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Spinal Anatomy Test 1 > Spinal Anatomy Test 1: Daily Quiz Questions > Flashcards

Spinal Anatomy Test 1: Daily Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four basic tissues of the human body?

A

epithelial, muscle, neural, and connective tissues

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2
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

osteoblast=form bone
osteoclast=remodel bone
osteocyte=maintain or nurture bone

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3
Q

What are the bone cells embedded in?

A

An amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals

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4
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground stubstance?

A

glycosaminoglycans

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5
Q

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

A

collagen type 1

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6
Q

what is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

hydorxyapatite

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7
Q

What is Wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?

A

Living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress

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8
Q

What is bone the embryological derivative of?

A

mesenchyme or cartilage

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9
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

from the second to third month in utero

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10
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

from the second to fifth month in utero

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11
Q

what part of the skull is derived from endchondral ossification?

A

chondrocranium

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12
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

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13
Q

what re the three responses of bone that allow it to be describes as “living”

A

it has the ability to heal, remodel under stressors, and to age

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14
Q

what is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

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15
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

sexual dimorphism, ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation) geographic or population based variation (ethic variation) and idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)

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16
Q

What are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?

A

long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus, or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones.

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17
Q

What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in spinal II

A

heterotopic and accessory bone

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18
Q

What is the characteristic feature of long bone?

A

it is longer in length than in width

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19
Q

What are the names given to the parts of long bone?

A

diaphysis=shaft

epiphysis= ends

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20
Q

what is the primary characteristic of short bones?

A

they are cuboidal

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21
Q

what are examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

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22
Q

what are examples of flat bones?

A

the parietal bone and sternum

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23
Q

what is the name given to the spongy bone of the skull?

A

diploe

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24
Q

what are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid and temporal

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25
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

the bone develops within a tendon

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26
Q

what are the consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

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27
Q

what are examples of heterotopic bone?

A

calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart and ligaments

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28
Q

what are examples of accessory bone?

A

para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae

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29
Q

what are the four basic surface feature categories?

A

elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways and facets

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30
Q

when do the surface features of bone become prominent?

A

during and after puberty

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31
Q

what are the types of osseous linear elevations?

A

line, ridge and crest

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32
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

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33
Q

what are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

linear and rounded depressions

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34
Q

what is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

heterotopic bone

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35
Q

what is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

accessory bone

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36
Q

what are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch, incisure, groove and sulcus

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37
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

fovea and fossa

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38
Q

what are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

ostium or orifice and hiatus

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39
Q

what are the names given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

foramen or canal

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40
Q

what is the definition of an osseous foramen?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone

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41
Q

What is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

an ostium passing completely through a thick region of bone

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42
Q

What is the name given to an osmium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind ended passageway?

A

Meatus

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43
Q

what is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

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44
Q

what are the categories of osseous facets?

A

flat facets and rounded facets

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45
Q

what are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

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46
Q

How many bones form the typical adult skeleton?

A

206 bones

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47
Q

what are the subdivisions of the skeleton?

A

axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

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48
Q

How many bones form the typical adult appendicular skeleton?

A

126 bones

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49
Q

How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?

A

80 bones

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50
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

A

28 bones

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51
Q

What bones form the neurocranium of the typical adult neurocranium?

A

frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid

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52
Q

how many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8

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53
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?

A

14

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54
Q

What is the name given to the pre sacral region of the typical adult vertebral column?

A

the spine

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55
Q

what is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

A

24

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56
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?

A

1

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57
Q

What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?

A

the manubrium steri, the corpus stern and the xiphoid process.

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58
Q

how many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?

A

12 pairs, or 24 ribs

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59
Q

what term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

A

syndesmology

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60
Q

what are the three histological classifications of joints?

A

fibrous, cartliaginous and synovial fluid

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61
Q

the ligamentous sacroiliac joints (or most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column) are examples of which joint classification?

A

syndesmosis

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62
Q

what are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

they are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template.

