Species Focus Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the social organisation of cattle in the wild.

A
  • Naturally gregarious, live in herds of varying sizes
  • Standard grouping – cows with calves, heifers, young bulls
  • Larger herds may contain some adult bulls
  • Bulls generally live separately from groups
  • Bulls may defend specific areas free range
  • Bulls interact with cow-calf groups for mating
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2
Q

Describe the social organisation of farmed cattle.

A
  • Dairy: all adult and all juvenile female groups
  • Beef suckler: mix of cows, calves, a few bulls during breeding season. Most natural
  • Finishing beef herds: only steers or mix
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3
Q

What is the result of isolation in cattle and why?

A

Because they are naturally gregarious, living in herds, and are prey animals, stress indicators rise if they are isolated: heart rate, vocalisations, defecation and cortisol all increase.

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4
Q

What relationships and interactions do dairy cows form?

A

Form dominant-subordinate relationships that regulate access to limited/preferred resources without escalating aggression.

  • Aggressive interactions are common when unfamiliar cows are mixed in and new dominance relationships are established, for example, for access to feeder spaces and cubicles.
  • Social interactions are affiliative or agonistic
  • Agonistic interaction regulate access to resources, re-affirm dominance relationships, such as head-head pushing at trough regulates access to feed.
  • Affiliative interactions reinforce social bonds and stabilise social relationships, such as licking (allogrooming) in grooming partnerships.
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5
Q

What does competition for feeder space result in in dairy cows?

A
  • Most agonistic behaviour in barn will be around feeders
  • The % of time spent at feeder is related to dominance, with high rankers in the herd with the most feeding time
  • Competitive success at feeder us positively corelated to milk yield
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6
Q

What is the purpose of foot baths in dairy cow farms?

A
  • We foot bathe cows to reduce incidence of lameness caused by infectious disease (digital dermatitis and foul in the foot)
  • Add a disinfectant solution to foot bath to reduce incidence of treponemes and dicholobacter
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7
Q

What substances can be used in the foot baths?

A

Formalin
Copper sulphate
Zinc sulphate
Commercial preparations

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8
Q

What do cows do not like?

A

Loud noises
Strong smells
Big steps
Tight corners
Croner they cannot see around
Shadows/dark areas
Slippery floors
Being alone

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9
Q

What do cows like?

A

Light airy spaces
Calm environment
Routine
Gentle curves
Safe flooring (non-slip)
To be part of a herd
To be within a stable social group

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10
Q

What are the characteristics of foot baths in order for them to be effective?

A

Length – long enough for all 4 feet to step in but not too long that cows defecate in it

Depth – deep enough for feet to be fully submerged but not so deep that a large step is needed

Good cow flow – cows walk through without hesitation and without getting stressed

Management – easy to fill, empty and clean

Flooring – not slippery

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11
Q

Why do dairy cows need to lie down?

A
  • Cows need rest – they are highly performing animals
  • Up to 30% more blood flows to udder when lying down
  • Reduce incidence of lameness
  • Allow more space in feed passages
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12
Q

What are the consequences of overstocking in dairy herds?

A

Subordinate cows are most likely to suffer

Reduced lying time
Increased lameness
Increased cortisol
Decreased growth hormone

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13
Q

Which beddings, most to least, do dairy cows prefer?

A

Deep sand
Mattresses
Water beds
Concrete with straw

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14
Q

What might it mean if dairy cows have lesions on the knees and hocks?

A

Bedding may be abrasive and or/not deep enough. Cubicles may not be long enough or wide enough for cows to lay down comfortably. The aim is to have less than 10% damaged hocks or other lesions.

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15
Q

Why do dairy cows use brushes?

A

Scratching/grooming for coat care

Being groomed = allogrooming. Happens in affiliative partnerships, reduces stress – possibly through oxytocin release

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16
Q

What are the potential risks of dairy cows using brushes?

A

Increased competition

Injury if not well maintained (low risk)

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17
Q

Describe social behaviour in wild sheep.

A
  • Herbivorous prey species
  • Naturally gregarious – in small groups for predator protection
  • Matrifocal groups
  • Daughters learn from mothers about distribution of food, water, shelter and other resources
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18
Q

Describe social behaviour in farmed sheep.

A
  • Breed differences in home range sizes, social group sizes, and strength of social attachments.
  • More highly selected/domesticated breeds, for higher tolerance for high density, such as Suffolk and Texel.
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19
Q

What is following behaviour in sheep?

A

Movement in single file following leader. Most dominant animal towards front, rarely leads.

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20
Q

What is agonistic behaviour in sheep?

A

Rare. Subtle behaviours to maintain dominance relationships, such as resting chin to displace.

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21
Q

What is social recognition in sheep?

A

Use visual and olfactory cues. Can recognise and remember more than 50 individuals by faces.

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22
Q

What are the foraging and feeding behaviour in sheep?

A

Well adapted to harsh climatic conditions and can use wide variety of food sources, including seaweed, lichen and cacti. They are grazers.

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23
Q

What is sheep maternal behaviour?

A
  • In the wild: withdrawal from group into remate/sheltered/rugged terrain to reduce predation risk and increase bonding uninterrupted by other.
  • Domestic: depends on breed and space provided.
  • Followers, not hiders
  • Selective attachment between ewe and lamb formed less than an 1h after birth.
  • Maternal recognition grows by small, sounds and sight.
  • Licking in first 6hours (lamb dry)
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24
Q

What are the key points for sheep management and welfare?

A
  • Prey species: social isolation causes stress. Use of buddies recommended.
  • Breed differences: differences in social and maternal behaviour between extensive and intensive systems/breeds
  • In extensive systems: increased stress at handling, but sheep can learn handling is harmless or threatening.
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25
Q

What are the factors affecting behaviour in dogs?

A
  • Species and breed effects
  • Individual differences
  • Epigenetics – modulated by environment
  • Learning
  • Physiological or pathological changes
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26
Q

How does learning affect behaviour in dogs?

A
  • Occurs right through life but is particularly sensitive as a puppy
  • Associated between events
  • Directs individual towards important aspects of their environment
  • Sensitive periods for learning in different developmental stages
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27
Q

How do physiological and pathological changes affect behaviour in dogs?

A
  • Influence perception of environment
  • Processing of sensory information
  • Decision making
  • Ability to show behaviour
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28
Q

Describe the ancestral species of the modern dog.

A
  • Also a common ancestor with the modern grey wolf
  • Wolves hunt large prey co-operatively in groups
  • Highly social – family group structure
  • Groups maintain specific territories
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29
Q

Describe how dogs were domesticated.

A
  • First species to be domesticated 100,000 years ago
  • Help with herding, hunting, guarding
  • Subsequent selection of breeds – 0.5-90kg, Kennel Club founded in 1873
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30
Q

Describe the modern dog as a consequence of domestication.

A
  • Human control of reproductive activity and selection of specific traits
  • Dog is behaviourally very different from wolf
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31
Q

How did dominance previously explain dog behaviour?

A
  • Dominance is a quality of an established relationship between individuals
  • It is not a description of an individual animal
  • Not an inherited trait
  • Not a motivation to show behaviour
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32
Q

What are the misunderstandings about dog behaviour?

A

Early research on captive wolf populations showed an apparently ‘pyramidal’ structure with high levels of aggression and interpreted individuals competing for social status.

Applied to relationships between dogs and between dogs and humans.

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33
Q

What are the consequences of misunderstandings about dogs?

A

These assumptions are wrong because subsequent research changed ideas about wolf behaviour, showing them as co-operative family groups with a reproductive strategy based on high investment into offspring. Misinterpreting dominance has an impact on dog welfare because how dog behaviour is interpreted influences how people behave with their dogs.

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34
Q

How are wolf and dog social behaviour similar?

A
  • Highly social
  • Motivated to maintain contact with social group
  • Able to show and read complex visual signalling
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35
Q

How is dog social behaviour different from wolf social behaviour?

