if GEN PB is selected OFF)

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71
Q

What does a BATT OFF LT represent?

A

1) batt charger limiter is not operating
2) OFF LT illuminates if DC BATT bus is powered
3) hot buses remain powered

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72
Q

What does the green EXT PWR AVAIL light indicate

A

Ext power is connected

Goes out when ON is illuminated or EXT power is pulled

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73
Q

What does the blue EXT PWR ON light mean?

A

Ext power is available and powering the plane

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74
Q

What does the battery charger limiter automatically control (when bat 1&2 are selected ON)

A

Connect or disconnect the corresponding battery to the DC BAT BUS (closes or opens the battery line contractor)

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75
Q

What does a batt FAULT light mean?

A

Charging current for battery outside limits, so the contractor opens. Amber light and EICAM caution

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76
Q

What does the Ac ESS FEED FAULT light represent?

A

AC ESS BUS not powered

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77
Q

What does FAULT light in IDG 2 PB mean?

A

High oil temp or low oil press

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78
Q

During a 1 eng taxi,

Which gen is powering AC BUS 1?

A

Gen 1

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79
Q

During a one eng taxi which GEN is powering AC BUS 2?

A

APU (bus the bus tie)

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80
Q

Gen 1 ON
Gen 2 OFF
EXT PWR ON

What electrical sources are powering AC BUS 1 and 2?

A

GEN 1 - AC BUS 1

EXT PWR - AC BUS 2

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81
Q

What does the smoke light in the GEN 1 LINE PB mean?

A

Smoke detected in the avionics vent duct

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82
Q

What happens when the GEN 1 LINE PB is selected OFF?

A

GEN 1 contactor opens
AC BUS 1 channel supplied from GEN 2 through the BTC
Separate circuit is energized from GEN 1 to supply power to one fuel pump on each main tank

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83
Q

What does RAT & EMER GEN FAULT mean?

A

EMERGENCY GEN is not supplying power when AC BUS 1 & 2 are not powered

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84
Q

With the RAT MAN ON switch in auto, what will cause the RAT to deploy?

A

AC BUS 1&2 not supplied and greater than 100kts

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85
Q

What will happen if you press the RED guarded MAN ON PB?

A

Manual RAT extension, even on the ground

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86
Q

Which hydraulic system is pressurized by deployment of the RAT?

A

Blue

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87
Q

How long does it take for the EMER GEN to couple after RAT deployment?

A

Approx 8 sec

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88
Q

What automatically occurs if you have an APU Fire on the ground?

A

Auto shutdown and extinguisher activation

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89
Q

What does illumination of the FAULT light in the APU master switch indicate?

A

APU Auto shutdown has occurred

90
Q

What does the green AVAIL light in the APU START PB mean?

A

The APU start sequence is complete and the APU generator is available for use

91
Q

What does the cyan ON light indicate after the APU START PB has been pressed?

A

APU starter is energized

92
Q

Does this represent a good ENG FIRE TEST?

DISCH in amber and red FIRE

A

No the white squib lights aren’t illuminated

93
Q

What do the white squib lights indicate?

A

The fire extinguishing system is armed

94
Q

What denotes a successful engine fire system test?

A

CRC, MW lights (2), ENG FIRE PB illuminates red, SQUIB lights, DISCH lights, ENG FIRE 1 (2) warning on EICAM, FIRE light on ENG panel red

95
Q

What does DISCH 1 represent?

A

Bottle 1 has low pressure

96
Q

When you discharge agent 2, what indication to you expect to immediately see on the cargo smoke panel?

A

DISCH AGENT 2 light extinguished when squib 2 is ignited

97
Q

When will the DISCH AGENT 2 light illuminate?

A

DISCH agent 2 takes up to 60 minutes after discharge of AGENT 1

98
Q

What is the effect of selecting RACK POWER OFF?

A

Power is removed from the aft avionics compartment panel. All controlled systems completely shut off

99
Q

What does the SMOKE light indicate on the RACK POWER PB?

A

Smoke detected in the compartment. Red and aural alert

100
Q

Illumination of a SQUIB light means…

A

Fire extinguishing system is armed

101
Q

Pushing and releasing an ENG FIRE PB closes what valves?

A
  1. LP fuel valve
  2. Hyd Fire shutoff valve
  3. Eng bleed valve
  4. Pack flow control valve
102
Q

Pushing and releasing an ENG FIRE PB accomplished what action?

