Spotlight Lectures Weeks 1-6 (Midterm) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms of antibiotic resistance?

A

1) Modifications of the Antibiotic Molecule
2) Decreased Antibiotic Penetration and Efflux
3) Changes in Target Sites
4) Resistance Due to Global Cell Adaptations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the purpose of antibiotic stewardship?

A
  • measure antibiotic prescribing (who has access)
  • improve antibiotic prescribing by clinicals and use by patients (only when needed)
  • minimize misdiagnoses or delayed diagnoses
  • ensure that the right drug, dose, and duration are selected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define bactericidal

A

kills sensitive organisms so that number of viable organisms fall rapidly after exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define bacteriostatic

A

inhibits growth of bacteria but does not kill them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 3 antimicrobial spectrums?

A

1) Narrow- spectrum: agent is active against a single species or limited group of pathogens
2) Broad-spectrum: agent is active against a wide range of pathogens
3) Extended-spectrum: agent falls in between (intermediate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the components of a gram-positive bacterial cell wall?

A

lipoteichoic acid
peptidoglycan cell wall
plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the components of a gram-negative bacterial cell wall?

A

outer lipid membrane
peptidoglycan
plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

All beta-lactam antibiotics interfere with ___

A

bacterial cell wall synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Inhibition of bacterial transpeptidase (penicillin-binding protein) ___

A

inhibits peptidoglycan cross-linking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Penicillin V is a ____ antibiotic

A

narrow-spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Penicillin V is administered in an ___

A

oral suspension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the adverse effects of penicillin V?

A

GI upset, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, rash, hypersensitivity reactions (rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What illness is penicillin typically used for?

A

Group A streptococcal pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Amoxicillin is an ____ penicillin that results in greater activity against additional ____

A

extended-spectrum
gram-negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cephalosporins are a large group of antibiotics that have greater ___

A

structural diversity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cephalosporins are more resistant to ___ and increases their range of antimicrobial activity

A

beta-lactamases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cefadroxil and cephalexin are first-generation ___

A

cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cefadroxil and cephalexin may be used as alternatives to ____

A

penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the adverse effects of cefadroxil and cephalexin?

A

GI upset, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, hypersensitivity (some cross-reactivity with penicillins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Prokaryotic ribosomes are composed of ___ and ___ subunits

A

30S
50S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Macrolides inhibit ____ which functions to link amino acids together in a growing peptide chain

A

peptidyl transferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Macrolides interfere with ___ and confer ___ activity

A

translocation
bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Azithromycin, Clarithromycin and Clindamycin are alternatives for those allergic to ___

A

penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Azithromycin is less likely than other macrolide antibiotics to ___

