Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MRT Year 1 Semester 2 > Specialized Imaging 1 > Flashcards

Specialized Imaging 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is medical asepsis? Microbial dibution?

A

Reducing the probability or infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual

-the process of reducing the total number of organisms (microbial dilution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3 levels of microbial dilution

A
  • Simple cleanliness: proper cleaning, dusting, linen handling, hygiene
  • Disinfection: destruction of pathogens by using chemicals
  • Sterilization: treating items with heat, gas, or chemicals to make the germ free
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the difference between and Antiseptic and and Disinfectant?

A

Antiseptic is a substance that INHIBITS the growth and reproduction of microorganisms
Disinfectants ELIMINATE many or all pathogenic microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is surgical asepsis?

A

The complete destruction of all organisms and spored from equipment used to perform patient care procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is sterile conscience?

A

Awareness of sterile technique and the responsibility for telling the person in charge if contamination has occurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the area between the patient drape and the instrument table called?

A

Sterile corridor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Health care members on a surgical team include?

A
  • Surgeon
  • Surgeon assistant
  • Anesthesiologist
  • RN
  • Radiologic Technologist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Examples of procedures that required imaging

A
  • operative cholangiograms
  • urethral retrogrades and stent placements
  • orthopedics
  • pacemaker insertion
  • intravascular trauma
  • foreign objects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

3 areas of the OR envrionment

A
  • Unrestricted Zone: street clothes, change rooms
  • Semi-restricted Zone: scrub clothing, hair, and shoe covers
  • Restricted Zone: scrub suit, hair coverings, shoe coverings, mask
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a sterile field?

A

A microorganism free area prepared for the use of sterile supplies and equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do sterile indicators work?

A

They are placed outside or inside the pack to be sterilized. They change colour when proper sterilization has occurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long are items sterilized in the hospital and stored in a closed cupboard considered sterile for?

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How long are items sterilized in the hospital and stored in an open cupboard considered sterile for?

A

21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Items seals in plastic bags immediately after sterilization are considered sterile for how long?

A

6-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Packages are considered sterile if they meet the following criteria:

A
  • clean, dry, and unopened
  • expiration date has not exceeded
  • sterility indicators have changed to a predetermined colour confirming sterilization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Purpose of the surgical scrub?

A

To remove as many microorganisms as possible from the skin of the hands and lower arms by mechanical and chemical means

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

5 Methods of sterilization

A
  • chemical
  • dry heat
  • convention gas
  • gas plasma technology
  • autoclaving
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Chemical sterilization

A

Involves the immersion and soaking of objects in a bath of germicidal solution followed by a sterile water rinse

  • effectiveness depends on solution strength and temp and immersion time
  • used if objects cant go into autoclave or gas
  • DOES NOT KILL SPORES
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Dry heat sterilization

A

In an oven

  • required to sterilize some sharps, certain powders, and greasy substances
  • long time, high heat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Conventional gas sterilization

A

Items that would be damages by high temps are sterilized by a mixture of gases

  • used for electrical, plastic, rubber, optical wear, and items in isolation rooms
  • gases are poisonous and must be dissipated (slow process)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Gas plasma sterilization

A

Safer method of sterilizing heat and moisture safe items
-cannot sterilize instruments that have long, narrow lumina, powders, liquids, or any cellulose materials (cotton, paper, linen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Autoclaving sterlilzation

A

Steam under pressure

  • most common
  • cheap, quick, most convenient
  • high temps achieved under pressure
  • tap indicators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

2 methods of skin preparation

A
  • Mechanical: removal of hair, friction scrub

- Chemical: after mechanical skin prep, skin painted with antiseptic-destroys microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

REVIEW RULES FOR SURGICAL ASEPSIS (handout)

A

.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

According to OSHA, when a radiographer is assigned to work in the surgical department, what are the protocols? (9)

A
  1. Closed heel and toe shoes, not cloth
  2. Meticulous personal hygiene
  3. Jewelry, long artificial nails, and nail polish are prohibited
  4. Body piercing jewelry must be removed
  5. To enter the semi restricted zone you must don scrub attire in the dressing area, tuck top into pants
  6. All hair, beards, moustaches must be covered with a surgical cap/mask
  7. Shoe covers must be worn
  8. Before preceding into zone 3 (restricted) scrub hands and arms for medical asepsis
  9. Don a mask before entering room where surgical procedure performed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A mobile c-arm fluoro unit includes what?