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63
Q

what are examples of permanent (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

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64
Q

what are the characteristics of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

limited motion, medial plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

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65
Q

which example of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?

A

symphysis menti

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66
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

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67
Q

Type II articular receptors morphologically resemble which type of sensory ending?

A

pacinian corpuscle

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68
Q

What are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?

A

located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule
resemble Pacinian corpuscles
most numerous in the cervical spine
and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

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69
Q

What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?

A

present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments
resemble golgi tendon organs
not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

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70
Q

what are the characteristics of the type I articular receptors?

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule
resemble Ruffini endings
most numerous in cervical zygapophyses
monitor the joint “at rest”

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71
Q

What is the function of type IV articular receptors?

A

nociceptive, they monitor pain

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72
Q

Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

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73
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A
  1. synovial villi
  2. articular fat pads of Haversian glands
  3. synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
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74
Q

Articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column?

A

lumbar zygapophyses

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75
Q

Intra-articular disc are a feature of what joints examples?

A

tempromandibular, sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular and radio-ulnar joints

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76
Q

synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples?

A

femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses

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77
Q

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

phagocytic

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78
Q

what is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteniaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

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79
Q

Which collagen fiber type predominates in articular cartilage?

A

type II

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80
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

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81
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time INDEPENDENT property.

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82
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time DEPENDENT property

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83
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?

A

weeping theory

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84
Q

which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?

A

boosted theory

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85
Q

which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low-friction observed during movement?

A

boundary theory

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86
Q

what are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

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87
Q

synovial fluid consists of what specific chemical groups?

A

fats, salts, albumins and hyaluronate

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88
Q

which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

hyaluronate

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89
Q

what substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

lubricin

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90
Q

What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus.

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91
Q

what morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as non axial?

A

plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)

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92
Q

what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A

hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis torchoid)

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93
Q

what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

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94
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as multi axial?

A

ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis)
(diarthrosis spheroidal)
(diarthrosis cotyloid) are all classifications give to the same type of joint.

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95
Q

what are the examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints?

A

medial atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

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96
Q

what are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?

A

tempromandibular joint and femur-tibia joint of the knee

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97
Q

what are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?

A

radiocarpal joint of wrist
metacarpo-phalangeal joints of hand
metatarsal-phalangeal joints of foot
atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

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98
Q

what are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joints?

A

carpometacarpal joint of thumb
talocrural joint of ankle
calcaneocuboid joint of foot

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99
Q

what are examples of diarthrosis cotyloid joints?

A

femur-acetabulum of innominate articulation at the hip and
the humerus-glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder.

these are also examples of diarthrosis spheroidal joints, and diarthrosis enarthrosis joints.

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100
Q

what is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?

A

33 segments

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101
Q

what is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?

A

26 segments

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102
Q

what constitutes the spine?

A

the 24 pre sacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

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103
Q

which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

the ant bear and the three-toed sloth

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104
Q

which mammals have less than 7 cervical vertebrae?

A

the manatee and two-twoed sloth

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105
Q

what does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

the region of the neck

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106
Q

what does the term “thoracic” refer to?

A

the breast plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso

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107
Q

what other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

the dorsal segments; the dorsals

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108
Q

what does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

the loin; the region between the rib and the hip

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109
Q

what is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?

A

5 segments

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110
Q

what does the term “sacrum” refer to?

A

the holy bone, or holy region

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111
Q

what does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

a cuckoo birds’s bill or cuckoo birds beak.

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112
Q

what is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

70 cm

28 inches

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113
Q

what is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

60 cm

25 inches

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114
Q

what is the length difference between a typical male and typical female spinal column?

A

about 3 inches

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115
Q

what is the length of the male cervical region?

A

12 cm

5 in

116
Q

what is the length of the male thoracic region?

A

28 cm

11 in

117
Q

what is the length of the male lumbar region?

A

18 cm

7 in

118
Q

what is the length of the male sacrum?

