sports psychology Flashcards

(73 cards)

1
Q

outline trait personality

A
  • innate charateristics thought to be relativley stable
    -high consistent attributes that exert a widely genralised casual effect on behaviour
  • according to this theory the environment or situation doesn’t have an effect
  • being born with theses personality traits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

outline social learning theory of personality

A
  • suggest that rather then being born with characteristics we learn from others that are important to us
  • behaviour changes based on situations+ therefore a product of our interaction with environment
  • happens through experience
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

outline interactionalist theory of personality

A

combines trait and social learning- says they determine different parts
- more realistic
- suggests that we base behaviour on inherent traits that we the adapt in situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the characteristics of type A personalities

A
  • higly competitve
    -strong desire to succeed
  • works faster
    -like to be incontrol
    -prone to suffer from stress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the characteristics of type B personalities

A

-non-competitive
- unambicous
- works more slowly
-does not enjoy being incontrol
- less prone to stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is stable peronality trait

A

somone who does not swing from one emotion to another- constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is unstable(neurotic) personality trait

A

someones whos emotions is highly unpredictable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is extroversion triat

A

person who seeks social situations + like excitement but lacks concetration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is introversion traits

A

a person who does not seek social situations but like peace and quiet but is good at concentrating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

define attitude

A

enduring emotional and behavioural response+ although it can be established firmly an attitude is unstable and can be changed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how are postive attititudes formed

A

belief in the benefits
enjoyable expeirences
being good at a particular part
being excited by the challenge
using it as a stress release
the influence of others where participation is norm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how are negative attitudes formed

A

not beliveing in the benefits
bad past experiences
lack of ability
fear of taking part in sport
suffering stress when taking part
influence from others where nonparticipation is norm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

explain each component of attitude (the triadic model)

A

-cognitive= what we know and believe about the attitude object
-behavioural=how we behave towards, respond to or intend to respond to the attitude object
- affective= how we feel about the attitude object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how can cognitive dissonace change a persons attitude

A
  • according ot this theory individuals like to be consistent in what they do feel and believe
    -therefore its uncomfortable for an individual to have contradictory thoughts about something or someone

e.g- male rugby players believe is too unmanly but a coach change that opinion with facts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how can persuasive communication change a persons attitude

A
  • acitve, noncoercive attempts to reinforce, modifiy or change attitude of others
  • effectiveness depends on
    —the persuaded- person attempting to change
    —message-the quality of message
    —the receiver- the person whose attitude is to be changed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

define motivation

A

physcological drive to succed without it there is no reason for anyone to want to acquire or develop motor skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is intrinisc motivations

A

motivation direct from internal proprioreceptors or sensory systems- known as kinaesthesis
e.g- for own sake includes feeling of fun etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the advantage of and dis of intrinsic motivation

A

adv- quick, helps error corrections
dis- not good for cognitive learners, some not good at feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is extrinisc motivation

A

from outside source e.g a coach or maybe even an audience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the advantage and dis of extrinsic motivation

A

adv- short term motivation, good for cognitive, helps sub routines
dis- relies on knowledge of coach, no long term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

define arousal

A

A state of physical and mental excitement or alertness that prepares an individual for performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is somatic arousal

A

relates to the changing physiological state of the body e.g increase HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is cognitive arousal

A

relates to the changing psychological state of the body. e.g anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what shape is the drive theory