A
  1. Silences the aural warning
  2. Arms the squibs
  3. Closes fuel LP valve
  4. Closes hyd Fire s/o valve
  5. Closes bleed valve
  6. Closes pack flow control valve
  7. Cuts off FADEC power supply
  8. Sends IDG offline
103
Q

In alternate law what are you commanding when you move the side stick forward and aft?

A

Load factor
(Neutral equals 1g)
(Same as normal law but reduced protections)

104
Q

In alt law what are you commanding when you move the stick left and right?

A

Direct sidestick to roll control surface position relationship

105
Q

In normal law what happens if both pilots move their sidestick simultaneously?

A

The inputs are algebraically summed (limited to the max deflection of a single sidestick)

106
Q

What is required to lock out a faulty side?

A

Press and hold for 40 sec locks out the other sidestick

107
Q

With a sidestick locked out, is AP available?

A

YES

108
Q

The (FLT CTL) ELACs control which functions?

A

Elevator Aileron computer (functions include listed controls and horizontal stabilizer)

109
Q

The (FLT CTL) SECs control which functions?

A

Spoiler elevator computer

Functions include listed controls and horizontal stabilizer

110
Q

The FACs control which functions?

A

FAC- flight augmentation computer

  • electrical Rudder control
  • flight envelope functions
  • low level energy warning
  • windshear detection
111
Q

What does the white OFF light indicate when associated with a (FLT CTL) ELAC, SEC or FAC?

A

Computer is deactivated

112
Q

During manual flight you notice on the glare shield these two lights flashing. What does that indicate?
(CAPT in green F/O in green)

A

Dual input

Both side sticks are being used simultaneously and an aural “DUAL INPUT” warning

113
Q

If both pilots are pulling back slightly in their sticks what is the response of the aircraft?

A

A more pronounced pitch up since the inputs are algebraically summed

114
Q

Both pilots should not make control inputs at the same time. If a pilot needs to take over the controls what should be done to prevent dual input?

A

Press and hold the AP/TAKEOVER button

115
Q

During manual flight you see the indications below and hear the aural alert “PRIORITY RIGHT”. What does it mean?
(Red arrow pointing right and GREEN F/O)

A

The FO is holding the takeover Pb and inputs are being commanded on the CAs side stick.

116
Q

To lock out the Captain side sidestick how long must the FO hold the takeover PB?

A

40 sec

117
Q

Can the AP be engaged after a sidestick is locked out?

A

Yes

118
Q

What do the green hash marks mean to either side of the AI?

A

Bank angle limit in normal law

119
Q

Can you exceed the g load protections in normal law?

A

No

120
Q

Can the aircraft stall in alternate law?

A

Yes

121
Q

Is load factor protection available in alt law?

A

Yes

122
Q

Is auto trimming available in alternate law?

A

Yes

123
Q

In alternate law after lowering the LG, the PFD displays this message, what has occurred? “USE MAN PITCH TRIM”

A

Reversion to direct law

124
Q

If the speed brake lever is armed what is required to activate the ground spoilers during an RTO?

A

Speed >72kts
TLs at/near idle

If NOT ARMED
Speed >72kts
TLs at least one in reverse and the other near idle

125
Q

With the AP on what max speed brake is available?

320 vs 321

A

Half / full

126
Q

List at least two conditions in which the soeedbrakes automatically retract

A

In flight flaps FULL (320)
(Flaps 3 and FULL for 321)
Alpha prot
TOGA selected

127
Q

Speed brakes are inhibited (and will auto retract if extended) in relation to what flap position? 320 vs 321

A

320: full
321: 3 or full

128
Q

In normal law what occurs as the aircraft slows to alpha protection?

A

AOA protection becomes active and…”ASAP”
A- autopilot disconnects
S- speed brakes retract
A- sidestick behavior changes from load factor demand to AOA proportional to sidestick deflection
P- pitch trim (nose up) inhibited

129
Q

What flight control law is represented by the indications shown on the air speed tape?

A

Normal law

130
Q

If the speed brakes are extended what will occur if airspeed decreases below the speed shown by the arrow?

A

Speed brakes auto retract at alpha prot

131
Q

What protection occurs at a predetermined angle of attack between alpha prot and alpha max?

A

Alpha floor protection engages.

AT provides TOGA

132
Q

What does alpha max represent?

A

The max angle of attack the aircraft can obtain in normal law

133
Q

If the sidestick is held full aft will alpha max be exceeded?

