Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Lieutenants Exam > Special Orders > Flashcards

Special Orders Flashcards

1
Q

Management Principles

Reverence for the Law

A

A peace officers enforcement should not be done in grudging adherence to the legal rights of the accused, but in a sincere spirit of seeking that every accused person is given all his rights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Management Principles

Crime prevention Top Priority

A

The basis mission for which the police exist is to prevent crime and disorder as an alternative to repression by military force and severity of legal punishment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Management Principles

Public Approbation of Police

A

The ability of the police to perform their duties is dependent upon public approval of police existence, actions, behavior, and the ability of police to secure and maintain public respect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Management Principles

Voluntary Law observance

A

Police must secure willing cooperation of public in observance of the law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Management Principles

Public Cooperation

A

The greater the amount public cooperation secured, the less necessity for the use of physical force and compulsion need to achieve police objectives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Management Principles

Impartial Friendly Enforcement

A

Police seek and preserve public favor by demonstrating impartial service; by the exercise of courtesy and friendly good humor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Management Principles

Minimum use of force

A

Force is used when it is necessary to secure observance of the law or to restore order when persuasion, advice, and warning is found to be insufficient to achieve objective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Management Principles

Public are the Police

A

Police should maintain a relationship with public that gives reality to the tradition that the police are the public and the public are the police.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Management Principles

Limit of Police Power

A

Police should always direct their actions strictly toward their functions and not usurp powers of judiciary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Management Principles

Test of Police Effectiveness

A

Test of effectiveness is the absence of crime and the presence of public order.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Management Principles

Managers working with police

A

Supervisors and managers exist to define problems, to establish objectives, and to assist line officers to accomplish the mission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Management Principles

Managers working with Police

A

The evaluation of a manager should be based on the improvement of his subordinates in the achievement of organizational goals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Management Principles

Police working with Criminal Justice System

A

The police and people alone cannot successfully resolve the problems of crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Management Principles

Police/Press relationships

A

Police should make every reasonable effort to serve the needs of the media in informing the public about crime and other police problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Management Principles

Management by Participation

A

Employees should be encouraged to make recommendations which might lead to an improvement in delivery of police services and Dept meeting objectives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Management Principles

Territorial Imperative

A

Police and people they serve must be as close as possible and where possible must know one another. Organization of assignments should ensure the same officers and citzs have opportunity to continuously work for the protection of a specific community.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Management Principles

Openness and Honesty

A

Officers must be open, honest and trustful in all matters. This will make develop respect in the community for officers and make it possible for citizens to come to them with problems and information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Property Seized subject to Forfeiture

True or False A nexus must exist between the currency to be seized and narcotics activity.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Officers who seize property for forfeiture must notify who?

A

The Asset Forfeiture Coordinator, Gang and Narcotics Division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When an officer seizes narcotics-related currency less than $10000 or personal property, the officer will…

A

Forward a copy of the completed Arrest Report/Property Report to AFID by completing the extra copies section and write Asset Forfeiture, GND on the left margin;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Officers seizing narcotics-related currency having value that appears to be in excess of $10,000 will….

A

Not disturb or count the currency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Is it necessary for a supervisor to respond when an officer seizes narco related currency having a value in excess of $10000.

A

Yes - Although the presence of a lieutenant is encouraged, it is understood they are not always available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False

The watch commander will respond to all scenes involving the seizure of narco-related currency which appears to be in excess of $10,000.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Confidential Financial Disclosure Forms

Use of Forms

A

Used to document assets, liabilities, and employment of employees assigned to GIT, GED, CLEAR, ND, or NED positions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Confidential Financial Disclosure Forms

All sworn employees of the rank of LT and below shall complete a Confidential Financial Disclosure Face Sheet and Disclosure report with in how many days.

A

Within ten calendar days of being selected and prior to assignment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Confidential Financial Disclosure Forms

True or False

GED officers requesting an extension beyond their initial 39 deployment periods are not required to complete Financial Disclosure forms.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Confidential Financial Disclosure Forms

True or False

GED Officers requesting an extension for a fifth year do not need to complete financial disclosure forms.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Confidential Financial Disclosure Forms

Officers will be required to fill out a new form every how many years if they wish to remain assigned to ND, Gang Detectives, CLEAR Detectives, NED, or as a GIT Lt.

A

Two years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Confidential Financial Disclosure Forms

What information are officers required to disclose?

A

all info regarding sole and jointly owned assets, liabilities, income, and income sources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Confidential Financial Disclosure Forms

Consent Decree Bureau (CDB) responsibilities

A

Review each Financial Disclosure face sheet for completeness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Confidential Financial Disclosure Forms

True or False

Once an officer’s Financial Disclosure form is reviewed by CDB, the officer will not have an opportunity to respond in writing to any areas of concern.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Financial Disclosure

Git Lt, GED, GIT Det, CLEAR, ND, and NED must complete a financial disclosure form within how many days?

A

10 days of initial selection and prior to starting assignment.
Subsequent time to complete form is every 2 years, except for GED which is when submitting request for first extention in assignment after 39 DPs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Policy on use of force revised.
Hayes vs County of San Diego pertains to the factors used to determine the reasonableness of an officers use of force. This has caused the Dept to revise its policy on the use of deadly force to include

A

consideration of not only the use of force itself, but also an officers tactical conduct and decisions leading up to the use of force when determining its reasonableness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Use of Force

what is the legal standard used to determine the lawfulness of a use of force?

A

The Fourth Amendment to the United States Constitution. Grahm v. Connor.

35
Q

Use of Force

The Dept examines reasonableness using

A

Graham and from the articulated facts from the perspective of a LAPD Officer with similar training and experience.

36
Q

True or False

the reasonableness of an officers use of deadly force includes consideration of the officers tactical conduct and decisions leading up to the use of force

A

true

37
Q

Use of Force

True or False

Firearms shall not be discharged at a moving vehicle unless a person in the vehicle is immediately threatening the officer or another person with deadly force by means other than the vehicle.

A

True

38
Q

Use of Force

True or False

A moving vehicle may presumptively constitue a threat that justifies an officers use of deadly force.

A

False

39
Q

Use of Force

When can officers discharge a firearm from a moving vehicle.

A

Only when there are exigent circumstances and in the immediate defense of life.

40
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

Community Caretaking Doctrine

True or False

Officers shall be guided by the Community Caretaking Doctrine when deciding whether to impound a vehicle driven by an unlicensed driver, or a driver with a suspended or revoked license.

A

True

41
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

An impoundment based on the Community Caretaking Doctrine is likely warranted:

A

When the vehicle is impeding traffic
blocking a driveway
creates a public safety hazard
Location of vehicle may make it a target for vandalism or theft.
To prevent the immediate and continued unlawful operation of the vehicle (e.g. licensed driver not immediately available.

42
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

True or False

The decision to impound any vehicle must be reasonable and in furtherance of public safety.

A

True

43
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

What vehicle code section do you use when impounding a vehicle when the driver does not have a valid California License, or expired, withheld, or out of class CDL.

A

Section 22651 (p) VC

44
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

Officers shall release a veh in lieu of impound provided all of the following conditions are met:

A

R/O or designee has a valid DL
R/O and Licensed driver are limmediately available.
R/O authorize the licensed driver to drive veh
Registration is not expired over six months.

45
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

True or False

If T/S is conducted in R/O’s driveway or in immediate vicinity of the owners residence, impounding the vehicle would be appropriate.

A

False.

46
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

What section do you cite for if the R/O knowingly allowed an unlicensed driver to operate a vehicle?

A

14604 (a) VC “Non-Owner Driver of Vehicle.”

47
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

What vehicle code section do you use to impound a vehicle on a 30-day hold?

A

14602.6 (a) (1) VC

48
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

When is it appropriate to impound a vehicle on a 30-day hold?

A

When the driver has never been issued a license by an jurisdiction (foreign or domestic) and the driver is unable to show proff of insurance or is at-fault in TC or lacks proof of identification.

49
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

True or False

The reason for impounding a vehicle on a 30-day hold can be based on whether the vehicle is properly insured.

A

False.

50
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

When it has been determined that the driver has never been issued a license by any jurisdiction and has a prior conviciton, FTA, or warrant for 12500 (a) VC, what impound authority do you used?

A

14602.6 (a) (1) VC

51
Q

What impound authority do you use if the driver has an expired, withheld or out of class license and has a prior conviction, FTA, or warrant for 12500 (a), or 14601

A

22651 (p)

52
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

What shall be noted in the Remarks or Narrative seciton of the impound report when the driver is the R/O and has a prior misdemeanor conviction

A

vehicle is eligible for vehicle forfeiture

except if the license expired within the prededing 30 days.

53
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

Driver w/suspended/revocked license - No priors.

Use impound section 14602.6 (a)(1) vc when….

A

driving with a suspended or revoked license or restricted license pursuant to DUI conviction restrictions.

54
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

Driver w/suspended/revocked license - No priors.

Officers shall release veh in lieu of impound when….

A

R/O or designee has valid DL

Veh Reg is not expired over six months.

55
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds
Driver w/suspended/revocked license - With priors.

What Section do you impound under when the driver has a suspended/revoked/restricted license with a prior misdemeanor conviction, FTA, or warrant for 12500 (a) or 14601

A

14602.6 (a) (1)

If the driver is the R/O - the vehicle is eligible for forfeiture.

56
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

What section do you impound for when it has been determined that a suspended/revoked/ restricted violator has a prior misd conviction, FTA, or warrant for Section 12500a, 14601, 14601.1

A

14602.6 (a) (1) VC 30-day hold

57
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

True or Fals

A driver is eligible for a vehicle forfeiture if the R/O has a prior misd conviction for driving on a suspended/revoked/restricted license.

A

True

58
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

Can you impound for a 30-day hold when the driver has never been issued a license by any jurisdiction (foreign or domestic) and has prior misd conviction, FTA, or warrant for 12500 a

A

Yes

Impound for 22651 (p) if driver has an expired, withheld or out lf class license and has a prior misd conviction, FTA or warrant for 12500 a

59
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

DUI Checkpoints
When a drivers only offense is a violation of section 12500 vc even if he has a prior conviction, FTA, or warrant for 12500,….

A

make a resonable attempt to id the R/O. If R/O is present or able to respond to the scene prior to conclusion of DUI checkpoint operation, or the officer is able to R/O and obtain his authorization to release vehicle to licensed driver at scene

60
Q

Community Caretaking Doctrine and vehicle impounds

Impounding vehicles when the driver is arrested.
True or False
Officers must determine if the totality of the circumstances support impoundment even when an officer would be justified in impounding a vehicle (22651 vc) from a driver who has been arrested.

A

True

61
Q

Custodial Interrogation of Adults and Minors

True or False

Can a criminal investigator question a suspect outside of Miranda in cases involving public safety and or matters unrelated to the crime for which the susp is in custody.

A

True

62
Q

Custodial Interrogation of Adults and Minors

True or False

If a susp only invokes silence, this does not preclude investigators from seeking a waiver at a later time.

A

True

63
Q

Custodial Interrogation of Adults and Minors

True or False

When a major crime is involved, an officer shall not read the Miranda admonition to a suspect or question a suspect prior to consulting with the investigating officer.

A

True

Ex. Homicide, Crimes agaisnt persons, crimes, excluding narco, that are the resposibility of a specialized detective division, major narco, Felony Wants/warrants

64
Q

Custodial Interrogation of Adults and Minors

Are officers required to wait for a parent or guardian prior to the questioning of a juvenile?

A

No.

65
Q

Custodial Interrogation of Adults and Minors

When conducting a custodial interview of a suspect for an administrative interview, is it necessary to Mirandize the suspect.

A

Yes

66
Q

Custodial Interrogation of Adults and Minors

True or False

When an officer takes a person under 18 into custody for a 601 or 602 offense and does not intend to interrogate them, they still shall be mirandized.

A

True

67
Q

Custodial Interrogation of Adults and Minors

True or False

When an officer takes a person under 18 into custody for a 601 or 602 and they do not intent to interrogate, the officer shall not ascertain if the minor understands his rights and shall not seek a waiver.

A

True

68
Q

Custodial Interrogation of Adults and Minors

What is the correct way to document in an arrest report that you advised a minor of his Miranda rights?

A

“The minor was advised per 625 WIC.” If it is a traffic citation write, “625 WIC” on the bottom left-hand corner of the narrative portion of the citation.

69
Q

Custodial Interrogation of Adults and Minors

True or False
When a minor under the age of 14 years is suspected of committing a crime, and the officer plans on interrogating the minor, the minor’s section of the Gladys R. shall be completed after the Miranda admonition has been given, but before the questioning begins.

A

True

70
Q

Custodial Interrogation of Adults and Minors

True or False

The parent, guardian or other responsible adult section may be completed anytime prior to filling the case with the DA’s office.

A

True

71
Q

Custodial Interrogation of Adults and Minors

True or False

A Gladys R. questionnaire is not required if the minor is only being admonished per 625 WIC.

A

True

72
Q

Custodial Interrogation of Adults and Minors

What form should custodial interrogations or any statement that requires a signature,

A

Investigative Action/Statement form. Non-custodial statements should be documented on a Continuation Sheet or a blank sheet of paper.

73
Q

Custodial Interrogation of Adults and Minors

True or False

A Gladys R. questionnaire is not required if the minor is only being admonished per 625 WIC.

A

True

74
Q

Exposure to Contagious Diseases

Exposure to Contagious Diseases

Contact must be with which fluids?

A

Blooc, urine, fecal matter, saliva, or other potentially-infectious bodily fluid.

75
Q

Exposure to Contagious Diseases

If contact with any bodily fluids or an exposure has occurred, the supervisor shall….

A

require the concerned employee to immediatley cleanse and or disinfect the contaminated area. If there is a chance that the bodily fluid may be relevant evidence, photos shall be taken immediately. Cleansing the exposed area shall not be delayed to obtain a camera.

76
Q

Exposure to Contagious Diseases

Who is responsible to ensure that bloodborne pathogen exposure, injury treatment and reporting of them are followed?

A

The incident commander.

77
Q

Exposure to Contagious Diseases

When an employee requires an evaluation or treatment for exposure to a bloodborne pathogen, which occurs during regular business hours, he shall contact or respond to Medical Services Division within what time periord?

A

Within two hours of the original exposure.

78
Q

Exposure to Contagious Diseases

When an employee requires an evaluation or treatment for exposure to a bloodborne pathogen, which occurs after regular business hours, the employee shall contact or respond to Metropolitan Jail Section, Valley or 77th Regional Jail Dispensaries, within what time period?

A

Within two hours of the original exposure.

79
Q

Exposure to Contagious Diseases

What are the Bloodborne Pathogens most likely to be encountered in the field?

A

Hep B and C, and HIV.

80
Q

Exposure to Contagious Diseases

What is a Bloodborne Pathogen Exposure?

A

Two criteria must be met.

Contact must be with blood or another potentially infectious body fluid and be through a portal of entry capable of interoducing the blood or other fluid into the bloodstream. Note: exposure has not occurred if only one criteria has been met.

81
Q

Exposure to Contagious Diseases

What is a Source Person?

A

the individual whose blood or other potentially infectious body fluid is the source of the exposure.

82
Q

Exposure to Contagious Diseases

When should the identity of the Source Person Be Recorded?

A

when necessary to complete relevant official reports, such as crime or accident reports. The confidentiality of the source persons identiy shall be maintained by all employees at all times.

83
Q

Exposure to Contagious Diseases

Can the Source Person be Tested?

A

Yes, under certain circumstances and only upon the recommendation of the City medical staff based on Objective medical criteria. A source persons willingness to be tested is not sufficient grounds for testing.

84
Q

Exposure to Contagious Diseases

What are the procedures for testing a source person.

A

City medical staff must first determine that there is an objective medical basis to warrant testing. It then depends upon whether the source person voluntarily agrees to be tested.

Lieutenants Exam (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions