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SP14 - Human Anatomy Exam 3 > sp14_-_human_anatomy_exam_3_20141210195204 > Flashcards

sp14_-_human_anatomy_exam_3_20141210195204 Flashcards

1
Q

List the parts of the urinary system. What are the functions of each part?

A
  • paired kidneys - produces urine- paired ureters - transports urine toward the urinary bladder- one urinary bladder - temporarily stores urine prior to elimination- one urethra - conducts urine to exterior; in males, transports semen as well
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2
Q

What are the functions of the urinary system?

A
  • regulation of blood ionic composition (controls amount of ions coming in and out)- regulation of blood volume and blood pressure (volume depends on amount of water; pressure regulated by renin)- regulation of blood pH (depends on amount of H or HCO-)- conservation of valuable nutrients- production and secretion of hormones (endocrine function)- assisting the liver in detoxification of poisons- elimination of organic waste products and foreign substances (ammonia, urea, bilirubin, creatine, and uric acid)BIG PICTURE FUNCTIONS:- filtration of cellular wastes from blood- selective reabsorption of water and solutes- excretion of the wastes and excess water as urine
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3
Q

What is the hilum of the kidney? What is inside it?

A
  • deep vertical fissure along the medial border of kidney- renal artery and vein, renal pelvis, and nerves
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4
Q

What is inside the renal sinus?

A
  • loose connective tissue- adipose tissue- part of the renal pelvis- calyces- branches of the kidney blood vessels and nerves
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5
Q

What is the renal capsule?

A

connective tissue capsule covering the kidney

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6
Q

What is the functional part of the kidney called?

A

parenchyma

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7
Q

What are the 2 regions of the parenchyma?

A
  • renal cortex: superficial outer area- renal medulla: deeper area; divided into renal pyramids and renal columns
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8
Q

What is a renal lobe?

A

a renal pyramid, its overlying renal cortex, and one-half of each adjacent renal columns

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9
Q

What is the flood of blood in the kidneys?

A

renal artery -> segmental artery -> interlobar artery -> arcuate artery -> interlobular artery -> afferent arterioles -> glomerular capillaries -> efferent arterioles -> peritubular capillaries -> interlobular vein -> arcuate vein -> interlobar vein -> renal vein

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10
Q

What is a nephron? What does a nephron consist of? What is a uriniferous tubule?

A
  • the fundamental structural and functional unit of the kidney- renal corpuscle (where glomerular filtration occurs) and renal tubule (where tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion occurs)- uriniferous tubule = nephron and collecting tubule
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11
Q

What are the parts of a renal corpuscle?

A

glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule

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12
Q

What are the parts of a renal corpuscle?

A

glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule

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13
Q

What are the different parts of the Bowman’s capsule?

A
  • visceral layer (internal layer that contacts blood vessels)- parietal layer (external layer)
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14
Q

What are the different parts of the Bowman’s capsule?

A
  • visceral layer (internal layer that contacts blood vessels)- parietal layer (external layer)
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15
Q

What are the parts of the renal tubule?

A
  • proximal convoluted tubule- loop of Henle- distal convoluted tubule
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16
Q

What are the parts of the renal tubule?

A
  • proximal convoluted tubule- loop of Henle- distal convoluted tubule
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17
Q

What are the two types of nephrons located in the kidney?

A
  • juxtamedullary nephron: has a very long nephron loop that extends into the medulla so it produces very concentrated urine- cortical nephron: located in the cortex; has a smaller nephron loop
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18
Q

What are the two types of nephrons located in the kidney?

A
  • juxtamedullary nephron: has a very long nephron loop that extends into the medulla so it produces very concentrated urine- cortical nephron: located in the cortex; has a smaller nephron loop
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19
Q

What types of cells line the proximal convoluted tubule? The loop of Henle? The distal convoluted tubule?

A
  • proximal convoluted tubule: simple cuboidal epithelium- loop of Henle: - thick descending: simple cuboidal - thin descending: simple squamous - thin ascending: simple squamous - thick ascending: simple cuboidal- distal convoluted tubule: simple cuboidal epithelium
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20
Q

What types of cells line the proximal convoluted tubule? The loop of Henle? The distal convoluted tubule?

