Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SPHR > SPHR > Flashcards

SPHR Flashcards

1
Q

Characterized by rapid increases in learning in the beginning that taper off as the learner becomes more familiar with the process or task

A

Negatively accelerating learning curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Additional requirements of ADEA related to exit incentives or termination programs (RIFs)
What and When?

A
  • RIF or layoff affecting more than 1 employee
  • 45 days to consider
  • list of eligibility factors for those affected
  • list of job titles and ages of all individuals included and not included
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Categories of expatriate issues in workforce planning

A
  • Cost
  • Foreign Business Practices
  • Cultural Acclimation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

This approach seeks to place the best qualified person into each position, regardless of country of origin

A

Geocentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This approach fills positions int he home country with PCNs and positions in the host country with HCNs

A

Polycentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Approach in which all key management positions are filled by expatriates

A

Ethnocentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

PCN’s

A

Parent Country Nationals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Measurement useful for determining the types of HR programs needed to manage and support the workforce

A

Accesssion Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Measures the number of new employees against the total number of employees

A

Accession Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The WARN act defines mass layoffs as what?

A

500 employees or 33% of workforce and at least 50 employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

WARN act requires ___ notice to ___

A
  • 60 days

- individual employees or their union reps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

WARN act applies to

A

Employers with 100 or more full time workers or 100 total working aggregate 4k hours per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

WARN unforeseeable business circumstances

A

Sudden and unexpected negative change - For example, cancellation of a major contract without warning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

WARN act faltering company exception

A

Company is actively seeking funding and has reasonable expectation that it could prevent layoff and that giving notice may prevent company from obtaining funding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

WARN exceptions

A
  • Faltering company
  • Unforeseen business circumstance
  • Natural disaster
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The WARN act defines plant closings as

A

50+ full time workers due to permanent or temporary shut down of a single facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Immigration Reform and Control Act applies to

A

businesses with four or more employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

___ are specifically excluded from the ADA’s medical examination requirement and may be required prior to extending an offer

A

Drug screening tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The ability of the tool to measures some future outcome

A

Predictive validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Determines whether the tool properly measures what it is designed to measure

A

Construct validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Confirms that a selection procedure samples significant parts of the job being tested

A

Content validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Measures whether test or other instrument produces consistent results so that scores won’t vary over time

A

Reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Measure candidate’s ability to analyze and solve problems and draw conclusions from a set of facts

A

Cognitive ability test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Measure candidate’s knowledge and ability to apply skills in various areas

A

Aptitude test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Test of adverse impact

A 
4/5ths or 80% rule:
Adverse impact exists if the selection rate of the protected class is less than 80% of the selection rate of the group with the highest selection rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

UGESP states a selection tool producing adverse impact is discriminatory unless

A
  • Job-related

- Valid predictor of success

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Specifically exempt from UGESP

A

ADEA & Rehabilitation Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the 2nd level of EO compliance and to whom does it apply?

A
  • Written AAP within 120 days of origin of contract

- 50+ employees and $50k+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the first level of EO compliance and to whom does it apply?

A
  • Prohibits employment discrimination and requires AA

- $10K+ in 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

VEVRAA provides ___ and applies to ___

A
  • EEO and AA protection for vietnam vets

- Federal contractors and subcontractors with contracts of $25k+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Rehabilitation Act applies to

A

Federal government and federal contractors with contracts of $10k or more during a 12 month period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

of employees for ADA coverage

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

ADEA waiver of rights requirements

A
  • Valuable consideration
  • Advice to consult with an attorney
  • 21 days to review/consider
  • 7 days to revoke after signing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

BFOQ’s of ADEA

A
  • Firefighters and police
  • Retirements 65 or older who work in executive positions at least 2 years and are eligible for retirement benefits of at least $44k/year
  • Retirements of tenured employees at institutes of higher education at age 70
  • Discharge/discipline for just cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

of employees for ADEA coverage

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

of employees for Title VII coverage

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

4 Balanced Scorecard areas

A
  • Financial Results
  • Customer Results
  • Key Internal Process
  • How people are hired/trained to achieve org goals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Prima facie retaliation includes these elements

A
  • Employee engaged in a protected activity
  • Employer knew or suspected the employee was engaged in the activity
  • Employee suffered unfavorable employment action
  • Sufficient circumstances to infer a contributing factor was the activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

SOX whistle blower protection is provided by

A

OSHA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A practice of forecasting possible risks to the organization and taking steps to mitigate their impact on organizations

A

Enterprise risk management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Transactions related to product sales and the costs related to creating the product

A

Cost accounting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

BPO provider

PEO provider

A
  • Business process outsource

- Professional employer organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Communicates what the company does, for whom it does it, and what long range success will look like

A

Vision statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Describes the company, what it does, where it’s going, and how it’s different from other companies

A

Mission statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A budgetary activity in which HR attempts to measure the value of the human resources

A

Human capital projecting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

List the steps in the needs assessment process

A
  1. Describe the objective
  2. Define the current situation
  3. Conduct a gap analysis
  4. Set priorities
  5. Investigate and develop options
  6. Evaluate options and determine budget impact
  7. Recommend solutions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Most effective in environments of highly skilled professionals who are self-motivated and independent

A

Democratic style

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Measures the relationship between one variable against another and allows prediction of one variable from the other

A

Simple linear regression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Another name for product-based structure

A

Customer-oriented structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Elements of Blake-Mouton grid

A 
P
E
O
P
L
E
PRODUCTION
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hersey-Blanchard style where followers have experience and motivation

A

Delegating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Benefits of diversity

A
  • Workforce is more creative
  • Reflects the population
  • Increases the candidate pool
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Types of reinforcement are part of which motivation concept?