A
  • c-arm with x-ray tube and image intensifier

- tv monitors (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Features of the mobile C-arm?

A
  • digital imaging and storage
  • image hold feature
  • image enhancement, masking, and subtraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Movement of the C-arm?

A
  • In-out lock: front moved back and fourth from base
  • Wig-Wag: C-arm waves side to side from base
  • Lateral-Parallel: ‘C’ moved from AP to lateral position
  • Cephalad-Caudad: angled tube IR up or down the table
  • Up and down: raises and lowers ‘C’
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does the brightness control do on the C-arm? Does it affect patient dose?

A

Brightens or dims the image. Yes, its changes the mA to adjust the brightness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is it called if an image intensifier has normal, mag 1, and mag 2 mode

A

Trifield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What controls does the foot pedal for the C-arm have?

A
  • Low dose fluoro
  • Vascular footswitch
  • High dose fluoro
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does the dose report on the C-arm display show?

A
  • dose
  • demographics
  • fluoro time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which c-arm tube position has least exposure to operator?

A
  • tube under table

- I.I above patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which c-arm tube position gives the most exposure to operator?

A
  • tube above table

- I.I below patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When the tube is closer to the operator the dose to them is higher** watch when angling tube**

A

.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What end should you stand at when the C-arm is in a lateral position?

A

I.I end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How far away from the tube should you stand?

A

6 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What kind of drapes are there when using a C-arm?

A
  • shower curtain drape: between patient and surgeon

- temporary patient drape: drape over patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Surgical Radiography procedures?

A
  • ORIF Hip and Femur
  • Cardiac pacemaker insertion
  • Kidney stone removal
  • Cholecystectomy (gall bladder removal)
  • Operative cholangiogram (done during cholecystectomy)
  • Foreign body localization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

With what imaging modalities can we do arthrography?

A
  • fluoro
  • CT
  • MRI
  • sometimes a combo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What kind of asepsis do we use for arthrograms?

A

Surgical asepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is arthrography?

A

A method of radiographically visualizing the inside of a synovial joint and related soft tissue structures using contrast medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What types of contrast do we use for arthrography?

A
  • radiopaque
  • radiolucent
  • or both, never just air
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What happens if fluid is present in the joint during arthrography?

A

-aspirate the fluid after local anesthesia and before contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Patient prep for arthrography?

A
  • no food/drink restrictions
  • allergies
  • patient gowned based on type of arthrogram
  • explanation of procedure
  • informed consent signed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Equipment for an arthrogram?

A

-fluoro
-conventional x-ray tube
Arthrogram tray:
-prep sponge
-fenestrated drape
-syringes
-flexible connector
-needles
-gauze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Clinical indications and contraindications for a knee arthrogram?

A

-tears in joint capsule
-tears or degenerations of menisci
-ligament injury
Contraindication: hypersensitivity to iodine based contrast media or local anesthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

General arthrogram procedure: knee

A
  1. Site prepared
  2. Retropatellar, lateral, anterior, or medial approach
  3. Skin anesthetized
  4. Fluid aspirated
  5. Contrast media instilled (5ml positive, 80-100ml negative)
  6. Needle removed and knee wrapped
  7. Knee exercised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Hip arthrogram is most often performed to?

A
  • evaluate congenital hip dislocation in children
  • detect loose hip prosthesis
  • confirm infection in adults, aspirate sent for analysis
  • inject steroid, pain relief, or artificial synovial fluid in patients awaiting replacement surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the most common arthrogram site?

A

Shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a shoulder arthrogram performed to evaluate?

A
  • partial or complete tears in rotator cuff or glenoid labrum
  • persistent pain or weakness
  • frozen shoulder
  • often done in conjunction with MRI, gandolinium injected at the same time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Contrasts used for shoulder arthrograms?