A
  • proximal convoluted tubule: simple cuboidal epithelium- loop of Henle: - thick descending: simple cuboidal - thin descending: simple squamous - thin ascending: simple squamous - thick ascending: simple cuboidal- distal convoluted tubule: simple cuboidal epithelium
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21
Q

What types of cells line the visceral layer of the Bowman’s capsule? The parietal layer?

A
  • visceral layer: simple squamous epithelial cells (podocytes) with extensions (pedicels) that have a slit between them (slit diaphragm)- parietal layer: simple squamous epithelium
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22
Q

What types of cells line the visceral layer of the Bowman’s capsule? The parietal layer?

A
  • visceral layer: simple squamous epithelial cells (podocytes) with extensions (pedicels) that have a slit between them (slit diaphragm)- parietal layer: simple squamous epithelium
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23
Q

List and briefly describe the 3 physiological processes of the nephron. Where do each of these processes take place relative to the nephron?

A
  • glomerular filtration: water and most solutes in the blood plasma move from the glomerular capillaries into the glomular (Bowman’s) capsule- tubular reabsorption: filtered fluid then moves through the renal tubule; the tubule cells reabsorb approx. 99% of filtered water and many solutes; these items return to the blood at the peritubular capillaries: descending limb of the loop of Henle?- tubular secretion: tubule cells can remove additional substances (ex. wastes, drugs, and excessive ions) from the blood in the peritubular capillaries; ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
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24
Q

List and briefly describe the 3 physiological processes of the nephron. Where do each of these processes take place relative to the nephron?

A
  • glomerular filtration: water and most solutes in the blood plasma move from the glomerular capillaries into the glomular (Bowman’s) capsule- tubular reabsorption: filtered fluid then moves through the renal tubule; the tubule cells reabsorb approx. 99% of filtered water and many solutes; these items return to the blood at the peritubular capillaries: descending limb of the loop of Henle?- tubular secretion: tubule cells can remove additional substances (ex. wastes, drugs, and excessive ions) from the blood in the peritubular capillaries; ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
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25
Q

Define the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

A
  • juxtaglomerular apparatus: macula densa + juxtaglomerular cells- macula densa: region of cells in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle that are crowded together and become columnar with apical nuclei- juxtaglomerular cells: modified smooth muscle cells that are alongside the macula densa and the wall of the afferent arteriole- function of juxtaglomerular apparatus: helps to regulate blood pressure within the kidneys
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26
Q

Define the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

A
  • juxtaglomerular apparatus: macula densa + juxtaglomerular cells- macula densa: region of cells in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle that are crowded together and become columnar with apical nuclei- juxtaglomerular cells: modified smooth muscle cells that are alongside the macula densa and the wall of the afferent arteriole- function of juxtaglomerular apparatus: helps to regulate blood pressure within the kidneys
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27
Q

Describe the structures that urine passes through to be removed from the body.

A

proximal convoluted tubule -> loop of Henle -> distal convoluted tubule -> collecting tubule -> collecting duct -> papillary ducts -> minor calyx -> major calyx -> renal pelvis -> ureter -> urinary bladder -> urethra

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28
Q

How does the urethra differ anatomically and histologically between males and females?

A
  • males: prostatic urethra (urothelium (transitional epithelium)), membranous urethra (stratified and pseudostratified columnar epithelium), and spongy urethra (stratified and pseudostratified columnar epithelium, distally stratified squamous epithelium)- females: initially lined by urothelium but then by stratified squamous epithelium
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29
Q

Where are the cell bodies of origin of each of the 5 functional components of CN VII? What is the origin and termination of each fiber?

A
  • SVE: facial nerve proper; muscles of facial expression- GVE: nervus intermedius; superior salivatory nucleus, submandibular ganglion, pterygopalatine ganglion- GSA: nervus intermedius; geniculate ganglion, trigeminal spinal nucleus; skin of ear- SVA: nervus intermedius; geniculate ganglion, solitary nucleus; anterior 2/3 of tongue- GVA: nervus intermedius; geniculate ganglion, solitary nucleus; palatine tonsil and posterior nasal cavity
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30
Q

How do the functional components of CN VII compare with those of CN IX and X?

A

all 3 CNs have the same 5 functional components

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31
Q

What nerve opens the eye? Closes the eye?

A
  • CN III: opens the eye- CN VII: closes the eye
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32
Q

What visceral afferent structures are served by CN VII?

A
  • taste in anterior 2/3 of tongue (SVA)- palatine tonsil and posterior nasal cavity (GVA)
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33
Q

Name the glands innervated by CN VII. Name the parasympathetic ganglion involved.

A
  • lacrimal and sublingual and submandibular glands- pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglion
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34
Q

What are the symptoms of Bell’s palsy?

A
  • irritation of the cornea- paresis (weakness) of facial muscles above and below the eye- hyperacusis (sensitivity to sound)- reduced lacrimation and salivation- numbness or pain of the ear, tongue, or face
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35
Q

What is the effect of a lesion of the facial nerve in the internal auditory canal?

A

it would affect the GVE (salivary and lacrimal glands), SVA (taste), SVE (muscles of facial expression), and GSA (skin of the ear)

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36
Q

What is the effect of a lesion of the facial nerve in the facial canal?

A

it would affect GVE (salivary glands), SVA (taste), SVE (muscles of facial expression), and GSA (skin of ear)

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37
Q

What is the effect of a lesion of the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen?

A

it would affect SVE (muscles of facial expression) and GSA (skin of the ear)

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38
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a lesion of the corticobulbar fibers that innervate the facial nucleus? Relative to the side of the lesion, on which side of the face are these signs and symptoms present?

A
  • paralysis of the muscles of facial expression below the level of the eye (not above the eye because that is innervated by both sides of the brain so the other side of the brain will compensate)- paralysis is located on the side opposite the lesion
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39
Q

What is the location of the cell body of origin of the SVE functional component of CN V? What is the origin and termination of the fibers?

A
  • cell body of origin: trigeminal motor nucleus- course: mandibular division (CN V3)- termination: muscles of mastication; voluntary control of striated muscles
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40
Q

What is the location of the cell body of origin of the GSAp functional component of CN V? What is the course of the fibers? What does it sense?

A
  • cell body of origin: unipolar cell bodies; trigeminal mesencephalic nucleus- project to: trigeminal motor nucleus (jaw-jerk reflex); supratrigeminal nucleus (chewing movements)- senses: neuromuscular spindles of mastication muscles and pressure/tension receptors in periodontal ligaments; controls distance between mandible and maxilla and occlusal vertical dimension
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41
Q

What is the location of the cell body of origin of the GSAe functional component of CN V? What is the course of the fibers? What does it sense?

A

trigeminal ganglion

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42
Q

What is the difference between GSAe and GSAp?

A
  • GSAe = exteroceptive; somatic sensations of skin of face, oronasal mucous membranes, teeth, dura mater- GSAp = proprioception; neuromuscular spindles of mastication muscles and pressure/tension receptors in periodontal ligaments
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43
Q

Name the 3 subdivisions of the trigeminal nerve. What area is served by each?

A
  • ophthalmic division: upper face; sensory only- maxillary division: middle face; sensory only- mandibular division: lower face; sensory and motor
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44
Q

Name each of the 4 trigeminal nuclei. Within what brain subdivision is each located?

A
  • trigeminal mesencephalic nucleus: rostral pons and mesencephalon- trigeminal principal sensory nucleus: pons?- trigeminal spinal nucleus: pons and medulla?- trigeminal motor nucleus: dorsolateral pontine tegmentum
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45
Q

What is special about the trigeminal mesencephalic nucleus and tract?

A

the nerve cell bodies of the nucleus are scattered on either side of the trigeminal mesencephalic tract

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46
Q

Name 3 cranial nerves other than the trigeminal nerve that contribute axons to the trigeminal spinal tract and that terminate in the trigeminal spinal nucleus.

A

CN VII, IX, and X

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47
Q

Distinguish between a direct and consensual corneal reflex.

A
  • direct reflex: stimulate cornea and ipsilateral (same side) eye closes- consensual reflex: stimulate cornea and contralateral (other side) eye closes
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48
Q

Describe the pathway of the corneal reflex.

A
  • stimulate cornea by poking it- CN V takes in signal to trigeminal principal nucleus and trigeminal spinal nucleus- relays signal bilaterally to the facial nucleus- facial nerve closes the eye
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49
Q

What is the jaw-jerk reflex?

A
  • neuromuscular spindles (CN V3) send signal to the trigeminal mesencephalic nucleus (GSAp)- signal then travels to the trigeminal motor nucleus to the muscles of mastication (CN V3) (SVE)
50
Q

What is trigeminal neuralgia?

A
  • excruciating, lancing pain (usually unilateral)- trigger point: a small patch of skin that, when touched, releases pain- onset in middle age; often responds to drug therapy; microvascular decompression may be effective (removing blood vessel from contacting area)- affects: CN V3 (70%) and CN V1 (<5%)
51
Q

What is trigeminal tractotomy?

A

the destruction of the descending trigeminal tract in order to reduce pain

52
Q

What are the 3 trigeminal spinal nuceli? What is the difference between them?

A
  • pars oralis: receives input from intraoral and perioral structures- pars interpolaris: activation of trigemino-autonomic reflexes; caudalis-interpolaris transition zone (responds to pain stimuli from many areas served by CN V; pain suppression)- pars caudalis: pain, crude touch, and temperature sensation; somatotopic organization (“onion-face”)
53
Q

What is the clinical significance of the somatotopic organization of the trigeminal spinal nucelus?

A

the trigeminal spinal nucleus is organized so that each section covers a portion of the face (in an “onion-face” pattern); if there is chronic pain in one section, a TRIGEMINAL TRACTOTOMY is performed in that area without affecting the rest of the face

54
Q

To where do the midbrain raphe nuclei project? The pontine and medullar raphe nuclei? Nucleus raphe magnus?

A
  • midbrain raphe nuclei: all regions of the cortex and hypothalmus; facilitate attention and inhibition of distracting stimuli (“the good student”)- medullary raphe nuclei: spinal cord (pain suppression); nucleus raphe magnus
55
Q

Name the neurotransmitter associated with the raphe nuclei.

A

serotonin

56
Q

What is the raphe spinal tract? Where does it project?

A

?

57
Q

What is the relationship between the periaqueductal gray and pain control? Between the periaqueductal gray and motor behavior?

A
  • inhibits incoming pain signals (raphe spinal tract)- regulates heart and respiration rates; bladder voiding- initiates defensive and reproductive behaviors
58
Q

What is the input and output of the periaqueductal gray?

A
  • input: ascending sensory system and descending from limbic system (“emotional brain”)- output: PAG fibers descend to the lower brainstem reticular formation of nucleus raphe magnus to block incoming pain at the trigeminal spinal nucleus and the spinal cord
59
Q

Where is the locus ceruleus? What is the source of input into the locus ceruleus? What are the targets of the axons of neurons that make up the locus ceruleus? Name the neurotransmitter associated with the locus ceruleus.

A
  • the rostral pons- projects to the entire cerebral cortex to alert the cortex to possible novel stimuli (“brain’s watchtower”; vigilance and attention)- norepinephrine
60
Q

Where is the ventral tegmental area located? Name the two major tracts that arise from the ventral tegmental area. Name the two targets of the ventral tegmental area. Name the neurotransmitter associated witht the ventral tegmental area.

A
  • midbrain- mesocortical fibers: go to cortex of brain; organize thinking and planning- mesolimbic fibers: go to nucleus accumbens; emotional reward, drug dependency- dopamine
61
Q

What is the effect of stimulation of the ventral tegmental area?

A
  • organized thinking and planning (mesocortical fibers)- emotional reward and drug dependency (mesolimbic fibers)
62
Q

Describe the relationship between the dorsolateral pontine tegmentum and the hypothalamus.

A
  • dorsolateral pontine tegmentum (NT: acetylcholine) inhibits the preoptic area of the anterior hypothalamus to keep us awake- the preoptic area of the anterior hypothalamus inhibits the dorsolateral pontine tegmentum to produce sleep
63
Q

Name the cavity of the skull in which the cerebellum is located.

A

posterior cranial fossa

64
Q

What is the primary function of the cerebellum?

A

provides motor coordination- in the near future: plans motor actions in terms of space and time- during execution: monitors ongoing motor activity and adjusts the output of the motor cortex and several motor nuclei

65
Q

What are the connections and functions of the Purkinje and granular cells as well as the mossy, parallel, and climbing fibers and the neurotransmitters involved?

A
  • basilar pons, sensory pathways, and vestibular system send information (proprioception, etc.) up the mossy fiber- the mossy fiber reaches the granular cell in the cerebellar cortex which transmits it to parallel fibers- the parallel fibers take the signal to the pukinje cell which also receives signals from the inferior olive via climbing fibers- the purkinje cell sends the signal to the cerebellar nucleus using the neurotransmitter GABA
66
Q

What fiber exits the cerebellar cortex? Where does it go?

