spine ch 23 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the study of choice for most diseases of spine

A

MRI because of

  1. its ability to visualize and detect abnormaities in soft tissues, such as bone marrow, the cpinal cord, and the intervertebral disks;
  2. its ability to display images in any plane
  3. and the lack of radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Components of almost every vertebra

A

Almost every vertebra has a

  1. body composed of inner cancelous bone and marrow and
  2. posterior elements made of compact dense bone consisting of the pedicles, laminae, facets, transverse processes and a spinous process.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what vertebrae are rectangular in shape

A

from the level of c3-L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what type of joint are facet joints? (superior and inferior articular processes joint)

A

true synovial joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where are two ovoid pedicles not visible?

A

at the level L5 because of lordosis of the lumbar spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
Relative height of the disk space varies in each aprt of the spine. 
How is it in : 
- cervical spine
- thoracic spine
- lumbar spine
A
  • In the cervical spine, the disk spaces are about equal to each other in height.
  • In the thoracic spine, they are usually slightly decreased in size from the cervical spine, but equal in height to each other
  • In the lumbar spine, the disk paces progressively increase in height with each successive interspace, except for L5-S1, which can be equal to or slightly less than the height of L4-L5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What structure does “Scottie dog” represent

A
oblique view of lumbar spine: 
ear: superior art facet
leg : inferior art facet
nose- transverse process
neck: pars interarticularis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where does spinal cord end

A

spinal cord extends from the medulla oblongata to the level of L1-L2, ending as the conus medullaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how are spinal nerves named

A
  • from c1-c7, they exit above the vertebrae that they are named after
  • C8 nerve exits between the 7th cranial and 1st thoracic vertebrae
  • remaining nerves exit below their respectively numbered vertebrae.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

On T1-weighted saggital MRI images of the spine, the vertebral bodies, containgin bone marrow will be of ____ signal intensity, the disks will be ____ in signal intensity.

A

vertebral bodies - high signal intensity = bright

disks - low signal intensity dark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

On conventional T2 weighted images, the vertebral body will be _____ compared to disks.
CSF will appear ____.

A

on T2, vertebral bodies will be slighlty brighter than disks.
CSF will be bright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cortical bone is ____ on all sequences.

A

dark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List some of the causes of back pain

A
  1. herniation of an intervertebral disk
  2. degenerative disk disease
  3. osteoarthritis of facet joints
  4. diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)
  5. compression fractures of the spine
  6. spinal stenosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In the lumbar region, disk herniation may lead to ___ and ___, whereas herniation of a cervical disk may produce ___ and ____.

A

lumbar : back pain and sciatica

cervical : radiculopathy and myelopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

study of choice for evaluating herniated disk is?

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In the cervical spines disk herniations occur most frequently at what levels?

A

C4-C5, C5, C6 and C6-C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Majority of disk herniation occur at what levels?

A

at the lower three lumbar disk levels, L3-L4, L4-L5, L5-S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What will lead to disk material bulging?

A
  1. Degeneration of the outer annular fibers of the disk or

2. trauma that leads to an interruption in those fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What study is useful in differentiating persistent or recurrent disk herniation from scar formation?

A

gadolinium-enhanced MRI studies of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when the annular fibers rupture, the nucelus pulposus may herniate (usually _____ /direction) through ______.

A

when the annular fibers rupture, the nucelus pulposus may herniate (usually posterolaterally) through weakend area of the posterior longitudinal ligament. .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Degenerative disk disease leads to

A

progressive loss of the height of the intervertebral disk space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is vacuum-disk phemoneon?

A

It is a late sign of degenerative disk.
Desiccation of the disk leads to release of nitrogen from tissue surrounding the disk resulting in the appereance of air density in the disk space.

23
Q

How do degenerative disks look like on MRI

A

There is a decrease in water content of the nucleus pulposus that results in a lower signal intensity of the disk on T2 weighted images

24
Q

How does degenerative disk disease look on conventional radiographs?

A

There is disk space narrowing and also changes in the vertebral bodies themselves.

Endplates of contiguous vertebral bodies become eburnated or sclerotic
- there is degeneration of outer annulus fibrosus which leads to the production of larger marginal osteophytes

25
Q

Osteophytes at the uncovertebral joints are frequently associated with both ___ and ___

A

degenerative disk disease and osteophytes of the facet joints

26
Q

What two diseases frequently occur together?

A

degenerative disk disease and facet arthritis

27
Q

Facet arthritis is easier to visualize on ___ and actual nerve compression is easier to visualize on ___.

A

Facet arthritis - CT

nerve compression - MRI

28
Q

DISH usually affects __ over the age of __

A

men; 50

29
Q

DISH can occur anywhere in the spine, bu most often affects the ____

A

lower thoracis and/or lower cervical spine

30
Q

what imaging would we use to diagnose DISH

A

conventional radiographs

31
Q

how is DISH manifested

A

DISH is manifested by thick bridging or flowing calcification/ossification of the anterior or posterior longitudinal ligaments.

32
Q

Compression fractures are sometimes first noticed because of ______ or ______

A

kyphosis or loss of overall body height

33
Q

the study of choice for compression fractures of spine is

A

conventional radiograph

34
Q

Osteoporotic compression fractures usually involve ___ and ___ aspects of the vertebral bodies.

A

anterior and superior aspects; they spare posterior body

35
Q

what is wedge-shaped deformity

A

compression pattern (result of difference in height between anterior and posterior apsects in excess of 3mm) that leads to accentuation of the normal hyphosis in the thoracic spine

36
Q

what is spinal stenosis

A

spinal stenosis refers to narrowing of the spinal canal or the neural foramina secondary to soft-tissue or bony abnormalities

37
Q

what are soft-tissue abnomralities that can lead to spinal stenosis

A

hyperthrophy of ligamentum flavum, bulging disk(s) and OPLL

38
Q

what are bony abnormalities that can lead to spinal stenosis

A

congenitally narrow spinal canal, osteophytes, facet osteoarthirtis , spondylolisthesis

39
Q

at what regions is spinal stenosis most common

A

in the cervical and lumbar areas

40
Q

what is neurogenic claudication

A

intermittent pain and paresthesias radiating down the leg worsend by standing or walking and relieved by flexing the spine or y lying supine or squatting

41
Q

what is the study of choice for spinal stenosis

A

MRI

42
Q

Where are bone metastases to be expected

A

Because of the rich blood supply in the posterior portion of vertebral bodies, hematogenous metastatic deposits to that part of the spine ar ecommon, expecially from lung and breast carcinoma.

43
Q

In the spine, metastases may lead to ___ (type of fracture)

A

compression fractures

44
Q

Multiple myeloma (most common primary malignancy of the bone) produce what type of lesion?

A

almost totally lytic lesions

45
Q

One of the hallmarks of multiple myeloma is ____, so that myeloma may be associated with ____ and ____.

A

osteoporosis

associated with diffuse spinal osteoporosis and multiple compression fractures.

46
Q

What is the screening study of choice for the detection of spinal metastases?

A

Tc-99m

47
Q

neoplastic infiltration on T1 and T2 imaging

A

With neoplastic infiltration of the bone marrow, there is a decrease in the normally high signal of the vertebra on T1 weighted images and there is usually a high signal on T2 images.

48
Q

What is diskitis?

A

Diskitis is an infection of the disk and is almost always associated with osteomyelitis of the adjecent vertebrae.

  • it almost always spreads hematogenously from infection in another organ
49
Q

PResenting symptoms of diskitis.

A

back pain and tenderness

50
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis

A

a chronic and progressive arthritis characterized by inflammation and eventual fusion of the sacroiliac joints

51
Q

what is the hallmark of ankylosing spondylitis

A

sacroilitis

52
Q

What is syndesmophyte

A

in ankylosing spondylitis, in the spine, there is ossification of the outer fibers of the annulus fibrosis producing thin bony bridges joining the corners of one vertebra to another, acelled syndesmophytes

53
Q

what is bamboo-spine

A

progressive syndesmophyte production connecting adjacent certebral bodies produces a bamboo-spine