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E-26 INFORMATION BOOK > SPECIAL OPERATIONS- HAZMAT BULLETINS > Flashcards

SPECIAL OPERATIONS- HAZMAT BULLETINS Flashcards

1
Q

What does CHEM.TR.E.C. stand for?

A

Chemical Transportation Emergency Center

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2
Q

When does CHEMTREC operate?

A

24 hours a day
7 days a week
365 days a year

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3
Q

What information should relayed when calling CHEMTREC?

A 
Product name
Nature of problem
Location of the problem
Shipper/Manufacturer 
Container type
Railcar & Track number 
Carrier name
Local Conditions 
Placard marking Symbols
Weather conditions
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4
Q

What is DC FEMS role to incidents involving WMD

A

Rescue Activities
Victim decon
Product Identification
Fire suppression

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5
Q

When may FEMS be deployed into hazardous areas on WMD incident?

A

When immediate rescues are evident

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6
Q

Once immediate rescues have been completed….

A

Units are to withdraw from the area until a comprehensive hazard and risk assessment has been completed

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7
Q

On WMD incident, with exception of the first due engine company, all other units stage….

A

at 1 location, minimum of 2 blocks UPWIND and UPHIL of the reported incident.

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8
Q

On WDM incident where explosives are used, units should stage _______ FT from from the incident

A

1500FT

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9
Q

Chemical protective suits shall be worn in the _____, on WMD incident

A

Warm

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10
Q

What 3 things should be used to protect against radio active materials.

A

Time, Distance, Sheilding

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11
Q

Turnout gear with SCBA provides first responders with sufficient protection from nerve agent for in the “Hot Zone” for _____ minutes

A

30 minutes

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12
Q

Self-taped turnout gear with SCBA provides sufficient protection in an unknown nerve agent environment for a _____ minute recon search, Or _____ minute recon search if blister agent is suspected

A

3 minute,

2 minute

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13
Q

What form of respiratory protection should not be used in the Hot Zone?

A

Air Purifying Respirators

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14
Q

______ Can be useful in incident involving chemical warfare agents by reducing chemical agent vapor concentrations

*What is the drawback of this

A

Positive Pressure Fans

Can potentially create extremely hazardous downwind enviorments

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15
Q

What is the most expeditious and preferred method of decontamination in large Masses of victims

A

Flushing and showering with high volume and low pressure water

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16
Q

In incident involving chemical agents, victim decontamination should begin when to be most effective?

A

Immediately

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17
Q

What percentage of contamination may be removed by disrobbing the victim?

A

80%

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18
Q

What will happen if the victim is not disrobed before they are wet down?

A

This may facilitate the transfer of liquid agent to the skin

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19
Q

What is the incubation period for anthrax?

A

1-5 days

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20
Q

What is the incubation period for Smallpox?

A

7-17 days

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21
Q

On radiological event, what shall be taken from victims prior to decontamination to determine the level of respiratory exposure?

A

Nasal swap

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22
Q

What shall transpire in Master Stream Decontamination?

A

2 engine companies shall be 15ft apart with 2 1/2 nozzle set to a wide fog pattern attached to their discharge facing each other. The ladder truck will have a fog nozzel attached to the master stream point down.

*Hydrant pressure shall be used

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23
Q

1st due Engine Company responsiblites on WDM incident?

A
  • Approach the incident from up hill/upwind

- Stop 500Ft ft incident or where casualties/ damage is first encountered

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24
Q

What shall be avoided when dealing with victims contaminated with unknown substance?

A

Direct contact

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25
Q

What are FEMS objective on bombing incident

A
  • Rescue victims trapped in affected area
  • Establish unified command
  • Identify materials and hazards
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26
Q

What is the most frequent weapon of terrorist?

A

Conventional bomb, or Improvised Explosive Device (IED)

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27
Q

What are the 3 types of explosive devices?

A
  • Pyrotechnic
  • Low Order
  • High Order
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28
Q

Describe Pyrotechnic Explosives

A

Create smoke, heat, sound, and light

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29
Q

Describe Low Order Explosives

A
  • controled release of gas that creates a propellant
  • Designed to burn
  • Detonation Speeds less than 3000 Ft per second
  • Easy to ignite(flame or impact)
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30
Q

Describe High Order Explosives

A
  • Initiated from detonator, or blast cap
  • Creates instant release of energy for maximum dispersion of damage
  • Detonation speeds greater than 3000 Ft per second
  • Weapon of choice for terrorist
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31
Q

What are the 3 types of High Order Explosives?

A
  • Primary (Detonation from spark, flame, or impact)
  • Secondary (Greater insult than primary…PETN,TNT,RDX,HMX)
  • Tertiary (Larger insult needed to detonate…ANFO- Ammonium Nitrate & Fuel Oil)
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32
Q

How are explosives classified?

A

According to their degree of response once initiated and the stimuli they respond to

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33
Q

What are the 3 effects of detonated explosives?

A
  • Blast Pressure
  • Fragmentation
  • Thermal Effects
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34
Q

What type of blast effect causes severe injuries to internal organs?

A

Blast Pressure

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35
Q

What type of blast effect propels surrounding materials, or added pieces of shrapnel, and can travel 3 times faster than a bullet?

A

Fragmentation

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36
Q

What type of blast effect is called “incendiary” and has the potential to generate heat up to 3650 F for .5 seconds?

A

Thermal Effects

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37
Q

What type of blast effect may effect may cause sever burns and damage to the lungs from inhalation of hot gases?

A

Thermal Effects

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38
Q

What are 5 forms of stimuli or “insults” that initiate explosions?

A
  • Heat
  • Friction
  • Impact
  • Electrostatic Discharge
  • Shock
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39
Q

Define Command Detonation

A

A switch or button activated by hand

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40
Q

Define Hard Wired

A

Electrical wire between devices or leading away from the device

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41
Q

Define Remote Controlled

A

Battery powered device that detonates explosives via radio frequency transmission (Pagers, Cell Phones, Doorbell ringers, two-way radios, Car Alarms)

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42
Q

Define Time Delay

A

A mechanical triggering device that uses a wrist watch or alarm clock to initiate an explosion at a specific time

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43
Q

Define Hard Target

A

Areas that are secured by trained personnel or officials (government/military facilities, nuclear plants, some critical infrastructure)

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44
Q

Define Soft Targets

A

Areas with little, or no, security and have the possibility of resulting in extensive casualties. (Schools, hospitals, theaters, businesses, shopping venues)

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45
Q

Define VBIED

A

Vehicle Borne Improvised Explosive Device- A vehicle loaded with explosives and driven to target where it is detonated

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46
Q

What are the 6 means of delivering an IED?

A
  • Vehicle
  • Incendiary
  • Suicide
  • Letter
  • Carried
  • Planted
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47
Q

What is the most common method of terror attacks again the United States?

A

Vehicle Borne Improvised Explosive Devices (VBIED)

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48
Q

How many pounds of explosives can a tanker hold?

A

78,000

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49
Q

What are the advantages of high capacity tankers as VBIED?

A

High capacity and Concealment

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50
Q

Which IED may contain chemical, biological, or radiological components?

A

Letter IED

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51
Q

Which IED’s are portable concealable and usually left somewhere that wouldn’t be out of place?

A

Carried or Planted

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52
Q

Which type of IED is recently responsible for 48% of total deaths due to terrorism?

A

Suicide Bombers

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53
Q

What is a Type 1 Suicide Attack Container ?

A

Package (backpack, briefcase, etc)

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54
Q

What is a Type 2 Suicide Attack Container?

A

Belt (Worn under or as part of clothing)

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55
Q

What is Type 3 Suicide Attack Container?

A

Vehicle (Concealed in a vehicle and driven to target)

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56
Q

When are secondary devices usually detonated?

A

Within 20 minutes of the primary explosion, along the evacuation route

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57
Q

What is a Type 1 Blast Injury?

A

Blast Pressure

***MOST LIKELY TO CAUSE DEATH

58
Q

What is a Type 2 Blast Injury?

A

Flying Debris Injury

59
Q

What is a Type 3 Blast Injury?

A

Victims thrown into objects

*Victim becomes a projectile

60
Q

What units are assigned to bomb threat/suspicious package assignment?

A 
1 Engine
1 Truck
1 Hazmat Unit
1 Rescue Squad
1 EMS unit
1 EMS supervisor 
1 Special Ops Chief (or closest if SpecOps Chief is unavailable)
61
Q

Staging on a threat/suspicious package?

A

Units stage at 1 location a minimum of 1500ft from the reported incident behind structures or natural barriers

62
Q

If a suspected device is located at the incident site or a device is detonated while in stage, officers and members shall not_____?

A

Transmit on portable radios, deactivate Mobile Data Terminals (MDT’s), and turn off cellular devices within 500 ft of the incident site

63
Q

What units are assigned to a Post Blast Incident?

A

A box alarm assignment in addition to…

1- Cave-In Task Force 
1- Haz Mat Task Force
1- Mass Casualty Task Force
1- EMS Task Force
1- Safety Officer
64
Q

Units staging at The White House shall be guided by the Special Operations BFC at a predetermined staging area as to________?

A

Not create a predictable staging location

65
Q

If a complete bomb sweep is not underway after _______ minutes from arrival, the IC will consider_______

A

15 minutes

Removing rescuers to a safe location until cleared but EOD

66
Q

The Haz Mat-Unit and/or The Squad will determine what about the incident site on a post blast site?

A

If the site has been contaminated with chemical, radiological, or biological contaminates

67
Q

1 Rotogen is equal to _______?

A

1 Radiation Absorbed Dose (RAD) or 1 Radiation Equivalent Man (REM)

68
Q

Radiation rates are measured in what 3 units of measurement?

A

Micro-Rotogen (µR) per hour(/hr)
Mili-Rotogen (mR) per hour (/hr)
Rotogen(R) per hour (/hr)

69
Q

What is natural background radiation in the DC?

A

5 -20µR/hr or .005-.2mR/hr

70
Q

What does ALARA stand for?

A

As Low As Reasonably Achievable

71
Q

What are the 3 principles ALARA?

A

Maximize distance
Minimize exposure time
Maximize sheilding

72
Q

A meter reading of _____will denote “ABSOLUTE TURNBACK” for personnel operating in those areas?

A

200R/hr

73
Q

A Meter reading of 5R (REM) will constitute what emergency actions to be preformed?

A

All activities

74
Q

A Meter reading of 10R (REM) will constitute what emergency actions to be preformed?

A

Protecting major property

75
Q

A Meter reading of 25R (REM) will constitute what emergency actions to be preformed?

A

Lifesaving or protection of large populations

76
Q

A Meter reading of >25R (REM) will constitute what emergency actions to be preformed?

A

Lifesaving or protection of large populations

ONLY BY VOLUNTUEERS WHO UNDERSTAND THE RISK

77
Q

On a radiological event, FD personnel NOT equipped with dosimeters may conduct life saving events for a maximum of ______ minutes?

A

15 Minutes

78
Q

A yellow in start triage denotes what?

A

Decon, Treat, Transport

79
Q

If no victims are present a control line should be established at__________?

A

2 times the background reading or 50µR/hr

80
Q

What is the maximum allowable reading in the COLD ZONE with life safety concerns?

A

2mR/hr

81
Q

What is the maximum allowable reading in the WARM ZONE with life safety concerns?

A

2 mR - 10mR/hr

82
Q

What is the maximum allowable reading in the HOT ZONE with life safety concerns?

A

Over 10R/hr

83
Q

Operations in the _____ should be for life saving purposes only

A

HOT ZONE

84
Q

External Dosimeters should be worn______ and check every ______ minutes

A

outside of PPE

15 minutes

85
Q

On a radiation incident a dose of _______ shall be reported

A

Any dose shall be reported

86
Q

Natural gas produce produces ______

A

High radiant heat

87
Q

Natural gas ignition point is ______

A

1100-1200 F

88
Q

High pressure natural gas lines are supplied at ____PSI

A

20 PSI

89
Q

Low pressure natural gas lines are supplied at ____PSI

A

1/5 PSI

90
Q

Washington Gas Transmission Lines are range from ___ to ___ PSI

A

60-300 PSI

91
Q

Washington Gas distribution lines are range from ____ to ____PSI

A

1/5th to 60 PSI

92
Q

Washington Gas Low Pressure lines are range from ____ to ____ PSI

A

1/5th to 1/4th PSI

93
Q

A low pressure Washington Gas line can be identified by the absence of what?

A

A service regulator

94
Q

Fill pressure at the outlet of a natural gas fueling station is approximately _____ PSI

A

3000 PSI

95
Q

A proven method for grounding static charge is to ___________?

A

Keep the exposed plastic surface wet with a water spray, or dripping rags

96
Q

Any reading above ______ of the Lower Explosive Limit will be cause for the building to be evacuated and Self contained Breathing Apparatus to be placed in service

A

10%

97
Q

Prior to ventilating a building with a reading greater than 10% of the Lower explosive limit the IC will

A

Establish a collapse zone

request a Hazmat unit, or squad to assist with metering

98
Q

The assignment for a possible Carbon Monoixde leak shall be ______?

A

1 Engine
1 Truck
1 (or more) transport units as needed

99
Q

SCBA’s shall be worn and used upon entry into an atmosphere that contains______ amount of CO?

A

An unknown level of CO

100
Q

If an atmosphere contains ______ of Carbon Monoxide SCBA’s are not required

A

Less than 35 PPM

101
Q

SCBA shall be placed in service in any atmosphere containing ______ of CO?

A

35 PPM or more

102
Q

_______ is a symptom of Carbon Monoxide poisoning?

A

Dark red lips

103
Q

An Oxygen deficit level is concidered _________?

A

19.5% or below

104
Q

Carbon Dioxide has a _____?

A

High Vapor Density

105
Q

Significant Carbon Dioxide leaks in a structure may_________?

A

extinguish pilot lights allowing natural gas to escape

106
Q

The single gas Carbon Dioxide ToxiRae will read up to_____?

A

50,000PPM

107
Q

Dry ice sublimes at about_______ pounds every 24 hours in a typical storage container

A

5-10 pounds

108
Q

When Liquid CO2 reverts back to a gas state, it expands at a rate of _______?

A

1:1533

109
Q

The Relative Vapor Density of of Carbon Dioxide is ______. Making it ______ times heavier than air.

A

1: 53
1: 53

110
Q

Generally Carbon Dioxide alarms are set to _________ for the low alarms and __________ for the high alarm

A

15: 000PPM (1.5%)
30: 000PPM (3.0%)

111
Q

Many laboratories contain the chemicals ________ and _______ when combines produce a lethal gas.

A

Potassium Cyanide & Hydrochloric Acid

112
Q

Attempts to neutralize, move and transport suspected hazardous materials should only be done by _______ & _______ if possible

A

The Hazmat unit and DEA PCP GROUP 3

113
Q

What is an ACM

A

Asbestos Containing Material

114
Q

Use of a _______ is recommend to control airborne dust or particles

A

Wide Fog Stream

115
Q

In overhaul situations, the ______ shall be shut down to prevent the distribution of suspected ACM

A

Air Handlers

116
Q

What branch of The District of Columbia government handles ACM’s

A

Department of Consumer Regulatory Affairs (DCRA)- Air quality control and monitoring branch

117
Q

Transformer affixed with a _____ label DO contain PCB’s

A

Yellow

118
Q

Transformers affixed with a ______ label DO NOT contain PCB’s

A

Blue

119
Q

Pipeline that runs from a point on the Anacostia rive, just below the South Capitol Street Bridge, to Andrews Air Force Base (AAFB)

A

Andrews Underground Fuel Transmission Pipeline

120
Q

The pipeline is in use _____ hours per week pumping _____

A

17-20

JP/8

121
Q

While pumping the, pressures within the pipeline reach ______

A

300PSI

122
Q

During periods of non use the pipeline remains full and under pressure at approximately _______

A

85 PSI

123
Q

JP/8 contains ________ , a known carcinogen

A

Benezene

124
Q

JP/8 gives off _______?

A

High radiant heat

125
Q

There are _______ Shut offs along the pipeline that on ST Services pipeline personnel operate.

A

3

126
Q

DC FEMS employees are not to __________ unless directed by pipeline employees…. however, they are allowed to extinguish perimeters fires and protect structures as needed

A

Extinguish primary fires

127
Q

post use of a “GO BAG” requires______

A

a special report and form 53.1 to the Special Operations Chief

128
Q

Technical Decontamination uses _________ or _________ methods to remove or neutralize contaminates from reresponders and equipment

A

Chemical or physical

129
Q

There are two types of response in technical decon. Those involving _________& _________?

A

CBRN and Petrochemicals

130
Q

Technical Recon task force is a combination of what units?

A

Engine 6, Engine 26, Truck 4, and Truck 15

131
Q

What shall not be used when there is an oxidizer present?

A

Reactive Skin Decontamination Lotion (RSDL)

132
Q

What officer is assigned the roll of Technical Decon Group Supervisor.

A

The truck officer

133
Q

Where shall the technical decon corridor be located?

A

30Ft x 30Ft corridor in the warm zone. Extending from edge of the HOT zone to the COLD ZONE

134
Q

What is the appropriate dwell time for solutions to destroy chemical warfare agents?

A

3 Minutes

135
Q

What is the appropriate dwell time for solutions to destroy VX?

A

15 Minutes

136
Q

How far can Alpha particles travel before becoming undetectable?

A

1/4 to 2in in the air.

137
Q

What is the rule of thumb when determining the distance and speed that a alpha radiation probe should be moved

A

One probe diameter per second, or one to two inch per second

138
Q

Uprighting a tanker should not take place until the product has been offloaded, Except tankers with what kind of contents?

A

High Pressure gas tankers

139
Q

Empty tankers can still present what?

A

Fire Vapor Hazard

140
Q

Corrosives will be assessed for corrosive vapors by_________?

A

using PH paper. both Wet and dry

141
Q

What will happen to electric meters if exposed to corrosives?

A

The meter may become damages and fail to give accurate readings.

E-26 INFORMATION BOOK (4 decks)

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