A

Single: up to 12ml of positive
Double: 2-4ml positive and 10-12ml negatiive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Indications for wrist arthrograms? Procedure?

A

-trauma
-persistent pain
-limitation of motion
Procedure:
-1.5-4ml of contrast injected into dorsal wrist at articulation of radius, scaphoid, and lunate
-wrist manipulated to disperse contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Common projections for wrist arthrography?

A
  • PA
  • Lateral
  • Both obliques
  • fluoro recommended during rotations to detect leaks (lots of little bones)
55
Q

Pertinent documentation for an arthrogram?

A
  • Consent form
  • Fluoro time, images taken
  • Contrast and medications used (amounts)
  • Injections time
  • Any reactions to contrast
  • Fill out lab rec if aspirate is being sent to lab
56
Q

Common areas for pain management exams?

A
  • Hip
  • Shoulder
  • Spine
  • knee
  • elbow
  • spine
  • hand and fingers
57
Q

Common indications for pain management injections?

A
  • bursitis
  • tendonitis, tendonosis, tenosynovitis
  • arthritis
  • various forms of back pain
58
Q

Tech’s role during a pain management injection?

A
  • room set up
  • set up trays, required equipment, contrast, and medications
  • obtain patient consent form
  • pre and post patient evaluation and documentation
  • operation of c-arm
  • look up any previous studies related to procedure
59
Q

What does a pain management consent form include?

A
  • patient demographics
  • type of procedure and performing physician
  • general description of procedure and side effects
  • checklist for medical history
  • area for patient to sign, consenting to procedure
  • recent antibiotics, blood thinners, diabetes?
60
Q

Order of medications used in pain management injections?

A
  1. Local anesthetic
  2. Contrast
  3. Pain relief
  4. Steroid (order of these 2 is radiologist preference)
61
Q

Additional supplies used for pain management injections?

A
  • basic injection tray (3+ syringes, drapes, cleaning sponge)
  • metal object (clamp)
  • marker to draw dot
  • band-aid
  • positioning sponges
  • cleansing solution for the skin
  • gauze
  • juice (in case of dizziness)
  • well stocked meds and contrast not expired
  • emergency drug box in case of allergic reaction
62
Q

How long must the patient wait after the procedure? Why?

A

10-30 mins post exam for condition to be evaluated and post injection pain

63
Q

Common and rare reactions?

A

Common:
-skin redness, dizziness, fainting, bruising at site, discomfort
Rare:
-infection, allergic reaction, bleeding, freezing of nerve causing temp loss of sensation

64
Q

What are epidural spinal injections used for?

A
  • contrast injections for CT myelogram
  • injection of radionuclide for nuclear medicine scans
  • injections of chemo into spinal canal
  • injections of steroid or medication for pain managment
65
Q

At what vertebral level do we usual inject epidurals?

A

L3-L4

66
Q

Lumbar puncture procedure

A
  • patient changed into gown, pants off, underwear on
  • patient lies prone on a bolster
  • towel tucked into underwear and slid down to PSIS
  • radiologist fluoros to see condition of spine
  • area is prepped with SURGICAL ASEPSIS
  • needle is inserted under fluoro
  • tech rotated c-arm to lateral
  • confirm location of needle and advance into epidural space
  • inject contrast to confirm location
  • sample of CSF may be taken
  • steroid, chemo, or radionuclide is injected
  • patient transferred to stretcher to remain for 15-30 mins
67
Q

Lumbar puncture needle placement and injection process

A
  1. Skin prep
  2. Lumbar puncture
  3. CSF sample collected
  4. Contrast medium instilled
  5. Needle removed
68
Q

How are patient positioned for facet injections?

A

RAO or LAO

69
Q

What is a facet injection?

A

Injection of a local anesthetic directly into the zygapophyseal joint(s) causing the pain

70
Q

What is a medial branch block

A

Freezing the nerves that connect to the facet joints and send pain signal to the brain

71
Q

What is a way to reduce scatter in obese patients?

A

Grids: 8:1 or 10:1
Collimation
Proper IR sizes

72
Q

How can a bariatric patient potentially be more difficult to image?

A
  • body habitus effects quality of image
  • can impact equipment: heat capacity, weight limits
  • affects radiographer’s ability to transfer/position them safely
  • potential injury for radiographer
  • “routine” exams take longer
73
Q

What should you consider when you have a bariatric patient on your table?

A

Have table as low as it will go and do not float it

74
Q

How can we transport bariatric patients?

A
  • larger wheelchairs
  • special beds/stretchers
  • power lifts
75
Q

How to transfer and move a bariatric patient safely?

A
  • make sure table can support weight
  • have adequate personnel to help
  • communicate during the transfer
76
Q

What may be the only landmark available for palpation on a bariatric patient?q

A

Jugular notch

77
Q

How can we find the symph by knowing where the jugular notch is?

A

<5feet: 21 inches or 53cm
5 to 6 feet: 22 inches or 56cm
>6feet: 24 inches or 61cm

78
Q

The most important adjustment to be made is increasing your ______ (expoosure factor) when imaging bariatrics

A

kVp

79
Q

Technical considerations for working effectively with obese patients?

A
  • warm up tube
  • use lower mA settings (<320mA)
  • use higher kVp settings
  • do not make repeat exposure near tube loading limit
  • use large focal spot for all but distal limbs
  • do not use APR
  • when using AEC ensure kVp is high enough and mA is moderate
  • collimate to size of IR or smaller
  • collimate to suggested field size or smaller with DR
  • never collimate to max size of flat panel DR
  • maintain special exposure technique chart
  • stand at right angles to the central ray when holding obese paitient (not a good idea anyway)
80
Q

Always assist your elderly patient to….

A
  • Get on and off of the table
  • To change position
  • To sit down
81
Q

What must we consider when adjusting our technical factors for geriatric patients?

A
  • loss of bone mass and atrophy = decreased kVp

- use shorter exposure times if they suffer from tremors or are unsteady

82
Q

Supine AP Abdomen on the elderly: considerations?

A
  • use a radiolucent mattress to provide comfort
  • warm blanket
  • help patient onto table (lower it as much as possible)
  • practice the breathing instructions with them (hard of hearing, or can’t understand)
  • watch that they follow directions
83
Q

Which view do we do if the patient can stand for an upright abdomen?

A

Lateral decubitus

84
Q

Upright chest radiography on geriatrics: considerations?

A
  • have them hold onto the chest stand for support
  • for lateral can get them to hold onto IV pole if they can’t raise their arms high enough
  • raise patient’s chin
  • read requisition and adjust technical factors appropriately
85
Q

Since geriatrics often breath more shallow, what must we do to get entire lung fields?

A
  • CR high (T6/T7)

- utilize second inspiration exposure to ensure deep inspiration

86
Q

Sitting chest radiography on geriatrics: considerations?

A
  • if no grid is required with CR cassette use a lower kVp and higher mAs
  • angle tube to match angle of sternum
  • watch patients chin isn’t in the way of anatomy
87
Q

If geriatric patient cannot flex neck enough for an odontoid view, what can we do?

A

-Angle our tube

88
Q

What image should be done first when examining a geritiatric hip trauma?

A

AP pelvis

89
Q

Normal changes in vision in a geriatric patient include?

A
  • loss of visual activity
  • loss of ability to focus on near objects (farsightedness)
  • loss of adaptation from light to dark
  • loss of colour perception
  • tear production is reduced or increased
90
Q

Guidelines to assist elderly with vision difficulties

A
  1. Speak within patient’s field of vision and maintain eye contact
  2. Keep room lights on while giving instructions
  3. Have them sit up if they’re on a stretcher to see the room
  4. Assist patients on and off footsteps
  5. Turn room lights off if requested
  6. Allow patient to wear their glasses if they won’t effect exam
  7. Offer assistance should they require extra support
  8. Give patient extra time to move and adapt from light to dark
91
Q

Normal changes in hearing in geriatrics?

A
  • decreased ability to hear sounds in the high range tone

- sensory, neural, and conductive changes in physiology of the ear

92
Q

Guidelines to assisting elderly with hearing difficulties?

A
  1. Be patient
  2. Stand in front of the patient and maintain eye contact while speaking
  3. Talk in a lower tone of voice, carefully, and slowly
  4. Eliminate background noise
  5. Repeat instructions if they do not appear to understand, or rephrase it
  6. Simplify complicated instructions
  7. Give them time to process information
  8. Demonstrate instructions
  9. Practice breathing instructions with patient
93
Q

Normal changes related to balance and co-ordination in geriatrics?

A
  • decreased muscle strength
  • weakened bones
  • shortened spinal column
  • decreased reflexes
  • time needed to perform activities increases
  • increased fatigue
  • sensitivity to rapid changes in lighting can cause blindness
  • vertigo and dizziness from changing positions
  • decreased height perception from declining eye sight
94
Q

Guidelines to assist elderly who have balance/coordination problems

A
  1. Offer assistance
  2. Allow them to use their walking aids and leave them close by
  3. Ask patient if they need assistance
  4. Let patient rest a few minutes after sitting up
  5. Provide handgrips where possible
  6. Watch that the patient doesn’t hold on to the edge of the table
  7. Use caution at all times
  8. Reassure them and provide your attention
95
Q

Are geriatrics usually more cold or hot?

A

Cold

96
Q

Guidelines to assist geriatrics who are cold

A
  1. Put a sheet on the x-ray table or use a mattress
  2. Maintain a sheet over the patient whenever possible and only expose areas that are required
  3. Offer a warm blanket to the patient post examination
97
Q

For a stroke patient do we undress the affected or unaffected side first?

A

Unaffected side first

98
Q

Normal skin changes for geriatrics?

A
  • becomes lax and wrinkled
  • looks pale and more opaque
  • becomes thin and fragile
99
Q

Guidelines for working with elderly patients: skin/soft tissue changes?

A
  1. Be more aware of patient’s skin when transferring
  2. Reduce risk of decubitus ulcers by using mattresses pads or sponges
  3. Never try to pull on a patient’s arm to try to help them up
100
Q

Normal lung/respiratory changes in geriatrics?

A
  • compromised cough reflex
  • compromised respiratory reflex
  • decreased pulmonary function and stiffening of the chest wall
101
Q

Guidelines when working with geriatrics: lung/respiratory change

A
  1. Practice breathing instructions with patients prior to exposure
  2. Supine positioning is preferred over prone (on table)
  3. If patient is supine, build their head up with pillows for easier breathing
  4. Allow patient time to catch their breath between positions
  5. Be aware of patient condition and check in with them throughout the exam
102
Q

What is the most common cause of heart disease in the elderly? How should we adjust out technique?

A

Arteriosclerotic heart disease

-increased in mAs and kVp to visualize heart border because of fluid build up and pulmonary edema

103
Q

How should we adjust out technique for pneumonia?

A

Increase mA to provide density to the radiograph without over penetrating fine lung marking
-good inspiration very important to fully aerate the bronchioles

104
Q

How should we adjust our technical factors for aspiration pneumonia?

A

Increase

105
Q

What can easily occur in elderly patients during a swallowing examination?

A

Aspiration

106
Q

Causes of osteoporosis and aging women? How does osteoporosis affect our technical factors?

A
  • decrease of estrogen
  • lack of exercise
  • lack of calcium
  • decreased kVp (lowest possible)
107
Q

How should be adjust our technical factors to enhance contrast on a fracture on a geriatric patient?

A
  • lower kVp

- increase mA

108
Q

What is Paget’s disease? How should we adjust our technical factors?

A

Abnormal bone modeling, bowing of long bones, soft bone

  • larger image receptors may be required (bowed bones, larger bones)
  • increase kVp to compensate for increased calcium content
109
Q

How does diabetes mellitus affect imaging of the foot?

A

Use graduate filter under the foot helps to improve contrast when exposure factors must penetrate the tarsal bones.

110
Q

What are contractures? What are they caused by? What can we do?