A

Behavioral modification (operant conditioning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Describe negative reinforcement

A

Encourages continuation of behavior by removing an unpleasant response to the behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

A
  1. Psychological
  2. Safety
  3. Social
  4. Esteem
  5. Self-Actualization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Acquired Needs theory

A
  • Achievement
  • Affiliation
  • Power
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Describe Theory X & Y

A
  • Theory X managers believe employees are lazy and therefore use a top-down approach
  • Theory Y managers believe employees seek challenging work. Likely to invite participation in decision making
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

These leaders set the ideal for the group and act as role models, inspiring excellence in the group and stimulating new ideas

A

Transformational leaders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Focuses on relationships in the group, building them to achieve goals

A

Transformational leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Define and list motivators according to Herzberg

A

Leading to satisfaction:

  • Achievement
  • Recognition
  • The Work Itself
  • Responsibility
  • Advancement
  • Growth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Focuses on getting the job done and seeks to do this by offering a reward

A

Transactional leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

PEST analysis

A

Political
Economic
Social
Technological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

These leaders work closely with group members to develop skills

A

Coaching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The study of how adults learn

A

Andragogy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Describe contingency theory

A

Utilizes the least preferred coworker scale and 3 situational aspects:

  • Leader/Member relations
  • Task structure
  • Position power
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A high LPC score indicates greater concern for ___

A

People

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

These leaders are effective in situations requiring immediate action or those that are life-threatening

A

Authoritarian or directive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Vroom’s expectancy theory

A
  • Expectancy
  • Instrumentality
  • Valence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Define equity theory

A

People are constantly measuring what they put into work vs. what they get out. Demotivation leads to decreased productivity and quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The ability of a diverse group of people to achieve org goals and a measure of a company’s ability to work with people from multiple walks of life

A

Cultural competence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

These leaders allow members to operate on their own without direction. Leads to lower productivity

A

Laissez-faire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Define and list hygiene factors according to Herzberg

A

Leading to dissatisfaction:

  • Company policy
  • Supervision
  • Relationship with boss
  • Working conditions
  • Safety
  • Relationship with peers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which acquired needs motivator is the most likely to produce an effective manager?

A

Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Hersey-Blanchard style where followers are immature or inexperienced

A

Telling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Assigns more weight to current data with the use of a predetermined number and drops old data as new is added

A

Weighted moving average

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Hersey Blanchard style where followers have some experience and the leader directs them in a general sense

A

Selling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Self knowledge - how well a person knows himself

A

Intrapersonal intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Define valence according to Vroom

A

The result of calculations as to whether the possible reward is worth the effort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Requires federal contractors to list all job openings with state employment agencies, except for management jobs, positions to be filled internally, and those lasting 3 days or less

A

VEVRAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Emotional intelligence & social aptitude

A

Interpersonal intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

2 key differences between Maslow and Alderfer/ERG

A

1) Alderfer allows that people can work on multiple levels at once
2) Frustration-regression is possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

“The absence rate is higher with new employees” - If this hypothesis is true, we would have ___

A

A negative correlation coefficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Hersey-Blanchard - Followers have progressed in ability but lack motivation and require support

A

Participating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

3 Elements of ERG Theory

A

Existence, Relatedness, Growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Steps are taken to avoid the risk

A

Risk Avoidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Steps are taken to reduce the risk

A

Risk Mitigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Four leadership styles of Path-Goal

A

Directive, Supportive, Participative, Achievement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Used to compensate for data that may be out of date

A

Weighted average

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Define instrumentality according to Vroom

A

Will the effort to complete the work be the instrument for obtaining the reward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Define expectancy according to Vroom

A

An individual’s assessment about their capabilities to successfully complete an assignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How does Hersey-Blanchard theory describe leadership?

A

In terms of the maturity level of the followers:

  • Psychological (motivation)
  • Job Task (experience)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Provides information about the financial results of operations

A

Income Statement or Profit and Loss Statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

A picture of the financial condition of the organization on a specific day, usually the last of the accounting period

A

Balance Sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

4 Elements needed to create a High Involvement Organization

A

Power, Information, Knowledge, and Rewards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

In these organizations, employees are involved in designing their own work processes

A

High-Involvement Organziations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Provides graphical representation of the 80/20 rule

A

Pareto Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

5 disciplines of the learning organization

A
  • Systems thinking
  • Personal mastery
  • Mental models
  • Building a shared vision
  • Team learning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Three stages of change according to change process theory

A

Unfreezing, moving, refreezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Organization development is a systematic way of examining an organization’s ___

A

Technology, processes, structure, human resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Protect new, original, and ornamental designs of manufacturing items

A

Design patents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Plant patents are limited to ___

A

20 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Utility patents are limited to ___

A

20 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Design patents are limited to ___`

A

14 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Protect the invention or discovery of asexually reproduced varieties of plants

A

Plant patents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Protect the invention of new and useful processes, machines, manufacture or composition of matter, and new and useful improvements of the same

A

Utility patents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Works for hire are protected for how long?

