Special characteristics Flashcards

1
Q

Replicates in apical cytoplasm of enterocytes

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

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2
Q

Cannot be grown in laboratory media- can be cultured in enterocyte cell lines

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

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3
Q

Causes porcine proliferation enteropathy and equine proliferative enteropathy

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

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4
Q

Has extra cellular urease as an important virulence factor

A

Helicobacter pylori

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5
Q

Causes cholera in humans

A

Vibrio cholerae

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6
Q

What is the route of infection for campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus

A

Ingestion of contaminated materials

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7
Q

What results in late pregnancy abortions or stillbirths

A

Campylobacter fetus subp. Fetus

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8
Q

What disease causes plancentitis with hemorrhagic necrotic cotyledons and edamatous or leathery intercodylenary areas

A

Campylobacter fetus subspecies. Fetus

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9
Q

What bacteria causes an autolyzed fetus with orange-yellow necrotic foci in the liver

A

Campylobacter fetus subspecies. Fetus

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10
Q

How does campylobacter fetus subspecies. Venerealis get transmitted

A

Breeding or artificial insemination with infected bull semen

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11
Q

What bacteria causes endometriosis, salpingitis, and transient infertility, and early embryonic deaths

A

Campylobacter fetus subspecies. Venerealis

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12
Q

What is a major cause of diarrhea and intestinal disease in humans and is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated materials

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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13
Q

What causes subsequent Guillain Barre syndrome

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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14
Q

What causes the fatal systemic disease Glanders in horses

A

Burkholderia mallei

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15
Q

What is a foreign animal reportable disease that is zoonotic

A

Burkholderia Mallei

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16
Q

What causes meliodosis or Whitmore’s disease

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei

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17
Q

What is a disease of tropic climates, is fatal, and humans and animals be from contaminated environmental sources

A

Melioidosis or Whitmore’s disease

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18
Q

What forms biofilms on disenfectants

A

Psedomonas aeruginosa

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19
Q

What causes infections such as otitis external, bacterial keratitis, skin and wound infections, lymphangitis and pneumonia and is an opportunistic pathogen

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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20
Q

What causes the sexually transmitted, reportable disease in horses

A

Taylorella equigenitalis

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21
Q

what causes contagious equine metritis

A

Taylorella Equigenitalis

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22
Q

What disease are stallions a long term carrier of and causes temporary infertility in mares

A

Taylorella equigenitalis

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23
Q

What causes a vector transmitted disease that infects cats and can be transmitted to humans

A

Bartonella henselae

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24
Q

What disease can be transmitted by ingestion, inhalation, vectors, direct contact, or laboratory exposure

A

Francicella tularensis

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25
Q

What is a biological warfare BSL3 agent

A

Francicella tularensis

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26
Q

What is a bacteria that cats can transmit to humans after they are infected from hunting dead rodents

A

Francicella tularensis

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27
Q

What causes low asymptomatic disease in humans, fever chills, fatigue, weight loss, discospondylitis, and lymphadenopathy

A

Brucella canis

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28
Q

What causes or hit is, epididymitis, infertility, abnormal sperm count, late term abortions, uveitis, and diskospondylitis

A

Brucella canis

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29
Q

What is a reportable disease in livestock and causes Bang’s disease or undulant fever in humans

A

Brucella abortus

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30
Q

What causes abortion and embryonic death in cows as well as epididymitis, or Chili’s, bursitis in bulls

A

Brucella abortus

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31
Q

What bacteria is facultative intracellular, can survive in macrophages, and inhibits phago-lysosomal fusion

A

Brucella

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32
Q

What results in febrile, chronic granulomatous disease with broad manifestations in incidental hosts and abortions in pregnant animals

A

Brucella

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33
Q

What causes corneal ulceration and edema, ocular pain, photophobia, and lacrimation

A

Moraxella bovis

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34
Q

What causes sleepy foal disease

A

Actinobacillus equuli subspecies. Equuli

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35
Q

What bacteria can be transmitted through oral, umbilical, or respiratory route in uterus, parturition, or shortly after birth

A

Actinobacillus equuli subspecies. Equuli

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36
Q

What disease causes purple to arthritis and nephritis

A

Sleepy foal disease

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37
Q

What is an economically important bacteria in swine

A

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

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38
Q

What swine disease is usually associated with other bacterial and viral infections

A

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

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39
Q

What swine bacteria causes disease in pigs <6 months during colder months

A

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

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40
Q

What causes wooden tongue in ruminants

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii

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41
Q

What two pathogens cause diseases from plant trauma

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii and Sporothrix shenckii

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42
Q

What bacteria causes pyogranulomatous gloss it is and pyogranulomatous lymphadenitis