A

No, not in normal law

134
Q

If the stick is held full aft will the aircraft enter a stall?

A

No

135
Q

During the apch in normal law you hear the aural warning SPEED SPEED SPEED what does this represent?

A

Low energy warning. Thrust must be increased. Decreasing pitch alone is not enough to recover a positive flight angle.

136
Q

What flight control law is represented by the indications shown on the air speed tape?

A

Alternate/direct law

137
Q

In alternate law what will occur as airspeed approaches Vsw?

A

With low speed stability a gentle nose down command is initiated which attempts to keep the speed from slowing further.

138
Q

In alternate law what would occur if the sidestick is pulled further aft?
(Shows nose high speed decreasing)

A

The airplane can be stalled in alternate law

139
Q

Given this indication what will occur if the sidestick is pulled or held aft?

A

With low speed stability a gentle nose down command is initiated which attempts to keep the speed from slowing. This command can be overridden by the sidestick

140
Q

What is indicated by the green equals sign on the speed tape?

A

The speed at which normal law overspeed protection becomes active Vmo +6kt

141
Q

What occurs when you hit the green equal sign on the speed tape?

A

A pitch up demand is introduced, AP disconnects. Pilot sidestick authority is reduced and cannot overpower the automatic pitch up

142
Q

With the AP on and ATs engaged and the apch phase activated, reference the airspeed indications as shown…
If you “push speed” what will the ATs maintain?

A

F speed

143
Q

With the AP on ATs on and apch phase activated reference the airspeed indications shown here…
If you manually select 130kt what will happen?

A

Target bug can be set but aircraft will only slow to Vls

144
Q

What happens when you press either guarded NAV key on RMP 1 or 2?

A

Returns control of the NAV radios to FMGC.

Turns off green light

145
Q

After pressing either guarded NAV key on RMP 1 or 2, what happens if you press NAV a second time?

A

Returns control of the NAV radios to FMGC

146
Q

Why would you press the guarded NAV PB on an RMP?

A

Dual MCDU/FMGC failure

147
Q

What does the magenta dot at KARRS indicate?

A

The point when managed speed will indicate a change to meet a speed limit, constraint or holding speed

148
Q

What does the 120 deg bent magenta arrow just last BOTON indicate?

A

The level off point for a descent due to a constraint entered in the MCDU

149
Q

What do the blue symbols at HOGGS indicate?

A

Intercept the vertical profile and continue the managed descent

150
Q

In cruise you are painting an area of wx 35NM ahead. With the radar panel and EFIS panel set as shown below, would you be able to identify turbulence in the area of wx?

A

Yes

Turb is depicted in magenta within 40NM (selected range not a factor)

151
Q

Flying at night around TSs, what control is used to adjust the brightness level of the wx depiction on your ND?

A

Outer ND brightness knob

152
Q

How does positioning the GAIN knob slightly (clockwise) our of the AUTO position affect display of radar returns on the ND?

A

GAIN would then be manually set to minimum

153
Q

Assume hat the radar system was selected off. Windshear is predicted ahead of your flight path. Will you receive a predictive windshear alert?

A

Yes

154
Q

When using STBY NAV how would you change a VHF1 radio freq?

A

Select VHF 1
Enter new freq in STBY
Transfer freq to ACTIVE
Do not turn off the NAV key

155
Q

Which portion of the system (ADR or IR) provides altitude and heading information?

A

IR

156
Q

When will the ON BAT light illuminate?

A

Illuminated when one or more IRs are supplied by only one aircraft battery, or comes on for a few sec as a test at the beginning of a full align.

157
Q

What external indications will alert personnel that the IRS are ON BAT?

A

An external horn sounds, ADIRU-AVNCS BLUE LIGHT illuminated on EXT PWR panel, except during a test

158
Q

What is indicated by a flashing IR FAULT light?

A

flashes when alt and HDG may be recovered in ATT mode

159
Q

What is indicated by a flashing ALIGN?

A
  1. IR alignment fault
  2. No present position entry after 10 mins
  3. Difference between position at shutdown and entered position exceeds 1 deg of lat or long
  4. A/C movement
160
Q

What is indicated by a steady IR FAULT light?

A

Respective IR is lost

161
Q

Which portion of the system (ADE or IR) provides basic baro altitude, airspeed and AOA info?

A

ADR

162
Q

When performing the abnormal V alpha prot memory items, which controls should be used to select OFF 2 of the 3 ADRs?

A

ADR PB not a rotary sw

163
Q

Why does SOP require that the ATC selector be operated in pos 1?

A

Only system 1 is available in emergency electrical configuration

164
Q

With fuel in the center tank, when do the center tank pumps run with the MODE SEL in AUTO?

A
  • center tank pumps run at eng start 2 mins
  • before or after engine start, pumps run with slats retracted and fuel in center tank
  • center tank pump stopsb5 min after tank empty (low level reached)
165
Q

Does center tank fuel in the A321 directly feed the engines?

A

No
320 it does
321 fuel goes to wing tanks

166
Q

What is indicated by a FAULT light in a fuel pump sw?

A

Delivery pressure dropped

167
Q

If a fuel pump FAULT light comes on in flight what will allow engines to run?

A

Yes…Gravity feed.

168
Q

What is indicated by the white ON XFEED light?

A

In transit, valve opening

169
Q

What is indicated by the blue OPEN XFEED light?

A

Valve is fully open

170
Q

In flight with fuel in both wing tanks if all tank pumps failed would the engines continue to run?

A

Yes

Gravity feed from wing tanks only

171
Q

With the MODE SEL in AUTO and fuel in center tank, will fuel feed directly to the engine from the center tank?

A

No. Must transfer to the wing tanks first

172
Q

What is represented by a FAULT light in the center tank MODE SEL PB?

A

Fuel isn’t being transferred center tank to wing tanks like it should. (Also center tank has 550lb + and wing tanks less than 11k lbs

173
Q

If the RAT is extended by the hydraulic RAN MAN ON PB what hydraulic system is powered by the RAT?

A

Blue

174
Q

If the RAT is extended by the hydraulic RAT MAN ON PB, will the electric EMER GEN couple to the aircraft electrical system?

A

No

175
Q

If the Y electrical pump is not turned on during a one engine taxi, what hydraulic systems are powered once the parking brake is selected on?

A

Just green and blue are powered.
Yellow isn’t powered with 1 eng master ON and parking brake ON.
PTU is inhibited in this configuration

176
Q

If you forget to turn on the Y pump during single eng taxi, the G & B systems will still be powered. Which hyd systems will operate if the parking brake is selected OFF?

A

All of them.

Yellow is powered through the PTU (1 eng on and parking brake off)

177
Q

After parking at the gate the PTU will operate upon shutdown of the second engine until or unless what occurs?

A

Cargo door operation or

No longer a >500psi differential between green and yellow systems upon spool Down of eng 2

178
Q

What would cause the PTU FAULT light?

A

1) green or yellow reservoir overheats
2) G or Y reservoir has low air pressure
3) G or Y low fluid

The FAULT light stays on as long as overheat is active

179
Q

In flight when will the PTU operate with the PB in AUTO?

A

> 500psi difference between Y and G

180
Q

With the RAT MAN ON PB armed when will the RAT deploy automatically?

A

Both AC1 and AC2 lost AND airspeed >100kt

181
Q

What will occur when RAT MAN ON PB is pressed?

A

1) RAT will deploy

2) blue system pressure restored

182
Q

What is the difference between pressing the RAT MAN ON button the HYD panel vs the MAN ON button on the EMER ELEC PWR panel?

A

Electrics will not couple

183
Q

When is the PTU inhibited?

A

1) first eng start
2) one ENG master ON & PARK BRK set
3) NSW DISC on EICAM
4) cargo door operation

184
Q

When is the PTU automatically tested?

A

The PTU is automatically tested during the second engine start

185
Q

You experience a G RSVR OVHT ECAM caution. After completing the non-normal procedure the FAULT lights remain illuminated (ENG 1 PUMP FAULT/ PTU FAULT) but then extinguish several minutes later. When the lights extinguish, what does that indicate?

A

The overhead condition has abated

186
Q

Prior to starting eng 2 during a one engine taxi, why is the Y ELEC PUMP turned OFF?

A

Permits automatic PTU test during second engine start

187
Q

Why is the hydraulic YELLOW ELEC PUMP required to be turned ON during ONE ENGINE TAXI?

A

1) prevents PTU operation while taxiing (noisy) due to no pressure differential
2) hydraulic source for yellow system braking

188
Q

When are the probes and windows heated automatically?

A

In flight

On ground with one engine running (except TAT probes)

189
Q

With loss of electrical power, which position do the engine anti ice valves fail?

A

Open

190
Q

With loss of electrical power, in which position do the wing anti ice valves fail?

A

Engines: open
Wings: closed

191
Q

What affect does each turn of the GEAR EXTN handle have?

A

Pull crank out
Turn clockwise 3 turns
This releases hydraulic pressure to the gear, opens gear doors, unlocks gear

192
Q

Assuming loss of green and yellow system, what source is available for braking?

A

Yellow BRK ACCU PR only

193
Q

By selecting the A/SKID and NW STRG switch OFF, what does this have on the breaking system?

A

Green hyd pressure is shut off to the normal brake system.

Yellow supplies pressure to the brakes without anti skid protection

194
Q

What do the red UNLK lights mean on the landing gear panel?

A

Landing gear is not in the locked position

195
Q

If the DECEL light fails to illuminate after landing, what does that indicate?

A

The predetermined deceleration rate has NOT been achieved

196
Q

What does the A/THR annunciation LVR ASYM mean?

A

Appears amber if, with A/THR active, both engines running, one thrust lever is out of the CLB detent

197
Q

With the ENG MODE SEL switch in norm (one engine running) when is cont ignition automatically selected?

A

1) T/O power is set (TOGA or FLX)
2) engine anti ice is on
3) engine surge or stall in flight
4) flap handle out of zero in flight

198
Q

What does the flashing LVR CLB indication mean?

A

Thrust levers are not in CLB detent, both engines running, above the thrust reduction altitude

199
Q

What does the flashing LVR MCT mean?

A

Power is not set to MCT, after eng failure, above green dot, clean config (NOTE that the TLs May be in the FLX/MCT detent)

200
Q

How can you extinguish LVR MCT?

A

Move thrust levers out of MCT detent and back into MCT detent

201
Q

A valid cockpit voice recorder test will occur if what conditions are met when the CVR TEST PB is pressed?

A

Pressed and held
Parking brake on

A low frequency sound plays on speakers

202
Q

What does the dashes green arc mean on the ND (just inside the heading arc)

A

Required distance to land from present position

203
Q

When does the dashed green arc appear (just inside heading arc)

A

Only displayed in descent or approach phase when a lateral mode is engaged (HDG or TRK)

204
Q

What is the difference between the yellow side slip indicator and the blue beta target?

A

Turns blue in case of engine failure during takeoff or go around

Yellow=sideslip
Blue=optimal sideslip with eng failed

205
Q

When will the blue BETA target index replace the turn and slip indicator?

A

Eng failure on takeoff or go around

206
Q

Why is it important to center the blue BETA target index?

A

The amount of sideslip is optimized for best single eng performance (May result in a slight bank)

207
Q

When TO INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT are displayed on the lower right side of the E/WD what does this mean?

A

Only failures/fires that require immediate recognition are displayed. All others are suppressed.

208
Q

When is LDG INHIBIT active?

A

During landing (800 ft or 80kt)

209
Q

On takeoff when is TO INHIBIT active?

A

Takeoff power up to 1500’ or 2 mins after takeoff

210
Q

What will happen if you press and hold the ALL push button on the ECAM control panel?

A

Cycles through all the system pages as long as it’s being pressed

211
Q

What occurs when you press TO CONFIG?

A

Simulated application of TO POWER

212
Q

What happens when you press the EMER CANC Pb for a warning?

A

Cancels any aural warnings present as long as failure continues

Extinguishes MW lights

Doesn’t affect EICAM display

213
Q

What happens if you press EMER CANC for a caution?

A

Cancels any caution for the remainder of the flight

Calls up status page which will display the cancelled caution

214
Q

Which buttons remain operative in an ECAM control panel failure?

A

CLR
RCL
STS
EMER CNCL

215
Q

What does RCL do?

A

Calls up warning or caution msgs that have been inhibited or cleared

216
Q

What is represented by the white SYS ON light?

A

Auto or manual signal to open o2 mask doors has been triggered (auto 14,000ft cabin alt)

217
Q

What occurs when the MASK MAN ON PB has been pressed

A

Mask doors manually signaled to open

218
Q

What triggers the signal to be sent for deployment of pax o2 masks when MASK MAN ON PB is guarded in auto

A

Masks will deploy when cabin press 14,000ft

219
Q

When the crew supply PB OFF light is on, hat secondary indication will be displayed and where?

A

Valve is closed accompanied by an amber OXY indication on ECAM door page

220
Q

After replacing the o2 mak why do you have to press the TEST/RESET BUTTON

A

Cut off o2 to the mask and turns off o2 mask mic

Jetblue 320 (5 decks)

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