A

Shorter of 95 years from 1st year of publication or 120 years from the year of creation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Copyrights protect original works for how long?

A

Life of the author plus 70 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

5 Six Sigma steps

A

1) Define
2) Measure
3) Analyze
4) Improve
5) Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Crosby’s 4 absolutes of quality

A
  • Conformance to requirements
  • Prevention
  • Performance standards
  • Measurement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Provide a graphical representation of elements that are out of the acceptable range by setting parameters above and below the range

A

Process-Control Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Aids in the development of appropriate programs to solve the individual problems that make up a whole

A

Stratification charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Charts that show the individual components of a problem in addition to the total

A

Stratification chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Two other names for cause and effect diagrams

A

Ishikawa / Fishbone diagrams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

___ are representative of routing tasks, such as operating a cash register

A

Negatively accelerating learning curves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Characterized by a slow start in learning that increases as the learner masters different aspects of the process or task

A

Positively accelerating learning curves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Factors of job enrichment

A
  • Skill variety
  • Task identity
  • Autonomy
  • Task Significance
  • Feedback
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

3 types of passive training methods

A

Lecture, Presentation, Conference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

5 elements of instructional design

A
  • Analysis
  • Design
  • Development
  • Implementation
  • Evaluation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Learner listens to and absorbs information

A

Passive training methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Occurs when learner performs a task irregularly, not often enough to become proficient

A

Plateau learning curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Begins with rapid increase in knowledge that levels off a period of time and no additional progress occurs for an extended period

A

Plateau learning curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

___ curve found in software conversion projects

A

S-Shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

___ are representative of tasks that are complex

A

Positively accelerating learning curves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

A slow learning process that accelerates over time and then slows again

A

S-Shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q 
L
E
A
R               xx
N             xx
I            xx     
N       xx
G    xx
TIME IN JOB
A

Positively accelerating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q 
L
E
A              xx
R           xx
N       xx
I      xx
N   xx
G  xx
TIME IN JOB
A

Negatively accelerating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

If all employees are reviewed at the same time, the organization has a ___

A

Focal review period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

A review conducted by someone other than the supervisor

A

Field review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Strategies of formulative evaluation

A
  • Needs assessment
  • Asking people
  • Analyzing jobs
  • Pilot tests
  • Pre tests
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Testing or previewing the content of training prior to final delivery to ensure it will result in desired behavior

A

Formulative evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

The ultimate goal of a talent assessment process is to

A

Align the organization workforce with key business initiatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Effective for disseminating facts and concepts, refreshing previously learned skills, or expanding a learner’s knowledge in a field already familiar

A

Programmed instruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Evaluations designed to identify what participants want, know, and need

A

Formulative evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

4 types of summative evaluation

A
  • Reaction
  • Learning
  • Behavior
  • Results
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

In this method, the learner progresses from lesson to lesson in a predesigned course of instruction

A

Programmed instruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Causes of salary compression

A
  • High-growth economy

- Organization’s compensation system is not aligned with the market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Compa-ration formula

A

Base / Midpoint x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What are compa-ratios used for?

A
  • Comparison against a group of employees

- Providing pay / promo recommendations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

A merit matrix combines a ___ with the employee’s ___ to recommend the amount of increase

A
  • performance rating

- position in salary range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Generally speaking, an increase of ___ is provided for promotions

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What type of compensation program focuses on employee KSAs?

A

Competency-based

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Competency-based compensation is used most effectively with ___

A

Broadband salary ranges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Effects of broadbanding

A
  • Flatter organizations
  • Facilitates lateral movement
  • Greater collaboration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Legally mandated benefits

A
  • SS
  • Medicare
  • Unemployment insurance
  • FMLA
  • Worker’s comp
  • COBRA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Work hours can children work?

A
  • School year: 7a-7p

- Summer: 7a-9p

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Work rules for 14 & 15 year olds

A
  • Non-hazardous, non-farm, non-mining
  • Up to 3 hrs/day or 18/wk
  • Up to 8 hours on non-school day or 40/wk
147
Q

How old must a child be to work in a non-farm job?

A hazardous non-farm job?

A
  • 16

- 18

148
Q

Define highly compensated employees

A

Make $100k if at least $455/wk is paid as a salary or fee

149
Q

Elements of DOL safe harbor

A
  • Policy against improper deductions and complaint mechanism
  • Reimbursement
  • Commitment to comply in the future
150
Q

Factors in determining FLSA “actual practice”

A
  • # of improper vs. proper deductions
  • time period
  • # of employees affected
  • Geographic locations and managers responsible
151
Q

If the employer has an actual practice of improper deductions, who is impacted? For how long?

A

All employees in that classification lose exempt status for the time the deductions were made

152
Q

Permissible salary deductions

A
  • Absence for personal reasons
  • Illness if part of a plan
  • Offset jury, witness, military pay
  • Penalties for safety rule violation
  • Disciplinary suspensions
  • Initial or terminal weeks when less than 1 week worked
153
Q

What “travel away from home” time is compensable?

A

Travel for overnight stay, during work hours, even on non-work days. Excludes passenger time (except car)

154
Q

Situations requiring pay for travel

A
  • Emergency travel from home to work
  • One day offsite assignments
  • Travel between job sites
  • Travel away from home
155
Q

Non-exempt employees are not required to be paid to attend training events if

A
  • Event is outside normal work hours
  • Voluntary
  • May not be job-related
  • No other work performed during the event
156
Q

Breaks shorter than ___ minutes are compensable time

A

20

157
Q

Is on-call time compensable? One exception.

A

No

- Employees required to remain on site

158
Q

Is time spent waiting to engage compensable?

A

No

159
Q

Is time spent engaged to wait compensable?

A

Yes

160
Q

Do holidays count as time worked toward overtime qualification?

A

No

161
Q

How may public employers compensate for overtime?

A
  • OT payments

- Comp time of 1.5 times number of OT hours worked

162
Q

Federal minimum wage

A

$7.25

163
Q

Federal tax legislation is imposed by

A

the IRS

164
Q

Rulings from IRS that apply only to the specific taxpayer and circumstances included in the request - used to find out tax implications of transactions

A

Private letter ruling

165
Q

First federal legislation to regulate minimum wages

A

Davis Bacon Act

166
Q

The computer employee FLSA exemption does not apply to

A

Employees who manufacture or repair computers

167
Q

FLSA exemption compensation requirement for computer professionals

A

$455/wk or $27.63/hr

168
Q

Which FLSA requirement for exemption does not apply to outside sales employees?

A

Salary

169
Q

Describe the FLSA salary basis test

A
  • Predetermined pay on regular schedule
  • Pay not reduced for variations in quality/quantity
  • Paid full salary for weeks in which any work is performed
170
Q

Salary level test formula

A

(employee’s annual rate x FTE ) / 52 weeks

171
Q

Expands the requirements of Davis Bacon and Walsh-Healy to contractors providing services to the federal government

A

Service Contract Act (SCA)

172
Q

Employees must be paid a minimum salary of ___ to be exempt.

Exceptions?

A

$455/wk or $23.60/year

  • Outside sales, teachers, attorneys, MDs
173
Q

Individual coverage (FLSA) applies to whom?

A

Orgs whose daily work involves interstate commerce

174
Q

Enterprise coverage (FLSA) applies to whom?

A 
- Businesses employing 2+ employees with at least $500k annual sales
AND
- hospitals
- schools
- government agencies
175
Q

5 major FLSA requirements

A
  • Minimum wage
  • OT requirements and rate
  • Exemption criteria
  • Limitations on child workers
  • Retention of payroll info
176
Q

Which employees are not covered by the FLSA?

A

Those covered by another law

177
Q

SCA applies to federal service contractors with contracts over ___

A

$2500

178
Q

Payments to employees associated with wages and salaries

A

Direct compensation

179
Q

A qualified deferred compensation plan is one that

A
  • Meets ERISA requirements

- Protects employees from loss of benefits to employer mismanagement of funds

180
Q

Two factors in defined benefit formula

A

Salary and Length of service

181
Q

Elements of ERISA

A
  • Increased reporting requirements
  • Funds separated from operating funds
  • Vesting schedules
  • SPD given to employees
  • fund management standards
182
Q

Cash balance plans are subject to ___ regulations

A

Defined benefit

183
Q

___ retirement plans are controversial because some courts have held they ___

A

Cash balance plans, discriminate against older workers

184
Q

This plan’s benefits are determined using a hypothetical personal pension account

A

Cash balance plans

185
Q

Fringe benefits such as vacation, sick and holiday pay, 401k, pension plans, SS, FLMA

A

Indirect compensation

186
Q

Agencies that establish rules for financial reporting that affect total rewards decisions

A

SEC, FASB

187
Q

Refers to the degree of secrecy around pay issues

A

Pay openness

188
Q

Relates to how closely pay reflects actual performance

A

Distributive justice

189
Q

Requires government contractors with contracts over $10k to pay prevailing wages

A

Walsh-Healy Public Contracts Act

190
Q

Determining the job responsibilities of a position for purposes of defining exemption status

A

Duties test

191
Q

How fair the internal process and procedures in determining pay scales are perceived to be

A

Procedural justice

192
Q

The midpoint progression is generally ___ for lower grades

A

LOOK UP

193
Q

When employees record the actual hours they’re at work along with vacation, sick, or other time off

A

Positive time reporting

194
Q

FLSA methods for recovering back wages

A
  • Wage and hour division of DOL can supervise payments
  • DOL files lawsuit
  • Private suit
  • DOL injunction
195
Q

Statute of limitations for back pay recovery

A
  • 2 years

- 3 years if willful violation

196
Q

Major provisions of Portal to Portal Act

A
  • Commute time is non-compensable

- Employees paid for work during lunch and before/after normal hours

197
Q

What does the FLSA require regarding hazard pay?

A

Not required but, if paid, must be factored into OT

198
Q

Incentive plans should target at least a ___ bonus to motivate employees

A

10%

199
Q

Elements of an Improshare incentive plan

A

Baseline for productivity and baseline for productivity costs. Difference in new output determines performance.

200
Q

Elements of Scanlon Plan

A

Employees receive portion of cost savings won through increased productivity and cost savings

201
Q

Which incentive plans are typically covered by ERISA?

A

Profit-sharing

202
Q

Which type of incentive plan requires disclosure of financial information and productivity metrics to employees?

A

Scanlon

203
Q

Most profit sharing plans qualify as ___ plans

A

Defined contribution

204
Q

Profit sharing plans distribute ___ tax dollars

A

Pre

205
Q

An ESPO is a defined ___ plan

A

contribution

206
Q

An ESOP trust and the contributions the company makes to it are tax ___

A

deductible

207
Q

When are ESOPs taxed?

A

When funds are distributed

208
Q

ESOPs allow employees to use ___ tax payroll deductions to purchase discounted stock

A

after

209
Q

ESOP stock is usually discounted up to __%

A

15

210
Q

Characteristics that define and distinguish jobs from one another

A

Compensable factors

211
Q

Which job evaluation method involves key benchmark positions?

A

Classification method

212
Q

5 categories used in the point factor classification method

A

Education, Skill, Effort, Responsibility, Working Conditions

213
Q

Factors of the HAY classification method

A

Knowledge, problem solving, accountability

214
Q

Describe internal equity with regard to job classification

A

Value of jobs to each other relative to their value in the organization

215
Q

Ways to establish internal equity in job classifications

A
  • Broadbanding
  • Point Factor
  • HAY
216
Q

Generally, what % of jobs should be included in a salary survey?

A

65-70%

217
Q

The difference between the midpoints of the salary grades

A

Midpoint progression

218
Q

The SSA introduced ___ that is to be paid to qualified workers upon retirement or disability

A

Old Age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance

219
Q

The ___ established unemployment insurance

A

SSA

220
Q

The Medicare and OASDI tax was originally contained in ___ but later moved to ___

A

SSA; FICA (Federal Insurance Contributions Act)

221
Q

Per FICA, responsibility for collecting medicare and OASDI tax lies with ___

A

the IRS

222
Q

The current SSA retirement age

A

67

223
Q

___ moved unemployment tax to the IRS

A

FUTA (Federal Unemployment Tax Act)

224
Q

All employers who make their unemployment tax payments in full and on time receive ___

A

a 5.4 credit, making their tax rate .6%

225
Q

Unemployment tax is calculated as ___

A

6% of the first 7k of each employee’s salary

226
Q

Unemployment is typically paid for how long?

A

26 weeks

227
Q

Unemployment payments are currently extended to ___

A

99 weeks

228
Q

Provisions of FMLA

A

1) 12 weeks unpaid leave in a 23 month period (or 26 weeks military caregiver leave)
2) Continuation of health benefits
3) Reinstatement to the same or equivalent position

229
Q

FMLA job restoration rights continue for how long?

A

Until the employee is released to full duty or until the end of the 12 month FMLA year

230
Q

FMLA leave records must be retained for how long

A

3 years

231
Q

FMLA applies to whom?

A

All public agencies and schools, and to private employers with 50+ employees working in a 75 mile radius

50 employees must be employed for each working day of 20 or more work weeks in the current or preceding year

232
Q

Employers retain FMLA subjection until

A

Payroll is less than 50 employees for each of 20 weeks in the current and preceding calendar year

233
Q

Once an employee requests FMLA leave, how quickly must the employer respond?

A

5 business days

234
Q

What happens if an employer fails to notify an employee that he is ineligible for FMLA leave prior to the leave’s start?

A

The employee is automatically eligible for the leave.

235
Q

When are employees eligible for FMLA?

A

Employed for 12 months; Worked 1250 hours in the past 12 months

236
Q

Define a “key employee” under FMLA

A

A salaried employee among the highest paid 10% (as calculated by salary/hours)

237
Q

When the need for leave is foreseeable, the FMLA requires the employer be notified ___

A

30 days prior to the beginning of the leave

238
Q

If proper notice isn’t received, how may the employer alter the FMLA leave?

A

Delayed by as many days as the notification was delinquent

239
Q

If a child is adopted or born to a couple working for the same employer, how much FMLA is due?

A

12 weeks between the couple

240
Q

FMLA certification must be requested within ___ days and provided within ___

A

5; 15 unless the employer allows more time

241
Q

Ways of calculating the FMLA year

A

1) The calendar year
2) Any fixed 12 month period
3) The 12 month period beginning at the start of the FMLA leave
4) A rolling 12 month period counting back from the leave

242
Q

Companies who are self insured for worker’s comp are termed

A

Nonsubscriber plans

243
Q

A pension claim that exists because of a participant’s service

A

Nonforfeitable claims

244
Q

These pension claims are legally enforceably

A

Nonforfeitable claims

245
Q

3 reports ERISA requires

A

SPD, Annual report, notice of participant rights

246
Q

ERISA participation requirements

A

1 year of service and age 21, unless the plan provides 100% vesting after 2 years in which case 2 years is allowable

Must become participants within 6 months of qualification or the start of the first plan year after qualification, whichever is first

247
Q

Vesting schedule in which participants become 100% vested after a specified period of time

A

Cliff Vesting

248
Q

Establishes a vesting schedule that provides for partial vesting each year for a specified number of years

A

Graded vesting or graduated vesting

249
Q

A person, corporation, or another legal entity that holds property or assets on behalf of, or in trust for, the pension fund

A

Fiduciary

250
Q

Criminal penalties for willful violations of ERISA include…

A

5k-100k and imprisonment for up to 1 year

251
Q

Lowered age limits for participation and vesting in pension plans

A

Retirement Equity Act

252
Q

Required written approval from a spouse if the participant didn’t want to provide survivor benefits

A

Retirement Equity Act

253
Q

___ amends ADEA to include a prohibition on discrimination against older workers in all employee benefit plans unless age-based reductions are justified by significant cost considerations

A

Older Worker Benefit Protection Act

254
Q

Reduced rules for rolling over lump sum distributions of qualified retirement plans to other plans and subjected some distributions to 20% income tax withholding

A

Unemployment Compensation Amendments

255
Q

Cap on executive pay, requirement to honor court-issued qualified medical child support orders

A

OBRA

256
Q

Simplified actual deferral percentage tests for 401k plans and redefined highly compensated employees

A

Small Business Job Protection Act

257
Q

Established contribution limits, increasing many and allowing for catch-up contributions

A

Economic Growth and Tax Relief Reconciliation Act

258
Q

Required employers to fully fund pension plans. Provides a penalty in the form of a 10% excise tax

A

Pension Protection Act

259
Q

Allowed employees to automatically enroll in a 401k plan. Employees must now opt out.

A

Pension Protection Act

260
Q

Requires defined contribution plans that include employer stock to provide at least 3 other investment options and allow employees to divest stock

A

Pension Protection Act

261
Q

COBRA applies to

A

Businesses with 20 or more employees

262
Q

Employers may charge COBRA participants a maximum of ___

A

102% of the group premium

263
Q

HIPAA is an amendment to ___

A

ERISA

264
Q

HIPAA permits exclusion of preexisting conditions for

A

12 months

265
Q

HIPAA defines a preexisting condition as one that

A

was treated within 6 months prior to enrollment

266
Q

Flexible spending accounts are exempt from ___ requirements but subject to ___

A

ERISA, HIPAA

267
Q

Several types of defined contribution plans

A
  • Profit Sharing Plans
  • Money-Purchase Plans
  • Target-Benefit Plan
  • 401k Plans
268
Q

Based on a percentage of company earnings each year

A

Profit-Sharing Plans

269
Q

Profit Sharing Plans allow a max contribution per employee of ___

A

25%

270
Q

When calculating profit sharing contributions, employers may only use the first $___ of pay

A

$245k

271
Q

____ work well for companies with erratic profit levels

A

Profit sharing plans

272
Q

Uses a fixed percentage of employee earnings to defer compensation.

A

Money-Purchase Plans

273
Q

This type of plan works well for organizations with relatively stable earnings from year to year

A

Money-Purchase Plans

274
Q

A hybrid plan with similarities to a defined-benefit and money purchase plan

A

Target-Benefit plan

275
Q

Plan uses actuarial formulas to calculate the contribution needed to reach a predetermined benefit

A

Target-Benefit plan

276
Q

These plans may not provide greater benefits to highly compensated employees

A

401k

277
Q

Define a highly compensated employee

A

$115k/year, owns 5% or more of the company, in the top 20% of highest paid employees

278
Q

___ aren’t protected by ERISA and are generally available to only executives

A

Nonqualified deferred-compensation plans; top hat plans

279
Q

Types of nonqualified deferred-compensation plans

A

Rabbi or Grantor Trusts and Excess Deferral Plans

280
Q

Plan in which funds are unsecured and subject to claims made by the organization’s creditors.

A

Rabbi or Grantor Trusts

281
Q

When and how are Rabbi Trusts taxed?

A

At the time they are paid; as ordinary income

282
Q

Allows the organization to make contributions to a nonqualified plan to reduce the impact of discrimination testing on HCEs

A

Excess Deferral Plans

283
Q

Consists of a network and includes a hospital. Physicians may only see plan participants

A

Exclusive Provider Organizations

284
Q

Physicians join with a hospital and together rely on the plan structure to market their services. Unique in that they contract directly with the employer.

A

Physician Hospital Organization

285
Q

Places no restrictions on the providers participants can see.

