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2nd Tri Success Squad > Spinal Exam 1 Quiz Questions > Flashcards

Spinal Exam 1 Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is osteology?

A

The study of bone

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2
Q

What are the three primary cell types of bone?

A

Osteoblasts, Osteocytes, Osteoclasts

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3
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

Osteoblast - form bone
Osteocyte - maintain or nurture bone
Osteoclast - remodels bone

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4
Q

What are the bone cells embedded in?

A

An amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers, and various materials

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5
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycans

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6
Q

What types of glycoaminoglycans predominate in bone?

A

Condroitin sulfates, keratin sulfates, and hyaluronic acid

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7
Q

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

A

Collagen Type 1

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8
Q

What are the primary constituents of the bone mineral?

A

Calcium, phosphate, citrate, and carbonate ions

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9
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

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10
Q

Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?

A

Sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium, and radium

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11
Q

What is Wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?

A

Living Tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress

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12
Q

What are the three responses of bone that allow it to be described as “living”?

A

It has the ability to HEAL, to REMODEL under stressors and to AGE

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13
Q

What are the four basic tissues of the human body?

A

Epithelial, muscle, neural, connective

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14
Q

What is bone the embryological derivative of?

A

Mesenchyme or cartilage

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15
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

Intramembranous ossification

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16
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

From the second to third month in utero

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17
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

Endochondral ossification

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18
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

From the second to fifth month in utero

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19
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

Chondrocranium

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20
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

The clavicle

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21
Q

What are the names give to the center of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

Primary centers of ossification appear before birth

Secondary centers of ossification appear after birth

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22
Q

Mature bone is described as being composed of what areas based on bone density?

A

Cortical or compact bone and spongy, cancellous or trabecular bone

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23
Q

What is the name given to the bone below an articulating surface?

A

Subchondral bone

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24
Q

What is the name of the outer fibro-cellular covering of bone?

A

The periosteum

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25
Q

What is the name given to the fibro-cellular lining of bone?

A

The endosteum

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26
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

Sexual dimorphism (gender variation), ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation), geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation) and idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)

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27
Q

What are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?

A

Long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones

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28
Q

What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal II?

A

Heterotopic and accessory bones

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29
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

Accessory bone

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30
Q

What are the names given to the parts of a long bone?

A

Diaphysis (shaft) and typically two epiphysis (extremities)

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31
Q

What is the primary characteristic of short bones?

A

They are essentially cuboidal

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32
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

Most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

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33
Q

What are flat bones?

A

A thin layer of spongy bone is sandwiched between two layers of compact bone.

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34
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

The parietal bone and sternum

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35
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

Frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid, and temporal

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36
Q

What bones contain paranasal sinuses?

A

Frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, and sphenoid

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37
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

The bone develops within a tendon

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38
Q

What are examples of heterotopic bone?

A

Calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments

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39
Q

What are examples of accessory bone?

A

Para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae

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40
Q

What are the four basic surface feature categories?

A

Elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways, and facets

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41
Q

What are the types of osseous elevations?

A

Linear, rounded, and sharp

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42
Q

What are the types of osseous linear elevation?

A

The Line, ridge, and crest

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43
Q

What is an example of the slightest type of osseous linear elevation?

A

Transverse lines of sternum

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44
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

Tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

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45
Q

What is the definition of an osseous malleolus?

A

A hammerhead-like elevation on the surface of bone

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46
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

Spine and process

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47
Q

What is the definition of the osseous elevation called “spine”?

A

A thorn-like elevation from the surface of bone

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48
Q

What is the definition of an osseous process?

A

A relatively sharp bony projection from the surface of bone with an increased length

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49
Q

What are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

Linear and rounded depressions

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50
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

Notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

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51
Q

What is the definition on an osseous groove?

A

A long furrow of variable depth on the surface of bone

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52
Q

What is the definition of an osseous sulcus?

A

A wide groove of variable length and depth on the surface of bone

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53
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

Fovea and fossa

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54
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fovea?

A

A shallow depression of variable circumference on the surface of bone

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55
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fossa?

A

A deep depression of variable circumference on the surface of bone

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56
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

Ostium or orifice and hiatus

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57
Q

What is the definition of an osseous hiatus?

A

An irregular opening on the surface of bone

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58
Q

What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

Foramen or canal

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59
Q

What is the definition of an osseous foramen?

A

An ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone

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60
Q

What is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

An ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

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61
Q

What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?

A

Meatus

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62
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

An irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

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63
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets?