A

12 cm

5 in

119
Q

based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine?

A

58 cm

23 in

120
Q

how does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

121
Q

what levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight-bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the auricular surface

122
Q

what is specifically responsible for shape and position of the human frame?

A

comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc.

123
Q

what organ(s) is (are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear.

124
Q

invagination of the ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?

A

notochord

125
Q

what is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

paraxial mesoderm

126
Q

name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite?

A

sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome

127
Q

what are the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?

A

membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous

128
Q

migration of a somite pair to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?

A

the perichordal blastema

129
Q

the perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?

A

neural processes and costal processes.

130
Q

what is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?

A

intersegmental artery

131
Q

what forms between the sclerotomites of the perichordal blastema?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

132
Q

the intersclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?

A

the perichordal disc

133
Q

the union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastulae gives rise to what feature?

A

the vertebral blastema

134
Q

what vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?

A

the segmental artery

135
Q

when will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema?

A

beginning in the 6th embryonic week

136
Q

what is the name given to replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?

A

chondrification

137
Q

how many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?

A

six….2 for centrum, 2 for neural arches, 2 for each transverse process

138
Q

what is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear int he cartilaginous vertebra?

A

during the 7th embryonic week

139
Q

what is the name given to centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

primary centers appear in utero, secondary centers appear after birth.

140
Q

what is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

3 primary centers: 5 secondary centers.

141
Q

what are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

centrum centers and neural arch centers

142
Q

what are the names/locations of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers.

143
Q

what is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?

A

during puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old

144
Q

what is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical–rectangular
thoracic–triangular
lumbar–reniform

145
Q

what is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?

A

superior epiphyseal rim and inferior epiphyseal rim

146
Q

what is the name given to the intermediate part of the vertebral arch where the transverse process and articular processes attach?

A

the lamina-pedicle junction

147
Q

what is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

cervical-posterolateral
thoracic-posterior, slight lateral
lumbar-posterior

148
Q

what ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

ligamentum falvum

149
Q

what is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

para-articular process

150
Q

what classification of bone will para-articular process represent?

A

accessory bone

151
Q

what is the name given to the overlap of laminae see on an X-ray?

A

shingling

152
Q

what is the name given to the lamina-pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

cervical-articular pillar

thoracic and lumbar-pars interarticularis

153
Q

what is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch-spinous process on lateral X-ray?

A

spinolaminar junctions

154
Q

what is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical-anterolateral
thoracic-posterolateral
lumbar-lateral

155
Q

all non-rib-bearing vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?

A

the costal element

156
Q

what will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position.

157
Q

what will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward.

158
Q

what is the name given to the joint formed between articular facts of a vertebral couple?

A

zygapophysis

159
Q

what will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-sygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum.

160
Q

what will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior vertebral notch, or inferior vertebral incisure.

161
Q

what will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure.

162
Q

what will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervetebral foramen?

A

the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervetebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament.

163
Q

what is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane.

164
Q

what is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on an X-ray?

A

imbrication

165
Q

what is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical-slight angle inferiorly
thoracic-noticable angle inferiorly
lumbar-no inferior angle

166
Q

what is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A

cervical-triangluar
thoracic-oval
lumbar-triangular
sacrum-triangular

167
Q

at what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate?

A

L1

168
Q

at what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?

A

S2

169
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?

A

the vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery.

170
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and medial (middle) sacral artery.

171
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the 5th lumbar vertebra?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery.

172
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median sacral artery.

173
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?

A

C1-C6

174
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?

A

C1-C6

175
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?

A

C7-T1.

176
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?

A

T1, T2

177
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?

A

T3-T11

178
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the subcostal artery?

A

T12

179
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?

A

L1-L4

180
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the median (middle) sacral artery?

A

L5, S1-S5, and coccyx

181
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery?

A

L5, S1-S5, and coccyx

182
Q

which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it?

A

L5

183
Q

what are the segmental arteries for L5?