A

Fee for Service Plans (FFS)

286
Q

These plans require participants to pay out of pocket and be reimbursed

A

Fee for Service

287
Q

Process by which providers set treatment rates based on the costs incurred by the group during the current coverage period

A

Experience rating

288
Q

IRS views group life insurance in excess of ___ as imputed income

A

$50k

289
Q

Indirect compensation paid on behalf of employees

A

Imputed income

290
Q

ASO Plans are ___

A

Administrative Services Only - May also be used for self-funded plans

291
Q

An association of employers who negotiate and contracts for the plan on behalf of all members of the group

A

Health Purchasing Alliance

292
Q

Health plans popular among smaller employers

A

Health purchasing alliances

293
Q

If an employer uses a PTO plan, what is payable to the employee upon separation?

A

All remaining time (sick and vacation) in the plan

294
Q

FSAs were authorized by what law?

A

The Revenue Tax Act

295
Q

FSAs are also known as

A

Section 125 plans

296
Q

For employers, a downside of FSAs is that…

A

employees may be reimbursed for expenses before the funds have been deducted from their pay.

297
Q

If an employee leaves the company after FSA expenses have been paid but before the cost was withheld from their paycheck, can the funds be recovered?

A

No

298
Q

Maximum amount employees can set aside for dependent care costs

A

$5k

299
Q

One key difference between an FSA and a dependent caregiver account is that…

A

In a dependent caregiver account, employees can not be reimbursed in excess of the money already withheld from their paycheck

300
Q

2 IRS-required annual plan discrimination tests

A

key-employee-concentration and dependent-care

301
Q

Statutory deduction

A
  • SS
  • Medicare
  • Federal Income Tax
  • State Income Tax
  • UI (in some states)
  • Disability Insurance (in some states)
  • Other state and local taxes
302
Q

Federal Wage Garnishment Law is part of

A

Title III of Consumer Credit Protection Act

303
Q

Title III of the Consumer Credit Protection Act protects employees by ___

A
  • Prohibiting termination of employees whose wages are garnished for any one debt
  • Sets limits on the amount that can be garnished per week
  • Defines how disposable income is calculated for garnishment withholdings
304
Q

Define disposable income

A

Income left over after all mandatory deductions have been made

305
Q

Debt Garnishment Calculation

A

The lesser of 25% of disposable income or disposable income in excess of 30 times the minimum wage

306
Q

Child Support Garnishment Calculation

A

Up to 50% of disposable income if the employee is currently supporting another child or spouse, and 60% if not.

An additional 5% is permitted for garnishments 12 weeks in errears

307
Q

This legislation requires employers to report all new hires within 20 days of their hire date to the State Department of New Hires

A

Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act

308
Q

The Federal Wage Garnishment Law applies to

A

All employers and employees

309
Q

A typical compensation package for executives can include ___

A
  • Base salary
  • Bonuses and ST incentives
  • LT incentives
  • Benefits
  • Perks
310
Q

OBRA limited tax deductions for executive pay to ___

A

$1M

311
Q

Provides significant benefits to an executive whose employment is terminated

A

Golden Parachute

312
Q

Most often used when a CEO takes a position that entails a high risk of termination due to restructuring or sometimes as an incentive to retire early

A

Golden Handshake

313
Q

Sometimes offered to executives of a company being acquired, to ensure they remain with the reorganized company

A

Golden Lifejacket

314
Q

Incentive Stock Options can only be offered to

A

employees

315
Q

An Incentive Stock Option is favorable to employees because

A

it does not face taxes at the time the stock option is exercised, only when sold at a later date

316
Q

An Incentive Stock Option is not favorable to employers because

A

They only receive a tax deduction if certain conditions are met

317
Q

Incentive Stock Options are also called

A

Qualified Stock Options

318
Q

Nonqualified stock options can be provided to

A

consultants and members of the BOD as well as employees

319
Q

Describe the tax treatment of a nonqualified stock option

A
  • Employer receives tax deduction when options are exercised

- Recipients pay tax on any gain they realize from the sale. Income from the stock is treated as compensation

320
Q

Common stock offered to employees

A

Restricted stock

321
Q

Used in privately held companies to provide the benefits of ownership without granting stock

A

Phantom stock

322
Q

The most common recipients of phantom stock are

A

The BOD and executives

323
Q

With phantom stock, what determines its value?

A

A valuation formula.

324
Q

When can an employer receive a tax deduction related to phantom stock?

A

When the stock yields a payout

325
Q

When do accounting rules require that stock options be reflected in financial reports?

A

When the options are granted

326
Q

This metric provides information about the cost of human capital relative to other operating expenses

A

Compensation as a percentage of operating expenses

327
Q

Formula for compensation as a percentage of operating expenses

A

Base, variable, & deferred comp / Operating Expenses

328
Q

This clause allows the parties to agree on which laws - home or host country - will apply

A

Choice of law clause

329
Q

A civil action based on a duty or obligation that has been breached by one party, causing an injury of some kind to another

A

a tort

330
Q

Occurs when an employer entices an employee (or prospective employee) to take an action by promising a reward. The employee takes the action but the reward is not granted.

A

Promissory Estoppel

331
Q

This means an employer can be held liable for actions of its employees that occur within the scope and course of the job, regardless of whether the act is negligent or reckless

A

Respondeat Superior

332
Q

Occurs when an employer makes the workplace so hostile and inhospitable that an employee resigns

A

Hostile Work Environment

333
Q

Employers are generally protected from defamation charges by ___ if the information is truthful and job-related.

A

Qualified privilege

334
Q

A hostile work environment is created when individuals are subjected to unwanted verbal or physical conduct…

A

when submission to or rejection of this conduct explicitly or implicitly affects an individual’s employment, work performance, or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment.

335
Q

Case that established that “hostile environment” sex discrimination is actionable under Title VII and that to be protected, employers should have a policy encouraging victims to come forward.

A

Meritor Savings Bank v. Vinson

336
Q

Established that the test for harassment is conduct which falls between that which is merely offensive and that which results in tangible psychological injury.

A

Harris v. Forklift Systems

337
Q

Case in which the court determined that subordinates know that the possibility of adverse supervisory actions exist whenever requests are made, even if the adverse actions aren’t stated.

A

Faragher v. City of Boca Raton

338
Q

Case in which it was determined that in part “an employer is subject to vicarious liability to a victimized employee for an actionable hostile environment created by a supervisor with immediate or higher authority over the employee.”

A

Burlington Industries v. Ellerth

339
Q

Case dealing with same-sex harassment

A

Oncale v. Sundowner Offshore Services, Inc.

340
Q

Case that determined that because a male employee was subjected to offensive sexual conduct, the conduct was sexual in nature and discriminatory, and he was treated differently based on his sex. (sexual orientation)

A

Medina Rene v. MGM Grand Hotel

341
Q

Barriers for the advancement of women, per the Glass Ceiling Act

A
  • Societal barriers
  • Internal structural barriers
  • Governmental barriers
342
Q

___ conducts glass ceiling audits

A

EEOC

343
Q

Protects the rights of reservists called to active duty in the armed forces.

A

Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Acts

344
Q

Who is subject to USERRA?

A

All employers

345
Q

USERRA grants a leave up to ___.

Exceptions?

A

5 years

Boot camp, waiting for orders, annual training are all excluded - no limits

346
Q

2 employee rights under USERRA

A
  • Moonlighting during off-duty hours
  • Reinstatement rights maintained if the employee leaves the job to prepare for mobilization and then mobilization is cancelled
347
Q

Compensation during USERRA leave

A
  • Employers not required to pay unless they have a policy of doing so
  • Employees may apply their accrued vacation but cannot be required to do so
348
Q

Benefits on USERRA leave

A
  • Same benefits as other employees on leave
  • Continue to accrue seniority and other benefits
  • For leaves more than 30 days but less than 240, COBRA-like continuation
  • 31 days or less and at employee’s request, continuation of health coverage at regular cost
349
Q

Pensions under USERRA leave

A
  • Vesting and accrual treated as if there were no break in service
  • Employer contributions continue as if employee were working
  • For defined-contribution plans, employee must be given 3 times the duration of the leave (max 5 years) to make up payments missed. Any employer matches must also be made up.
350
Q

Reinstatement under USERRA

A

Must be reinstated to the position the employee would have earned if they had remained on the job.

351
Q

USERRA forfeiture of reinstatement rights

A
  • Temporary or seasonal employees
  • Dishonorably or any way other than honorably discharged
  • AWOL for 90 days
352
Q

Continued employment under USERRA

A
  • Leaves between 30 and 181 days - no discharge without cause for 6 months
  • 181 days or more - no discharge without cause for 1 year
353
Q

Requires an employee to act with reasonable care and skill in the course of performing work for the employer

A

Duty of Diligence

354
Q

Requires employees to act within the authority granted by the employer and to follow the employer’s reasonable and legal policies, rules, procedures

A

Duty of Obedience

355
Q

Requires that employees act in the best interest of the employer and not solicit work away from the employer to benefit themselves

A

Duty of Loyalty

356
Q

Describes how people feel about an organization based on a number of factors, including observable practices and employee perceptions.

A

Org climate

357
Q

Org ___ is strongly influenced by the structure as reflected in the org chart

A

climate

358
Q

Based on the values and beliefs shared at all levels and reflected by interactions between employees and customers and vendors

A

Org culture

359
Q

List some employee involvement strategies

A
  • Suggestion boxes
  • Delegating authority
  • Task Forces
  • Committees
  • Work Teams
  • Virtual Work Teams
  • Employee-Management Committees
360
Q

Employers should use care when creating committees to address issues related to any terms and conditions of employment such as wages, safety, training, scheduling, to avoid the appearance of having created a

A

employer-dominated union, prohibited by the NLRA

361
Q

Broad guidelines developed by the employer to guide organizational decisions

A

Policies

362
Q

Provide details on how policies are to be applied

A

Procedures

363
Q

State what employees may or may not do to comply with the policy

A

Work Rules

SPHR (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions