Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PC Sports > Sports > Flashcards

Sports Flashcards

1
Q

ACL origin.

A

Posteromedial aspect of lateral femoral condyle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ACL length.

A

30mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ACL diameter.

A

11mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bundles of ACL are named based on this.

A

Relationship at tibial insertion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Two bundles of ACL

A

Anteromedial, posterolateral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Anteromedial ACL bundle tight in this position.

A

Flexion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Posterolateral bundle of ACL tight in this position.

A

Extension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The anteromedial bundle of ACL resists this motion.

A

Anterior translation of tibia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The posterolateral bundle of ACL resists this motion.

A

Rotation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Lachman test evaluates this bundle of ACL.

A

Anteromedial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pivot shit test evaluates this bundle of ACL

A

Posterolateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Collagen composition of ACL.

A

90% Type I, 10% type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Blood supply to ACL.

A

Middle geniculate artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PCL origin.

A

Anterolateral medial femoral condyle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PCL length.

A

38 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PCL diameter.

A

13 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PCL bundles.

A

Anterolateral, posteromedial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Anterolateral PCL bundle tight in.

A

Flexion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Posteromedial PCL bundle tight in.

A

Extension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This meniscofemoral ligament is anterior to PCL.

A

Humphrey.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

This meniscofemoral ligament is posterior to PCL

A

Wrisberg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Origination of the superficial MCL.

A

3mm proximal and 5mm posterior to medial femoral epicondyle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

LCL origin relative to the insertion of popliteus tendon.

A

Posterior and superior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most anterior structure inserting on proximal fibula.

A

LCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The LCL is tight in ____ and lax in ____.

A

Tight in extension, lax in flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Primary stabilizer of tibial external rotation.

A

Posterolateral corner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Structures in layer I of medial knee.

A

Sartorius and fascia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Structures in layer II of medial knee.

A

Superficial MCL, posterior oblique ligament, semimembranosus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Structures in layer III of medial knee.

A

Deep MCL, capsule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Structures in layer I of lateral knee.

A

IT band, biceps femoris, fascia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Structures in layer II of lateral knee.

A

Patellar retinaculum, patellofemoral ligament.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Structures in layer III of lateral knee.

A

Arcuate ligament, fabellofibular ligament, capsule, LCL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Order of insertion of structures on the proximal fibula anterior to posterior.

A

LCL, popliteofibular ligament, biceps femoris.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Components of the posterolateral corner (7).

A
  1. Biceps femoris
  2. IT band
  3. Popliteus
  4. Popliteofibular ligament
  5. Lateral capsule
  6. Arcuate ligament
  7. Fabellofibular ligament
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Meniscus is primarily composed of this type of collagen.

A

Type I.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Medial or lateral meniscus more mobile?

A

Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Greater AP dimension, medial or lateral condyle of femur?

A

Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Origin of the MPFL in relation to the adductor tubercle.

A

Anterior and distal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Knee ligament with greatest tensile strength.

A

MCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Major knee ligament with least tensile strength.

A

LCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Radiographic view most sensitive for early osteoarthritis.

A

Weight bearing 45 degree flexed posteroanterior view.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Most common arthroscopic complication.

A

Iatrogenic articular cartilage damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is more common, medial or lateral mesniscus tear?

A

Medial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Primary determinant of healing potential to meniscus.

A

Vascular supply.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Gold standard for meniscal repair.

A

Inside-out technique with vertical mattress sutures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What nerve is at risk during medial meniscus repair.

A

Saphenous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What nerve is at risk during lateral meniscus repair.

A

Peroneal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Position of the saphenous nerve relative to semitendinosis, gracilis, and sartorius.

A

Anterior to semiT and gracilis. Posterior to inf border of sartorius.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Position of the peroneal nerve relative to biceps femoris.

A

Posterior to biceps femoris.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Meniscal cysts usually involve the medial or lateral meniscus?

A

Lateral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

These occur in conjunction with horizontal cleavage tear of lateral meniscus.

A

Meniscal cyst.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Popliteal (Baker) cysts usually form here.

A

Between semimembranosus and medial head of gastroc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Crucial for mensical transplantation success.

A

Graft size accurate to within 5% of native.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In situ force of ACL is highest at ____ flexion.

A

30 deg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Most sensitive physical exam maneuver for acute ACL injury.

A

Lachman.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Early post-op ACL reconstruction rehab consists of these two protocols.

