SPECIAL OPERATIONS- HAZMAT BULLETINS Flashcards
1
Q
What does CHEM.TR.E.C. stand for?
A
Chemical Transportation Emergency Center
2
Q
When does CHEMTREC operate?
A
24 hours a day
7 days a week
365 days a year
3
Q
What information should relayed when calling CHEMTREC?
A
Product name Nature of problem Location of the problem Shipper/Manufacturer Container type Railcar & Track number Carrier name Local Conditions Placard marking Symbols Weather conditions
4
Q
What is DC FEMS role to incidents involving WMD
A
Rescue Activities
Victim decon
Product Identification
Fire suppression
5
Q
When may FEMS be deployed into hazardous areas on WMD incident?
A
When immediate rescues are evident
6
Q
Once immediate rescues have been completed….
A
Units are to withdraw from the area until a comprehensive hazard and risk assessment has been completed
7
Q
On WMD incident, with exception of the first due engine company, all other units stage….
A
at 1 location, minimum of 2 blocks UPWIND and UPHIL of the reported incident.
8
Q
On WDM incident where explosives are used, units should stage _______ FT from from the incident
A
1500FT
9
Q
Chemical protective suits shall be worn in the _____, on WMD incident
A
Warm
10
Q
What 3 things should be used to protect against radio active materials.
A
Time, Distance, Sheilding
11
Q
Turnout gear with SCBA provides first responders with sufficient protection from nerve agent for in the “Hot Zone” for _____ minutes
A
30 minutes
12
Q
Self-taped turnout gear with SCBA provides sufficient protection in an unknown nerve agent environment for a _____ minute recon search, Or _____ minute recon search if blister agent is suspected
A
3 minute,
2 minute
13
Q
What form of respiratory protection should not be used in the Hot Zone?
A
Air Purifying Respirators
14
Q
______ Can be useful in incident involving chemical warfare agents by reducing chemical agent vapor concentrations
*What is the drawback of this
A
Positive Pressure Fans
Can potentially create extremely hazardous downwind enviorments
15
Q
What is the most expeditious and preferred method of decontamination in large Masses of victims
A
Flushing and showering with high volume and low pressure water
16
Q
In incident involving chemical agents, victim decontamination should begin when to be most effective?
A
Immediately
17
Q
What percentage of contamination may be removed by disrobbing the victim?
A
80%
18
Q
What will happen if the victim is not disrobed before they are wet down?
A
This may facilitate the transfer of liquid agent to the skin
19
Q
What is the incubation period for anthrax?
A
1-5 days
20
Q
What is the incubation period for Smallpox?
A
7-17 days
21
Q
On radiological event, what shall be taken from victims prior to decontamination to determine the level of respiratory exposure?
A
Nasal swap
22
Q
What shall transpire in Master Stream Decontamination?
A
2 engine companies shall be 15ft apart with 2 1/2 nozzle set to a wide fog pattern attached to their discharge facing each other. The ladder truck will have a fog nozzel attached to the master stream point down.
*Hydrant pressure shall be used
23
Q
1st due Engine Company responsiblites on WDM incident?
A
- Approach the incident from up hill/upwind
- Stop 500Ft ft incident or where casualties/ damage is first encountered
24
Q
What shall be avoided when dealing with victims contaminated with unknown substance?
A
Direct contact
25
What are FEMS objective on bombing incident
- Rescue victims trapped in affected area
- Establish unified command
- Identify materials and hazards
26
What is the most frequent weapon of terrorist?
Conventional bomb, or Improvised Explosive Device (IED)
27
What are the 3 types of explosive devices?
- Pyrotechnic
- Low Order
- High Order
28
Describe Pyrotechnic Explosives
Create smoke, heat, sound, and light
29
Describe Low Order Explosives
- controled release of gas that creates a propellant
- Designed to burn
- Detonation Speeds less than 3000 Ft per second
- Easy to ignite(flame or impact)
30
Describe High Order Explosives
- Initiated from detonator, or blast cap
- Creates instant release of energy for maximum dispersion of damage
- Detonation speeds greater than 3000 Ft per second
- Weapon of choice for terrorist
31
What are the 3 types of High Order Explosives?
- Primary (Detonation from spark, flame, or impact)
- Secondary (Greater insult than primary...PETN,TNT,RDX,HMX)
- Tertiary (Larger insult needed to detonate...ANFO- Ammonium Nitrate & Fuel Oil)
32
How are explosives classified?
According to their degree of response once initiated and the stimuli they respond to
33
What are the 3 effects of detonated explosives?
- Blast Pressure
- Fragmentation
- Thermal Effects
34
What type of blast effect causes severe injuries to internal organs?
Blast Pressure
35
What type of blast effect propels surrounding materials, or added pieces of shrapnel, and can travel 3 times faster than a bullet?
Fragmentation
36
What type of blast effect is called "incendiary" and has the potential to generate heat up to 3650 F for .5 seconds?
Thermal Effects
37
What type of blast effect may effect may cause sever burns and damage to the lungs from inhalation of hot gases?
Thermal Effects
38
What are 5 forms of stimuli or "insults" that initiate explosions?
- Heat
- Friction
- Impact
- Electrostatic Discharge
- Shock
39
Define Command Detonation
A switch or button activated by hand
40
Define Hard Wired
Electrical wire between devices or leading away from the device
41
Define Remote Controlled
Battery powered device that detonates explosives via radio frequency transmission (Pagers, Cell Phones, Doorbell ringers, two-way radios, Car Alarms)
42
Define Time Delay
A mechanical triggering device that uses a wrist watch or alarm clock to initiate an explosion at a specific time
43
Define Hard Target
Areas that are secured by trained personnel or officials (government/military facilities, nuclear plants, some critical infrastructure)
44
Define Soft Targets
Areas with little, or no, security and have the possibility of resulting in extensive casualties. (Schools, hospitals, theaters, businesses, shopping venues)
45
Define VBIED
Vehicle Borne Improvised Explosive Device- A vehicle loaded with explosives and driven to target where it is detonated
46
What are the 6 means of delivering an IED?
- Vehicle
- Incendiary
- Suicide
- Letter
- Carried
- Planted
47
What is the most common method of terror attacks again the United States?
Vehicle Borne Improvised Explosive Devices (VBIED)
48
How many pounds of explosives can a tanker hold?
78,000
49
What are the advantages of high capacity tankers as VBIED?
High capacity and Concealment
50
Which IED may contain chemical, biological, or radiological components?
Letter IED
51
Which IED's are portable concealable and usually left somewhere that wouldn't be out of place?
Carried or Planted
52
Which type of IED is recently responsible for 48% of total deaths due to terrorism?
Suicide Bombers
53
What is a Type 1 Suicide Attack Container ?
Package (backpack, briefcase, etc)
54
What is a Type 2 Suicide Attack Container?
Belt (Worn under or as part of clothing)
55
What is Type 3 Suicide Attack Container?
Vehicle (Concealed in a vehicle and driven to target)
56
When are secondary devices usually detonated?
Within 20 minutes of the primary explosion, along the evacuation route
57
What is a Type 1 Blast Injury?
Blast Pressure
| ***MOST LIKELY TO CAUSE DEATH
58
What is a Type 2 Blast Injury?
Flying Debris Injury
59
What is a Type 3 Blast Injury?
Victims thrown into objects
| *Victim becomes a projectile
60
What units are assigned to bomb threat/suspicious package assignment?
```
1 Engine
1 Truck
1 Hazmat Unit
1 Rescue Squad
1 EMS unit
1 EMS supervisor
1 Special Ops Chief (or closest if SpecOps Chief is unavailable)
```
61
Staging on a threat/suspicious package?
Units stage at 1 location a minimum of 1500ft from the reported incident behind structures or natural barriers
62
If a suspected device is located at the incident site or a device is detonated while in stage, officers and members shall not_____?
Transmit on portable radios, deactivate Mobile Data Terminals (MDT's), and turn off cellular devices within 500 ft of the incident site
63
What units are assigned to a Post Blast Incident?
A box alarm assignment in addition to...
```
1- Cave-In Task Force
1- Haz Mat Task Force
1- Mass Casualty Task Force
1- EMS Task Force
1- Safety Officer
```
64
Units staging at The White House shall be guided by the Special Operations BFC at a predetermined staging area as to________?