A
  • purkinje cell axon- goes to the cerebellar nucleus which goes to the thalamus
67
Q

Name the 3 peduncles that connect the cerebellum with the brainstem. Which carry fibers to the cerebellum? Which carry fibers away from the cerebellum?

A
  • inferior cerebellar peduncle: carry fibers INTO (and OUT of) the cerebellum; monitors muscle and limb movement- middle cerebellar peduncle: carry fibers INTO the cerebellum; relays motor signals from cortex- superior cerebellar peduncle: carry fibers OUT (and INTO) the cerebellum; sends corrective signals to motor cortex
68
Q

What sensation is carried in the spinocerebellar tracts?

A

limb and joint position (proprioception)

69
Q

Identify the 3 physiological subdivisions of the cerebellum. How do these physiological subdivisions correlate with anatomical subdivisions?

A
  • vestibulocerebellum: flocculonodular lobe and vermis (parts); fastigial nucleus; control of eye movements in response to head movements and balance- spinocerebellum: paravermal (medial hemisphere); interposed nuclus; coordination of trunk and limb movements- pontocerebellum (neocerebellum): lateral hemisphere; dentate nucleus; coordination of arm movements and speech
70
Q

Describe the Cerebello-Thalamo-Cerebro-Cortical Loop.

A

cerebellar cortex -> cerebellar nucleus -> thalamus -> cerebral cortex (motor cortex) -> basilar pons -> cerebellar cortex…

71
Q

To what region of the cerebral cortex are cerebellar signals relayed?

A

motor cortex

72
Q

Describe the Olivo-Cerebellar Circuit.

A

inferior olive –(climbing fiber)-> purkinje cell of cerebellar cortex -> cerebellar nucleus -> inferior olive

73
Q

What is a flocullonodular lobe lesion?

A
  • lesion in vestibulocerebellum- nystagmus: back and forth eye movements (“watch my finger as I move it back and forth”)- truncal ataxia: disturbances in balance while seated (“please step out of the car”)
74
Q

What is a vermal/paravermal lesion?

A
  • lesion in spinocerebellum- stance and gait ataxia: anterior lobe and alcohol; cannot move properly (“can you walk along this white line?”)
75
Q

What is a lesion of the lateral hemisphere?

A
  • lesion of the pontocerebellum- intention tremor- dysdiadochokinesia: rapid alternating movements- dysmetria: finger-to-nose test (when you reach for object, you fall short or over-reach- dysarthria: scanning or explosive speech (“is your speech slurred?”)
76
Q

What is the origin of signals that terminate in the hippocampus? To where does this structures project? What is the function of it?

A
  • input: entorhinal cortex from mulitmodal sensory regions (well-digested sensory information)- output: fornix (circuit of Papez) for motor response and entorhinal cortex and sensory regions for memory consolidation- function of hippocampus: evaluates sensory information for familiar/novel content, creates a Rolodex-like file of an event, and retrieves stored cognitive information; MEMORY
77
Q

What is the origin of signals that terminate in the amygdala? To where does this structures project? What is the function of it?

A
  • input: unimodal sensory regions (primary input signals; not sophisticated)- output: orbitofrontal cortex (appreciation of anxiety), hypothalamus (autonomic response to anxiety), periaqueductal gray (adjustment of incoming pain)- function: evaluation of social situations and social memory
78
Q

What is Kluver-Bucy syndrome? What is the anatomical basis of this syndrome?

A
  • loss of medial temporal lobe; loss of memory (hippocampus destroyed); loss of anxiety (amygdala destroyed)- compulsive manual manipulation of objects, insatiable appetite, sexual exhibitionism with frequent masturbation, severe amnesia (both before and after surgery), complete loss of aggressive behavior
79
Q

Describe the Circuit of Papez.

A

hippocampal formation -> fornix -> mammillary body -> mammillothalamic tract -> anterior nucleus of the thalamus -> cingulate cortex (selection of motor response) -> cingulum -> entorhinal cortex -> hippocampal formation…

80
Q

What is the effect of damage to the hippocampus?

A

Alzheimer’s disease; loss of memory (cell loss in the hippocampal formation effectively disconnects the hippocampus from its major input and output pathways)

81
Q

Identify the location of grid cells and place cells.

A
  • grid cells: entorhinal cortex and adjacent parahippocampal and perirhinal cortex; contain a map of the environment- place cells: hippocampus; hippocampus monitors the action of head direction cells which reflect head position
82
Q

What is amnestic syndrome?

A

the loss of memory caused by brain injury

83
Q

Stimulation of the amygdala in the human will produce what emotion?

A

anxiety and fear

84
Q

The amygdala is responsible for the storage and recall of what aspect of memory?

A

memory of social events

85
Q

Stimulation of the nucleus accumbens will produce what emotion? How is the nucleus accumbens involved in addiction?

A
  • sense of reward- important in addiction because the release of dopamine “makes us feel good”; chronic high levels of dopamine result in a production of an increased number of receptor sites which demand a higher quantity of dopamine to maintain a normal balance between anxiety and well-being
86
Q

What is the medial pain system?

A
  • medial thalamus to: cingulate cortex and insular cortex- cingulate cortex: evaluation of emotion and selection of autonomic and motor response; input from working memory can control response level- insular cortex: evaluation of emotion and response to internal signals (“internal alarm system”)
87
Q

What is the role of the anterior and midcingulate cortex in processing pain signals?

A
  • anterior cingulate: selects autonomic response appropriate to ongoing emotions (projects to hypothalamus)- midcingulate: selects somatic motor response appropriate to ongoing emotions (projects to motor areas for motor planning)
88
Q

What is the function of the insular cortex in relationship to pain?

A

evaluation of emotion and response to internal signals (“internal alarm system”)

89
Q

What are the two major sources of fibers to the hypothalamus?

A

?

90
Q

“Jet lag” can be reset by action within which hypothalamic nucleus?

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus

91
Q

Name the 2 hypothalamic nuclei which produce ADH (vasopressin) and oxytocin.

A

supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei

92
Q

A lesion of the ventromedial hypothalamus will have what effect on appetite?

A

voracious appetite and a loss of ability to judge caloric value of food

93
Q

What is the relationship between the hypothalamus, the anterior and posterior pituitary, and the adrenal gland?

A
  • hypothalamus is the “head ganglion of the autonomic nervous system”- it receives input from lateral nuclei- it yields output to the pituitary gland and multisynaptic descending pathways (adrenal gland?)
94
Q

What neurotransmitter facilitates both uterine contractions during childbirth and milk let-down during nursing?

A

oxytocin

95
Q

Name the embryonic germ layer from which the urinary system develops.

A

intermediate mesoderm

96
Q

What are the two portions of the urogenital ridge? Are they retroperitoneal?

A
  • nephrogenic cord: lateral portion; urinary structures- gonadal ridge: medial portion; genital structures
97
Q

Describe the development of the pronephros. What is the body region in which this kidney arises? At what embryological week does this occur.

A
  • solid rod of intermediate mesoderm develops; rudimentary; non-functional; degenerates in a few days; is the marker that sets up the rest of kidney development- cervical region- approx. day 23
98
Q

Describe the development of the mesonephros. What is the body region in which this kidney arises? At what embryological week does this occur.

A
  • develops bilaterally; forms primitive nephron that consists of a mesonephric duct, mesonephric tubule (“tubular part of nephron”), and mesonephric vesicles (“Bowman’s capsule”); mesonephric duct grows caudally towards the cloaca and once it contacts the cloaca, it hollows out caudally to cranially to become functional and a small outgrowth (ureteric bud) grows to initiate the 3rd stage- thoracolumbar region- present weeks 4-10; functional at week 6
99
Q

Describe the development of the metanephros. What is the body region in which this kidney arises? At what embryological week does this occur.

A
  • has two components: ureteric bud (collecting portion) and metanephrogenic blastema (excretory portion AKA nephron); reciprocal induction between ureteric bud and blastema required for development; kidneys ascend from pelvis to abdomen and assume final position by week 9; blood supply shifts from common iliac a. to right and left renal arteries- originally develops in pelvis and then rises into abdomen- develops at week 5; functional at weeks 9/10
100
Q

What structures will the mesonephric duct persist as in males? The mesonephric tubules?

A
  • mesonephric duct: ductus deferens- mesonephric tubules: efferent ductules of the testes
101
Q

Describe the role of reciprocal induction in the development of the kidneys. What can result if this critical processes fails to occur properly?

A
  • communication between the ureteric bud and blastema is required for kidney development- if reciprocal induction fails, we won’t form a proper kidney
102
Q

How are renal agenesis, oligohydraminios, and Potter syndrome (sequence) related?

A
  • renal agenesis: failure of one or both kidneys to form (ureteric bud fails to develop or reciprocal induction fails in the metanephron)- oligohydramnios: too little amniotic fluid; can be a result of renal agenesis- Potter syndrome: from bilateral agenesis; dry, wrinkly skin, limb deformities, abnormal facial structure, underdeveloped lungs; because no amniotic fluid
103
Q

List the derivatives of the ureteric bud and metanephrogenic blastema.

A
  • ureteric bud (collecting portion): ureter, renal pelvis, major/minor calyces, and collecting tubules- metanephrogenic blastmea (excretory portion AKA nephron): distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, proximal convoluted tubule, and Bowman’s capsule
104
Q

Describe the ascent of the kidneys and the progressive revascularization. What structure could potentially block kidney ascent, resulting in a pelvic kidney?

A
  • kidneys “ascend” from the pelvis to the abdomen and assume final position by week 9; the caudal end is growing so the kidneys aren’t actually moving; hilum originally sits anteriorly but as the kidneys ascend, the hilum moves medially; the adrenal glands meet up with the kidney and sit on top of them- originally supplied by the common iliac artery but the blood supply shifts to branches of the dorsal aorta as the kidneys ascend to reach the suprarenal glands; final blood supply is the right and left renal arteries- ectopic kidney gets stuck on its way up (not sure on what though?)
105
Q

What is a horseshoe kidney and what arterial structure blocks its ascent?

A
  • poles of the kidney fuse together (usually inferior poles)- kidney ascent is blocked by the inferior mesenteric artery
106
Q

Explain the role the urorectal septum plays in urinary system development.

A
  • urorectal septum divides the cloaca into the urogenital sinus (ventrally) and the anorectal canal (dorsally)- urogenital sinus gives rise to the urinary bladder (and allantois) and urethra
107
Q

List the derivatives of the urogenital sinus.

A
  • urinary bladder (and allantois)- urethra- male: prostate and bulbourethral glands- female: vestibule of vagina and vestibular glands
108
Q

What embryonic structures give rise to the trigone?

A

distal portions of the mesonephric ducts as they are incorporated into the posterior wall of the urinary bladder

109
Q

What happens to the allantois? Describe various urachal abnormalities that may result if the urachus fails to obliterate completely.

A
  • allantois will close off to form a fibrous cord (the urachus); in the adult, the mucosal fold overlying the obliterated urachus (median umbilical ligament) is the median umbilical fold- urachal cyst: section of the urachus is not closed off and accumulates fluid- urachal sinus: the end of the urachus is not closed off so there is an opening into a portion of the urachus- urachal fistula: the urachus is completely open (some urine may pass through belly button… yikes!)
110
Q

Explain the cause of exstrophy of the urinary bladder.

A

results from the failure of the anterior abdominal well to close

111
Q

Name the poles shown inthe renal corpuscle.

A
  1. vascular pole2. urinary pole
112
Q

What is shown in this image?

A

renal papilla and minor calyx

113
Q

Name the adult female structures.

A
  1. clitoris2. labium minus3. labium majus
114
Q

Name the adult male structures.

A
  1. glans penis2. penile shaft3. scrotum
115
Q

Name what this is a histological image of and what is denoted at #1.

A

prostate gland1. corpora amylacea

116
Q

What is this an image of? Name #1 and 2.

A

mature or graafian follicles1. cumulus oophorus2. secondary oocyte - metaphase of meiosis II

117
Q

Name the site of this image and #1 and 2.

A

corpus luteum1. theca lutein cells (darker)2. granulosa lutein cells (lighter)

118
Q

What is this a section of? Name #1 and 2.

A

uterine tube1. secretory cell (peg cells; darker, apical end bulges into lumen)2. ciliated cells (lighter)

119
Q

What is this a section of? Name #1, 2, and 3.

A

uterus1. endometrium2. myometrium3. perimetrium

120
Q

What is this an image of? Name #1, 2, and 3.

A

vagina1. epithelium2. lamina propria3. muscular layer (with inner circular and outer longitudinal layers)

SP14 - Human Anatomy Exam 3 (1 decks)

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