A
  1. Closed chain exercises

2. Compressive loading

57
Q

Open chain extension after ACL reconstruction should be avoided for this long.

58
Q

Placement of femoral tunnel too anteriorly during ACL reconstruction causes this limitation post-op.

A

Limited flexion.

59
Q

Most common complications of ACL reconstruction.

A

Aberrant tunnel placement.

60
Q

Vertical ACL graft results in this.

A

Rotational instability.

61
Q

This increases risk of damaging infrapatellar branch of saphenous during ACL recon.

A

Horizontal incision at hamstring autograft harvest site.

62
Q

Fall onto ground with plantar-flexed or dorsi-flexed foot puts at risk for PCL rupture?

A

Plantar-flexed foot

63
Q

Non-op rehab for PCL rupture involves this.

A

Strengthening of knee extensors.

64
Q

Grade III posterior drawer is indicative of this.

A

Combined PCL injury with posterolateral corner or ACL.

65
Q

Distance from fixation screws to popliteal artery in tibial inlay technique for PCL recon.

66
Q

Most common site of MCL rupture.

A

At femoral insertion.

67
Q

MCL rupture at this location has less healing potential than other site.

A

Distal injuries less healing potential.

68
Q

Prophylactic bracing helpful for these athletes to prevent MCL rupture.

A

Interior linemen.

69
Q

Pelligrini-Stieda sign.

A

Chronic MCL injury.

70
Q

This knee alignment is associated with higher rates of PCL reconstruction failure.

71
Q

Chronic PLC injury treatment.

A

Valgus opening wedge osteotomy, reduce posterior slope.

72
Q

Most common site of osteochondritis dessicans.

A

Lateral aspect of medial femoral condyle.

73
Q

Fibrocartilage is primarily this type of collagen

74
Q

More common in patients greater than 40 years, quad or patellar tendon rupture?

A

Quadriceps.

75
Q

Articular cartilage on this patellar facet is most commonly injured after a patellar dislocation.

76
Q

Contraindication to tibial tubercle anterior-medialization.

A

Medial patellar facet arthrosis.

77
Q

Anterior hip arthroscopy portal puts this nerve at risk.

78
Q

Anterolateral hip arthroscopy portal puts this nerve at risk.

A

Superior gluteal nerve.

79
Q

Posterolateral hip arthroscopy portal puts this nerve at risk.

80
Q

First branch of lateral plantar nerve.

A

Baxter nerve.

81
Q

Point where the FDL and FHL cross.

A

Knot of henry.

82
Q

Diagnosis of exertional compartment syndrome.

A

Higher than 30 mmHg 1 minute after exercise, Higher than 20 mmHg 5 minutes after exercise, absolute value higher than 15 mmHg during rest.

83
Q

Most commonly involved ligament for ankle sprains.

A

Anterior talofibular.

84
Q

Diagnosis of “high” ankle sprain.

A

Pain in anterior syndesmosis in response to external rotation stress.

85
Q

Treatment of persistently symptomatic os acromiale.

86
Q

Most common failure of fusion of the os acromiale.

A

Between mesoacromion and metaacromion.

87
Q

Contents of the rotator interval (4).

A
  1. Coracohumeral ligament
  2. Superior glenohumeral ligament
  3. Biceps tendon
  4. Glenohumeral capsule
88
Q

Borders of the rotator interval.

A
  1. Medial – lateral coracoid base
  2. Superior – anterior edge of supraspinatus
  3. Interior – superior border of subscapularis
89
Q

Primary restraint to excessive anterior and posterior translation of the sternoclavicular joint.

A

Posterior capsule.

90
Q

The rotator cable is a thickening of this ligament.

A

Coracohumeral ligament.

91
Q

Bony changes that may be found in chronic throwing athletes.

A

Increased humeral head retroversion and glenoid retroversion.

92
Q

5 phases of throwing.

A
  1. Wind-up
  2. Cocking
  3. Acceleration
  4. Deceleration
  5. Follow-through
93
Q

Maxial torque is generated during these phases (2).

A
  1. Late cocking

2. Deceleration (just after ball released)

94
Q

Loss of this in overhead throwing athletes.

A

Glenohumeral internal rotation.

95
Q

Lesion most commonly found after traumatic shoulder instability.

A

Anteroinferior labral tear (bankart lesion).

96
Q

HAGL involves avulsion of this ligament.

A

Inferior glenohumeral ligament.

97
Q

Most important risk factor for recurrent shoulder instability.

A

Age at first dislocation.

98
Q

These type of exercises for multidirectional shoulder instability (2).

A
  1. Scapular stabilization

2. Closed kinetic chain

99
Q

Indication for coracoid transfer procedure.

A

Shoulder instability with glenoid deficiency greater than 25%.

100
Q

Indication for capsular shift.

A

Failed extensive rehab for MDI.

101
Q

Rotator interval closure results in this.

A

Decreased external rotation.

102
Q

Incomplete and concealed avulsion of the posteroinferior labrum.

A

Kim lesion.

103
Q

Prevalence of full thickness rotator cuff tear in the greater than 60 year old population.

104
Q

Prevalence of full thickness rotator cuff tear in the greater than 70 year old population.

105
Q

PASTA.

A

Partial articular supraspinatus tendon avulsion.

106
Q

When to repair PASTA.

A

Greater than 50% of tendon insertion (> 7mm) avulsed from footprint.

107
Q

Comma sign represents this.

A

Avulsed SGHL.

108
Q

Empty bicipital groove and transverse humeral ligament tear on MR indicates this is likely.

A

Subscapularis tear.

109
Q

Abnormal distance between humerus and coracoid process.

110
Q

Internal impingement between these structures.

A

Posterosuperior labrum and rotator cuff.

111
Q

Sleeper stretch.

A

For GIRD. Posterior and posteroinferior capsular stretching.

112
Q

SLAP tear in patient greater than 40 years.

A

Biceps tenodesis.

113
Q

Nerve injury with medial scapular winging.

A

Long thoracic nerve

114
Q

Muscle dysfunction causing medial scapular winging.

A

Serratus anterior.

115
Q

Cysts within the _____ notch affect only the infrapspinatu.

A

Spinoglenoid notch.

116
Q

With quadrilateral space syndrome, weakness or atrophy of these muscles may be present.

A
  1. Teres minor

2. Deltoid

117
Q

Injury to this nerve for lateral scapular winging.

A

Spinal accessory.

118
Q

Wear pattern for glenohumeral osteoarthritis.

A

Posterior glenoid.

119
Q

Wear pattern for glenohumeral rheumatoid arthritis.

A

Central glenoid.

120
Q

9-10 year old pitch count per game

A

50 per game

121
Q

11-12 year old pitch count per game

A

75 per game

122
Q

13-14 year old pitch count per game

A

75 per game

123
Q

Lateral epicondylitis pathoanatomy.

A

Microtear at the origin of the ECRB.

124
Q

Activity modification for lateral epicondylitis (4).

A
  1. slower playing surface
  2. more flexible raquet
  3. lower string tension
  4. larger gip
125
Q

Excessive resection during surgery for lateral epicondylitis may cause this.

A

Instability due to LCL attachment.

126
Q

Greatest load to failure of the distal biceps tendon repair techniques.

A

Endobutton.

127
Q

Most common complication of single-incision distal biceps repair.

A

Neuropraxia of lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve.

128
Q

Reconstruction of elbow ulnar collateral ligament with these tendon options (2).

A
  1. Palmaris longus

2. Hamstring

129
Q

Reconstruction of elbow medial ulnar collateral ligament in this manner.

A

Figure-of-eight

130
Q

Posterolateral rotatory instability.

A

Lateral ulnar collateral ligament injury.

131
Q

Little leaguer’s elbow.

A

Stress fracture of medial epicondyle of elbow.

132
Q

Most common finger for FDP avulsion.

A

Ring finger.

133
Q

Sagittal band rupture in professionals versus amateurs.

A

Pros – index and long finger

Amateurs – ring and small finger

134
Q

Radiographic hallmarks of sapholunate ligament injury (3).

A
  1. Increased SL interval (>3mm)
  2. Cortical ring sign
  3. Increased SL angle on lateral (> 70 deg)
135
Q

Pavlov ratio (vertebral body to canal ratio) consistent with cervicla stenosis.

A

less than 0.8

136
Q

Most common cause of sudden death in young athletes.

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

137
Q

Cardiac contusion from direct blow to the chest.

A

Commotio cordis.

138
Q

These type of murmurs are consistent with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

A

Increase in intensity with valsalva.

139
Q

Second leading cause of death in football players.

A

Heat stroke.

PC Sports (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions