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Spinal Anatomy > Spinal Q&A Exam 1 > Flashcards

Spinal Q&A Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four basic tissues of the human body?

A

Epithelial, muscle, neural, and connective tissues

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2
Q

What are the three primary cell types of bones?

A

Osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts

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3
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

Osteoblasts (form), osteocytes (maintain), osteoclasts (remodel)

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4
Q

What are the bones cells embedded in?

A

An amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers, and various minerals

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5
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycans

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6
Q

What types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in bone?

A

Chondroitin sulfate, keratin sulfate, hyaluronic acid

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7
Q

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

A

Type I collagen

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8
Q

What the primary constituents of the bone mineral?

A

Calcium, phosphate, citrate, carbonate ions

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9
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

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10
Q

Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?

A

Sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium, radium

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11
Q

What is Wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?

A

Living tissue will respond to stressors such as anxiety, tension, or pressure; bone is formed or absorbed in response to these same stressors

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12
Q

What three responses of “living” bone were stressed in class?

A

(R.A.H.) Remodeling under stressors such as anxiety, stress, or tension; aging; healing

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13
Q

Bone is the embryological derivative of which specific connective tissue?

A

Mesenchyme or cartilage

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14
Q

What is the name given to the patterns of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

Intramembranous ossification

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15
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

Second to third month in utero

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16
Q

What part of the axial skeleton is primarily formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

The skull

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17
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

Endochondral ossification

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18
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in the cartilage?

A

Second to fifth months in utero

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19
Q

Which skull bones are ossified by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

Temporal, occipital, mandible, sphenoid bones

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20
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

Clavicle

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21
Q

Mature bone is described as being composed of what areas based on bone density?

A

Compact/cortical; spongy/cancellous/trabecular bone

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22
Q

What is the name given to the bone below an articulating surface?

A

Subchondral bone

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23
Q

What is the name of the outer fiber-cellular covering of bone?

A

Periosteum

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24
Q

What is the name given to the fiber-cellular lining of bone?

A

Endosteum

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25
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

Sexual dimorphism (gender variation); ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation); geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation); idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)

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26
Q

Differences in the number of morphology of vertebrae within the population based on male and female variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

Sexual dimorphism or gender variation

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27
Q

Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

Ontogenetic variation

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28
Q

Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity or locational variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

Geographic variation or population-based variation

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29
Q

Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on the uniqueness between individuals is identified as which type of variation?

A

Idiosyncratic variation

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30
Q

What are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?

A

Long, short, irregular, flat, sesamoid, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones

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31
Q

Which classification of bone are characteristic of the appendicular skeleton?

A

Long, short, sesamoid bones

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32
Q

What is the characteristic feature of a long bone?

A

it is longer than it is across

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33
Q

What are the names given to the parts of a long bone?

A

diaphysis (shaft) and 2 epiphyses

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34
Q

What is the primary characteristic of short bones?

A

cuboidal

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35
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

most carpus and tarsus

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36
Q

What is the characteristic of a sesamoid bone?

A

bone develops within a tendon

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37
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

Patella and pisiform

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38
Q

Which classifications of bone are characteristic of the axial skeleton?

A

flat bones, irregular, paranasal sinus/pneumatic bones

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39
Q

What are flat bones?

A

thin layer of spongy bone is sandwiched between two layers of compact bone

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40
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

parietal and sternum

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41
Q

What is characteristic of irregular bone?

A

numerous projections or irregular outlines

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42
Q

What are examples of irregular bone?

A

vertebrae and innominate bones

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43
Q

What is characteristic of pneumatic bone?

A

air spaces within the bone

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44
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid, temporal

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45
Q

What bones contain paranasal sinuses?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid

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46
Q

What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in spinal anatomy?

A

accessory and heterotopic bone

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47
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

accessory bone

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48
Q

What are examples of accessory bone?

A

para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae

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49
Q

What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

heterotopic bone

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50
Q

What are examples of heterotopic bone?

A

calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart ligaments

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51
Q

What are the four basic surface feature categories?

A

elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways and facets

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52
Q

When do the surface features of bone become prominent?

A

during and after puberty

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53
Q

What are the types of osseous elevations?

A

linear, rounded and sharp

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54
Q

What are the types of osseous linear elevation?

A

the line, ridge and crest

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55
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous linear elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

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56
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

spine and process

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57
Q

What are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

linear and rounded depressions

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58
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

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59
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

the fovea and fossa

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60
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

ostium or orifice and hiatus

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61
Q

What is the definition of an osseous hiatus?

A

an irregular opening on the surface of bone

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62
Q

What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

foramen or canal

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63
Q

What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?

A

meatus

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64
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets?

A

flat facets and rounded facets

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65
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

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66
Q

How many bones form the typical adult skeleton?

A

206 bones

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67
Q

What are the subdivisions of the skeleton?

A

the axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

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68
Q

How many bones form the typical adult appendicular skeleton?

A

126 bones

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69
Q

How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?

A

80 bones

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70
Q

What bones form the axial skeleton?

A

skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum, ribs

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71
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

A

28 bones

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72
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

cranium

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73
Q

What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?

A

calvaria or calva

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74
Q

What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?

A

neurocranium, facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral cranium) and the auditory ossicles

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75
Q

What is the neurocranium?

A

bones that support or protect brain

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76
Q

How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium

A

8 bones

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77
Q

What bones from the neurocranium of the typical adult skull?

A

frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid

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78
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?

A

14 bones

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79
Q

What is the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral cranium)?

A

bones that support face or front of head

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80
Q

What bones form the facial skeleton?

A

mandible, vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal concha, palatine, zygomatic

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81
Q

By strict definition, what is the splanchnocranium?

A

bones that support the face minus the mandible

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82
Q

What bones form the splanchnocranium?

A

vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal concha, palatine, zygomatic

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83
Q

How many bones comprise the typical adult auditory ossicles?

A

6 bones

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84
Q

How many bones are present in the adult hyoid?

A

1 bone

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85
Q

What is the number of bones comprising each region of the typical adult spinal column or vertebral column?

A 
7 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
1 sacrum
1 coccyx
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86
Q

What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

spine

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87
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

A

24 bones

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88
Q

What is the definition of “spine” as it pertains to the vertebral column?

A

the pre-sacral region of the vertebral column or spinal column

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89
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?

A

1 bone

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90
Q

What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?

A

manubrium sterni, corpus sterni, xiphoid process

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91
Q

How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?

A

12 pair or 24 ribs

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92
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?

A

33 segments

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93
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?

A

26 segments

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94
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

24 presacral segments; cervical, thoracic, lumbar vertebrae

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95
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical sacrum?

A

5 segments

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96
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx?

A

4 segments

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97
Q

What does the term cervical mean?

A

region of the neck

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98
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the cervical region?

A

7 segments

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99
Q

What does the term thoracic refer to?

A

breast plate or chest; it referred to armor bearing region of the torso

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100
Q

What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

dorsal segments; the dorsals

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101
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region?

A

12 segments

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102
Q

What does the term lumbar refer to?

A

the loin; region between the rib and hip

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103
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?

A

5 segments

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104
Q

What does the term sacrum refer to?

A

the holy bone or holy region

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105
Q

What does the term coccyx refer to?

A

a cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak

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106
Q

Which region of the spine is more stable in terms of the number of segments/vertebrae?

A

cervical region

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107
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

70 centimeters (28 inches)

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108
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

60 centimeters (25 inches)

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109
Q

What is the difference in length between a typical male and typical female spinal column?

A

3 inches

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110
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?

A

12 centimeters (5 inches)

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111
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region (both measurements)?

A

28 centimeters (11 inches)

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112
Q

What is the length of the male lumbar region (both measurements)?

A

18 centimeters (7 inches)

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113
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum region (both measurements)?

A

12 centimeters (5 inches)

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114
Q

Based on the number for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?

A

58 centimers (23 inches)

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115
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in protection of neural tissues?

A

the spinal cord and beginning PNS are located within the vertebral segments

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116
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in protection of the viscera?

A

ribs are attached to vertebrae to form the thorax thus protecting the heart and lungs

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117
Q

What parts of the body are supported by the vertebral column?

A

the head, upper extremities, ribs, viscera, and pelvis

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118
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

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119
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weigh-bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the auricular surface

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120
Q

Distinguish between motion and locomotion.

A

motion is movement without travel; locomotion is movement to a new site or location

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121
Q

What is specifically responsible for shape and position of the human frame?

A

comparative anterior vs. posterior height of vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc

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122
Q

How does the vertebral column accommodate transmission?

A

the peripheral nerve communicates with the central nerve system via the intervertebral foramen

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123
Q

What organ(s) is (are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

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124
Q

How is the vertebral column involved in stabilization of visceral function?

A

integrity of the spinal column enhances appropriate nerve system control of viscera

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125
Q

When does gastrulation occur or a 3-layered embryo form?

A

third week in utero

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126
Q

What are the 3 layers of the embryo called?

A

ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

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127
Q

Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?

A

notochord

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128
Q

What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

paraxial mesoderm

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129
Q

What does paraxial mesoderm give rise to that will form the vertebral column?

A

somites

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130
Q

Name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite.

A

sclerotome, myotome, dermatome

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131
Q

What part of the somite will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

sclerotome

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132
Q

List, in order, the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?

A

membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal, or osseous

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133
Q

Migration of sclerotomes to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?

A

the perichordal blastema

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134
Q

The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?

A

neural processes and costal processes

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135
Q

What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichondral blastemae?

A

intersegmental artery

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136
Q

Cell proliferation within the perichordal blastema will result in what features?

A

a loose cranial sclerotomite and a dense caudal sclerotomite

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137
Q

What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

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138
Q

The intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?

A

the perichordal disc

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139
Q

The perichordal disc in the presumptive location of what adult feature?

A

intervertebral disc

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140
Q

What is the earliest embryonic feature that will identify the position of the adult intervertebral disc?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

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141
Q

The union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastemae gives rise to what feature?

A

vertebral blastema

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142
Q

What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?

A

segmental artery

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143
Q

When will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema?

A

beginning in the 6th embryonic week

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144
Q

What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?

A

chondrification

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145
Q

Chondrification is the first identified in which region of the embryonic vertebral column?

A

cervical region

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146
Q

What are the names given to the centers of chondrification within the vertebral blastema?

A

centrum center, neural arch center, transverse process center

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147
Q

How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?

A

six… 2 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arch, 2 for each transverse process

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148
Q

What is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in the cartilaginous vertebra?

A

during the 7th embryonic week

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149
Q

Ossification begins in which region of the embryonic vertebral column?

A

the lower cervical-upper thoracic region

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150
Q

What is the name given to centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

primary centers appear in utero, secondary centers appear after birth

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151
Q

What is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

3 primary centers; 5 secondary centers

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152
Q

What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

centrum centers and neural arch centers

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153
Q

How many primary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra?

A

3… 1 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arches

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154
Q

What is the classification of the joint forming between primary centers of ossification?

A

cartilage synchondrosis/amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

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155
Q

What are the names of the synchondroses forming between primary centers of ossification in the typical vertebra?

A

neurocentral synchondrosis and neural arch synchondrosis

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156
Q

What are the names of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers

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157
Q

How many secondary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra?

A

5… 1 for the tip of each transverse process, 1 for the tip of the spinous process, 1 for each epiphyseal plate

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158
Q

What are the names of the synchondroses forming between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra?

A

tip of the transverse process synchondrosis, tip of the spinous process synchondrosis, and epiphyseal ring synchondrosis

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159
Q

What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?

A

during puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old

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160
Q

What are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra?

A

the vertebral body, vertebral arch, and the apophyseal regions

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161
Q

What is formed by the vertebral body and vertebral arch?

A

the vertebral foramen

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162
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - rectangular
thoracic - triangular
lumbar - reniform

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163
Q

What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?

A

superior epiphyseal rim and inferior epiphyseal rim

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164
Q

What is the name given to the cartilage found at the superior and inferior surface of a developing vertebral body?

A

superior epiphyseal plate, inferior epiphyseal plate

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165
Q

What are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body?

A

nutrient foramina or vascular foramina

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166
Q

What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?

A

basivertebral venous foramen

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167
Q

What is the name of the vessel entering the nutrient or vascular foramen?

A

osseous artery

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168
Q

What is the name given to the large vessel exiting the bak of the vertebral body?

A

the basivertebral vein

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169
Q

What is the semicircular region of bone attached to the back of the vertebral body called?

A

the vertebral arch

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170
Q

What is the name given to the anterior part of the vertebral arch?

A

the pedicle

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171
Q

What is the name given to the posterior part of the vertebral arch?

A

the lamina

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172
Q

What is the name of the feature located at the upper and lower surfaces of the pedicle?

A

the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure; the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

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173
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

C- posterolateral
T- posterior, slight lateral
L- posterior

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174
Q

All lamina are oriented in what direction?

A

posterior and median

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175
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on x-ray?

A

shingling

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176
Q

What ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

the ligaments flavum

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177
Q

What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligaments flavum?

A

para-articular process

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178
Q

What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

A

accessory bone

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179
Q

What is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

C- articular pillar

T&L- pars interarticularis

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180
Q

What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on lateral x-ray?

A

the spinolaminar junction

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181
Q

What is the name given to the tubular bone growth regions of the vertebral arch?

A

the apophyseal regions

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182
Q

What names may be given to each apophysis of the spine?

A

the transverse apophysis or transverse process; articular apophysis or articular process; spinous apophysis or spinous process

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183
Q

What is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

C - anterolateral
T - posterolateral
L - lateral

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184
Q

All non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?

A

the costal element

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185
Q

What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process?

A

the transverse tubercle

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186
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward and downward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position.

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187
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

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188
Q

What will the articular process/articular apophysis support?

A

the articular facet

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189
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

the zygapophysis

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190
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?

A

the superior articular facet

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191
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis?

A

the inferior articular facet

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192
Q

What names are given to the part of the vertebra which supports the front of the zygapophysis?

A

the superior articular apophysis, the superior articular process, or pre-zygapophysis

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193
Q

What names are given to the part of a the vertebra which supports the back of the zygapophysis?

A

the inferior articular apophysis, the inferior articular process, the post-zygapophysis

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194
Q

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygapophysis is called the _____.

A

pre-zygapophysis

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195
Q

in the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the ______.

A

post-zygapophysis

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196
Q

What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the pre-zygapophysis?

A

the superior articular process or superior articular apophysis

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197
Q

What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the post-zygapophysis?

A

the inferior articular process or inferior articular apophysis

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198
Q

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane

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199
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on x-ray?

A

imbrication

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200
Q

What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the tip of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

the spinous tubercle

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201
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

C - slight angle inferiorly
T - noticeable angle inferiorly
L - no inferior angle

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202
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligaments flavum

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203
Q

What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

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204
Q

What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure

205
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

206
Q

What name is given to the opening located within the vertebral body - vertebral arch enclosure?

A

vertebral foramen

207
Q

The union of all vertebral foramina forms an apparent vertical cylinder called the _____.

A

the vertebral canal or spinal canal

208
Q

What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?

A

spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system, and the meninges

209
Q

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A

C - triangular
T - oval
L - triangular
S - triangular

210
Q

At what vertebral segment will the spinal cord typically terminate?

A

L1

211
Q

At what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?

A

L2

212
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?

A

vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

213
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?

A

the deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery

214
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

215
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

216
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

217
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?

A

C1-C6

218
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?

A

C1-C6

219
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?

A

C7-T1

220
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?

A

T1, T2

221
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?

A

T3 - T11

222
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the subcostal artery?

A

T12

223
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?

A

L1-L4

224
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the median (middle) sacral artery?

A

L5, S1-S5, and coccyx

225
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?

A

L5, S1-S5, and coccyx

226
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the lateral sacral artery?

A

L5, S1-S5, and coccyx

227
Q

Which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it?

A

L5

228
Q

What are the segmental arteries for L5?

A

iliolumbar artery, median (middle) sacral artery and lateral sacral artery

229
Q

Which branch of the dorsospinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter subarachnoid space?

A

spinal artery

230
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery

231
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus

232
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligament flavum?

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus

233
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?

A

anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery

234
Q

Which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

A

anterior radicular artery

235
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular artery

236
Q

Which artery is now said to enlarge and form the medullary feeder artery?

A

the radicular artery

237
Q

What is the name given to the artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length?

A

anterior spinal artery

238
Q

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

vertebral artery

239
Q

Is the anterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord? (Y/N)

A

no

240
Q

As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

anterior medullary feeder arteries

241
Q

The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

posterior inferior cerebellar artery

242
Q

What is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?

A

it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord

243
Q

Is the posterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord? (Y/N)

A

no

244
Q

As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unit along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

posterior medullary feeder arteries

245
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona?

A

anterior spinal arteries, posterior spinal arteries and communicating arteries

246
Q

What is the generic name given to the arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?

A

intramedullary arteries

247
Q

What are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?

A

pial perforating arteries and central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries

248
Q

What artery gives off the vental/central/sulcal perforating arteries?

A

anterior spinal artery

249
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

250
Q

What intramedullary branches supply about 1/3 of the spinal cord?

A

pial perforating arteries

251
Q

What is the source for pial perforating arteries?

A

pial plexus

252
Q

What arteries form the pial plexus?

A

posterior spinal arteries and the communicating arteries

253
Q

What arteries are responsible for supplementing the arterial casa corona along the cord?

A

anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

254
Q

What vessels drain the spinal cord?

A

pial veins

255
Q

What will pial veins drain into?

A

venous vasa corona

256
Q

Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A

anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, and communicating veins

257
Q

Which vessels will drain the venous vasa corona?

A

anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins

258
Q

Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?

A

anterior radicular veins

259
Q

Which vessels will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve roots?

A

posterior radicular veins

260
Q

What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular veins

261
Q

What veins are observed int he epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

262
Q

What lumens feature of the anterior internal vertebral venous plexus vessels may function like valves of typical veins?

A

trabeculae

263
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligament flavum?

A

posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

264
Q

What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

A

intervertebral veins

265
Q

What is the unique features of veins along the spinal canal?

A

they lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins

266
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis).

A

dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

267
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis) and the commonly accepted meaning of each.

A

dura - tough mother; arachnoid - spider mother; pia - tender or delicate mother

268
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

interstitial fluid

269
Q

What are the vascular contents of the epidural space?

A

anterior and posterior spinal canal artery and plexus, anterior and posterior internal vertebral venous plexus, and basivertebral vein

270
Q

What are the neural contents of the epidural space?

A

recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve

271
Q

What ligaments are associated with the epidural space?

A

Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments, ligamentum flavum, posterior longitudinal ligament

272
Q

Which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus, anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

273
Q

Which of the nerves of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve

274
Q

Which of the ligaments of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

posterior longitudinal ligament and Hofmann/anterior dura/meningovertebral ligaments

275
Q

Which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus, posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

276
Q

Which of the nerves of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve

277
Q

Which of the ligaments of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

ligamentum flavum and Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

278
Q

Which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?

A

subdural space - between dura and arachnoid mater

279
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus, anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein, recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve, Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertal ligaments

280
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus, posterior internal vertebral venous plexus, ligamentum flavum, recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve, Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

281
Q

What is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space?

A

serous fluid

282
Q

What is the name given to the fluid with the subarachnoid space?

A

cerebrospinal fluid

283
Q

What ligaments may be present in the subarachnoid space?

A

dentate/denticulate ligament

284
Q

What is the name given to the lateral extension of pia mater along the spinal cord?

A

dentate (denticulate ligament)

285
Q

What is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?

A

they lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins

286
Q

In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?

A

transverse

287
Q

What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A

C3-T1, the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement

288
Q

Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

A

C6

289
Q

In which plane (or direction) will the diameter of the spinal decrease from C2 down to T1?

A

midsagittal or anterior-posterior plane

290
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the lumbar (lumbarsacral) enlargement?

A

L1-S3 spinal nerves

291
Q

What is a generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

292
Q

What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

conus medullaris

293
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

typically S4, S5, and Co1

294
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1

295
Q

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?

A

cauda equina

296
Q

What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

A

filum terminale internum

297
Q

What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

A

typically S2, the dural cul de sac

298
Q

Neural tissue has been identified in what part of the film terminate?

A

proximal part of the filum terminale internum

299
Q

What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the film terminale internum?

A

it joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4

300
Q

What does the neural tissue associated with the film terminale internum appear to innervate?

A

lower limbs and the external anal sphincter

301
Q

The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?

A

cruciate anastomosis

302
Q

What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

film terminale externum

303
Q

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

304
Q

What is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullar is is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

tethered cord syndome

305
Q

What is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?

A

it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord caused by a tethered cord

306
Q

At the intervertebral foramen, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the cervical spine?

A

in the cervial spine, spinal nerves exit above the segment they are numbered after (C8 nerve is the exception to this rule). C3 nerve exits above C3 or between C2/C3

307
Q

At the intervertebral foramen, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the thoracic and lumbar spine and the sacrum?

A

in the thoracic and lumbar spine and for the sacrum, spinal nerves exit below the segment they are numbered after (Co1 nerve is the exception to this rule). T6 nerve exits below T6 or between T6/T7

308
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple

309
Q

What osseous modification is observed to the front of the anterior arch of C1?

A

anterior tubercle

310
Q

What is observed on the back of the anterior arch of C1?

A

fovea dentis

311
Q

What attaches behind the anterior arch of C1?

A

the lateral mass

312
Q

What is the name of the rounded elevation on the medial aspect of the lateral mass of C1?

A

tubercle for the transverse atlantal ligament

313
Q

What is identified in the midline at the back of the posterior arch of C1?

A

the posterior tubercle

314
Q

What superior surface modification of the posterior arch of C1 is present near the lateral mass?

A

groove/sulcus for the vertebral artery

315
Q

What superior surface modification is present near the posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of C1?

A

the arcuate rim

316
Q

What attaches to the arcuate rim of the posterior arch of atlas and to the superior articular process of the lateral mass of the atlas?

A

a complete ponticulus posticus

317
Q

Based on the amount of bony union between the superior articular process and the arcuate rim of C1 what structure will form?

A

an incomplete ponticulus posticus or a complete ponticulus posticus

318
Q

What names are given to the opening formed by the ponticulus posticus?

A

arcuate foramen or retroarticular canal

319
Q

What is observed on the undersurface of the posterior arch of C1?

A

the inferior vertebral notch

320
Q

What is the name given to the anterior part of the transverse process of C1?

A

costal element

321
Q

What is the name given to the posterior part of the transverse process of C1?

A

the true transverse process

322
Q

What is the distal most part of the transverse process of C1?

A

posterior tubercle

323
Q

What unique vertebral body modification is characteristic of C2?

A

dens or odontoid process

324
Q

What surfaces are present on the odontoid process of C2?

A

facet for fovea dentis, groove for transverse atlantal ligament, attachment sites for the alar ligaments, attachment site for the apical-dental ligament

325
Q

What feature is identified on the anterior surface of the vertebral body of C2?

A

longus colli muscle attachment

326
Q

What feature is identified on the anterior surface of the interior epiphyseal rim of C2?

A

anterior lip

327
Q

What feature is identified on the posterior surface of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?

A

posterior lip

328
Q

What features are present at the lateral margins of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?

A

right and left lateral grooves

329
Q

What features arise from the posterolateral margins of the vertebral body of C2?

A

pedicles

330
Q

What lies on the upper surface of the pedicle of C2?

A

superior articular process

331
Q

What is the location of the superior vertebral notch of C2?

A

on the lamina-pedicle junction

332
Q

What feature is identified on the lower surface of the pedicle of C2?

A

inferior vertebral notch or incisure

333
Q

What is the location of the inferior articular process of C2?

A

on the lamina-pedicle junction behind the inferior vertebral notch

334
Q

What osseous parts of the typical cervical transverse process are present at C2?

A

costal element, posterior tubercle, and true transverse process

335
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of the C2 spinous process in humans?

A

it is bifid

336
Q

What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior and posterior grooves, right and left uncinate processes

337
Q

What are the names of the lateral modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus or lateral lip

338
Q

What are the modifications fo the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves

339
Q

What bony feature is attached to the posterior end of the pedicle?

A

the articular pillar

340
Q

What is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar?

A

groove/sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

341
Q

What ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical?

A

ligamentum flavum

342
Q

Ossification of the ligament flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature?

A

para-articular process

343
Q

List, in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body.

A

costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

344
Q

What is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?

A

sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

345
Q

What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?

A

carotid tubercle

346
Q

What is the usual condition for the Caucasian typical cervical spinous process?

A

they are bifid

347
Q

What is the usual condition for the African-American typical cervical spinous process?

A

they are non-bifid

348
Q

What surfaces are present on the superior epiphyseal rim of the vertebral body of C7?

A

anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes

349
Q

What is the appearance of the inferior surface of the vertebral body of C7?

A

typically flat, lacking anterior and posterior lips characteristic of the typical cervicals

350
Q

What are the osseous parts of the transverse process of C7?

A

costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

351
Q

What are the features of the spinous process of C7?

A

long, horizontal, nonbifid

352
Q

What is the outline of the vertebral body of T1 from superior view?

A

somewhat rectangular with curved anterior margins

353
Q

What is the appearance of the superior surface of the vertebral body of T1?

A

is it somewhat cup-shaped with elevations at the posterior and lateral margin

354
Q

What is the appearance of the inferior surface of the vertebral body of T1?

A

typically flat, lacking anterior and posterior lips characteristic of the cervicals

355
Q

What surfaces are present on the upper and lower margins of the T1 vertebral body?

A

the right and left superior costal facet and right and left inferior costal demi-facet

356
Q

What is present on the transverse tubercle of T1?

A

the transverse costal facet

357
Q

What is the angulation of the spinous process of T1?

A

the undersurface of the T1 spinous processes will be nearly horizontal

358
Q

What features will allow discrimination between T2-T4 and T5-T8 segmental groups?

A

the vertebral body, transverse process, articular process, and spinous process

359
Q

On cranial view, what is the outline of the vertebral body for the T2-T4 group?

A

the vertebral body will have bilaterally convex sides

360
Q

On cranial view, what is the outline of the vertebral body for the T5-T8 group?

A

the left side fo the vertebral body will be flattened, the right side convex

361
Q

What is the name given to the left side appearance of the vertebral body of T5-T8?

A

aortic impression

362
Q

What part of the vertebral body is most influenced by the aorta at T5-T8?

A

the left side superior and inferior epiphyseal rims

363
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical thoracic?

A

the right and left superior and the right and left inferior costal demi-facets

364
Q

What is the distance between the transverse tubercles in the typical thoracic region?

A

from T2 each transverse diameter becomes shorter as the transverse processes angle more posterior

365
Q

What is present on the transverse tubercle of a typical thoracic?

A

the transverse costal facet

366
Q

How do the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the T2-T4 region?

A

the superior articular process transverse diameter is greater than the inferior articular process transverse diameter for a given segment

367
Q

How do the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the T5-T8 region?

A

the superior articular process transverse diameter is the same as or equal to the inferior articular process transverse diameter for a given segment

368
Q

What name is given to the region between the superior and inferior articular processes in the typical thoracics?

A

the pars interarticularis

369
Q

What part of a vertebra arises laterally from the pars interarticularis?

A

the transverse process

370
Q

What part of a vertebra arises medially from the pars interarticularis?

A

the lamina

371
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process of a typical thoracic?

A

they slant backward and downward

372
Q

Which vertebrae will have a spinous process angulation of up to forty degrees?

A

T2-T4

373
Q

Which vertebrae will have a spinous process angulation of up to 60 degrees?

A

T5-T8

374
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T9?

A

right and left superior costal demi-facets; right and left inferior costal demi-facets

375
Q

Which synovial joint surfaces may be absent from the vertebral body of T9?

A

inferior costal demi-facets

376
Q

What is present on the transverse tubercle of T9?

A

the transverse costal facet

377
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process of T9?

A

posterior and slightly inferior, it will shorten and become more horizontal

378
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T10?

A

the right and left superior costal facet

379
Q

Which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T10?

A

inferior costal demi-facets

380
Q

What is the position and direction of the pedicle from the vertebral body at T10?

A

the pedicle arises from the upper third of the vertebral body and projects posterior and slightly laterally

381
Q

What feature is very commonly observed on the lamina of T10?

A

para-articular processes

382
Q

What part of the transverse process may be absent on T10?

A

the transverse costal facet

383
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process of T10?

A

posterior and slightly inferior, it will shorten and becomes more horizontal

384
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T11?

A

the right and left superior costal facet

385
Q

Which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T11?

A

inferior costal demi-facets

386
Q

What part of the transverse process is absent on T11?

A

the transverse costal facet

387
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process of T11?

A

posterior and horizontal along the undersurface

388
Q

What is the outline of the vertebral body of T12 on superior view?

A

kidney-shaped or reniform

389
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T12?

A

the right and left superior costal facet

390
Q

Which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T12?

A

inferior and costa demi-facets

391
Q

Which tubercle on T12 represents the transverse process?

A

the lateral tubercle

392
Q

Which tubercle on T12 represents the mammillary process of the lumbars?

A

the superior tubercle

393
Q

Which tubercle on T12 represents the accessory process of the lumbars?

A

the inferior tubercle

394
Q

What joint surfaces of the typical thoracic transverse process is absent of T12?

A

the transverse costal facet

395
Q

What is the curvature of the inferior articular facets of T12?

A

they are significantly convex

396
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process of T12?

A

posterior and horizontal

397
Q

What is the generic shape o the typical lumbar vertebral body from the cranial view?

A

reniform or kidney-shaped

398
Q

The pedicle attaches at what location on vertebral body fo a typical lumbar?

A

to the upper third or half of the vertebral body

399
Q

What is the name of the elevation near the origin of the lumbar transverse process?

A

accessory process

400
Q

What is the name of the lamina-pedicle junction of typical lumbar vertebrae?

A

pars interarticularis

401
Q

What is the name given to the projection on the lumbar superior articular process?

A

mammillary process

402
Q

What characteristic of the L1-L4 pedicle may be used to differentiate it from the L5 segment? Be specific and complete as the differences on a segment from each group.

A

On cranial view, the lateral surfaces o the pedicle is apparent on a L1-L4 segment. At L5 the transverse process originates from the vertebral body, pedicle and lamina-pedicle region.

403
Q

What is the generic direction and length of the fifth lumbar transverse process?

A

it is directed straight lateral and is the shortest of all lumbar transverse processes

404
Q

What is the typical number of segments that unite to form the adult sacrum?

A

5 segments

405
Q

What forms the median sacral crest?

A

fused spinous processes and their spinous tubercles

406
Q

What forms the intermediate sacral crest?

A

fused articular processes and their facets

407
Q

What features may be identified along the intermediate sacral crest?

A

the mammillary process of S1 and the sacral cornu of S5

408
Q

What does the sacral cornu represent?

A

the inferior articular process and facet of S5

409
Q

What is the name of the inferior opening of the sacral spinal canal?

A

the sacral hiatus

410
Q

An imaginary line drawn from the trances process of S1 to the inferior lateral sacral angle will form what feature?

A

the lateral sacral crest

411
Q

What is the sacral tuberosity?

A

the enlarged transverse tubercle of S2

412
Q

What feature is associated with the transverse tubercle of S5?

A

the inferior and lateral (inferolateral) sacral angle

413
Q

From the anterior view, the intervertebral discs of sacrum will be replaced by what feature?

A

transverse ridges

414
Q

What feature is identified on the lateral surface of S1-S3?

A

auricular surface

415
Q

What feature does the anterior surface of the superior epiphyseal rim of S1 form?

A

the sacral promontory

416
Q

What is the name given to the region of bone extending laterally from the S1 vertebral body looking from the base view?

A

sacral ala

417
Q

What forms the sacral ala?

A

the costal element and true transverse process

418
Q

What is the typical number of segments that unite to form the adult coccyx?

A

4 segments

419
Q

What bony features are present on the coccyx?

A

all segments are represented by a “vertebral body” in addition, Co1 has a coccygeal cornu and transverse process

420
Q

What is the homolog of the superior articular process and facet on C1?

A

coccygeal cornu

421
Q

What feature is present at the top of the manubrium sterni?

A

jugular notch (suprasternal notch)

422
Q

What is the name given to the articular site at the superolateral margin of the manubrium sterni?

A

clavicular notch

423
Q

What names are given to the articular sites for the joint with the first and second rib?

A

costal notch I for the first rib costal cartilage; costal notch II for the second rib costal cartilage

424
Q

How many sterna brae for the corpus sterni?

A

4 sternabrae

425
Q

What surface feature on the corpus sterni identifies the location of the old synchondroses?

A

transverse lines

426
Q

What articular sites for the costal cartilage of ribs will be identified on the corpus sterni?

A

costal notches II-VII

427
Q

What are the primary parts of the vertebral end of a typical rib?

A

the head, neck, and tubercle

428
Q

What names are given to the articular surfaces on the head of a typical rib based on location?

A

superior articular surface/facet and inferior articular surface/facet

429
Q

What feature of the head of a rib separates the superior from inferior articular surface/facet?

A

the interarticular crest

430
Q

What features may be identified not he neck of a typical rib?

A

the crest of the rib

431
Q

Which feature of the tubercle of a typical rib is closer to the head of the rib?

A

the articular surface of the tubercle

432
Q

Which feature of the tubercle of a typical rib is closer to the shaft of the rib?

A

the non-articular surface of the tubercle

433
Q

What features may be identified on the body (corpus or shaft) of a typical rib?

A

the costal angle and costal groove

434
Q

What is present on the head of the first rib?

A

a single articular surface

435
Q

Is there a crest on the neck of the first rib?

A

not a well-developed one like on the typical rib

436
Q

What is unique about the body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib?

A

the body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib is flattened and has a scalene tubercle flanked by the groove for the subclavian artery and the groove for the subclavian vein

437
Q

Which groove on the body (corpus of shaft) of the first rib is close to the vertebral end?

A

the groove for the subclavian artery and the first thoracic nerve

438
Q

Which groove on the body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib is close to the sternal end?

A

the groove for the subclavian vein

439
Q

Is either the costal angle or costal groove apparent on the first rib?

A

Neither the costal angle nor the costal groove are apparent on the first rib

440
Q

What features may be identified on the head of rib 2?

A

two articular surfaces and the interarticular crest

441
Q

What names are given to the articular surfaces on the head of rib 2 based on location?

A

superior articular surface/facet and inferior articular surface/facet

442
Q

What feature may be identified on the neck of rib 2?

A

the crest of the rib

443
Q

What features may be identified on the tubercle of rib 2?

A

the articular surface of the tubercle and the non-articular surface of the tubercle

444
Q

What is the costal angle of a rib?

A

the location on the body (corpus or shaft) of the rib where there is a directional change toward the sternum

445
Q

What unique feature is present on the body (corpus or shaft) of the second rib?

A

the tuberosity for the serratus anterior

446
Q

What distinguishes the vertebral end of rib 11 from typical ribs?

A

the single articular surface, absence of a well-developed crest on the neck and the tubercle may be absent or if present, consists only of a non-articular surface

447
Q

What features may be present on the body (corpus or shaft) of the eleventh rib?

A

the costal angle and costal groove are under-developed

448
Q

What is the appearance of the sternal end of the eleventh rib?

A

somewhat pointed

449
Q

What helps to distinguish the vertebral end of the twelfth rib from other ribs?

A

the head has a single articular surface, the crest of the neck is poorly developed, the tubercle is absent

450
Q

What is the condition of the body (corpus or shaft) of rib 12?

A

the costal angle and costal groove are absent and it is the shortest of all ribs

451
Q

What is the appearance of the sternal end of the twelfth rib?

A

the sternal end is pointed

452
Q

What term is used to identify the study of joints?

A

arthrology

453
Q

What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

A

syndesmology

454
Q

What are the three histological classifications of joints?

A

fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial fluid

455
Q

What were the three Latin classifications of joints based on movement potential?

A

synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, and diarthrosis

456
Q

What is the classification of a joint held together with cartilage?

A

synchondrosis

457
Q

What is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?

A

symphysis

458
Q

What is the classification of a plane or gliding synovial joint?

A

arthrodia

459
Q

What is the classification of a hinge type synovial joint?

A

ginglymus

460
Q

What is the classification of a pivot type synovial joint?

A

trochoid

461
Q

What is the classification of a knuckle type synovial joint?

A

condylar or bicondylar

462
Q

What is the classification of an oval-like synovial joint?

A

ellipsoidal

463
Q

What is the classification of a saddle type synovial joint?

A

sellar

464
Q

What is the classification of a ball and socket synovial joint?

A

cotyloid, spheroidal or enarthrosis

465
Q

What term is now used to identify the synarthrosis joint type?

A

fibrous joints

466
Q

What is the name given to a condition in which bones are fused together by bone?

A

synostosis

467
Q

What fibrous connective tissue classically fills the joint space of a syndesmosis?

A

a ligament

468
Q

What is the synonym for amphiarthrosis joints?

A

cartilage joint

469
Q

What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

They are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template

470
Q

Which classification of cartilage joint is secondary, permanent, composed of fibrous cartilage (fibrocartilage) and occurs between bones formed by endochondral ossification?

A

(amphiarthrosis) symphysis

471
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

472
Q

What examples of synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodial) joints occur along the vertebral column?

A

most zygapophyses of the vertebral column

473
Q

What is an example of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints along the vertebral column?

A

median atlantal-axial joint

474
Q

What is the shared morphological characteristic of diarthrosis trochoid joints?

A

an osseous pivot point and an osteopath-ligamentous ring

475
Q

What example of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joint is identified along the spine?

A

the joint of Luschka of typical cervicals is a modified seller joint

476
Q

What example of the diarthrosis condylar joint is identified along the spine?

A

the atlanto-occipital joint may be classified as a diarthrosis condylar joint

477
Q

Which joint classification exhibits a knuckle-shaped surface on one side of the joint and an elliptical, concave surface of the other side?

A

diarthrosis ellipsoidal

478
Q

What example of the diarthrosis ellipsoidal joint is identified along the spine?

A

the atlanto-occiptial joint may be classified as a diarthrosis ellipsoidal joint

479
Q

Which synovial joint classifications are now often interchanged in textbooks?

A

ellipsoidal and condylar synovial joints

480
Q

Which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the two toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, and three toed sloth

481
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebraeZ?

A

ant bear, three-toed sloth

482
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

two-toed sloth, manatee

483
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in the typical cervical spine?

A

7 segments

484
Q

Which vertebrae are typical cervicals?

A

C3-C6

485
Q

Which vertebrae are atypical cervicals?

A

C1, C2, C7

486
Q

What is the shape of the typical cervical vertebral body from the cranial view?

A

rectangular

487
Q

What is the effect of aging on the cervical vertebral body?

A

it diminishes the overall height of the vertebral body

488
Q

What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?

A

posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters

489
Q

What would be the direction of the cervical curve based on osseous features?

A

posterior or kyphotic

490
Q

What accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

the intervertebral disc height

491
Q

What is the direction of the typical cervical cure?

A

anterior or lordotic

492
Q

Which vertebral couples will demonstrate a decrease in intervertebral disc height?

A

C2/C3 down to C4/C5

493
Q

At which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?

A

C5/C6

494
Q

What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes

495
Q

At what developmental age will the uncinate process first be observed?

A

3rd-4th fetal month

496
Q

What is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior longitudinal ligament-anterior groove articulation?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndemosis

497
Q

What is the joint classification for the posterior lip-posterior longitudinal ligament-posterior groove articulation?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndemosis

498
Q

What is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

modified synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

499
Q

What is the joint classification for the spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?

A

cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis

500
Q

How many joints are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

5

501
Q

How many joints are present on the lower surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

5

502
Q

How many total joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

10

503
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

right and left uncinate process, right and left lateral groove

504
Q

What is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint

505
Q

The joint of Luschka is formed from what surfaces?

A

the uncinate process and lateral groove

506
Q

How many total synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

4

507
Q

What is the functional significance of the joint of Luschka?

A

it appears to stabilize the intervertebral disc while accommodating flexion - extension and requiring coupled motion (axial rotation with lateral bending) in the cervical spine

508
Q

How many cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis joints are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

2

509
Q

What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?

A

longus colli muscle

Spinal Anatomy (3 decks)

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