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii

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43
Q

What causes thromboembolic meningoencephalitis in cattle

A

Histophilus somni

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44
Q

What causes sleeper syndrome in cattle

A

Histophilus somni

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45
Q

What bacteria causes necrotic laryngitis, myocarditis, otitis, conjunctivitis, myelitis, arthritis, mastitis, abortion, Vulvitis, vaginitis, cervicitis, endometriosis, orchitis, teme

A

Histophilus somni

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46
Q

What causes glassers disease in pigs

A

Hemophilus parasuis

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47
Q

What causes polyserositis, polysynovitis, and meningitis in pigs

A

Hemophilus parasuis

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48
Q

What causes new duck disease

A

Riemerella anatipestifer

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49
Q

What’s causes septicemia an dpolyserositis in ducklings

A

Riemerella anatipestifer

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50
Q

What bacteria has leukotoxin as a major virulence factor

A

Mannheimia hemolytica

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51
Q

What bacteria causes fatal bite related infections

A

Pasteurella multocida

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52
Q

What can be treated with beta lactams

A

Pasteurella multocida

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53
Q

What causes snuffles in rabbits

A

Pasteurella Multocida type A

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54
Q

What causes a progressive rhinitis in 4-12 week old pigs

A

Pasterurella Multocida

55
Q

What causes a septicemic disease of domestic and wild birds (especially mature ones) with high morbidity and mortality

A

Pasteurella Multocida

56
Q

What causes fibrinous bronchopneumonia in cattle

A

Pasteurella Multocida

57
Q

What causes suppuration infections that result in respiratory infections, septicemia, abscesses, soft-tissue wound infections, and mastitis

A

Pasteurella multocida

58
Q

What causes a bacterial illness of salmon idk and rainbow trout

A

Yersinia ruckeri

59
Q

What causes necrohemorrhagic periodontitis/gingivitis and arthritis in nonhuman primates

A

Shigella dysentriae

60
Q

For what bacteria is a gall bladder culture in cattle the most effective in detecting

A

Salmonella

61
Q

What bacteria causes diarrhea, inflammation, vascultiies, thromboembolism, hemorrhages, infarcts in liver, spleen, and lungs as well as infarcts in the small and large intestine

A

Salmonella

62
Q

What bacteria has a type III secretion system

A

Salmonella

63
Q

What bacteria can cause intestinal infections as well as extra-intestinal infections such as UTIS, septicemia, and mastitis

A

E. coli

64
Q

What causes human syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

65
Q

What causes rabbit syphilis

A

Treponema paraluiscuniculi

66
Q

What causes papillomatous digital dermatitis in dairy cows

A

Treponema spp.

67
Q

What affects pigs 6-12 weeks of age causing bloody diarrhea, dehydration, and weight loss

A

Brachyspira hydodysenteriae

68
Q

What spirochete is screened for with a SNAP test followed by a C6 Eliza and Western Blot for confirmation

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

69
Q

What causes febrile illness in humans and renal/hepatic/pulmonary complications

A

Leptospira

70
Q

Microscopic agglutination test is the gold standard test that detects antibodies to what?

A

Leptospira

71
Q

Penicillins are used to treat acute disease, and doxycycline treat the carrier state for post-exposure prophylaxis of what pathogen

A

Leptospira

72
Q

What can cause reproductive failure due to early embryonic death and repeat breeding in cattle

A

Leptospira borgpetersenii serovar hardjo

73
Q

What causes moon blindness in horses

A

Leptospira

74
Q

What causes abortions and systemic illness in foals

A

Leptospira

75
Q

What has a role in Equine Recurrent Uveitis,

A

Leptospira

76
Q

What bacteria leads to fever, depression, dehydration, anorexia, vomiting, hemorrhagic diarrhea, and lymphadenopathy in dogs

A

Neorickettsia helminthoeca

77
Q

What infects monocytes and macrophages and causes lesions in intestines of dogs

A

Neorickettsia helminthoeca

78
Q

Nanophyetus Salmincola is associated with

A

Neorickettsia helminthoeca

79
Q

What bacteria infects enterocytes and monocytes and causes hemorrhagic enterocolitis in horses

A

Neorickettsia risticii

80
Q

What causes Heart water disease in ruminants

A

Ehrlichia ruminatium

81
Q

What is a foreign animal reportable disease in ruminants

A

Ehrlichia ruminatium

82
Q

What is transmitted through a tick vector Amblyoma

A

Ehrlichia Ruminatium

83
Q

What can be diagnosed by the presence of dark purple colonies made up of clusters of individual organism

A

Ehrlichia ruminatium

84
Q

What causes splenomegaly, ocular and nasal discharge, peripheral edem, petechial and ecchymotic hemorrhage, neurological signs, and pancytopenia

A

Ehrlichia canis

85
Q

What infects monocytes and forms morulae

A

Ehrlichia canis

86
Q

What causes canine monocyte can ehrlichiosis

A

Ehrlichia canis

87
Q

What causes infectious cyclic thrombocytopenia in dogs

A

Anaplasma platys

88
Q

What infects erythrocytes in ruminants resulting in fever, anemia, and icterus

A

Anaplasma Marginale

89
Q

What infects older cattle more frequently than calves

A

Anaplasma marginale

90
Q

What bacteria can be demonstrated on erythrocyte blood smears

A

Anaplasma Marginale

91
Q

What causes canine granylocytic ehrlichiosis

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

92
Q

What vector born bacteria likes neutrophils

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

93
Q

What causes febrile illness, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, and necrotizing small vessel vascuilits

A

Anaplasma phagocytophilum

94
Q

What is transmitted to humans by cat fleas

A

Rickettsia felis

95
Q

What organism invades and replicates in endothelial cells of smaller blood vessels

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

96
Q

What initiates platelet activation, intravascular coagulation and progressive necrotizing vasculitis, peticheal hemorrhage, and edema

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

97
Q

What causes sub clinical infection, placentitis and abortion in cattle, sheep

A

Coxiella burnetii

98
Q

What is highly persistent in the environment as an endospore-like form

A

Coxiella burnetii

99
Q

What zoonotic bacteria is released around parturition in birth fluids, milk, urine, feces, and spread by inhalation

A

Coxiella Burnetii

100
Q

What causes serious febrile flu like illness and sometimes pneumonia, hepatitis, and endocarditis in humans

A

Coxiella burnetii

101
Q

What cases conjunctivitis and rhinitis in cats

A

Chlamydia felis

102
Q

What can be diagnosed by microscopic detection of inclusion bodies

A

Chlamydia psittaci

103
Q

What is a BSL3 and reportable pathogen

A

Chlamydia psittaci

104
Q

What causes multi focal necrosis in the liver and spleen and is associated with small granular, basophilic intracytoplasmic bacterial inclusions in multiple cell types

A

Chlamydia psittaci

105
Q

What causes enteritis, abortion, polyarthritis, polyserositis, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia

A

Chlamydia

106
Q

What causes cutaneous cysts in mammals and bird

A

Rhinosporidium seeberi

107
Q

What causes cutaneous disease in amphibians

A

Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis

108
Q

What infects skin, muzzle, ears, and wings of hibernating bats

A

Pseudogymnoascus destructans

109
Q

What causes Florida horse leech Kunkers

A

Phythium Insidiosm

110
Q

What can cause cutaneous and subcutaneous lesions in horses, cats, calves, and humans as well as GI disease in dogs and cats

A

Oomycetes

111
Q

What causes cutaneous dx disseminated dx in dogs and cats and mastitis i cattle

A

Prototheca

112
Q

What looks like a segmented yeast under microscope

A

Prototheca

113
Q

What is a fast-growing mold

A

Aspergillus

114
Q

What is a cigar shaped pleimorphic yeast

A

Sprothrix schenckii

115
Q

What fungus produces thick walled spherules containing endospores

A

Coccidiodes immitis

116
Q

What fungus causes infection after inhalation of arthroconidia

A

Coccidiodes immitis

117
Q

What fungus causes osteomyelitis and signs similar to TB

A

coccoides immitis

118
Q

What fungus causes chronic/active respiratory disease and disseminated disease in dogs, cats and humans but only causes intestinal disease in dogs

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

119
Q

What is the second most common fungal infection in cats

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

120
Q

What is a small, oval yeast, normally found in macrophage infected tissue

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

121
Q

What fungus has large broad based budding

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

122
Q

What fungus is found in the OH, MS river valley

A

Blastomyces Dermatitidis

123
Q

What fungus causes pulmonary disease with cutaneous, ocular, and bone involvement

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

124
Q

What fungus has large round to oval budding yeast

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

125
Q

What fungus has a prominent mucopolysaccharide capsule

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

126
Q

What fungus causes CNS manifestations , chronic upper respiratory tract infections, gelatinous masses, and polyps with minimal inflammation

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

127
Q

What fungus causes superficial infections of skin and mucosa

A

Candida albicans

128
Q

What fungus causes whitish yellow hyperkeratotic lesions in tongue, mouth, proventriculus, and stomach

A

Candida albicans

129
Q

What fungus causes mastitis, vaginitis in women, and diaper rash in children

A

Candida Albicans

130
Q

What yeast is thick-walled, and bottle shaped

A

Malassezia pachydermatitis

131
Q

What yeast causes superficial moist dermatitis and otitis externa in dogs

A

Malassezia pachydermatitis

132
Q

What yeast in a commensalism on skin of animals and common in dog’s ears and skin

A

Malassezia pachydermatitis

133
Q

What fungus is detected with wood lamp detection

A

Microsporum gallinae