A
  • No co-operative hunting or rearing of young
  • No restriction of mating
  • No fixed structure in groups
  • Fluid relationships between each pair
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36
Q

How do social relationships in dogs develop?

A
  • Interactions between each pair of animals
  • Develop through learning about each other in different contexts and resources available (one dog may be more dominant over food but the other may be more dominant over frisbees)
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37
Q

What is early learning in the dog?

A

Social skills: learning about the social signalling of other group members occurs extensively in the socialisation and juvenile periods of development.

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38
Q

Describe possible interactions between dogs.

A
  • Associate specific cues shown by other dogs with consequences
  • Some may generalise to all dogs, such as play bows
  • Some associations may be specific to particular type of dog and/or situations, such as large male dogs that are tense
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39
Q

Describe olfaction in the dog.

A
  • Very important sense, particularly social communication
  • Up to 300 million receptors and humans have 5 million receptors
  • Information that humans unaware of such as pheromonal communication
  • Scent glands located all over the body
  • Independent nostrils are directional
  • Wet noses capture scent particles
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40
Q

Describe hearing in the dog.

A
  • Hear a wide range of human frequencies of 40-60,000 Hz, while humans have 20-20,000 Hz
  • 18 or more muscles control the dog pinna
  • Allows dog to finely tine the position of ear canal to localise a sound and hear it more accurately from father away
  • There are breed differences, with upright ears being better
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41
Q

Describe vision in the dog.

A
  • Fewer cone receptors, and are red-green colour blind as a result
  • Wider field of vision of 240 degrees
  • Less sharp images, as the visual acuity that a dog sees at 20 ft is similar to what a human would see at 75 ft.
  • Tapetum allows better vision in low light.
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42
Q

Describe ears as visual signals in the dog.

A
  • Wide variety of sizes and shapes
  • Forward and pricked: alert, interested and confident
  • Back or to the side: anxious
  • Fully back/flattened against head: fearful
  • Ears changing position: unsure
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43
Q

Describe the eyes as visual signals in the dog.

A
  • Direction of gaze: direct stare (facial expression?), averted to side, averted looking down
  • Vary in shape and size: open wide/closed can indicate fear/pain
  • Pupil dilation
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44
Q

Describe the mouth as a visual signal in dogs.

A
  • Relaxed: lips covering teeth
  • Yawning: tired or anxious?
  • Panting: play, exertion or stress response
  • Lip licking: hungry/appeasement
  • Lips retracted, exposing teeth: snarl/grin
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45
Q

Describe a dog’s visual signals in response to a threat.

A

Preliminary aggressive threat: ears back, direct stare, lips are pulled over her teeth

More serious threat: muzzle extends forward and giving a low growl

Even more serious threat: wrinkled muzzle to expose front teeth, growling loudly, preparing to lung forward and attack

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46
Q

Describe the tail position as a visual signal in the dog.

A

Wagging: stiff/relaxed

Breed differences: curl over in pug and naturally tucked in whippet

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47
Q

Describe the body as a visual signal in the dog.

A
  • Ridged/relaxed
  • Leaning forward ready to lunge
  • Weight on back legs (uncertain)
  • Low/cowering
  • Paw lifting – uncertain
  • Piloerection
  • Roll over – can be relaxed and want affection but may be appeasement roll in defence so dog can get up quickly
  • Bow – willingness to play
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48
Q

Describe the body language and visual signals of a relaxed/contended dog.

A
  • Relaxed body posture
  • Weight spread equally
  • Head level
  • Facial muscles relaxed
  • Mouth closed or slightly open with corners turned slightly upwards (‘smile’)
  • Eyes averted slightly to side
  • Tail waves level with body back from side to die or in a circle
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49
Q

Describe the body language and visual signals of an excited/aroused dog.

A
  • Head held high
  • Stiffer/faster wagging of tail
  • Higher tail position
  • Hackles raised
  • Tense body posture
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50
Q

How are unfamiliar dogs introduced?

A
  1. Meet offset/side to side to avoid direct facing
  2. On/off lead? Long line?
  3. What if they become tense?
  4. 3 second rule – pull away after 3 seconds as situation is unlikely to be resolved
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51
Q

What are the applications to domestic environments in dogs?

A
  • Puppies need to be socialised
  • Can learn negative associations as easily as positive ones
  • Controlled and careful introductions
  • Interactions with people – same process
  • Learn species facial, vocal, scent cues that predict an important outcomes, for example, angry voice, dilated pupils might predict punishment and baby voice and a smile predict award.
  • Misunderstanding canine social signals
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52
Q

Why is owner consistency important in dogs?

A
  • Animals make sense of their world by identifying important events and searching for things that predict them, as well as identifying whether particular behaviours have a good or bad outcome.
  • Pups learn the consequences of social signals.
  • However, human behaviours are often more difficult to predict and the outcomes of behaviours may change for reasons the god cannot understand.
53
Q

What are the consequences of emotional conflict in dogs?

A

More extreme displays of previously learnt behaviours. Other behavioural signs of frustration and/or anxiety, such as:

  • Aggression
  • Switching between/showing mixed behaviours
  • Displacement activities
54
Q

What are the implications of dogs being highly social?

A
  • Very good at reading others including people
  • Motivated to maintain social contact
  • May be distressed by social isolation
55
Q

Describe the ancestry of the domestic cat.

A
  • African wild cats (felis silvestis lybica)
  • Small predator
  • Shy, savanna dweller
  • Sparse rodent prey
  • Largely solitary, avoid other cats
  • Maintain home range
56
Q

Describe domestication of the cat.

A
  • First archaeological evidence for cats kept as pets found in ancient Egypt
  • Increased availability and density of rodents
  • 2 distinct populations developed – more timid cat remained on savannah and those who could be near humans more migrated nearer their populations
  • Further change with closer contact with humans and religious status
57
Q

How is domestication of cats different to domestication of dogs?

A
  • Relatively recent – 10,000 years, cats transported around the world 2500 years ago
  • Little control of reproductive activity
  • Untrained – primarily kept for rodent control
58
Q

Compare cats to dogs.

A
  • Bolder around people
  • Less aggressive
  • Free roaming cats can form social groups under certain conditions
  • Multi-cat households can be a problem due to lack of motivations to have social relationships with other cats
  • Highly motivated to hunt
  • Olfactory communication important in cat as well as dog
59
Q

Define territorial behaviour in cats.

A

Maintain a territory containing sufficient prey is essential for survival in wild cats.

60
Q

What is a cat’s home range?

A
  • Tom cats defend territories containing as many females as possible
  • Domestic cats have a home range – core area and hunting area, despite this no longer being essential to survival
  • May split with passageways between
  • Defended from unfamiliar cats by scent marking. Aggressive signalling and fighting only when necessary.
61
Q

What is a cat’s hunting range?

A

Often shared with other cats but try to avoid contact. Urine spraying to time share.

62
Q

What is a cat’s core territory?

A

Where cat rests, sleeps and feels secure, which may be high up. Only share with members of same social group, marked by face and flank rubbing.

63
Q

Describe social behaviour in domestic cats.

A
  • Cats can form groups but not in the same way as obligate social species like the dog
  • Males do not cooperate with one another
  • Females form nucleus of social groups in which related cats assist one another in rearing kittens.
64
Q

Describe social behaviour in feral cats.

A
  • Group formation occurs where food abundant
  • Number of cats mirror food availability
  • Social behaviours displayed by feral cats are reflected in some of the behaviours seen in pet cats
65
Q

What are 2 behaviours cats can have with owners?

A

Mutual flank rubbing – rubbing round owners legs

Grooming – attempted to lick owners hand’s

66
Q

Describe social behaviour between cats.