A

iliolumbar artery, median (middle) sacral artery and lateral sacral artery

184
Q

what branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paravertebral region?

A

dorsospinal artery

185
Q

which artery is primarily observed in the distal part of the intervetebral foramen?

A

spinal artery

186
Q

which branch of the dorsospinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter subarachnoid space?

A

spinal artery

187
Q

what are the branches of the spinal artery?

A

osseous arteries,
anterior spinal canal artery,
posterior spinal canal artery,
anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery, anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery.

188
Q

which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural apace?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery.

189
Q

what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus

190
Q

what arteries are observed in the epidural space here the ligamentum flavum?

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus.

191
Q

which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?

A

anterior and posterior radicular arteries

anterior and posterior medullary feeder arteries.

192
Q

which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

A

anterior radicular artery

193
Q

which vessel all supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular artery

194
Q

what is the location and number of medullary feeder arteries present int he adult

A

9 anterior and 12 posterior medullary feeder arteries

195
Q

what is the name given to the artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length?

A

anterior spinal artery

196
Q

the anterior spinal artery is a branch of what artery?

A

the vertebral artery

197
Q

is the anterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

no

198
Q

as the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite alone its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel

A

anterior medullary feeder

199
Q

the posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

200
Q

what is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?

A

it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord

201
Q

is the posterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

no

202
Q

as the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite alone its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

posterior medullar feeder arteries

203
Q

what forms the arterial vasa cornea above C3?

A

right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries.

204
Q

what forms the arterial vasa cornea below C6?

A

a medial anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries.

205
Q

what changes to the arterial vasa cornea occur between C3 and C6?

A

right and left anterior spinal arteries fuse to become a single median anterior spinal artery, the right and left posterior spinal arteries are unchanged, and the 4 communicating arteries are reduced to 3 communicating arteries.

206
Q

what is the generic name given to arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?

A

intramedullary arteries

207
Q

what are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?

A

pial perforating arteries, central/ventral/suclcal perforating arteries.

208
Q

what arterial vasa cornea branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

209
Q

what intramedullary branches supply about one third of the spinal cord?

A

pial perforating arteries

210
Q

what is the source for pail perforating arteries

A

the pial plexus

211
Q

what is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?

A

anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

212
Q

what vessels drain the spinal cord?

A

pial vessels.

213
Q

what will pail veins drain into?

A

venous vasa corona.

214
Q

which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A

right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins and 4 communicating veins.

215
Q

which vessels will drain the venous vasa corona?

A

anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins.

216
Q

what vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular veins

217
Q

what veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior internal vertebral venous plexus.

218
Q

what veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

219
Q

what venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

A

intervertebral veins

220
Q

identify the meninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis)

A

dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater.

221
Q

what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

interstitial fluid

222
Q

which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?

A

subdural space–between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

223
Q

which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and pelxus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

224
Q

what is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space?

A

serous fluid

225
Q

what is the name given to the fluid with the subarachnoid space?

A

cerebrospinal fluid

226
Q

what is the name given to the lateral extension of pia mater along the spinal cord?

A

dentate (denticulate) ligament

227
Q

what is the unique feature of veins along the spinal cord?

A

they lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins

228
Q

in horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?

A

transverse

229
Q

what are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A

C3-T1, the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement

230
Q

where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

A

C6

231
Q

What is the generic cord level of origin-vertebral level combination for the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra;
L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra;
L5 S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra;
S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

232
Q

What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

conus medullaris

233
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

typically S4, S5 and Co1.

234
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1

235
Q

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1

A

cauda equina

236
Q

What is the continuation of the pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

A

filum terminale internum

237
Q

What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

A

typically S2, the dural cul de sac

238
Q

Neural tissue has been identified in what part of the film terminale?

A

proximal part of the filum terminal internum

239
Q

What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?

A

it joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4.