A

interact with other drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the adverse effects of azithromycin?
GI upset, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, rash, QTc interval prolongation
26
Clarithromycin increases the ___
levels of some common drugs (i.e., atorvastatin, lovastatin, simvastatin, prednisone.)
27
Lincosamides interfere with ___ but do not inhibit ___
translocation peptidyl transferase
28
Lincosamides are 4 times more likely to cause ____ compared to other antibiotics
Clostridium difficile infections
29
Clindamycin may be used for treatment in symptomatic patients with multiple recurrent episodes of ___
pharyngitis
30
What are the adverse effects of clindamycin?
diarrhea and increased risk of C. difficile colitis
31
Antibiotic therapy is most beneficial for people who are at high risk of developing ____ and who have confirmed ____
acute rheumatic fever streptococcal infection
32
Antibiotics reduce the duration of symptoms by approximately ___
16 hours
33
Sample Question: Which of the following antibiotic is suitable for use in a patient with an immediate hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin? A) Amoxicillin B) Cephalexin C) Cefadroxil D) Azithromycin
D) Azithromycin
34
Upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) involves an infection of what structures?
nose, sinuses, pharynx, larynx and large airways
35
What are the viral causes of URTIs?
rhinovirus, adenovirus, parainfluenza virus, enterovirus, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
36
True or false: The diagnosis of URTIs is typically a clinical diagnosis, but nasal and nasopharyngeal swabs/aspirates can be used
true
37
What are the complications associated with URTIs?
pneumonia, sinusitis, otitis media, coinfection with bacterial agents, and exacerbation of preexisting medical conditions (asthma and COPD)
38
What are the characteristics of the common cold?
- mild and self-limited - nasal mucosal erythema and edema - rhinorrhea and nasal congestion - sore throat, cough, sneezing - headache and low-grade fever - onset of symptoms bein 1-3 days after exposure and can last 7-10 days or persist up to 3 weeks
39
What are the 4 botanical treatment strategies?
1) enhance immune system's first line and second lines of defense 2) choose herbs with tissue and microbial specificity 3) relieve common symptoms (i.e., sore throat, congestion, rhinorrhea) 4) prevent recurrence
40
Review the herbal actions and know their function:
- antivirals/antimicrobials - immune stimulants - deep immune tonics - adaptogens - anti-catarrhals/mucolytics - expectorants - diaphoretics - demulcents - lymphatics - anti-inflammatories
41
Antimicrobials and immune stimulant herbs can have a ___ effect by attacking the microorganism and/or destroying its cell wall, inhibiting replication, or inhibiting enzymes in the pathogenesis of infection OR an ____ action by preventing viral entry into the cell or stimulating phagocytes, lymphocytes or other immune cells to attach the pathogen
direct indirect
42
Many herbal antimicrobials display _____
tissue specificity
43
What are the considerations for choosing the right antimicrobial herbs?
1. where is the site of infection - choose herbs with tissue specificity 2. age of the patient and general health status - choose gentle herbs at lower dosing for children, elderly and those with chronic disease 3. specific pathogen - use herbs that target the pathogen causing harm 4. history of antibiotic use - some herbs require a healthy gut flora to activate bioavailable metabolites of herbs
44
Review the material medica for common cold:
Achillea millefolium Allium sativum Althea officinalis Andrographis paniculata Baptisia tinctoria Echinacea angustifolia / purpurea Eleutherococcus senticosus Eupatorium perfoliatum Glycyrrhiza glabra Hydrastis canadensis Ligusticum porteri Lomatium dissectum Mentha piperita Oleo europaea Origanum vulgare Panax ginseng Phytolacca spp Sambucus nigra Salix alba Thymus vulgaris Verbascum Thapsus Zingiber officinalis, etc
45
What are the main actions and constituents of baptisia tinctoria (wild indigo)?
actions: lymphatic, anti-microbial, immune-stimulant, anti-catarrhal constituents: polysaccharides (arabinogalactans) & glycoproteins, quinolizidine alkaloids, isoflavones, flavonoids - part used: root
46
Glycoproteins and polysaccharides stimulate the immune system by increasing the number of ___ and improving endogenous defense mechanisms
WBCs
47
Baptisia tinctoria (wild indigo) stimulates lymphocyte DNA synthesis and ____ production
antibody
48
When is Baptisia tinctoria (wild indigo) indicated?
In acute infection with excessive mucus production associated with laryngitis, pharyngitis, tonsilitis, rhinitis and sinusitis
49
What are the main actions and constituents of echinacea angustifolia/purpurea (echinacea/coneflower)?
actions: anti-microbial, immunomodulator, immune-stimulant, anti-inflammatory, diaphoretic, lymphatic, vulnerary, anti-catarrhal constituents: Caffeic acid esters (echinacosides), polysaccharides (arabinogalactans), alkylamides, VO, alkaloids
49
How can Baptisia tinctoria (wild indigo) be used, and what are the safety concerns?
- decoction, tincture or dried herb - can cause nausea, vomiting, anorexia, hypersalivation, tachypnea, tachycardia, respiratory paralysis with toxic doses internally - Contraindicated in long-term use or high doses, and pregnancy/lactation
50
Polysaccharides, alkylamides and caffeic acid derivatives activate immune response via:
enhanced granulocyte chemotaxis, macrophage phagocytosis, and increased levels of TNF, IL-1, Ig binding, and neutrophils
51
_____ stabilize mucosal connective tissue against pathogen invasion and repair tissue damage via inhibition of hyaluronidase
Caffeic acid esters
52
True or false: When used preventatively, echinacea shows a 10-20% relative risk reduction for common cold and is best used in high doses at early stages of infection
True
53
How can echinacea angustifolia/purpurea (echinacea/coneflower) be used, and what are the safety concerns?
- decoction, tincture, powdered extract - high doses may cause nausea, throat irritation and skin irritation - Caution in Asteraceae allergy - Selectively modulates CYP 3A4 substrates - potential for interactions
54
What are the main actions and constituents of zingiber officinale (ginger)?
Actions: Anti-oxidant, anti-inflammatory, anti-microbial, diaphoretic, carminative, anti-spasmodic Main Constituents: VO (zingiberene), sesquiterpenes, oleoresins (gingerols & shogaols)
55
Fresh ginger may stimulate mucosal cells to secrete ____ to counter viral infection
IFN-β
56
True or false: Sesquiterpenes in ginger have specific anti-viral effects against rhinoviruses and RSV by inhibiting viral attachment and inoculation
True
57
True or false: Oleo-resins (gingerols & shogaols) help reduce pain, suppress coughing and modulate fever
True
58
How can zingiber officinale (ginger) be used, and what are the safety concerns?
- infusion, tincture, dry or fresh herb - caution with ulcers, GERD, gallstones, kidney disease, bleeding disorders, and those with sensitive stomachs, additive effect with anticoagulant medication
59
What are some other herbal considerations for treating common cold?
- herbal lozenges or infusions for symptom relief of sore throat using demulcent herbs - steam inhalations and/or essential oils to relieve cough and congestion - rest, hydration & nutrition - food as medicine (adding onion, garlic, thyme, oregano, sage etc. to soups or stews)
60
What are the long-term considerations of adaptogen and deep immune tonics?
- support HPA axis and strengthen immune system to prevent recurrence and recover from convalescence