A
  • No fixed relationships between individuals, such as no dominance hierarchies
  • Limited ability to show complex visual signalling
  • Limited appeasement signals to dissolve conflict without aggression
  • Difficult to get out of situations of conflict without aggression
  • Very friendly interactions – allorubbing and allogrooming, rubbing allows the transfer of scent and aggressive behaviour is rare.
67
Q

What is a cat’s response to cats from outside a social group?

A

Aim to avoid or chase intruder away from resources using aggression.

68
Q

Describe predatory behaviour in cats.

A
  • Prey small mammals and birds, sometimes rabbits
  • Need to make several kills over 24 hour period to consume daily energy requirements (10-20 kills/day if no supplementary food)
  • Hunt alone
  • Stalking – crouched behaviour, head out stretched
  • Initially slow, speeding up to a sprint the closer the cat gets to the prey
  • As the cat gets close enough to capture the prey, stops and prepares to spring forward (tenses up)
  • Springs forward to strike the prey with one or both of their front paws.
  • May not kill prey depending on the individuals hinting expertise, which is a problem for owners
  • Play before kill is displacement activity – conflict fear of being injured
  • Very effective vermin control – opportunistic hunters)
  • More likely to kill and consume if hungry, but hunting not linked to satiety
69
Q

Describe elimination behaviour in cats.

A
  • African wildcat toilets in sand/light soil
  • Substrate preference learnt as a kitten
  • Location preference: secluded, away from feeding and resting areas, not shared, separate locations for urine and faeces, diggable substrate, no build-up of urine or faeces.
70
Q

Describe vision in cats.

A
  • Large
  • Adapted for predation in poor light – pupil expansion/tapetum
  • Excellent light gathering power and movement detection
  • Farsighted
  • Poor colour vision
  • Slow focus
71
Q

Describe hearing in cats.

A
  • More than an octave above our range, into ‘ultrasound’ region
  • Enables cats to detect the ultrasonic calls of small rodents
  • Move ears independently
  • Ridges in ear detect distance and height
72
Q

Describe olfaction in cats.

A
  • Highly developed
  • Information that humans are generally unaware of – 1000 more sensitive
  • Scent glands located all over the body
  • Vomeronasal organ – secondary olfactory system providing additional information from scent
  • Very important sense for communication and information about environment
  • Disturbances often associated with behaviour problems
73
Q

What are the 3 groups of pheromones in cats?

A
  • Associated with urine and scratching (glands between toes)
  • ‘Alarm’ marks from anal gland secretions and paw sweat gland secretions
  • Facial and flank pheromones
74
Q

Describe cat facial pheromones.

A
  • F1 – F5 isolated
  • Used in core area of territory
  • Rubbing up against familiar people or objects
  • Theorised that these are associated with ‘positive’ emotional states
75
Q

Describe cat flank pheromones.

A

F2 – sexual displays

F3 – known and unknown

F4 – marking members of social group (scent profile)

76
Q

Describe urine spraying in cats.

A
  • Sexual signal
  • Maintenance of distance between cats
  • Possibly associated with negative emotional states
77
Q

Describe visual signals in cats.

A
  • Facial and body visual signals.
  • Less subtle than social predators like dogs and humans.
  • Approach with tail down: interested
  • Approach with tail up: friendly
  • Sat up with eyes open: attentive
  • Laid on side: relaxed
  • Rolled over on back: trusting
  • Sat up with eyes closed/blinking: friendly, relaxed
  • Curled up and eyes closed: content
  • Standing up and alert/tense: conflicted, cautious
78
Q

Describe the behavioural signs to be read in a cat.

A
  • Crouched/tense body posture
  • Vocalising
  • Flattened ears
  • Tail close to body/swishing
  • Aggression/avoidance/hiding/freezing/climbing
  • Dilated pupils/wide eyes/eyes pressed together (false sleep)
  • Arched back
79
Q

How is predatory behvaiour prevented in domestic cats?

A
  • Highly palatable food with high meat content
  • Variety of flavours
  • Small frequent meals and puzzle feeders
  • Increase play
  • Keep in when prey species active (dawn/dusk)
80
Q

What are the conflicts that can occur in domestic cat situations?

A
  • Between cats that do not see each other as part of the same social group
  • Cats from neighbouring houses
  • In multi-cat households
81
Q

What are the conflicts that can occur between cats in multi-cat households?

A

Where competition for access to resources is artificially created. Food, water, litter trays in same location.

82
Q

What behaviours may be present when cats do not get on?

A

Aggression

Avoidance
- Hiding e.g. one cat stays upstairs
- Blocking e.g. one cat prevents others going in and out through cat flap
- Escaping e.g. running away when approached

83
Q

Conflict can be an underlying cause of medical conditions. What might these present as?

A

Inappropriate elimination
Interstitial cystitis
Urine spraying
GI disease
Over-grooming
Hyperaesthesia

84
Q

Distinguish indicators of cats being in the same social group and indicators that do not necessarily mean they are in the same social group.

A

Same social group:
- Allorubbing
- Allogrooming
- Choose to sleep touching

Not necessarily same social group:
- Sleeping in same location (e.g. radiator)
- Sitting on / either side of owner
- Eating together

85
Q

Describe sensitive periods for learning in cats and dogs.

A
  • Related to neurological development
  • Pre-natal effects
  • Juvenile period
  • Other sensitive periods include preferences for sexual partners and sexual maturity
86
Q

Describe pre-natal effects of sensitive periods for learning in cats and dogs.

A

Levels of maternal hormones influence development of foetus:

  • The normal homeostatic range for reactivity of the HPA axis is set
  • Maternal levels of cortisol influence the reactivity of HPA axis in foetus
  • Adaptive: more reactive individual born in periods of stressful environment
  • Problems in domestic situation as stressed mum will produce more reactive pups
87
Q

What is the cat socialisation period?

A
  • Between 2 and 9 weeks of age
  • If not handled by 9 weeks, kittens become feral
88
Q

What is the dog socialisation period?

A
  • Between 4 and 12-14 weeks of age
  • Breed differences
89
Q

What are the applications o elimination behaviour in domestic cats?

A
  • Toileting outside litter try common reason for relinquishment
  • Often sign of medical problem: distress, discomfort, increased volume of elimination
  • Full medical work up recommended
  • Older cats orthopaedic exam
  • Lower abdominal hair loss, bladder pain
  • Problem with litter try, such as the tray being changed
  • Problem with litter, such as build-up of urine or faeces
  • Problem with location, such as being ambushed by another cat or human activity
90
Q

How does expiration relate to foot placement at canter and gallop?

A

Respiratory locomotor coupling in canter and galloping, take one breathe every 1 stride. Also off ground inspiration and on ground exhalation (forelimbs).

91
Q

Define hybrid vigour/heterosis.

A

An increase in performance of the cross-bred offspring over and above the average performance of its two parents.

92
Q

What is Best Linear Unbiased Predictor?

A

Disentangles genetic and non-genetic effects on performance. This calculates how much of each animal’s performance is due to breeding potential and how much is due to its environment. Breeding potential is expressed in units known as Estimated Breeding Values or EBVs.

93
Q

What do estimated breeding values allow?

A

EBVs compare trait values to breed averages therefore can only be used to compare within breeds not between different breeds.

94
Q

Where are estimated breeding values calculated from?

A

Own performance
Family performance
Progeny performance (if there is any)
Their genes (if it’s been genomically tested)

95
Q

When are estimated breeding values used in veterinary practice?

A
  • Advice regarding buying bull/semen
  • Trouble shooting – too many caesareans?
  • Farmer education
96
Q

Describe the genetic basis of inbreeding.

A
  • Increases homozygous genotypes
  • Uncovers recessive genes
  • Loss of the effect of dominance
  • Variation in the population is reduced – decrease heterozygous genotypes
  • If variation were to be reduced to zero then no further selection can take place
97
Q

What are the advantages of inbreeding?

A
  • Related animals have more genes in common than unrelated. Therefore an individual with outstanding genetic merit is likely to have relative with higher than average merit
  • Fix a good gene
98
Q

What are the disadvantages of inbreeding?

A
  • Have more unfavourable genes
  • Fixes a bad gene
  • Inbreeding depression
99
Q

Describe decline in fitness due to inbreeding by inbreeding depression.

A

Fertility decreases
Embryonic death increases
Decrease disease resistance
Growth rate reduction
Milk yield

100
Q

What are the factors affecting outcome of inbreeding?

A
  • The degree of relationship of the animals = Inbreeding Coefficient/the probability that two genes (alleles) at any locus are alike by descent”
  • How many bad genes are in the breeding population
  • Whether the related animals have the same bad alleles
101
Q

What are some inherited defects in beef cattle?

A
  • Hypotrichosis, Hairlessness – many breeds
  • Arthrogryposis – Charolais/ Angus
  • Hip dysplasia – Charolais
  • Erythropoietic protoporphyria – Limousin
  • Complex vertebral malformation
  • Brachyspina
  • Fertility haplotypes – lowered fertility
102
Q

What are some inherited defects in sheep?

A

Atresia ani
Inguinal hernia
Entropion
Arthrogryposis

103
Q

Why do farmers not like multiple births in cattle?

A
  • Cause dystocia
  • Increase risk RFMs, uterine infections, and longer return to oestrus
  • Reduces body condition score
  • Mixed sexes the females are usually sterile = Freemartins. Occurs in 92% mixed sex twins
104
Q

What happens in cattle with Freemartins?

A
  • The male hormones masculinise the female foetus
  • Fusion of placental blood vessels with development of a common circulation
  • Mullerian inhibition substance and testosterone from the male foetus inhibit female reproductive development
  • The degree of masculinisation is greater if eth fusion occurs earlier in the pregnancy and can occur as early as 30 days gestation
105
Q

How is Freemartins diagnosed in the female twin?

A
  • External genitalia can appear normal
  • 1-4 week old freemartin calf vagina 5-6cm , normal calf 13-24cm
  • Very unreliable method
  • Vaginal length and rectal palpation in adult. Shortened vagina (8-10 cm compared to 30 cm)
  • Enlarged clitoris
  • Can have an absence of cervix, uterus, ovaries
  • Can have small seminal vesicles
  • Masculine appearance (thickened necks, curly coats)
  • Blood sample finds Y chromosome in the blood
106
Q

Describe Freemartins in other species.

A

Cattle: very common, 92 % mixed sexed twins

Sheep: rare occasions can happen. Multiple pregnancies common but fusion of placental vesicles is rare. Approx. 4 % of all mixed sex twins

Goats: very rare, < 1%. Other intersex phenotypes can result from the polled gene

Pigs: very rare, usually have multiple births but placental tissue is relatively non vascular in the area overlapping so blood fusion rarely happens

107
Q

What are the advantages of artificial insemination?

A
  • Genetic gain
  • International trade in livestock genetics
  • Control spread of venereal disease, as do not necessarily need to move bulls to farms
  • Decreased reliance of natural service bulls
  • Gene banking, genetic achieve
108
Q

What are the disadvantages of artificial insemination?

A
  • Requires detection of oestrous and the fertile period
  • Technical aspects of the transfer of semen – technique, animal restraint, costs, training
  • Skilled people for processing, freezing and records
  • Infectious disease agents readily spread via semen
  • Genetic faults spread easily – detection not immediately obvious in recessive traits
  • Limited availability and research in some species, such as alpacas
109
Q

How can semen be collected for AI?

A
  • Artificial vagina service with trained male
  • Electroejaculation
  • Condom collection in stallion
  • Seminal vesicle massage (bull)
  • Epididymal aspiration
110
Q

How is semen for AI evaluated?

A

Sperm number
Motility
Morphology

111
Q

Why is semen for AI diluted?

A
  • To increase number of services per ejaculate
  • Intrauterine insemination requires 10-100x fewer sperm
  • Species differences in best dose for AI
112
Q

How is semen prepared for AI?

A
  1. Collection of semen
  2. Evaluation
  3. Dilution
  4. Cooling
  5. Cryopreservation
  6. Thawing
  7. Fresh semen sued in some species, such as pigs
113
Q

What does rate of genetic improvement depend on in cattle?

A
  • Amount of variation in population
  • Accuracy of assessing phenotype
  • Accuracy of assessing genotype and heritability
  • Selection intensity
  • Generation interval
  • Number of traits involved and correlation between traits
  • Mating systems employed - Natural Service, AI, ET, multiple ovulation
114
Q

What is the main information used to calculate genetic indices?

A
  • Animal’s own performance (if available)
  • Performance of progeny
  • Genetic index of the sire
  • Genetic index of the dam
  • Genetic indexes of all other known relatives
115
Q

What are the disadvantages of progeny testing?

A
  • Semen collection from 12 months
  • Semen distribution from 17 months
  • Test inseminations over next 6 months
  • First complete daughter lactation records available when bull is about 5 years old
116
Q

What is the profit life index?

A
  • Suitable for most herds
  • This is used as an initial screening for bull selection.
  • Promotes yield and maintains milk quality
  • Increases emphasis on fertility
  • Improves functional type - feet & legs and mammary
  • Increases emphasis on longevity
  • Reduces maintenance costs
  • Improves udder health
  • Improves calving performance
117
Q

What is spring calving index?

A
  • Promotes milk quality rather than volume
  • Has a strong emphasis on fertility
  • Selects for reduced maintenance costs
  • Improves udder health
  • Places a strong emphasis on longevity
  • Promotes easier calving
  • Protects functional type – feet, legs and udder
118
Q

What is autumn calving index?

A
  • Promotes milk quality with more weight on volume than the £SCI
  • Places a strong emphasis on fertility
  • Selects for reduced maintenance costs
  • Improves udder and leg health
  • Places a strong emphasis on longevity
  • Promotes easier calving
  • Protects functional type – feet, legs and udder
119
Q

What are cattle production traits?

A
  • Milk, fat and protein (Milk kg, fat kg, fat %, protein kg, protein %)
  • Persistency (ability to maintain production throughout lactation)
120
Q

What are the health, welfare and fitness traits of cattle?

A
  • Somatic Cell Count
  • Fertility Index, measured using calving interval and non-return rate at 56 days
  • Body Condition Score
  • Milk yield at time of insemination
  • Days from calving to first insemination
  • Number of inseminations per pregnancy
  • Lifespan
  • Locomotion
121
Q

What are cattle maintenance traits?

A

Temperament
Ease of Milking
Calving Ease
Maintenance

122
Q

What are cattle primary traits?

A
  • Stature – height at withers
  • Chest width
  • Body depth
  • Angularity
  • Rump angle
  • Rump width
  • Rear legs – side view
  • Rear legs – rear view
  • Foot angle
  • Fore udder attachment
  • Rear udder width
  • Udder support
  • Udder depth
  • Teat placement – rear view
  • Teat placement – side view
  • Teat length
123
Q

What is sexed semen?

A
  • Sperm cells are sorted using flow cytometry.
  • The female sperm cell contains 3.8% more DNA than the male sperm cell, which can be detected by laser in order to provide these cells with an electrical charge, which will divert the flow into a separate receptacle.
  • Has an approximately 90-95% chance of producing female progeny.
  • Is more costly
124
Q

Roughly what percentage of bulls of the same breed will have taller daughters than those of this bull?

A

Less than 1%

125
Q

In £SCI and £ACI, what proportion of the financial index is associated with production traits?

A

30%

126
Q

Using traditional progeny testing, how long does it take to progeny test a bull?

A

Less than 5 years

127
Q

What age group are likely to be the highest genetic merit dairy animals on a farm?

A

Calves

128
Q

What breeding strategy is likely to give the fastest genetic gain in a dairy herd?

A

Breeding replacements using proven AI bulls used on maiden heifers