A

Flat facets and rounded facets

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64
Q

What are examples of a flat osseous facet?

A

The articular facets of most zygoapophyses of the vertebral column

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65
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

Articular heads and articular condyles

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66
Q

What is the definition of an osseous condyle?

A

A knuckle-shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation

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67
Q

How many bones from the typical adult skeleton?

A

206 bones

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68
Q

What are the subdivisions of the skeleton?

A

Axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

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69
Q

How many bones form the typical adult appendicular skeleton?

A

126 bones

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70
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

A

28 bones

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71
Q

How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8 bones

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72
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?

A

14 bones

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73
Q

What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

The spine

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74
Q

What is the definition of “spine” as it pertains to the vertebral column?

A

The pre-sacral region of the vertebral column or spinal column

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75
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?

A

One bone

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76
Q

What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?

A

The manubrium sterni, the corpus sterni, and the xiphoid process

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77
Q

How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?

A

12 pairs or 24 ribs

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78
Q

What term is used to identify the study of joints?

A

Arthrology

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79
Q

What term is use to identify the study of ligaments?

A

Syndesmology

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80
Q

What are the three histological classifications of joints?

A

Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial fluid

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81
Q

What were the three classifications of joints based on movement potential?

A

Synarthrosis
Amphiarthrosis
Diarhrosis

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82
Q

Which classification of synarthrosis joints implies a bond condition?

A

Syndesmosis

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83
Q

What is the classification of a joint held together with cartilage?

A

Synchondrosis

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84
Q

What is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?

A

Symphysis

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85
Q

What is the name given to a condition in which bones are fused together by bone?

A

Synostosis

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86
Q

What is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth?

A

Malocclusion

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87
Q

What fibrous connective tissue classically fills the joint space of a syndesmosis?

A

Interosseous ligament

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88
Q

What are the classic examples of the less moveable or “fixed” syndesmosis?

A

Tibia-fibula shaft articulation (or radio-ulnar shaft articulation, coraco-clavicular joint, or tympano-stapedial joint

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89
Q

What are the examples of the typical syndesmosis from the vertebral column?

A

Most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column and ligamentous sacro-iliac joints

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90
Q

What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

They are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template

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91
Q

What are examples of temporary cartilage joints?

A

Metaphysis, neuro-central joint, neural arch joint, and chondrocranium

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92
Q

What are examples of a permanent (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

Costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

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93
Q

Which cartilage joint classification would be considered secondary?

A

(Amphiarthrosis) symphysis

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94
Q

What type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

Fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage

*Also characteristic of secondary cartilage

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95
Q

What are the characteristics of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

Limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

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96
Q

What are the classic examples of a amphiarthrosis symphysis?

A

Intervertebral disc, pubic symphysis, sternal symphyses, and symphysis menti

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97
Q

Which example of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?

A

Symphysis menti

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98
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

Articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage, and synovial fluid

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99
Q

Thickening of the fibrous capsule connective tissue will form the what?

A

Capsular Ligament

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100
Q

What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament?

A

Intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments

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101
Q

What are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?

A

Located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

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102
Q

What are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?

A

Located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

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103
Q

What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?

A

Present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendons organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

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104
Q

What is the function of type IV articular receptors?

A

Nociceptive, they monitor pain

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105
Q

Type IVa articular receptors would would be present in what locations?

A

Fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels

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106
Q

Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

Accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

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107
Q

Type IV articular receptors would be absent in what part(s) of the synovial (diarthrosis) joint?

A

Synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial menisci or intra-articular discs

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108
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

(1) Synovial villi, (2) Articular fat pads or Haversian glands, (3) Synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

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109
Q

What is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

Aid in spreading synovial fluid

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110
Q

What is the apparent function of synovial villi?

A

Increase the surface of synovial membrane available for secretion - absorption phenomena

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111
Q

Where are the articular fat pads located?

A

In the fibrous layer of synovial membrane; they are absent from articular cartilage, synovial menisci, intra-articular disc

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112
Q

Articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column?

A

Lumbar Zygapophyses

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113
Q

Intra-articular discs are a feature of what joints examples?

A

Temporomandibular
Sternoclavicular
Acromioclavicular
Radio-Ulnar joints

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114
Q

Synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples?

A

Femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses

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115
Q

What are the layers of the synovial membrane?

A

Outer fibrous layer and an inner (lumenal) cellular layer

AKA synovial lamina intima

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116
Q

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

Are phagocytic

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117
Q

What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

Secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

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118
Q

What are the primary constituents of articular cartilage?

A

Water
Cells
Collagen type II fibers
Proteoglycan gel

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119
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

Form a network for water retention

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120
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

Cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

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121
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

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122
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?

A

Weeping theory

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123
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?

A

Boosted theory

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124
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the synovial fluid?

A

Boosted theory

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125
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low-friction observed during movement?

A

Boundary theory

126
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

It is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

127
Q

Which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

Hyaluronate

128
Q

What substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

Lubricin

129
Q

What is a simple synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

Only one pair of articulating surfaces are observed

130
Q

What is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

More than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial joint

131
Q

What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

Within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus

132
Q

What are the classifications of synovial joints (diarthroses) based on type of movement?

A

Nonaxial, uniaxial, biaxial, and multiaxial synovial joints

133
Q

What movements are accommodated by nonaxial synovial joints?

A

Translational movement, a plane or gliding movement

134
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as nonaxial?

A

Plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)

135
Q

What movements are accommodated by uniaxial synovial joints?

A

A single combination of movements relative to a single axis:
Flexion - extension
OR
Medial rotation - lateral rotation

136
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as uniaxial?

A

Hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)

137
Q

what morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

138
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as multiaxial?

A

Ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis), (diarthrosis spheroidal), (diarthrosis cotyloid) are all classifications given to the same type of joint

139
Q

What are examples of synovial plane (diarthrosis arthroidal) joint?

A

Most zygapophyses of the vertebral column
Intercarpal, carpometacarpal, and intermetacarpal joints of the hand
Intercuneiform, tarsometatarsal, and intermetatarsal joints of the foot

140
Q

What are examples of synovial hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) joints?

A

Humero-ulnar joint of the elbow and interphalangeal joints of the fingers and toes

141
Q

What are the examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints?

A

Median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

142
Q

What is the shared morphological characteristic of diarthrosis trochoid joints?

A

An osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring

143
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?

A

Temporomandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee

144
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?

A

Radiocarpal joint of the wrist, metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of hte foot and the atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

145
Q

Which synovial joint classifications are now often interchanged in textbooks?

A

Ellipsoidal and condylar synovial joints

146
Q

What are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joints?

A

Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of the ankle and the calcaneocuboid joint of the foot

147
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis contyloid joints?

A

Femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus - glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder

148
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?

A

33 segments

149
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?

A

26 segments

150
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

the 24 sacral segments; the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae

151
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical sacrum?

A

5 segments

152
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx?

A

4 segments

153
Q

Which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae?

A

Two-toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, and three-toed sloth

154
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae

A

The ant bear and three-toed sloth

155
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

The manatee and two-toed sloth

156
Q

What does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

The region of the neck

157
Q

What does the term “thoracic” refer to?

A

Breast plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso

158
Q

What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

The dorsal segments; the dorsals

159
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region?

A

12 segments

160
Q

What does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

The loin; the region between the rib and the hip

161
Q

what is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?

A

5 segments

162
Q

What does the term “sacrum” refer to?

A

The holy bone or holy region

163
Q

What does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

A cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo birds’ beak

164
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

About 70 centimeters or 28 inches

165
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

About 60 centimeters or 25 inches

166
Q

What is the length difference between a typical male and female spinal column?

A

about 3 inches

167
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region (both measurements)?

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

168
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region (both measurements)?

A

About 28 centimeters or 11 inches

169
Q

What is the length of the male lumbar region (both measurements)?

A

About 18 centimeters or 7 inches

170
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum (both measurements)?

A

About 12 centimeters or 5 inches

171
Q

Based on the number for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine (both measurements)?

A

About 58 centimeters or 23 inches

172
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weigh-bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the auricular surface

173
Q

What is specifically responsible for shape and position of fthe human frame?

A

Comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc

174
Q

What organ(s) is (are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

The eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

175
Q

When does the embryonic disc form?

A

second week in utero

176
Q

When does gastrulation occur or a 3-layered embryo form?

A

Third week in utero

177
Q

Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?

A

Notochord

178
Q

What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

paraxial mesoderm

179
Q

What embryonic structure gives rise to the somites?

A

Paraxial mesoderm

180
Q

Name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite.

A

Sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome

181
Q

What are the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?

A

Membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous

182
Q

Migration of a somite pair to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?

A

The perichordal blastema

183
Q

The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?

A

Neural processes and costal processes

184
Q

What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?

A

Intersegmental artery

185
Q

What forms between the sclerotomites of the perichonrdal blastema?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

186
Q

The intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?

A

The perichordal disc

187
Q

The union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastemae gives rise to what feature?

A

The vertebral blastema

188
Q

What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?

A

The segmental artery

189
Q

When will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema?

A

Beginning in the 6th embryonic week

190
Q

What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?

A

Chondrification

191
Q

What are the names given to the centers of chondrification within the vertebral blastema?

A

Centrum center, neural arch center, transverse process center

192
Q

How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?

A

Six: 2 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arches, 2 for each transverse process

193
Q

What is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in cartilaginous vertebra?

A

During 7th embryonic week

194
Q

What is the name given to centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

3 Primary centers: 5 secondary centers

195
Q

What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

Centrum centers and neural arch centers

196
Q

What are the names/locations of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

Tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers

197
Q

What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?

A

During puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old

198
Q

What are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra?

A

The vertebral body, vertebral arch, and the apophyseal regions

199
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - rectangular; thoracic - triangular; lumbar - reniform

200
Q

What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?

A

Superior epiphyseal rim, inferior epiphyseal rim

201
Q

What are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body?

A

Nutrient foramina or vascular foramina

202
Q

What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?

A

The basivertebral venous foramen

203
Q

What is the name given to the anterior part of the vertebral arch?

A

The pedicle

204
Q

What is the name given to the feature located at the upper and lower surfaces of the pedicle?

A

The superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral Incisure; the inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

205
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - posterolateral
Thoracic - posterior, slight lateral
Lumbar - posterior

206
Q

All lamina are oriented in what direction?

A

Posterior and median

207
Q

What ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

The ligamentum flavum

208
Q

What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

Para-articular process

209
Q

What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

A

Accessory bone

210
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on X-ray?

A

Shingling

211
Q

What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on lateral X-ray?

A

The spinolaminar junction

212
Q

What is the name given to the tubular bone growth regions of the vertebral arch?

A

The apophyseal regions

213
Q

What is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar - pars interarticularis

214
Q

What names may be given to each apophysis of the spine?

A

The transverse apophysis or transverse process; articular apophysis or articular process; spinous apophysis or spinous process

215
Q

What is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - anterolateral; thoracic - posterolateral; lumbar - lateral

216
Q

All non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?

A

The costal element

217
Q

What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process?

A

The transverse tubercle

218
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

Cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

219
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

The growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

220
Q

What will the articular process/articular apophysis support?

A

The articular facet

221
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

The zygapophysis

222
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?

A

The superior articular facet

223
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis?

A

The inferior articular facet

224
Q

What names are given to the part of the vertebra which supports the front of the zygapophysis?

A

The superior articular apophysis, the superior articular process, or the pre-zygapophysis

225
Q

What names are given to the part of the vertebra which supports the back of the zygapophysis?

A

The inferior articular apophysis, the inferior articular process, or the post-zygapophysis

226
Q

What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the pre-zygapophysis?

A

The superior articular process or superior articular apophysis

227
Q

What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the post-zygapophysis?

A

The inferior articular process or inferior articular apophysis

228
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

229
Q

What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

230
Q

What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure

231
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

232
Q

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

Calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane

233
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on X-ray?

A

Imbrication

234
Q

What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the tip of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

The spinous tubercle

235
Q

what is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - slight angle inferiorly
Thoracic - noticeable
Lumbar - no inferior angle

236
Q

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A

Cervical - Trianglular
Thoracic - Oval
Lumbar - Triangular
Sacrum - Triangular

237
Q

At what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate?

A

L1

238
Q

At what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?

A

S2

239
Q

What are the segmental arteries?

A

The arteries whose branches supply the vertebra or segment

240
Q

Identify all segmental arteries

A

Vertebral, ascending cervical, deep cervical, superior (highest) intercostal, posterior intercostal, subcostal, lumbar, iliolumbar, lateral sacral and median (middle) sacral

241
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?

A

The vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery, and deep cervical artery

242
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?

A

The deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery, and subcostal artery

243
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

The lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median (middle) sacral artery

244
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?

A

C1-C6

245
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?

A

C1-C6

246
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?

A

C7-T1

247
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?

A

T1-T2

248
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?

A

T3-T11

249
Q

What segmental level(s) is/are supplied by the subcostal artery?

A

T12

250
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?

A

L1-L4

251
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?

A

L5, S1-S5, and coccyx

252
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?

A

Osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery

253
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

Anterior spinal canal artery and plexus

254
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

Posterior spinal canal artery and plexus

255
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?

A

Anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery

256
Q

Which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

A

Anterior radicular artery

257
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root, and nerve root ganglion?

A

Posterior radicular artery

258
Q

What is the name given to the artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length?

A

Anterior spinal artery

259
Q

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

The vertebral artery

260
Q

Is the anterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

No

261
Q

As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

Anterior medullary feeder arteries

262
Q

The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

The posterior inferior cerebellar artery

263
Q

What is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?

A

It lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord

264
Q

Is the posterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

No

265
Q

As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

Posterior medullary feeder artery

266
Q

What changes to the arterial vasa corona occur between C3 and C6?

A

Right and left anterior spinal arteries fuse to become a single median anterior spinal artery, the right and left posterior spinal arteries are unchanged, and the four communicating arteries are reduced to three communicating arteries

267
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

Pial perforating arteries

268
Q

What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?

A

Anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

269
Q

What vessels drain the spinal cord?

A

Pial veins

270
Q

Which vessels will drain the venous vasa corona?

A

Anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins

271
Q

Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?

A

Anterior radicular veins

272
Q

Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?

A

Anterior radicular veins

273
Q

Which vessels will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve roots?

A

Posterior radicular veins

274
Q

What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

Posterior radicular veins

275
Q

What veins will lie in the subarachnoid space?

A

Pial veins, venous vasa corona, anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, communicating veins, anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins, anterior radicular veins, posterior radicular veins

276
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

277
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

Posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

278
Q

What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

A

Intervertebral veins

279
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal or (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis) and the commonly accepted meaning of each

A

Dura mater - tough mother
arachnoid mater - spider mother
pia mater - tender or delicate mother

280
Q

Name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis)

A

Epidural space - between the vertebral foramen and the dura mater
Subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
Subarachnoid space - between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater

281
Q

what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

Interstitial fluid

282
Q

What are the contents of the epidural space?

A

Anterior and posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
Anterior and posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral vein
Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve
Ligamentum flavum
Posterior longitudinal ligament

283
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A

Anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral vein
Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve
Posterior longitudinal ligament
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

284
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

Anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Basivertebral vein
Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior duralmeningovertebral ligament

285
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

Posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
Posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
Ligamentum Flavum

286
Q

What is the name given to the fluid with the subarachnoid space?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

287
Q

What are the typical contents of the subarachnoid space down to the level C3?

A
  • Anterior spinal arteries (and veins), *posterior spinal arteries, *communicating arteries, arterial vasa corona, pial perforating arteries, central/sulcal perforating arteries, *anterior radicular arteries, *posterior radicular arteries, anterior medullary feeder arteries, posterior medullary feeder arteries, dentate/denticulate ligament
  • Venous vasa corona, Pial veins, Anterior medullary veins, posterior, medullary veins, intervertebral veins
288
Q

What contents of the subarachnoid space are changed below the level C6?

A

The arterial vasa corona consists of one anterior spinal artery, two posterior spinal arteries, and three communicating arteries

289
Q

What is the name given to the lateral extension of pia mater along the spinal cord?

A

Dentate (denticulate) ligament

290
Q

What is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?

A

They lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins

291
Q

In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?

A

Transverse

292
Q

What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A

C3-T1, the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbrosacral) enlargement

293
Q

Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

A

C6

294
Q

In which plane (or direction) will the diameter of the spinal decrease from C2-T1?

A

Midsagittal or anterior-posterior plane

295
Q

What is the generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

296
Q

What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

Conus Medullaris

297
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

Typically S4, S5, and Co1

298
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1

299
Q

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?

A

Cauda Equina

300
Q

What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?l

A

Filum Terminale Internum

301
Q

What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?

A

It joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4

302
Q

What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first coverage at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

A

Typically S2, the dural cul de sac

303
Q

Neural tissue has been identified in what part of the filum terminale?

A

Proximal part of the filum terminale internum

304
Q

What does the neural tissue associated with the filum terminale externum appear to innervate?

A

Lower limbs and the external and sphincter

305
Q

The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?

A

Cruciate anastomosis

306
Q

What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

Filum Terminale Externum

307
Q

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

Coccygeal medullary vestige

308
Q

What is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

Tethered cord syndrome

309
Q

What is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?

A

It is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord

310
Q

What is the relationship between rib number and vertebral numbers at the costocentral joint?

A

Rib number always equates to same vertebral number at the costocentral joint
Rib 3 articulates with T3 segment and also with the T2 segment
Only ribs 1, 11, and 12 typically joint with a single segment

311
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

The spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple
The rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple i.e. T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple

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