Spina Bifida Flashcards

1
Q

At what day does the neural tube normally begin to close?

A

day 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the neural tube completes closing at day?

A

28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the 4 types of mylodyplasia?

A

-occulta
-meningocele
-menigomyelocele (MM)
-myloschisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

name the types of mylodysplasia that do NOT cause paralysis vs. the ones that do

A

NO Paralysis:
-ocuculta (hair tuft only)
-meningecele (skin covered)

Paralysis:
-meningomylocele (may or may not be skin covered)
-myeloschisis ( not skin covered, spinal cord exposed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which is the most common type of myelodysplasia?

A

MM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MM may be associated with genetic abnormalities such as:

A

trisomy 13, 18 and 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the common risk factors for MM?

A

-Alchohol intake
-Anticonvulsants
-Maternal pre-gestational IDDM
-Maternal BMI of > 29 (obesity not overweight)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What maternal condition is a risk factor for MM?

A

Maternal pre-gestational IDDM
(Insulin Dependant Diabetes Mellitus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A supplement taken 3 months before conception to reduce the risk of MM, what is it?

A

Folic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the role of folic acid in preventing spina bifida?

A

it reduces the risk of neural tube defects when taken before pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

At which stage of pregnancy can MM be diagnosed?

A

18 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is MM typically diagnosed during pregnancy?

A

-Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein testing (> 2.5 MoM)
-Ultra sound
-Amniotic fluid analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ultrasound is a diagnostic tool used to determine if there are any cranial malformations in a fetus with MM. What could this malformation be?

A

Chiari II
(posterior cerebellum displaced downward through the formamin magnum, and the brain stem structures also dispalced in the cudal direction (in the note))
(a deformity where the cerebellum and brain stem herniate through the formen magnum (a simpler definition))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is C-section birth safer for a fetus with SB?

A

less risk for infection and damage to nerual sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Management of Myelomeningocele Study (MOMS): In-utero repair of the MM Sac

what are the key benefits of in-utero repair of the MM sac?

A

-less need for shunting
-reversal of hindbrain herniation (AKA: Chiari malformation)
-greater likelihood to walk
-motor function 2 or more levels better than expected by anatomical level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Risk factors of in-utero repair of the MM include:

A

-spontaneouse rupture of the mambrane
-premature delivery
-oligohydraminos (deficiency of amniotic fluid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name SOME musculoskeletal deformities in children with SB

A

-hip dysplasia, subluxation, dislocation
-Talipes equinovarus TEV (add-varus-supination-PF)
-calcaneal valgus (abd-valgus-pronation-DF, (flat feet))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is a motor level?

A

it refers to the lowest intact, functional neuromuscular segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

in the myelodysplasia study group criteria (IMSG), what is type of assessment used to determine the motor level?

A

functional assessment of muscle groups, (must be more or equal to grade 3 to be considerd a motor level)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

slide 12

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are common mesculoskletal contractures ?deformities associated with high level lesions? (thoracic -L2)

A

-hip flexion, abduction , external rotation contracture
-knee flexion contracture
-ankle PF contracture
-lordosis of the lumbar spine
-scoliosis (present in 90% of cases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

slide 14

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

slide 15

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

This type of standing frame is used for patients with lesions at which level?

A

Thoracic lesions (high level lesions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

weak hip movements are associated with lesions at which level?

A

L1-L2 (high lumbar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What type of ambulation is possible for children with L1-L2 lesions?

A

Short-distance household ambulation using KAFOs or RGOs with upper limb support.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the primary mobility device used for community distances in L1-L2 lesions?

A

wheelchair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What orthotic devices are recommended for children with L1-L2 lesions?

A

KAFOs or RGOs and upper limb support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the primary characteristic of an L1 motor level lesion?

A

“Weak iliopsoas muscle (grade 2).”

slide 18
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What distinguishes an L2 motor level lesion from L1?

A

At L2, the iliopsoas, sartorius, and hip adductors are grade 3 or better.

Slide 18
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

L1-L2 lesions presentation

A

Exceeds criteria for L1, but does not meet L2 criteria

Slide 18
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Reciprocating gate orthosis (RGO) is suitable for children with SB that have a lesion at what level

A

Upper lumbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are common musculoskeletal deformities in mid to low lumbar lesions (L3-L5)?

A

-Hip and knee flexion contractures
-increased lumbar lordosis
-scoliosis (present in 40% mid lumbar, 10% lower lumbar)
-genu and calcaneal valgum (genu valgum+flat feet)
-pronated feet when bearing weight. (Flexible flat feet)
-crouch gait (this is the cause of hip/knee contractures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the primary gait pattern seen in children with mid to low lumbar lesions?

A

A pronounced crouch gait with weight-bearing primarily on the calcaneus.

35
Q

What orthotic device is typically required for L3 motor level lesions?

A

KAFOs and crutches for household and some community ambulation; wheelchairs for longer distances.

36
Q

How do children with L4 motor levels initially learn to walk?

A

With KAFOs and walkers

37
Q

After learning to walk, how do children with L4 motor levels ambulate?

A

AFOs and forearm crutches, wheelchairs for longer distances

38
Q

What percentage of individuals with L3 lesions achieve independent living as adults?

A

60%

39
Q

What percentage of children with L4 lesions continue to ambulate as adults?

A

20%

40
Q

Slide 22

A
41
Q

Slide 22

A
42
Q

What is a common characteristic of L5 lesions in terms of ambulation?

A

They can ambulate without orthoses but may need them to correct foot alignment and substitute for lack of push-off (toe off,PF)

43
Q

What is the recommended assistive device for children with L5 lesions during community ambulation?

A

Upper limb support such as crutches to decrease energy expenditure and ensure safety

44
Q

Unless upper limb support is used, what would be evident in children with L5 lesions?

A

Gluteal lurch

45
Q

A wheel chair or bike can be used for long distances in the case of a lesion at

A

L5

46
Q

What percentage of individuals with L5 lesions achieve independent living as adults?

A

80%

47
Q

What are common musculoskeletal presentations in children with sacral lesions?

A

-mild hip and knee flexion contractures
-increased lumbar lordosis
-and ankle/foot deformities such as varus or valgus with a pronated or supinated forefoot

48
Q

What is the typical gait pattern in children with sacral lesions?

A

Mild crouch gait, with weight-bearing primarily on the calcaneus unless plantar flexor muscles are at least grade 3/5.

49
Q

What level of ambulation is possible for children with S1 motor levels?

A

They can walk without orthoses or upper limb support but have weak push-off when running or climbing stairs.

50
Q

What is the recommended orthotic device for children with S1 lesions?

A

FO or AFO to improve foot alignment.

51
Q

What is a common gait abnormality seen in children with S1 lesions?

A

Mild to moderate gluteal lurch.

52
Q

What functional deficits are typically seen at S2 motor levels?

A

Decreased push-off strength and reduced stride length.

53
Q

What are the physical characteristics of children with S2-S3 motor levels?

A

No obvious MOTOR deficits

54
Q

Bowel and bladder dysfunction occurs in lesions at what level?

A

From T1-S5

55
Q

No loss means?

A

That there is no bowel or bladder dysfunctions, meaning the sacral plexus was spared (not injured)

56
Q

Why do sensory deficits in spina bifida not always correlate with motor levels?

A

Sensory loss may skip levels and does not always match the motor lesion level. Which is why it is important to test all dermatomes and multiple sites within a dermatome (for older kids)

57
Q

What sensory tests are recommended for children with spina bifida?

A

Light touch, pinprick, vibration, and proprioception tests.

58
Q

What is the primary educational focus for children with sensory deficits?

A

Teaching skin protection techniques and pressure relief to prevent injuries.

59
Q

What co morbidity occurs in 25% or more of kids born with MM?

A

Hydrocephalus

60
Q

What percentage of children with spina bifida develop hydrocephalus after back lesion closure?

A

60%

61
Q

What percentage of children with hydrocephalus require shunt placement?

A

80-90%

62
Q

What may Hydrocephalus affected?

A

Cognition

63
Q

What device is commonly used to manage hydrocephalus?

A

A ventriculoperitoneal (VP) catheter /shunt.

64
Q

How does a ventriculoperitoneal shunt work?

A

It drains excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the brain ventricles into the peritoneal cavity for reabsorption.

65
Q

What are early signs of shunt dysfunction? SHORT NOTE

A

-changes in speech
-decrease school performance
-recurring headache
There are many more, check slide 28

66
Q

who is 90% more likely to develop hydrocephalus?

A

children with spina bifida and chiari II malformation

67
Q

Surgical Management of Chiari II Malformation includes:

A

Posterior fossa decompression and
Cervical spinal laminectomyThis surgery to reduce compression on the cervical spinal cord and brainstem.

68
Q

What is a common cognitive personality trait in children with hydrocephalus?

A

“Cocktail party personality” – verbose speech with excessive and inappropriate use of jargon and clichés.

69
Q

What are common causes of upper limb dyscoordination in children with spina bifida?

A

-cerebellar ataxia due to chiari II
- motor cortex or pyramidal tract damage (UMNL secondary to hydrocephalus)
-motor learning deficits

70
Q

What is the cause of motor learning deficits in children with SB?

A

Use of upper limbs for balance and support rather than manipulation and exploration

71
Q

Mention some co-morbidities of SB

A

-cognitive dysfunction
-language dysfunction
-latex allergy (73% gave it, so no balloons or gloves!)
- UL dis-coordination
-spasticity and seizures
-neurogenic bowel and bladder
-skin break down and obesity

72
Q

How is neurogenic bladder typically managed in children with spina bifida?

A

With clean intermittent catheterization on a regular schedule.

73
Q

What are common issues related to neurogenic bowel in children with spina bifida?

A

Incontinence, constipation, and impaction.

74
Q

Why is it that only 5% of kids with MM develop voluntary bladder and bowel control?

A

Because in most cases S2 to S4 is not functioning

75
Q

When is a bowel program successful?

A

In the presence of a cutaneous reflex

76
Q

Which OM is used to set goals for kids with SB?

A

Canadian Occupational Performance Measure (COPM)

77
Q

Some PT treatment for SB include:

A

-passive ROM (start early to avoid contractures)
Strengthening exercises (using body weight then progress to external weight )

78
Q

What positions will a child with SB be restricted to post-op?

A

Prone and sidelying positions

79
Q

What is the goal from treatment of spinal deformities?

A

Maintain a balanced trunk and pelvis to optimize function and posture.

80
Q

What orthotic device is commonly used to manage spinal deformities in children with spina bifida?

A

Bivalve Silastic TLSO (thoracolumbosacral orthosis).

81
Q

Why is surgical fusion often delayed until after age 10?

A

To avoid truncal shortening.

82
Q

At what age is surgical fusion typically recommended for spinal deformities in girls vs. boys?

A

-Girls: 10-11 yo
-Boys: 12-13 yo

83
Q

how can PT improve bome mineral density and ROM in children with SB?

A

standing program 5 days per week for 60-90 min/day
(does NOT improve muscle strength but may maintain it)