240
Q

What does the neural tissue associated with the filmum terminal externum appear to innervate?

A

lower limbs and the external anal sphincter

241
Q

the last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?

A

cruciate anastomosis

242
Q

what its he name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

filum terminale

243
Q

what is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

244
Q

what is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the film terminal is thickened?

A

tethered cord syndrome

245
Q

what is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?

A

it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord

246
Q

what is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in the thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple
the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple

i.e T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joins with this vertebral couple.

247
Q

which mammals have more than the seven cervical vertebrae?

A

ant bear, three toed sloth

248
Q

which mammals have less than the seven cervical vertebrae?

A

two-toed sloth, manatee

249
Q

what is the number of vertebrae in the typical cervical spine?

A

seven segments

250
Q

which vertebrae are typical cervicals?

A

C3-C6.

251
Q

Which vertebrae are atypical cervicals?

A

C1, C2, C7

252
Q

What is the shape of the typical cervical vertebral body from the cranial view?

A

rectangular

253
Q

what is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?

A

posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters

254
Q

what would be the direction of the cervical curve based on osseous features?

A

posterior or kyphotic

255
Q

what accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

intervertebral disc height

256
Q

What is the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

anterior or lordotic

257
Q

At which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?

A

C5/C6

258
Q

what is the effect of aging on the cervical body?

A

it diminishes the overall height of the vertebral body?

259
Q

what are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes

260
Q

what are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim?

A

uncinate process, unciform process, unconvertebral process, uncus or lateral lip.

261
Q

at what developmental age will the uncinate process first be observed?

A

3rd-4th fetal month

262
Q

what are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior lip, posterior lip and left lateral grooves

263
Q

what are the names given to the lateral modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim?

A

lateral groove or enchancrure

264
Q

what is the joint classification for the posterior lip-posterior groove articulation?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

265
Q

what is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior groove articulation?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

266
Q

what is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

modified synovial saddle (diarthrosis seller)

267
Q

hiiii linzzzkitten

A

.meow!

268
Q

what is the joint classification for the songy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?

A

cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis

269
Q

how many joint surfaces are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

five

270
Q

how many joint surfaces are present on the lower surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

five

271
Q

how many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

ten

272
Q

What is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

joint of the Luschka or unconvertebral joint

273
Q

What does the recent literature suggest as to the nature of the joint of Luschka?

A

the joint is representative of intervertebral disc aging, which results in loss of lamellar integrity near the joint.

274
Q

What is the functional significance of the joint of Luschka?

A

it appears to stabilize the intervertebral disc while accommodating flexion-extension and requiring coupled motion (axial rotation with lateral bending) in the cervical spine

275
Q

what muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?

A

the longs colli muscle

276
Q

what is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?

A

posterolateral, 45 degrees

277
Q

at what location on the vertebral body of a typical cervical will the pedicle attach?

A

to the side and in the center of the vertebral body

278
Q

what surface feature is located at the upper margin of the pedicle?

A

superior vertebral notch

279
Q

What muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

anterior scalenes,
longus capitis,
longus colli,
anterior intertransversarii

280
Q

What muscles may attach to the posterior tubercle of a typical cervical of a typical cervical vertebra?

A 
splenius cervicus,
ilicostalis cervicis,
longissimus cervicis,
levator scapula,
middle scalene,
posterior scalene,
rotators and posterior intertransversarii
281
Q

What muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar?

A

middle scalene and posterior intertransversarii

282
Q

What is the name of given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bat?

A

sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

283
Q

What is the orientation and angulation of a typical cervical transverse process?

A

60 degress anterolaterally (from midsagittal plane),

15 degrees inferiorly (from the horizontal plane)

284
Q

What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?

A

the carotid tubercle

285
Q

What will cause remodeling of the anterior tubercle at C6?

A

the common carotid artery

286
Q

What will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen?

A

the vertebral artery,
vertebral venous plexus, and
postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers

Spinal Anatomy Test 1 (1 decks)

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