A

linear relationship between performance and arousal
low=lower performance
high= higher performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what shape is the inverted u theory
upside down u performance improves as arousal increase until a optimal point after this it decreases
26
what is the catastrophe theory
performance increases until optimum arousal then an extreme drop in performance can only be recovered if calm down
27
what are the key points on the drive theory
quality of performance depends on how well the skill been learned -motor programme that have already been learned said to be dominant response - dominant response happens during increase arousal
28
what is wrong with the drive theory
doesnt take into account anything like personality type gender, type of skill
29
How can coaches use this inverted u theory
coaches can use this theory to help athletes find optimum levels - this tell us that their is a drop off pointsw
30
what is the good thing about the inverted u theory
it takes into account type of task, stage of learning, personality type and level of experience
31
what are the key points about the catastrophe theory
the drop is not on a smooth curve - the vertical descent depicts performance of catastrophic - require them to reduce anxiety - when somatic arousal low skill learning and performance can be enhanced if cognitive arousal increases
32
what level of arousal does each of these require: introvert,extrovert,simple,complex, gross,fine, cognitive, autonomous
introvert- low extrovert- high simple-high complex-low gross-high fine-low cognitive-low autonomous- high
33
what happens at underaroused, optimal arousal, overaroused
look in book
34
what is state anxiety
an athlete emotional state at any given time, variable from situations to situations
35
what is trait anxiety
Relates to personality a trait that is enduring is am individual a performer with high trait anxiety has the predisposition or the potential to react to situation with feeling of apprehension
36
what is competitive triat anxiety
a tendency to perceive competive situation as threatening and to respond to these situations with feeling of apprehension of tension
37
what are the possible symptoms of somatic anxiety
increased bp, sweating, adrenaline, need to urinate, muscle tension, pacing, yawning, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
38
what is the possible symptoms of cognitive
confusion, negative thought, poor concentration, irritability, loss of confidence and image of failure
39
what is the zone of optimal functioning
zone is an emotional response that facilatates top performance and os often referred to as peak flow
40
define agression
intent to harm or injure someone outside the rules of the event
41
define assertion
forceful behaviour within the laws of events
42
what is the instinct theory of aggression
views of aggresion being a natural response, innate and instinctive - developed aggression as a survival instinct
43
social learning theory of agression
learned by observational of others behaviour imitation of this aggressive behaviour is then reinforce by social acceptance
44
what is frustration aggression hypothesis
-frustration will always lead to aggresion - any blocking of goals that an individual is trying to reach increase agression
45
what is aggressive cue hypothesis
agression to occur certain stimuli must be present - these stimuli are cues for the performer that are subconsciously linked to aggression
46
what is social facilitation
when a performer performance improves when someone watches
47
what is social inhibiton
tendency for performance decreases due to pressure
48
what 2 others did zajonc identify
coactors spectators
49
what factors did zajonc identify that affected performance
-presence of audience increases arousal -increases in arousal will trigger dominant response - if a skill is well learned the response will be correct - if the skill is new or poorly learned the response will be incorrect
50
what is a group
a collection of people who share similar goals and interact with one another
51
what are 6 statagies to minimise social inhibition
-imagery technique to shut out audience -relaxtion technique - training with audience - preparing to deal with negative reaction of coactors - decreasing the importance of events - remaining calm and focused
52
explain the postive and negative of home/away,personality types, experience levels, type of skill, proximity/hostility
look at book page 20
53
what is team cohesion
term used to describe group dynamics -festinger states that cohesiveness is the total field of force that act on member to remain in the group
54
accorind to carron what are the two dimensions of cohesion
group intergration- how menbers feel about individual attraction to the group
55
what are the 2 factors are due to faulty process
-coordiantion losses- if coordination and timing of team members do not match team strategy - motivational losses- if individual members are not motivated
56
what are the 5 examples of coordination losses in sport
- poorly timed passes - unsynchronised run - misaligned defence -ineffective offence -poorly executed plays
57
what are the 4 stages in tuckmans group development theory
forming storming norming performing
58
give an overview of forming
-high dependence on leader for guidance - group members are getting to know each other -very little agreement on aims of team -individual roles unclear - team leader needs to give strong direction
58
give an overview of storming
-group decisions are difficult -team members are establishing themselves in groups -focus is clearer - may be a power struggle - need for environmental compromise - leader has a more advisory role
59
give an overview of norming
-much more agreeement of opnions -roles+responsiblity accepted -decisions made through group agreements -strong sense of commitment - team members are social and friendly with each other
59
give an overview of performing
-more stratagies, a clear vision and aims -no interference or participation from leader -focus on achieving goals -team trusted to get on with job -team does not need to be instructed -team members may ask for assistance from leader
60
what is the ringlemann effect
occurs when indiviudal performance decrease as group size increases cause motivation or coordination losses
60
what is social loafing
-undesirable in teams + should be elimated -caused when individual losing identity when placed in group -it is defined as where an individual exerts less effort to meet a goal when in a group
60
what stratagies are used to eliminate social loafing
-support from others in team -peer pressure to reinforce individual effort -feedback -heighting individual performance
61
what does smart stand for and what does it mean
s-smart- goals must be clear and specific m-measurable- goals must be assessed and therefore need to be measured a-acheiveable- goals that performer and coaches have shared are more likely to be achieved r-recorded- goals should be recorded so progress can be monitored t-timephased- goals should be split into short and long term
62
what is an outcome goal
focused on end result e.g win race
63
what is a process goal
focusing on the technique e.g ensure front craw arm techique is correct
63
what is a performance goal
focus on your performace e.g 100m in under 10 sec
64
how does goal setting influence sports performance
-directs attention from performer to task
65
what is manual guidance
when the coach physically assists or guides a performers movements to help them learn or refine a skill
71
72
73