Not create a predictable staging location
65
If a complete bomb sweep is not underway after _______ minutes from arrival, the IC will consider_______
15 minutes
Removing rescuers to a safe location until cleared but EOD
66
The Haz Mat-Unit and/or The Squad will determine what about the incident site on a post blast site?
If the site has been contaminated with chemical, radiological, or biological contaminates
67
1 Rotogen is equal to _______?
1 Radiation Absorbed Dose (RAD) or 1 Radiation Equivalent Man (REM)
68
Radiation rates are measured in what 3 units of measurement?
Micro-Rotogen (µR) per hour(/hr)
Mili-Rotogen (mR) per hour (/hr)
Rotogen(R) per hour (/hr)
69
What is natural background radiation in the DC?
5 -20µR/hr or .005-.2mR/hr
70
What does ALARA stand for?
As Low As Reasonably Achievable
71
What are the 3 principles ALARA?
Maximize distance
Minimize exposure time
Maximize sheilding
72
A meter reading of _____will denote "ABSOLUTE TURNBACK" for personnel operating in those areas?
200R/hr
73
A Meter reading of 5R (REM) will constitute what emergency actions to be preformed?
All activities
74
A Meter reading of 10R (REM) will constitute what emergency actions to be preformed?
Protecting major property
75
A Meter reading of 25R (REM) will constitute what emergency actions to be preformed?
Lifesaving or protection of large populations
76
A Meter reading of >25R (REM) will constitute what emergency actions to be preformed?
Lifesaving or protection of large populations
| ***ONLY BY VOLUNTUEERS WHO UNDERSTAND THE RISK***
77
On a radiological event, FD personnel NOT equipped with dosimeters may conduct life saving events for a maximum of ______ minutes?
15 Minutes
78
A yellow in start triage denotes what?
Decon, Treat, Transport
79
If no victims are present a control line should be established at__________?
2 times the background reading or 50µR/hr
80
What is the maximum allowable reading in the COLD ZONE with life safety concerns?
2mR/hr
81
What is the maximum allowable reading in the WARM ZONE with life safety concerns?
2 mR - 10mR/hr
82
What is the maximum allowable reading in the HOT ZONE with life safety concerns?
Over 10R/hr
83
Operations in the _____ should be for life saving purposes only
HOT ZONE
84
External Dosimeters should be worn______ and check every ______ minutes
outside of PPE
| 15 minutes
85
On a radiation incident a dose of _______ shall be reported
Any dose shall be reported
86
Natural gas produce produces ______
High radiant heat
87
Natural gas ignition point is ______
1100-1200 F
88
High pressure natural gas lines are supplied at ____PSI
20 PSI
89
Low pressure natural gas lines are supplied at ____PSI
1/5 PSI
90
Washington Gas Transmission Lines are range from ___ to ___ PSI
60-300 PSI
91
Washington Gas distribution lines are range from ____ to ____PSI
1/5th to 60 PSI
92
Washington Gas Low Pressure lines are range from ____ to ____ PSI
1/5th to 1/4th PSI
93
A low pressure Washington Gas line can be identified by the absence of what?
A service regulator
94
Fill pressure at the outlet of a natural gas fueling station is approximately _____ PSI
3000 PSI
95
A proven method for grounding static charge is to ___________?
Keep the exposed plastic surface wet with a water spray, or dripping rags
96
Any reading above ______ of the Lower Explosive Limit will be cause for the building to be evacuated and Self contained Breathing Apparatus to be placed in service
10%
97
Prior to ventilating a building with a reading greater than 10% of the Lower explosive limit the IC will
Establish a collapse zone
| request a Hazmat unit, or squad to assist with metering
98
The assignment for a possible Carbon Monoixde leak shall be ______?
1 Engine
1 Truck
1 (or more) transport units as needed
99
SCBA's shall be worn and used upon entry into an atmosphere that contains______ amount of CO?
An unknown level of CO
100
If an atmosphere contains ______ of Carbon Monoxide SCBA's are not required
Less than 35 PPM
101
SCBA shall be placed in service in any atmosphere containing ______ of CO?
35 PPM or more
102
_______ is a symptom of Carbon Monoxide poisoning?
Dark red lips
103
An Oxygen deficit level is concidered _________?
19.5% or below
104
Carbon Dioxide has a _____?
High Vapor Density
105
Significant Carbon Dioxide leaks in a structure may_________?
extinguish pilot lights allowing natural gas to escape
106
The single gas Carbon Dioxide ToxiRae will read up to_____?
50,000PPM
107
Dry ice sublimes at about_______ pounds every 24 hours in a typical storage container
5-10 pounds
108
When Liquid CO2 reverts back to a gas state, it expands at a rate of _______?
1:1533
109
The Relative Vapor Density of of Carbon Dioxide is ______. Making it ______ times heavier than air.
1: 53
1: 53
110
Generally Carbon Dioxide alarms are set to _________ for the low alarms and __________ for the high alarm
15: 000PPM (1.5%)
30: 000PPM (3.0%)
111
Many laboratories contain the chemicals ________ and _______ when combines produce a lethal gas.
Potassium Cyanide & Hydrochloric Acid
112
Attempts to neutralize, move and transport suspected hazardous materials should only be done by _______ & _______ if possible
The Hazmat unit and DEA PCP GROUP 3
113
What is an ACM
Asbestos Containing Material
114
Use of a _______ is recommend to control airborne dust or particles
Wide Fog Stream
115
In overhaul situations, the ______ shall be shut down to prevent the distribution of suspected ACM
Air Handlers
116
What branch of The District of Columbia government handles ACM's
Department of Consumer Regulatory Affairs (DCRA)- Air quality control and monitoring branch
117
Transformer affixed with a _____ label DO contain PCB's
Yellow
118
Transformers affixed with a ______ label DO NOT contain PCB's
Blue
119
Pipeline that runs from a point on the Anacostia rive, just below the South Capitol Street Bridge, to Andrews Air Force Base (AAFB)
Andrews Underground Fuel Transmission Pipeline
120
The pipeline is in use _____ hours per week pumping _____
17-20
| JP/8
121
While pumping the, pressures within the pipeline reach ______
300PSI
122
During periods of non use the pipeline remains full and under pressure at approximately _______
85 PSI
123
JP/8 contains ________ , a known carcinogen
Benezene
124
JP/8 gives off _______?
High radiant heat
125
There are _______ Shut offs along the pipeline that on ST Services pipeline personnel operate.
3
126
DC FEMS employees are not to __________ unless directed by pipeline employees.... however, they are allowed to extinguish perimeters fires and protect structures as needed
Extinguish primary fires
127
post use of a "GO BAG" requires______
a special report and form 53.1 to the Special Operations Chief
128
Technical Decontamination uses _________ or _________ methods to remove or neutralize contaminates from reresponders and equipment
Chemical or physical
129
There are two types of response in technical decon. Those involving _________& _________?
CBRN and Petrochemicals
130
Technical Recon task force is a combination of what units?
Engine 6, Engine 26, Truck 4, and Truck 15
131
What shall not be used when there is an oxidizer present?
Reactive Skin Decontamination Lotion (RSDL)
132
What officer is assigned the roll of Technical Decon Group Supervisor.
The truck officer
133
Where shall the technical decon corridor be located?
30Ft x 30Ft corridor in the warm zone. Extending from edge of the HOT zone to the COLD ZONE
134
What is the appropriate dwell time for solutions to destroy chemical warfare agents?
3 Minutes
135
What is the appropriate dwell time for solutions to destroy VX?
15 Minutes
136
How far can Alpha particles travel before becoming undetectable?
1/4 to 2in in the air.
137
What is the rule of thumb when determining the distance and speed that a alpha radiation probe should be moved
One probe diameter per second, or one to two inch per second
138
Uprighting a tanker should not take place until the product has been offloaded, Except tankers with what kind of contents?
High Pressure gas tankers
139
Empty tankers can still present what?
Fire Vapor Hazard
140
Corrosives will be assessed for corrosive vapors by_________?
using PH paper. both Wet and dry
141
What will happen to electric meters if exposed to corrosives?
The meter may become damages and fail to give accurate readings.
