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Spinal Anatomy > Spinal exam1 > Flashcards

Spinal exam1 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the four basic tissues of the human body?

A

epithelial, muscle, neural and connective tissues

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2
Q

what is osteology?

A

the study of bone

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3
Q

what is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

osteoblast - form bone; osteocyte - maintain or nurture bone; osteoclast - remodel bone

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4
Q

what are the bone cells embedded in?

A

an amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals

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5
Q

what is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

glycosaminoglycans

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6
Q

what is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

A

collagen type 1

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7
Q

what is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

hydroxyapatite

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8
Q

bone is also the repository for what additional ions?

A

sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium and radium

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9
Q

what is wolffs law as it pertains to bone?

A

living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress

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10
Q

what are the three responses of bone that allow it to be described as “living”?

A

it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age

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11
Q

what is bone the embryological derivative of?

A

mesenchyme or cartilage

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12
Q

what is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

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13
Q

what is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

from the second to third month in utero

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14
Q

what is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

from the second to fifth month in utero

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15
Q

what part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

chondrocranium

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16
Q

which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

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17
Q

what are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

sexual dimorphism (gender variation), ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation), geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation) and idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)

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18
Q

what are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?

A

long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or penumatic bones and sesamoid bones

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19
Q

what are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in spinal II?

A

hetertopic and accessory bone

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20
Q

what is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

hetertopic bone

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21
Q

what is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

accessory bone

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22
Q

what is the characteristic freature of a long bone?

A

it is longer than it is across (length greater than breadth)

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23
Q

what are the names given to the parts of a long bone?

A

the diaphysis (shaft) and typically two epiphyses (extremities)

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24
Q

what is the primary characteristic of short bones?

A

they are essentially cuboidal

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25
Q

what are the examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

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26
Q

what are examples of flat bones?

A

the parietal bone and sternum

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27
Q

what are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid and temporal

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28
Q

what is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

the bone develops within a tendon

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29
Q

what are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

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30
Q

what are examples of heterotopic bone?

A

calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments

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31
Q

what are examples of accessory bone?

A

para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae

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32
Q

what are the four basic surface feature categories?

A

elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways and facets

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33
Q

when do the surface features of bone become prominent?

A

during and after puberty

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34
Q

what are the types of osseous linear elevation?

A

the line, ridge and crest

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35
Q

what are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

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36
Q

what are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

spine and process

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37
Q

what are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

linear and rounded dperessions

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38
Q

what are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

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39
Q

what are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

the fovea and fossa

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40
Q

what are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

ostium or orifice and hiatus

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41
Q

what are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

foramen or canal

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42
Q

what is the definition of an osseous foramen?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thing region of bone

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43
Q

what is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

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44
Q

what is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?

A

meatus

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45
Q

what is the defition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

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46
Q

what are the categories of osseous facets?

A

flat facets and rounded facets

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47
Q

what are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

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48
Q

what bones form the axial skeleton?

A

the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs

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49
Q

what is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

the cranium

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50
Q

what are the names given to the top of the adult skull?

A

the calvaria or calva

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51
Q

what are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?

A

the neurocranium, the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton) and the auditory ossicles

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52
Q

what is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

A

28 bones

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53
Q

what bones form the neurocranium of the typical adult skull?

A

the frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid

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54
Q

how many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8 bones

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55
Q

how many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?

A

14 bones

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56
Q

what is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

the spine

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57
Q

what is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

A

24 bones

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58
Q

how many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?

A

1 bone

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59
Q

what regions are present along the typical adult sternum?

A

the manubrium sterni, the corpus sterni and the xiphoid process

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60
Q

how many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?

A

12 pairs or 24 ribs

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61
Q

what term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

A

syndesmology

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62
Q

what are the three histological classifications of joints?

A

fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid

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63
Q

the ligamentous sacro-iliac joints (or most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column) are examples of which joint classification?

A

syndesmosis

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64
Q

what are the characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

they are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template

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65
Q

what are examples of a permanent (ampiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

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66
Q

what are the characteristics of a (amphiarthorsis) symphysis?

A

limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

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67
Q

which example of a (amphiarthrosis) sypmhysis is temporary?

A

symphysis menti

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68
Q

what are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joint?

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

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69
Q

what are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resmble ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

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70
Q

what are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?

A

located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

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71
Q

what are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?

A

present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

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72
Q

what is the function of type IV articular receptors?

A

nociceptive, they monitor pain

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73
Q

type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

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74
Q

what are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

(1) synovial villi, (2) articular fat pads of Haversian glands, (3) synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

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75
Q

articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertbral column?

A

lumbar zygapophyses

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76
Q

intra-articular discs are a feature of what joints examples?

A

temporomandibular, sternoclavicular, acromioclavivular and radio-ulnar joints

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77
Q

synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples?

A

femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses

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78
Q

synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples?

A

femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapohphyses and lumbar zygapophyses

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79
Q

what are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

are phagocytic

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80
Q

what is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

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81
Q

which collagen fiber type predominates in articular cartilage?

A

type II

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82
Q

what is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

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83
Q

what is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform and returns to original volumerapidly, a time independent property

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84
Q

what is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

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85
Q

which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?

A

weeping theory

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86
Q

which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?

A

boosted theory

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87
Q

which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for ht e low-friction observed during movement?

A

boundary theory

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88
Q

what are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

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89
Q

which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

hyaluronate

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90
Q

what substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

lubricin

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91
Q

what is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular dis) or meniscus

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92
Q

what morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as nonaxial?

A

plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)

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93
Q

what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A

hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)

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94
Q

what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

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95
Q

what morphologial classification of synovial joints would be classified as multiaxial?

A

ball and socket (diarthorsis enarthrosis), (diarthrosis spheroidal), (diarthrosis cotyloid) are all classificaitons given to the same type of joint

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96
Q

what are the examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints?

A

median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

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97
Q

what are examples of diarthrosis condylar of diarthrosis bicondylar joints?

A

temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee

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98
Q

what are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?

A

radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

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99
Q

what are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joints?

A

carpometacarpal joint of the thumb talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

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100
Q

what are examples of diarthrosis cotyloid joints?

A

femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus - glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder

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101
Q

what is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?

A

33 segments

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102
Q

what is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?

A

26 segments

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103
Q

what is the number of vertebrae in the typical spine?

A

24 segments

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104
Q

what constitutes the spine?

A

the 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

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105
Q

which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the ant bear and three-toed sloth

106
Q

which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the manatee and two-toed sloth

107
Q

what does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

the region of the neck

108
Q

what does the term “thoracic” refer to?

A

breast plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso

109
Q

what other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

the dorsal segments; the dorsals

110
Q

what does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

the loin; the region between the rib and the hip

111
Q

what does the term “sacrum” refer to?

A

the holy bone or holy region

112
Q

what does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

a cuckoo birds bill or cuckoo birds’ beak

113
Q

what is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

about 70 centimeters or 28 inches

114
Q

what is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

about 60 centimeters or 25 inches

115
Q

what is the length difference between a typical male and a typical female spinal column?

A

about 3 inches

116
Q

what is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

117
Q

what is the length of the male thoracic region (both measurements)?

A

about 18 centimeters or 7 inches

118
Q

what is the length of the male sacrum (both measurements)?

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

119
Q

based on the numbers for the individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?

A

about 58 centimeters or 23 inches

120
Q

how does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

121
Q

what levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weigh-bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the auricular surface

122
Q

what is specifically responsible for shape and position of the human frame?

A

comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc

123
Q

what organ(s) is (are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

124
Q

invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?

A

notochord

125
Q

what is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

paraxial mesoderm

126
Q

name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite.

A

sclerotome, myotome and dermatome

127
Q

what are the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?

A

membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous

128
Q

migration of a somite pair to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature

A

the perichordal blastema

129
Q

the perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?

A

neural processes and costal processes

130
Q

what is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?

A

intersegmental artery

131
Q

what forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

132
Q

the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?

A

the perichordal disc

133
Q

the union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastemae gives rise to what feature?

A

the vertebral blastema

134
Q

what vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?

A

segmental artery

135
Q

when will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema?

A

beginning in the 6th embryonic week

136
Q

what is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?

A

chondrification

137
Q

how many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?

A

six…2 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arches, 2 for each transverse process

138
Q

what is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in the cartilaginous vertebra?

A

during the 7th embryonic week

139
Q

what is the name given to centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

primary centers appear in utero, secondary centers appear after birth

140
Q

what is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for at typical vertebra?

A

3 primary centers: 5 secondary centers

141
Q

what are the names of the primary centers of ossification fro a typical vertebra?

A

centrum centers and neural arch centers

142
Q

what are the names/locations of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

tip of the transverse process tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers

143
Q

what is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?

A

during puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old

144
Q

what is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - rectangular; thoracic - triangular; lumbar - reniform

145
Q

what is the name given to the compact bone at the superior inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?

A

superior epiphyseal rim, inferior epiphyseal rim

146
Q

what is the name given to the intermediate part of the vertebral arch where the transverse process and articular processes attach?

A

the lamina - pedicle junction

147
Q

what is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - posterolateral
thoracic - posterior, slight lateral
lumbar - posterior

148
Q

what ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

the ligamentum flavum

149
Q

what is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

para-articular process

150
Q

what classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

A

accessory bone

151
Q

what is the name given tot eh overlap of laminae seen on an x-ray?

A

shingling

152
Q

what is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar - pars interarticularis

153
Q

what is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on lateral x-ray?

A

the spinolaminar junction

154
Q

what is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - anterolateral; thoracic - posterolateral; lumbar - lateral

155
Q

all non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?

A

the costal element

156
Q

what will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

157
Q

what will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the throacic region?

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

158
Q

what is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

the zygapophysis

159
Q

what will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior articular process/poster-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

160
Q

what will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

161
Q

what will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure

162
Q

what will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the vertebral body of the segment above, the verterbal body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

163
Q

what is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane

164
Q

what is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on x-ray?

A

imbrication

165
Q

what is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical - slight angle inferiorly
thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly
lumbar - no inferior angle

166
Q

what is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A

cervical - triangular; thoracic - oval; lumbar - triangular; sacrum - triangular

167
Q

at what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate?

A

L1

168
Q

at what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?

A

S2

169
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?

A

the deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subscostal artery

170
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

171
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

172
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?

A

iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

173
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?

A

C7-T1

174
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?

A

T1, T2

175
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?

A

T3-T11

176
Q

what segmental level(s) is/are supplied by the subcostal artery?

A

T12

177
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?

A

L1-L4

178
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the median (middle sacral artery?)

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

179
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?

A

L5, S1-S5 and coccyx

180
Q

which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it?

A

L5

181
Q

what are the segmental arteries to L5?

A

iliolumbar artery, median (middle) sacral artery and lateral sacral artery

182
Q

what branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paravertebral region?

A

dorsospinal artery

183
Q

which artery is primarily observed in teh distal part of the intervertebral foramen?

A

spinal artery

184
Q

which branch of the dorsospinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter subarachnoid spaces?

A

spinal artery

185
Q

what are the branches of the spinal artery?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery

186
Q

which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery

187
Q

what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament??

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus

188
Q

what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus

189
Q

which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?

A

anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery

190
Q

which vessel will supply teh ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

A

anterior radicular artery

191
Q

which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular artery

192
Q

what is teh location and number of medullary feeder arteries present int he adult?

A

9 anterior and 12 posterior medullary feeder arteries

193
Q

hat is the name given tot he artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length?

A

anterior spinal artery

194
Q

the anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the vertebral artery

195
Q

is the anterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

no

196
Q

as the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

anterior medullary feeder arteries

197
Q

the posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

198
Q

what is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?

A

it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord

199
Q

is the posterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

no

200
Q

as the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

posterior medullary feeder arteries

201
Q

what forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?

A

right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries

202
Q

what forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?

A

a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries

203
Q

what is the generic name given to arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?

A

intramedullary arteries

204
Q

what are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?

A

pial perforating arteries, central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries

205
Q

what arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter an d most of the spinal cord?

A

ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

206
Q

what intramedullary branches supply about one third of teh spinal cord?

A

pial perforating arteries

207
Q

what is the source for pial perforating arteries?

A

the pial plexus

208
Q

what is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?

A

anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

209
Q

what vessels drain the spinal cord

A

pial veins

210
Q

what will pial veins drain into?

A

venous vasa corona

211
Q

which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A

right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins

212
Q

which vessels will rain the venous vasa corona?

A

anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins

213
Q

what vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular veins

214
Q

what veins are observed int eh epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

215
Q

what veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

216
Q

what venous vessels are identified in teh intervertebral foramen?

A

intervertebral veins

217
Q

identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis).

A

dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

218
Q

what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space

A

interstitial fluid

219
Q

which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?

A

subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

220
Q

which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

221
Q

what is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space?

A

serous fluid

222
Q

what is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space?

A

cerebrospinal fluid

223
Q

in horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?

A

transverse

224
Q

what are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A

C3-T11, the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement

225
Q

where is the greatest transverse diameter of teh spinal cord?

A

C6

226
Q

what is a generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

227
Q

what is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

conus medullaris

228
Q

what spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

typically S4, S5, and Co1

229
Q

in which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1

230
Q

what is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?

A

cauda equina

231
Q

what is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

A

filum terminale internum

232
Q

what is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first coverge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

A

typically S2, the dural cul de sac

233
Q

neural tissue has been identified in what part of the filum terminale?

A

proximal part of the filum terminale internum

234
Q

what is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?

A

in joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4

235
Q

what does the neural tissue associated with the filum terminale externum appear to innervate?

A

lower limbs and the external anal sphincter

236
Q

the last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?

A

cruciate anastomosis

237
Q

what is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

filum terminale externum

238
Q

what is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

239
Q

what is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

tethered cord syndrome

240
Q

what is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?

A

it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord

241
Q

what is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple

242
Q

which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

ant bear, three-toed sloth

243
Q

which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

two-toed sloth, manatee

244
Q

what is the number of vertebrae in the typical cervical spine?

A

seven segments

245
Q

which vertebrae are typical cervicals?

A

C3-C6

246
Q

which vertebrae are atypical cervicals?

A

C1, C2, C7

247
Q

what is the shape of the typical cervical vertebral body from teh cranial view?

A

rectangular

248
Q

what is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?

A

posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters

249
Q

what would be the direction of the cervical curve based on osseous features?

A

posterior or kyphotic

250
Q

what accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

the intervertebral disc height

251
Q

what is the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

anterior or lordotic

252
Q

at which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?

A

C5/C6

253
Q

what is the effect of aging on the cervical vertebral body?

A

it diminishes the overall height of the vertebral body

254
Q

what are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes

255
Q

what are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim?

A

uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus or lateral lip

256
Q

at what developmental age will the uncinate process first be obvserved?

A

3rd-4th fetal month

257
Q

what are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves

258
Q

what are the names given to the lateral modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim?

A

lateral groove or enchancrure

259
Q

what is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior groove articulation?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

260
Q

what is the joint classification for the posterior lip-posterior groove articulation?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

261
Q

what is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

modified synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

Spinal Anatomy (3 decks)

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