A

Neuromuscular diseases, CVAs, trauma, and burns can result in abnormal muscle tone, if the tone increases then the spasticity ensues, leaving the joints stuck in either flexion or extension

  • progress the exam slowly and carefully
  • slow massage or gentle rubbing can help
  • cross-table views
111
Q

Loss of _______ fat can result in decubitus ulcers in geriatrics

A

Subcutaneous

112
Q

Why do we not want to use restraints?

A

They decrease compliance and increase anxiety

113
Q

What is aprexia?

A

The inability to use objects correctly

114
Q

What is one of the greatest dangers facing a premature (sometimes full mature) neonate? How can we prevent it?

A

Hypothermia

  • examine within the warmer whenever possible when using a mobile
  • don’t let them come in contact with the IR
  • if available, put IR in designated drawer on isolette
  • cover IR if drawer not available, be careful of material creasing (artifacts)
115
Q

What is NAT?

A

Non-accidental trauma

116
Q

When dealing with NAT what guidelines should the tech observe?

A
  • pay attention to exposure factors and recorded detail for limb radiography to see subtle skeletal injuries
  • when imaging an area multiple times use appropriate centering points, collimation, and techniques
  • all views done separately with visualization of the joints (essential)
117
Q

What steps should the tech observe when imaging a pediatric patient regarding radiation protection?

A
  • proper centering and selection of exposure factors/times, collimation, and use of filters
  • keep repeats to a minimum
  • follow ALARA, lowest exposure factors
  • high mA, low exposure time to reduce motion
  • grids used for parts >10cm
  • strategic shielding placement
  • effective immobilization to reduce repeats
  • PA projections of thorax and skull (when possible) to reduce dose
  • proper images in general *don’t rely on image reconstructions or computer algorithms afterwards
118
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

One or more lateral-rotary curves of the spine

119
Q

Projections done for scoliosis?

A

PA or AP of entire spine on single IR

-upright, recumbent, and lateral positions used

120
Q

Pros/cons of MRI is pediatrics?

A
  • longer exam times, child sedated
  • choice exam for spinal cord abnormalities
  • cardiac imaging
  • brain disorder studies
  • epiphyseal fractures
  • multiplanar images for surgical assessments
121
Q

2 of the most successful tools in pediatric radiography?

A
  • communication

- immobilization

122
Q

When is skeletal growth complete?

A

Around age 25

123
Q

What are bone age radiographs used for? What images are taken?

A
  • evaluate the degree of skeletal mutation
  • can see how child is developing compared to how they should be
  • AP of left hand a wrist
  • protocols for 1-2yr olds often include AP left knee
124
Q

How to reduce patient motion in pediatric radiography?

A
  • communication
  • immobilization
  • short exposure times
125
Q

Immobilization devices used in pediatrics?

A
  • Tam-em board: used for chest, abdomen, and upper and lower limbs
  • Pigg-o-stat
  • Sandbags
  • Stockinette and Ace bandage
  • Tape
  • Weighted angle blocks: used as head clamps
  • Mummifying
126
Q

Pediatrics AP chest recumbent and upright centering

A
  • CR mamillary line/midthorax

- Pigg-o-stat for upright

127
Q

Lateral chest positions

A
  • immobilization or tam-em board
  • CR at midthorax (mamillary line)
  • Pigg-o-stat (for upright)
128
Q

What immobilization technique should you use for upper limb on pediatrics

A
  • sandbags

- parent wearing lead

129
Q

What should you rule out before attempting a frog leg?

A

Fracture

130
Q

Upper GI prep for infants and children?

A
  • Younger than 3 months: NPO 3 hrs prior
  • Children 3 months to 5 yrs: NPO 4 hrs prior
  • Children 5 yrs + : NPO 6 hrs prior
131
Q

Lower GI prep for infants and children?

A
  • Infants to 2yr: no prep
  • Children 2 to 10yrs: low-residue meal evening before, laxative before bedtime, possible pedi-fleet enema
  • Individuals 10yr of age to adult: same prep as adult
132
Q

IVU prep

A
  • no solid food 4 hrs prior to exam

- encourage drinking of clear liquids

133
Q

Centering points for upright abdomen on infants vs. older children

A
  • infants: 2.5cm above umbilicus

- older children: 2.5cms above iliac crest

MRT Year 1 Semester 2 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions