Sources Of Criminal Law Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

CHAPTER 1
In order to understand criminal law, the Massachusetts Officer needs to know it’s sources. The two major sources of criminal law are what?

A

Statutes and Common Law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the third source of criminal law?

A

Regulations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are statutes?

A

They are laws passed by the legislature that define specific prohibited conduct.
- they are gathered in volumes known as the Mass General Laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where are statutes gathered?

A

Statutes are gathered in volumes known as Massachusetts general law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is each statue designated?

A

By the number of the volume and the section where it appears.
For example Mass general laws chapter 265 section 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is common law?

A

Common law is a term that refers to the large body of decisions that judges have written to explain aspects of criminal law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the definition of common law?

A

Laws that define, interpret, and apply language that appears in the statutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The decisions of what two courts do Mass. Officers need to be concerned with?

A

Two Appellate Courts that make decisions for Mass are:

1) The Mass. Appeals Court
2) The Supreme Judicial Court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do to appellate courts do with their published decisions?

A

These two appellate courts publish their decisions in a series of volumes. To find the text of a particular judicial decision officers needs to understand the reference system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do the massachusetts courts reference thier decisions?

A

In a series of volumes of the Mass general law. They do this in the following way:

Example:
Comm vs. Slaney, Mass. 135 (1962)
1) indicates the name of the case
2) the number of volume where case is located
3) the specific court (Mass. stands for the Massachusetts Supreme Judicial Court)
4) the page it’s found
5) the year the courts issued the decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is an example of the reference that is applied to cases decided by the appeals court?

Example: Comm. vs Joyce, 18 Mass. App. Ct. 417(1984).

A

This refers to a Mass. Appeals Court decision issued in 1984, Comm vs Joyce found in volume 18, beginning on page 417.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is another type of appeals court decision and what does it look like?

A

Comm. vs Mckoewen, 2012, WL 2308125 (Appeals Court)
These opinions are less publicized but often deal with important police issues. They are obtained on the Internet. Here the defendant is Mckoewen, there is a year of the decision, which is followed by the specific reference WL stands for West Law. The number is the store document number for the case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are regulations?

A

The third source of criminal law that is issued by Legislature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does legislature pass laws in the form of?

A

Statutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are regulations designed to explain and further define?

A

How an agency will carry out a law passed by the legislature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are two well-known agencies that issue Regulations?

A

The Alcoholic Beverages Control Commission (ABCC) and The Registry of motor vehicles (RMV).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What document is the text of the ABCC regulation found in?

A

Document known as the Code of Massachusetts Regulation (CMR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What’s an example of the chapter and section that officers can find Code Massachusetts regulations?

A

Example: 204 CMR 4.00

1) Chapter 204
2) Of Code of Massachusetts Regulations
3) Section 4.00

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What can officers use the criminal law book to understand?

A

Use this book to understand their legal options and responsibilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is every criminal offense composed of?

A

Elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does each element of every criminal offense represent?

A

Represents an essential component of the particular offense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When breaking down each crime how is it written?

A

It will list out the elements or components that make up each crime and explains them. The suspects action must incorporate all elements to constitute a violation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

By understanding the elements how can this help officers?

A

By understanding the elements that make up the various offenses officers can assess whether a person’s contact is lawful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is intent?

A

Intent is the state of mind of a suspect. It is an important consideration and element of a crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is intent an important consideration?

A

There are different kinds of intent that apply to different kinds of offenses but criminal thought (known as mens rea) is required for all criminal offenses with the exception of certain minor charges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How is intent proven?

A

It can’t be proven directly because there’s no way of reaching into the human mind, however officers may determine the suspects intent from his statements, prior actions or background, and his conduct during the incident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How many kinds of intent are recognized by law?

A

There are six kinds of intent recognized by law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the six kinds of intent recognized by law?

A

1) Specific,
2) malicious,
3) general,
4) reckless,
5) negligent and
6) strict liability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is specific intent

A

Exists when the offender has a purpose or objective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is malicious intent

A

When the offender acts on purpose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is general intent?

A

The defendant acted intentionally or knowingly even though the defendant may not have fully conceived of a purpose for his conduct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Is it necessary that the defendant knew he was breaking the law But he intended to act that resulted in the offense?

A

No he doesn’t have to know he was breaking the law he was just had to do the act that resulted in a offense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is reckless intent?

A

The person acts recklessly or thoughtlessly with his behavior consciously disregards the potential risk of harm to another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the example of reckless intent?

A

Playing Russian roulette with a loaded pistol is a reckless act.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is negligent intent?

A

When an offender acts unreasonably and risks harming another person. It also occurs when a person is actually harmed by the offender’s failure to act when he has a duty to act reasonably.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is an example of negligence?

A

Failing to drive slowly on an icy road would be negligent behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is strict liability intent?

A

An offense where the offenders intent is irrelevant. In other words, if the prohibited act occurs, the crime is complete regardless of the offender’s state of mind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is an example of a strict liability Intent offense?

A

Statutory rape involves sexual intercourse with a person under the age of 16. Whether the victim consented or not or whether the offender knew or intended to have intercourse with the under age person. It is irrelevant as long as the act occurred. Another example is for the crime of minor in possession of alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are two instances where officers should consider in assessing what level of intent is present?

A

1) If a person is intoxicated with alcohol or drugs.
2) If a person suffers from mental illness.
-The officer must take into consideration the level of intent if a person is intoxicated or
-the officers roll for a mental ill person is to evaluate.
-either one you must have probable cause and take action to address public safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What should we know about lesser included offenses?

A

Knowing the elements of various offenses also provides officers with the understanding of what offenses are related and specifically what lesser included offense may apply to the given situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is an example of a lesser included offense?

A

ABDW you need:
1) committing assault and battery by intentionally touching another person without consent and
2) by means of a dangerous weapon. If it cannot be proved that there is a weapon involved the lesser included offense would be assault and battery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

During an incident what is it appropriate decision the officer should take when charging a person with a crime?

A

Subject to the appropriate discretion, officers should typically charge the most serious offense that apply to the suspects conduct. During the court process charges may be reviewed and if necessary reduced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In the field Officer must use a legally recognized method to charge a suspect with a crime, and the right of arrest.How many are there?

A

There three right of arrest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the three ways an officer in the field could charge a person with a crime?

A

1) Warrant
2) Arrest
3) Application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a warrant?

A

An arrest warrant is issued by a judge or clerk magistrate authorizing officers to locate a suspect anywhere in Massachusetts, take him into custody, and bring him before a court for prosecution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is an arrest?

A

This offender is arrested for a crime the without judicial supervision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the application of a complaint or what happens when a person is arrested and brought to court?

A

An officer may go before the clerk magistrate for a complaint to bring the offender before the court. The clerk will typically hold a show cause hearing in which both the officer in the accused person presents their version of the incident. In this case they would formally charged the offender in court or dismiss the case based on lack of evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The method of arrest must depend on whether the underlying crime is what two things?

A

If the crime is a felony or a misdemeanor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a felony?

A

Chapter 274 section 1 defines a felony is any offense punishable by a state prison sentence. Officers may conduct a warrantless arrest for any felony even if it occurred in the past.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is a Misdemeanor?

A

Is any crime which state prison is not an option.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How many varieties misdemeanors are there?

A

There are three varieties misdemeanors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the three varieties of misdemeanors?

A

1) Statute past
2) Statute present
3) Breach and present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a statue past misdemeanor?

A

A misdemeanor that a statute specifically authorized a Warrantless arrest for an offense even if the officer did not witness it. For example a domestic violence incident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a statute present misdemeanor?

A

An officer may make a warrantless arrest, but only if the offense occurs in their presence. For example attempting to steal an expensive property is this type of misdemeanor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are breach in presence misdemeanors?

A

These misdemeanors severely limit an Officer’s ability to make a warrantless arrest in the field. It requires that officers apply for criminal complaints in order to bring the offender to court unless the offense amounts to a breach of the peace and it is committed in the officers presence. Example of this is a simple assault during a non-domestic violence incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Explain an offense in an officer’s presence.

A

An offense is committed in the presence of an officer when he has direct personal knowledge, through his sight, hearing, or other senses that it is being committed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the breach of peace?

A

Conduct that poses immediate or potential harm to a person or the general public. Breach must at least threaten to have some disturbing affect on the public.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the defendants choices for court?

A

Defendant may choose to have his case decided by judge alone known as a bench trial, or a trial by jury. Whatever option is selected only a judge may impose a sentence following a guilty finding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are some examples of penalties for crimes committed?

A

Incarceration, probation and conditions, fines, victim witness assessment, and court costs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the most serious penalty for a crime

A

Incarceration. Defendants may either be sent to the house of correction ( sometimes referred to by a jail) or a state prison.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the maximum possible sentence for the house of corrections?

A

2 1/2 years per offense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the maximum sentence to go to state prison?

A

The maximum sentence to go to state prison reserve for the most serious crimes is a life term.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is jurisdiction?

A

Refers to which court has a legal authority to conduct a trial of the offense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Where are the majority of cases resolved?

A

District Court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Where are the most serious crimes heard?

A

Superior court before juries of 12 citizens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What crimes fall under exclusive jurisdiction?

A

Murder and manslaughter, Mayham, armed and unarmed robbery, Rape and incest, cocaine and heroin trafficking, burglary, arson, bomb threats, extortion, and perjury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What may District Courts render a final judgment on?

A

All violations of town bylaws and city ordinances, all misdemeanors, and any felony for which the maximum penalty is not more than five years in state prison.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is District Court barred from imposing a sentence on?

A

District courts may render a final jurisdiction over many Felonies but this court is barred from imposing a state prison sentence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

May state and federal governments press separate charges for identical Conduct?

A

Yes the state and federal government may charge a person for the same offense under federal law in the state law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are statute of limitations?

A

Refers to the time. Within which a prosecution must be commenced. It is the maximum time that may pass between the crime in the defendants arraignment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the purpose of statutes of limitations?

A

To protect individuals from having to defend themselves against old accusations. It also encourages law-enforcement to promptly investigate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What chapter and section do the statute of limitations appear in?

A

Chapter 277 section 63.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is a venue?

A

Refers to the proper court for the trial of an offense. Typically charges must be hard by the court in the territory with the crime occurred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the statue of limitation for murder?

A

No limitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the statute of limitation for certain child sexual offenses?

A

No limitation but cooperating evidence required after 27 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the statue limitations for certain adult sexual offenses?

A

15 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the statute of limitation for robbery and incest

A

10 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the statute of limitation for all other sexual offenses?

A

Six years.Where the victim is under 16 at the time of the crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What offenses fall under the statue a limitation time period of one year?

A

Prostitution, drug or unlawful intercourse, unlawful intercourse with persons under 18, inducing minor to become a prostitute or driving support from minors earnings, and knowingly permit premises to be used for prostitution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

There are two major categories that offenders fall into In crime. What are they?

A
  • Those who completed the crime and

- those who do not complete the crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Within the first group of those offenders who complete a crime what are the categories they are in

A
  • Principles
  • accomplices
  • and accessories after the fact
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

When a group of offenders do not complete a crime or the crime is incomplete what can they be charged with?

A

Those who fall under incomplete crimes are:
-Attempt
-conspire and
-solicit
crimes
~~~

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

For the two classifications of complete and incomplete crimes what is needed?

A

Each classification demands a particular level of proof and may have an impact on the severity of the sentence an offender receives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

CHAPTER 2
What is the definition of the principal Offender?

A

The principal is the actual perpetrator of the crime. The principal is also the person or organization who may be prosecuted for the criminal conduct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the corporate or association responsibility when it comes to crimes?

A

Criminal law applies to corporation societies in associations as well as partnerships not just individuals. A corporation or association may be held criminally responsible if the offender was engaged in particular business of the organization, the organization give the offender authority and responsibility act on his behalf, or the offender committed a crime on behalf of them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the definition of an accomplice?

A

Those who helped the principal complete a crime, accomplices, or judged to be as responsible as the principal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What case simplify the theory of criminal liability?

A

Commonwealth versus Zanetti. This is an instance where the defendant Knowingly participated with the intent required for the particular crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the elements of being an accomplice in theory of criminal liability?

A

Intentional participation and like minded criminal minds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the definition of intentional participation?

A

The suspect must intentionally and meaningfully participate in the crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the definition of criminal mindset?

A

Criminal minds that is having a criminal intent necessary to commit the particular crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the penalty for being an accomplice?

A

An accomplice me receive exactly the same penalty as a principal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the definition of intentional participation for an accomplice?

A

Being a participant in a crime by planning,
encouraging,
being a lookout,
assisting, and
helping with the escape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Can an accomplice be charged with a crime if they are not present? Give an example.

A

Yes. In planning, an accomplice does not have to be present when the crime occurs. For example in Comm. vs Moore, a leader of a Springfield gang, ordered a planned execution or “hit”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Can a person be an accomplice if his participation occurred out of state of Massachusetts?

A

If the person understands that the crime will ultimately occur in Massachusetts his participation makes him an accomplice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the definition or describe encouraging as an accomplice?

A

Person is an accomplice when his presence encourages the perpetrator by giving him hope of the immediate assistance”. For example in Commonwealth versus Moreau the defendant along with three accomplices of a burglary and rape he was an accomplice because he stood and watched and generally encourage the commission of the crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What case is an example of an accomplice that participate in a crime?

A

For example in Comm. Vs Sim:
Sim unlocks the door to an apartment building where a robbery took place. He knew the principles were armed and expected to share the proceeds from the heist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Explain being an accomplice by helping with the escape.

A

The defendant arranged a “switch car” and took part in the post robbery escape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

As an accomplice what is required in order to be charged?

A

Intentional participation is required. The law does not allow for guilt by association. Just because he defendant knew the robbers of a liquor store and he hung out with him that was in sufficient to charge him as an accomplice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

In order to be charged as an accomplice, does an offender have to have an advance plan or agreement?

A

Offenders do not have to have an advanced plan or agreement. Participation simply means that the accomplice consciously acted with the principle before during the crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Does the accomplice have to be present during the crime?

A

No the accomplice does not have to be present for the entire crime. An example where a tow truck driver was accused of stealing money the owner of the tow company, Donna, redirected the surveillance cameras to cut off a pinky in order to get the money back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What May prove involvement of a crime as an accomplice

A

Circumstantial evidence may prove involvement. Where a woman purchase drugs from a passenger through the window of a running vehicle, there was sufficient evidence to arrest driver as an accomplice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the definition of a criminal mindset?

A

An accomplice must participate while having intent necessary to commit to underlying crime for criminal minds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

An accomplice may be convicted when?

A

Accomplice may only be convicted for crimes he intended. The defendant cannot be convicted of a murder because he simply wanted the suspect to get into a fistfight. Comm. vs Benitez

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

If the accomplice knows that the principal has a weapon can he be charge for the crime?

A

Yes once an accomplice knows the principal has a weapon he is responsible for the resulting crime. For example the defendant knew the principal would be carrying a weapon during an armed robbery. This made him an accomplice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

If there are numerous people involved in a crime do you have to prove which one was the principal and which one was the accomplice?

A

There’s no need to prove which suspect was the principal in which was the accomplice, so long as there is proof that both were involved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Explain Withdrawal as an accomplice?

A

A suspect it is not an accomplice if he withdraws from the crime. He must communicate his withdrawal to other participants in a timely and effective manner. The communication maybe oral or by conduct. For example a defendant told the codefendant in a third-party that he wanted nothing to do with what they had discussed. And the codefendant was dropped off prior to the murder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is Chapter and Section for accessory after the fact?

A

Chapter 274 section 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are the elements of accessory after the fact?

A

-Knowledge. After knowing a felony was committed,
-Assist. The suspect knowingly harbored, concealed, or in someway system
A felon. An identifiable felon or accomplice
-Intent to avoid arrest or trial. With the intent of the felon or accomplice would avoid escape arrest or trial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is one exception from accomplice or accessory after the fact?

A

If the felon was a protected relative of the suspect, this is an exception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the right of arrest and penalty for accessory after the fact?

A

The right of arrest is a felony. The penalty is State penitentiary for no more than seven years or house of correction for 2 1/2 years, or is fine no more than $1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Explain knowledge and assistance of an accessory after the fact?

A

An accessory must know the facts of the underlying felony and the felons identity. He doesn’t necessarily need to know his name but no which person did it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is sufficient knowledge as an accessory after the fact?

A

An example of this is the defendant knew the principles had driven by a group of rival gang members and intentionally fired into the crowd. Commonwealth versus Simpkins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is considered insufficient knowledge for accessory after the fact?

A

An inmate was stabbed, on the 3rd level of a prison outside of Devlin’s cell. Devlin was caught wiping the knife off with his T-shirt.
In this case it was insufficient knowledge that Devlin knew what crime has been committed and who committed the crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Can you be charged with accessory after the fact if you give a false statement or refused to cooperate with the police?

A

The person is not typically accessory after the fact if he lies or refuses to cooperate. This behavior is not enough to prove accessory after the fact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

An accessory after the fact what is an example of time is not an element of the crime

A

Commonwealth versus Simms, the defendant knew that his girlfriend murdered somebody. He picked her up took the weapon from her and he admitted that he was going to help her get away. Even if later he changed his mind and convinced her to surrender to the police his intent to assist her made him an accessory after the fact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the charge of lying to the police?

A

Chapter 268 section 13 B. Lying to the police is a crime however doesn’t necessarily mean that you could be charged with accessory after the fact. For example investigators already knew the suspects roll when he lied to them so he could not be charged with Accessory after the fact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Can a person be charged with accessory after the fact if he was liable for crimes of the felon?

A

Defendants liability as an accessory is linked to the actual crimes perpetrated by the principal. A defendant in Commonwealth versus Perez helped two people escape that he knew had been involved in a shooting. Although the defendant only assist the shooters one time he was charged with two counts of accessory after the fact because they shot to people.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is Ch 274 s 4 protective relative defense?

A

This specifically exempt certain relatives from being an accessory because people should not be penalized for helping their own.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Are the police responsible for informing suspects about the protective relative defense chapter 274 section 4?

A

Police should not inform I suspect about this exemption. The police have no responsibility to inform a murder suspect or his mother about the law exempting his brother from being prosecuting as an accessory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Can a person be charged with an accessory after the fact if the principal is acquitted or missing

A

Yes. Under chapter 274 section 5 unavailability or acquittal of the principal is no defense and the person can still be charged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are some related offenses to accessory after the fact?

A

Failure to report a violent crime, concealing a motor vehicle thief, and failure to report hazing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is it Chapter 274 section 6?

A

The charge of attempt to commit a crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Summarize the attempt to commit a crime

A

Tesla punishes the offender who intends to commit a crime, take specific steps towards doing so and for some reason fails.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are the elements of attempt to commit a crime?

A

The elements are specific intent to commit the crime, an overt act towards its commission, and the person did not complete the crime because his effort failed or he was interrupted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What are different rights of arrest for attempt to commit a crime chapter 274 section 6?

A

It could be a felony if the attempt involves a felony which is punishable by at least five years and state prison.

  • It could be a complaint if the attempt involves a felony punishable by less than five years for any misdemeanor.
  • Or it could be a warrantless arrest in the presence regardless of property value if the attempt involves a larceny under chapter 266 section 30 or 276 section 28.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is the definition of specific intent?

A

When it comes to Attempt to commit a Crime, specific intent means that the suspect consciously intended to commit the underlying crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is an overt act?

A

There are two types of overt Acts:

  • Last act
  • Interrupted act
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Explain what is the last act?

A

The wrongdoer “commits the last act necessary to complete the Intended crime, but for some reason … fails to perpetrate the crime’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is an interrupted act?

A

The offender fails to complete the crime because he is intercepted by the police or some other third-party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Can you charge someone with the actual crime and an attempted crime for the same crime?

A

No you may never convict a person of the crime as well as a attempt to commit the same crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is the definition of conspiracy?

A

Conspiracies in agreement between two or more people to do something unlawful. It does not matter whether the plan was successful even if any steps were taken to carry it out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

When is a conspiracy complete?

A

Conspiracies complete at the time of agreement. No overt act is necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

To charge someone with conspiracy do the two suspects have to create a formal agreement?

A

No it’s not necessary for the charge conspiracy. It’s not necessary for them to create a formal agreement, or agree to every detail, or even meet together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What do you need to prove conspiracy?

A

In order to prove conspiracy you need to have circumstantial evidence. This is the case because sometimes there is no direct evidence of the agreement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Is the conspiracy over if law-enforcement frustrates the conspirators objective?

A

No conspiracies not automatically over when law enforcement frustrates conspirators objective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is the bilateral view of conspiracy?

A

There are two legal definitions of conspiracy bilateral and unilateral. Massachusetts retains the bilateral approach which requires of the agreement involve at least to like minded criminals. A unilateral approach is a crime committed when one person agrees to proceed with anyone, even an undercover officer. As long as Massachusetts insist on the bilateral view, they cannot be a conspiracy involving only the defendant and the government agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is renunciation?

A

Renunciation means that a person after entering into a conspiracy decides to voluntarily pronounce or abandon his criminal purpose. Massachusetts may adopt the defense of renunciation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is the difference between an accomplice in conspirator?

A

An accomplice must meaningfully participate in the crime but does not have to agree with the principal in advance. Conspiracy requires an agreement to work together but not a completed crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

When charging conspiracy is it considered a separate offense from the crime?

A

Conspiracy is separate from the objective crime. It’s considered a separate offense which is the object of the conspiracy. For example a drug dealer may be punished for drug distribution and if you work with another offender could be charged with conspiracy as well for the same drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is the definition of a venue for conspiracy?

A

Venue for conspiracy lies in any county where agreement was reached or where an overt act to execute the plan was committed by any one of the conspirators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What does chapter 274 section 8?

A

solicitation of a felony.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What are the elements of solicitation of a felony in chapter 274 section 8?

A

The elements include:-Solicit. The suspect solicited, advised, or otherwise enticed another to commit a felony including murder, and the suspect needs intent.
-Intent for the person to commit, or arrange for someone else to commit the felony.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the penalty for solicitation of a felony?

A

If the suspect solicits, advised or otherwise enticed a person to commit a felony, including murder, and intended for the person to commit or arrange for another to commit the felony the crime is punishable by life in prison, state prison of 10 years or more, state prison five years or more, state prison for less than five years,.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

When is the crime of solicitation over?

A

The crime is complete at the point of solicitation. In fact the person solicited does not have to agree to commit crime. For this reason, and undercover officer may be solicited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Can solicitation occur if the defendant asks another person to arrange for another person to commit a felony?

A

Yes a person can be charged with solicitation even if they never had direct contact with the “hitman”. Solicitation occurs when one person urges another person to commit to an offense or find another person to carry out the crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

CHAPTER 3
What does chapter 275 section 2?

A

Threat to commit a crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What are the elements of threat to commit a crime?

A

-Suspect needs to communicate to the victim his intent to injured victims person or property,
-the suspect threatened injury if carried out would constitute a crime, and
-reasonable fear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What is the right of arrest for threat to commit crime?

A

It is a complaint only under 275 section 2 does not permit warrantless arrest. You do not need the victim to sign the complaint but you must seek a warrant in order to arrest. Also if it’s a false complaint or a frivolous complaint the complaint has to be the expenses of the prosecution based on unfounded or frivolous complaints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What’s the penalty for threat To commit a crime?

A

The basic offenses house of corrections no more than six months, or fine no more than $100. An alternate disposition be the court a under 275 section 4for impose a peace bond for a period of no more than six months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

How may a threat be given for threatening to commit a crime?

A

A threat maybe oral or written. There must be reasonable fear that the suspect has both intention in the ability to carry out threat. The standard objective which means that convictions are allowed in cases for the victim was:

  • Reasonably afraid
  • Or not afraid but should be. However just because a person is afraid does not mean that the crime occurred especially if the person is overly sensitive.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Explain threat of time for uncertain time in the future?

A

Threat of harm for an uncertain time in the future may cause reasonable fear. Therefore absence of immediate ability to do harm will not prevent conviction for threats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Explain Comm vs Baptist under threats to commit a crime.

A

The defendant told officers guarding him in the hospital that he would shoot them. There’s no proof needed of his ability to do so, or how he would get a gun or later find them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Give an example of sexually explicit language that may be threatening.

A

An 18-year-old defendant produced a number of “missing person” flyers identifying and describing a female high school student had broken up with him. The word “missing” was printed in large type across the top of the flyer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Does the first amendment right to free speech protect people from threatening to commit a crime?

A

First amendment right to free speech only protects “expressive”threats not “true threats”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Does the first amendment rights apply to social media?

A

Yes it does does. There must be evidence of the Intent to be violent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What does it mean that the target of the threat and the target of the threatened crime may be different people?

A

And Commonwealth versus Hamilton, Kenneth Hamilton Violated his probation and sent to jail. After his release Hamilton left a message on his probation officers voicemail talking about her daughter and it was thought that he was threatening her daughter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Threats to commit a crime maybe communicated directly or indirectly. What is the difference?

A

Direct communication is obvious. The suspects threatens the victim in a way that he knew he would received the message.
Indirect communication involves a third-party. When a threat is received by third-party the police must show that the suspect reasonably knew that it would reach the victim.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

How is eavesdropping used for threats to commit a crime?

A

Communication to eavesdropping third-party must be intended to reach victim. Suspect started talking in front of somebody who he knew was eavesdropping to report a threat to the intended recipient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What are related offenses to threats to commit a crime?

A

-Stocking under chapter 265 section 43
- Criminal harassment new chapter 265 s 43A
- Annoying or obscene electronic communication under Ch 269 s 14A
- Threat concerning location of dangerous items or a hijack end of chapter 269 section 14.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is the Chapter and and section for extortion

A

Chapter 265 section 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What are the elements of extortion?

A

-Communication. Through a verbal, written or printed communication
-Three types of threats
-Accuse another of a crime
-Enjoy the personal property of another
-Use against another
person the power authority vested in the suspect by virtue of being a police officer, having power of a Police officer, or being an employee of any licensing authority
-With the intent to get some thing. With the intent to either extort money or pecuniary advantage,
-or compel any person to do an act against his will.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

For the charge of extortion what is the right of arrest?

A

-Felony right of arrest -State penitentiary NMT 15 years or house correction no more than 2 1/2 years, and or find it no more than $5000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What’s the definition of a malicious threat

A

A malicious threat is something that is intentional. A threat may be expressed or implied. The victim does not have to be the object of the threat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What are three kinds of examples of a malicious threat?

A

The subject of the threat 1) could accuse another of a crime. Example an ex-boyfriend said he would tell her employer she stole merchandise unless she performed a sex act.
2) Injure a persons or property. The subject of this threat is interpreted broadly. Subject in this case threaten to expose his sexual relationship with a victim to her parents and circulate naked pictures around the neighborhood unless she gave him money.
3) Abuse official power. Police officers took money from suspected drug dealers, then released when dealer’s sister obtain more money to pay off the police.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Explain intent of malicious threat.

A

The intent of the malicious threat must be to get something. Typically extortionist seek money, or any pecuniary advantage or a performance of any act against victims will. Pecuniary means pertaining to money.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

If a person threatens to extort the same thing to a person what kind of offenses are those?

A

Each threat is a new offense. The defend it attempted to collect same gambling debt by threats during to separate confrontations. That’ll be two separate offenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

The person tries to force payment of a debt that is actually owed what kind of offense is this?

A

This is also a threat of extortion even though that victim actually owes money.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

CHAPTER 4
What chapter and section covers assault offenses?

A

Assault is chapter 265 section 13A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Describe what Assault is?

A

1) An assault is an attempted incomplete battery, the victim not be afraid.
2) Putting a person in fear of battery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What are the elements for attempted battery?

A

The suspect intended to commit a battery, which involved touching the victim in a harmful or unpermitted way, took some over action, and came reasonably close to committing battery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What are the elements of threatened battery?

A

Threaten battery the suspect intentionally engage, in menacing conduct, that caused the victim to fear in eminent battery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What are two attempts of assault and battery.

A

1) Attempted battery
2) Threatened battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What are the rights of arrest for assault?

A

If it is in the presence it is arrest for breach of the peace. Otherwise it is a complaint application.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

For assault for domestic violence under 209A section 6 what is the right of arrest?

A

During domestic violence cases it’s a warrantless arrest upon probable cause. Depending on the relationship of the parties officers will charge the assault under 265 section 13 M or 13A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

During harassment cases what are the rights of arrest for assault?

A

Under chapter 258 E section 8 a warrantless arrest upon probable cause. Charge assault under 265 section 13A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

For assault charges with the right of arrest for a person with a restraining order?

A

Charge the person a felony under chapters 209A, 208, 209, 209C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What’s the definition of attempted battery?

A

The suspect must intend to commit battery that is a harmful or unpermitted touching of a victim, take over steps to accomplish the battery. The most obvious example is throwing a punch at someone and missing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Do you have to prove that the person was in fear during an attempted battery?

A

No it’s not necessary to show the victim was afraid or even aware of the attempted battery for this form of aasault.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What are the two kinds of battery?

A

Attempted battery and threatened battery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Defined attempted battery.

A

Come attempted battery the suspect must intend to commit battery that is a harmful or unpermitted touching of the victim, take over it steps to accomplish the battery. The most obvious is throwing a punch at someone in missing. It’s not necessary to show that the victim was afraid or even aware of the battery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What is the definition of threaten battery?

A

In order to prove asault by threatened battery the suspect must have intentionally engaged in the menacing conduct that reasonably caused the victim to fear an eminent battery. Under this the victim must actually experience fear of immediate physical harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Can you use a verbal threat for Assault battery?

A

Verbal threats alone are insufficient. The verbal threat to do harm becomes an assault when accompanied by some outer gesture for example shaking a fist saying I’m going to beat the living daylights out of you.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What chapter and section covers assault by dangerous weapon ABDW?

A

Chapter 265 section 15B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What are the elements of assault and battery with a dangerous weapon?

A
  • The suspect committed in assault by attempting a battery or threatening to commit a battery with the intent to cause fear
    2) By using a dangerous weapon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What is the right of arrest for assault and battery dangerous weapon?

A

It’s a felony right of arrest State penitentiary no more than five years or house correction no more than 2 1/2 years, or fine no more than $1000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

How many types of dangerous weapons are there?

A

There are two types of dangerous weapon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What are the two types of dangerous weapons?

A

Items by which their nature cause serious injury or death “per se” which means “by itself”.
2) Items used in a way that appears capable of causing serious injury or death, known as dangerous use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

For per say you do not need to use a weapon in a dangerous fashion. What are per se weapons for Assault by dangerous weapon?

A

Per se weapons may include fire arms, knives, brass knuckles, And where includes pepper spray (or OC spray) as well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

For per say dangerous weapon can a fake gun cause a person to be charged with this?

A

Yes a “deceptive weapon device”, is qualified as being armed for any crime against a person. A “deceptive weapon device“ is defined as any item “intended to convey the presence of a rifle, shotgun or firearm, which presents an objective threat, to a person of average sensibility“.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Can you charge a person for assault by dangerous weapon for unseen weapon?

A

An unseen weapon, if possibly possessed and a reasonly believed that they are possessed, to have a per se weapon a person can be charge for this. For example a man assaulting a woman said he had a knife in his back pocket and he would use it. because she reasonably believed that he had a Per se weapon The man was charged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

For ADW for dangerous used item must appear dangerous. What is an example of this?

A

A German shepherd dog could be used as a dangerous weapon even though it’s not a per se weapon the German shepherd could appear dangerous to a person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

When does attempted battery occur?

A

An attempted battery occurs when the suspect must brandish, pushes, or discharges a weapon within striking distance of the victim.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What is a Chapter and Section for assault and battery?

A

Chapter 265 section 13A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Summarize assault and battery

A

Assault and battery occurs in three ways.

1) unintentional, unconsented touching of another
2) to intentional, harmful touching of another or
3) a reckless act that causes injury to another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What are three elements of assault battery, type one, type two, and type three?

A

Type 1: offensive
Type 2: Harmful
Type 3: Reckless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What is Type 1 offensive for Elements of assault and battery?

A
  • The suspect intentionally touched another person
  • Without Having any Right to do so
  • The person touch did not consent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Under elements for assault and battery what is Type 2 harmful?

A

The suspect intentionally touched another person, in a manner likely to cause bodily harm, without having any right or excuse to do so.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Under elements for assault and battery what is the Type 3 element Reckless?

A

The suspect engaged in reckless conduct, which caused bodily harm to another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What is the right of arrest for assault &. battery?

A

For a basic offense right of arrest for breach of the peace in presence, otherwise it’s only a complaint

  • During domestic violence warrantless arrest on probable cause
  • During harassment warrantless arrest and probable cause
  • For causing serious bodily injury is a felony right of arrest the person is seriously badly injured by any means that results in permanent disfigured disfigurement, loss of impairment of a body function, limb or organ, or a substantial risk of death.
  • A suspect who knows or should know a person has pregnant, Is a felony
  • Any person violates the restraining order is a felony
  • If suffocation or strangulation is used it’s a felony
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

For penalties for assault & battery what are they?

A

For A Misdemeanor A&B House of corrections no more than 2 1/2 years or fine of $1000

  • For felony A&B state pension penitentiary no more than five years or house of correction no more than 2 1/2 years and or fine $5000.
  • Another penalty could be accord and satisfaction. In some cases and A&B or other misdemeanor may be dismissed if the victim one voluntarily signed a written agreement and received adequate compensation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What is the penalty of accord and satisfaction?

A

This is where a victim of voluntarily sign a written agreement and receive adequate compensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What are some examples of Type 1 offenses for assault and battery?

A
  • The most common is a hit or a punch
  • Slight touching sufficient affect them did not consent
  • Bodily fluids
  • Injury from escape
  • Food with foreign substance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

What is some examples of Type 2 harmful elements of assault and battery?

A
  • Intentionally touch someone in a way that is likely to hurt them
  • Same rule applies to sexual conduct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What are some examples of assault and battery elements of Type 3 reckless?

A
  • Reckless conduct occurs when a suspect realizes or should realize the danger associated with his conduct but does it anyways.
  • Reckless conduct must result in “physical injury”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Can you be charge for assault and battery for disciplining your children?

A

No there’s a disciplinary privilege for children when an adult striking a child’s acting as a parent and using reasonable force.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

What is a Chapter and Section for assault battery by dangerous weapon ABDW?

A

Chapter 265 section 15A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What are the elements of assault and battery by dangerous weapon?

A
  • The suspect committed an A&B by
    1) intentional, unconsented touching
    2) An intentional, harmful touching or
    3) A reckless act that cause injury
    -By means of a dangerous weapon.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

What is the right arrest for ABDW?

A

It is a felony right of arrest. For basic State penitentiary no more than 10 years or house of correction no more than 2 1/2 years, or fine no more than $5000
-for aggravated ABDW, state penitentiary no more than 15 years or Huss correction no more than 2 1/2 years and or a fine of no more than $10,000. A BDW becomes an aggravated offense if the perpetrator is 18 years or older and commits an ABDWI on a child under the age of 14, causes seriously but bodily injury which includes permanent disfigurement, loss or impairment of bodily function, limb, or Oregon, or a substantial risk of death.
Commits the crime against a person who he knows, or has reason to know is pregnant,
Commits a crime against a person who has an outstanding restraining order in effect against the defendant at the time of the Attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Can any parts of a body be known as a dangerous weapon?

A

Human hands, teeth or other body parts are not a dangerous weapon, but a “shod foot” is. This is where the suspect were wearing shoes and kicked the person with the footwear aggravating the attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

What are some related offenses to assault and battery with a dangerous weapon

A
  • Attempted A&B by discharging any firearm
  • A&B by discharging a firearm shooting and hitting someone
  • A&B to collect a loan
  • A&B for the purpose of gang solicitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

For assault offenses under basic assault what is the right of arrest?

A

Arrest for breach in the peace in presence. Otherwise complaint section 13A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Under assault offenses for hate crimes what are the charges?

A

For hate crimes arrest for breach of the peace. Otherwise complete under section 39.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Under assault offenses for assault constituting harassment.

A

Constituting harassment chapter 258E section 8 arrest on probable cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Under assault offenses assault and domestic violence incident, what are the charges?

A

For it intimate partner, married, child, dating/engaged 209A section 6 you can arrest on probable cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

For A&B offenses what are the charges for the basic offenses?

A

Arrest for breach of the peace in the presence. Otherwise complaint section 13A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Under A&B offenses hate crimes for assault and battery what are the charges?

A

Race, religion, sexual orientation is arrest for breaching the peace. Otherwise it’s a complaint. If injury occurs it’s a Felony under section 39.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

For assault and battery offenses constituting harassment what are the charges?

A

Under 258E Section eight Arrest on probable cause. The charge violation of 13A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

For assault and battery during domestic violence events what are the charges?

A

For intimate partner married,common child, dating/engage the charges under 209A and section 6 arrest on probable cause. Charge violation of 13M.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

For assault and battery offenses under public employee what are the charges

A

Arrest for a breach of the peace in presence. Otherwise a complaint of section 13D. Public transit operator arrest on probable cause under section 13D. Attempt to disarm a police officer is a felony under section 13D. Cause serious bodily injury to an officer under section 13D it is a felony.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

For assault and battery on an EMT or healthcare provider what are the charges?

A

Arrest for breach of the peace in presence. Otherwise a complaint under section 13i.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

What are the charges for assault with aggravating factor offenses?

A

They are all felonies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Under assault Offenses with intent to rape what are the charges

A

It’s a felony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Under attempted indecent assault battery, assault with a dangerous weapon, assault with hypodermic syringe and needle, or tempted A&B by discharging a gun what are charges?

A

They’re all felonies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

For assault and battery offenses with aggravating factor offenses what are the charges?

A

They are all Felonies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

For assault battery offenses for indecent assault and battery, assault battery of the dangerous weapon, assault battery with a hypodermic syringe/needle, and assault and battery by discharging a firearm what are the charges?

A

They are all Felonies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

What is a catchall offense that covers an assault?

A

And assault with intent to commit a felony is a catchall offense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

What is the definition of Mayham

A

Mayhem is an assault in which of perpetrator has a cruel state of mind with the desire to maim or to figure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

There are three types of Mayham under chapter 265 section 14 what are they?

A

Type 1: specific acts
Type 2: dangerous substance or weapon
Type 3: privy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

What is a Chapter and Section for Mayhem?

A

Chapter 265 section 14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Explain Type 1 Specific Acts under mayhem elements.

A

The suspect maliciously intends to maim or disfigure and committed one of the following acts to the victim:

  • Cut out or maimed the tongue
  • Put out or destroy an eye
  • Cut or tore off an ear
  • Cut slits or mutilate the nose or lip
  • Cut off or disabled a limb on member of victim.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

On your Type 2 dangerous substance or weapon what are the elements?

A

Suspect maliciously intended to maim disfigure, and assaulted the victim with a dangerous weapon or substance, and disfigured, crippled or inflicted serious or permanent physical injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Explain Type 3 Privy under the elements of Mayhem.

A

Under privy the suspect was “privy “to someone else’s intent to maim or disfigure, was present and aid it in the commission of this crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

What is the right of arrest for Mayhem?

A

Is a felony right of arrest state penitentiary no more than 20 years, or house of correction no more than 2 1/2 years and a find of no more than $1000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

What Does the word maim mean?

A

The word “name “has no tactical meeting. It in its ordinary sense, it means to disable, wound, or cause disfigurement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

What do you need to prove that someone meant to maim a person?

A

You need specific intent to maim. The suspect must possess a specific intent to maim or disfigure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Explain self-defense.

A

Alarm recognizes that someone is appropriate for a person to use force to defend himself or other people. Once a defendant introduces evidence that he acted in self-defense, the commonwealth must prove be on a reasonable doubt that he did not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

When is self-defense warranted?

A

Self-defense is warranted if the suspect -reasonably believes that he is in danger of personal harm

  • attempts to avoid physical combat or is unable to do so
  • and uses only the force necessary under the circumstances.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Under self-defense non-deadly force what is the proper standard?

A

Non-deadly force personal safety, protect property, or eject trespasser if there’s a reasonable concern over one’s personal safety is the proper standard when non-deadly forces used. You also may use non-deadly force to eject a trespasser or protect on this property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Under self-defense for deadly force when may this be used?

A

A person may only resort to deadly force when he reasonably believes that he is in imminent danger of death or serious bodily injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

What are some factors to consider in self-defense?

A
  • Must consider the physical ability of the combatants for example if someone was a karate expert or the victim was much smaller.
  • Assailants prior use of force against others
  • Characteristics of any weapons used
  • Available means of escape
  • Legitimate belief of danger.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Explain mutual combat

A

In the case of mutually agreed combat, the law does not allow a claim for self-defense unless a weapon or other force is unexpectedly introduced into the brawl. Then the person may be justified in using force to meet that threat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Can the instigator of a fight use a self-defense claim?

A

Although it’s unusual, it is possible that the instigator of a fight maybe justified and resorting to self-defense if he “makes known his intention to retire and withdrawdraws in good faith “.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Explain the battered women syndrome.

A

A woman’s use of deadly force against her abusive partner may be understood by allowing evidence of the history of the relationship. Expert testimony on common patterns of abusive relationships would help.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Explain duty to retreat.

A

This right of self-defense does not exist until a person has reasonably tried to avoid combat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

What is one exception to duty to retreat?

A

The only exception is “castle law”. This is where occupants in their home have no duty to retreat. They may use reasonable force to defend themselves or others against unlawful intruders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

In duty to retreat under Castle law can intruder be on your property?

A

No the intruder must be inside your home for the castle law to come into affect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Can you use a castle law defense against police officers going into your home?

A

The Castelotte never justifies force against police officers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

What is the defense of others claim?

A

Under defense of others a person may use the same force to protect another that he could used to protect himself. This rule encourages people to help if a third parties were in danger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Explain the “Accident defense”.

A

If they suspect claims that they did not mean to use force this is a “accident defense “. An accident is an unexpected happening that occurred without intention or design on a persons part. Once the defendant raises a possibility of an accident, commonwealth must prove the assault or shooting was intentional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

CHAPTER 5
What chapter and section covers assault and battery on a public employee?

A

Chapter 265 section13D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

What are the elements of A&B in a public employee or interference with duty?

A

The suspect commits an assault battery on any public employee who the suspect knew was engaged in the performance of his or her duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

What is the right of arrest for assault and battery in a public employee?

A

Arrest for breach of the peace and presence, otherwise a complaint. If the A&B occurred when public employee was operating a public transit vehicle it is a warrantless arrest on probable cause under chapter 265 section 13D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

If an A&B included an attempt to disarm a police officer or cause serious injury what is the right of arrest?

A

It is a felony with state penitentiary no more than 10 years our house of correction no more than 2 1/2 years with a fine of no more than $1000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

For serious bodily injury to a police officer what are the penalties?

A

State penitentiary no less than one year, no more than 10 years or house of correction no less than one year for no more than 2 1/2 years and or fine of no less than $500 and no more than $10,000. Mandatory minimum of one year for serious bodily injury resulting permanent disfigurement, protracted loss or impairment of a body function limb or organ or substantial risk of death. Same standard as felony A&B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Where can the prosecution of assault and battery in a police officer for serious injury be?

A

It is important to know that assault and battery on a police officer may only be prosecuted in superior court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Explain the common law crime of interfering with the police officer.

A

The elements for interfering with the police officer are:
- knowledge, the suspect knew I should’ve known Officer was engaged in lawful performance of duty
- Obstruction, the suspect physically obstructed or threaten violence against the officer
- Intent, the suspect intended to obstruction or hindering of the police officers performance of duty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

What is the right of arrest and procedure for interfering with the police officer?

A

The right of arrest for breach in the peace in presence. But officers may legally seek a complaint as well. But this does not look as good if you don’t arrest.
-For a procedure although not defined by statute, mass recognizes this and other common law crimes. On the standard complaint form, instead of inserting statute numbers, the officer should simply write “common law offense”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Explain physical obstruction with interfering with a police officer.

A

Physical obstruction covers more than force there’s a refuse to move or verbally interrupting any loud and persistent manner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Does Videotaping police officers fall under interfering with police officers?

A

Videotaping officers does not inferring unless it was done in a manner that physically hinders the police.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

What is the Chapter and section that covers neglect refusal to assist police officers?

A

Chapter 268 section 24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

What are the elements of neglect or refusal to assist A police officer?

A

The elements are a person was required by police officer or deputy sheriff, and they neglected or refused to assist the officer and apprehending or securing of a person for breach of the peace for four in escape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

What is the arrest for refuse or neglect assistant Officer?

A

Arrest for breach of peace in the presence. Otherwise it is a complaint. Penalties House of correction no more than one month or find it no more than $50.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

What is a Chapter and Section that covers resisting arrest?

A

Chapter 266 and 32.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Explain resisting arrest chapter 268 section 32B.

A

Under this chapter in section and punishes an arrestee who uses force, threats or other dangerous methods to resist arrest. It also penalizes a person who prevents, or attempts to prevent the arrest of another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

What are the elements of resisting arrest?

A

The suspect knowingly prevent or attempted to prevent, a police officer was properly identify themselves, from affecting interest of the actor, or another person. By using force threat or risk of injury against a police officer or another that creates a substantial risk of bodily injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

When is 260 section 30 to be a defense against the officer

A

Is the officer resorted to excessive force against the arrestee , Or is the officer lacked good faith for the arrest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

What is the basic legal standard for proper use of force?

A

For all arrests, a police officer may use reasonable force to make a lawful arrest when deescalation is not feasible, may use reasonable force was proportionate to the resistance of the arrestee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

When is the use of deadly force reasonable to resisting arrest?

A

The officer reasonably and currently fears imminent,death or bodily injury, for himself or another, there’s no substantial risk to bystanders, if possible the officer issues a verbal warning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Do police have a duty to retreat?

A

Because officers have an obligation to protect their fellow officers in the public, retreat is not an option for an on duty officers facing a threat of violence. The question is whether the officer had reasonable options other than force.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

What is needed for resisting arrest charges to occur?

A

Resisting arrest must occur at some point during the arrest process.
- The offender must know officers are making an arrest
- conduct before hand cuffing and verbal notification Can provide notice of arrest
- arrest ends with the subject submits to authority was placed in a secure location.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

What is significant resistance for resisting arrest?

A
  • Physically struggling with The police
  • Stiffening or flailing arms to prevent cuffing
  • Stiffening the body to prevent placement in Cruiser
  • Using force in opposition to officers is resisting unless it is a passive, nonviolent protest.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

What are some examples of things that are not sufficient to resisting arrest?

A
  • Flight by itself is not resisting arrest, it has to be a substantial risk of injury.
  • Refusing to emerge from the hiding Place apartment is not resisting arrest
  • Mouthing off prior to an arrest is also not resisting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

What is the defense “right to know” grounds for arrest?

A

An officer arrested a person and
- the officer refused to answer the question about the reason for arrest
- The officer answered untruthfully
- For the officer neglected upon request to exhibit the warrant for document authorizing the arrest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

What is the right of arrest for right to know grounds for arrest?

A

The right of arrest is a complaint. The penalty is a house of correction no more than one year, or a find $1000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

What chapter and section covers false arrest?

A

False arrest fall under chapter 263 section 2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

What are the elements for false arrest?

A

An officer arrested or detained a suspect and pretended to have legal process, or pretended to have a different legal process from the one that he had.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

The charge for false arrest is what?

A

Is a complaint and the penalty is a house corrections no more than one year or a fine of no more than $1000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

What is a Chapter and Section for false information following an arrest?

A

Chapter 268 section 34A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

What are the elements for false information following an arrest?

A

The suspect knowing and willingly, Furnish a false name, Social Security number, date of birth, home address, phone number, or any other information requested to identify the defendant

  • to a law enforcement officer or official
  • Following an arrest for post-arrest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

What is the right of arrest for false information following an arrest?

A

There is no random arrest saying how the person is already under arrest. However the sentence for this offense shall run from and after any sentence imposed as an arrest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

What do police officers have to do to prove giving false information after arrest?

A

The police officer must prove the use of a false name but more importantly that is used for a dishonest purpose. This could include concealing one-sided identity to avoid being charged, a teen more favorable bail, avoid arrest on a warrant, or avoid prosecution. For example police officer fingerprinted a suspect and found fingerprints under the name he gave them as well as for arrest under a different name. This proved suspect gave a false name. Officers don’t have to prove his real identity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

What chapter and section does escape from police lock up fall under?

A

Falls under chapter 260 section 15A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

What are the elements for escape from police lock up?

A

Suspect is lawfully placed in a city or town lock up, and escaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

What chapter and Section deals with aiding escape from police custody?

A

Chapter 268 section 17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

What are the elements in an escape from a police custody?

A

Suspect aided or assisted a prisoner in escaping or attempting to escape from lawful custody.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

What is the charge or right arrest for escape from police lock up?

A

Arrest for breaching the peace and presents or a complaint. The penalties house of correction no more than 2 1/2 years and or fine of no more than $500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

What is the right of arrest for aiding an escape from police custody?

A

The right of arrest is for arrest of breach of the peace in presence otherwise it’s a complaint. The penalty is house of corrections no more than two years, or find no more than $500.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

CHAPTER 6
What is a Chapter and Section covers murder?

A

Chapter 265 section 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

What’s the definition of murder?

A

Second-degree murder is unlawful killing committed with malice. First-degree murder is the same plus factor for example to suspects premeditation, cruelty, for participation in a life Felony.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

What are the elements of second-degree murder?

A

The suspect committed an unlawful killing, with malice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

What are the elements for first-degree murder

A

The prior elements of second-degree the suspect committed and out unlawful killing, with malice, deliberate premeditation, or extreme atrocity or cruelty, or commission or attempted commission of a crime punishable by life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

What is the rate of arrest for murder?

A

It’s a felony right of arrest. State penitentiary for life. Second-degree prisoner is eligible for parole after he serves 15 years. First degree result in life without parole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

What is the definition of an unlawful killing?

A

The term unlawful refers to the absence of justification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

What is the definition of malice?

A

Malice describes a particular mental state necessary for murder. Commonwealth versus great mentions three types of malice:

  • an actual intent to kill the victim, or
  • an actual intent to cause a victim grievous bodily harm, or -an act which a reasonable person would know it’s likely to kill another.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

For murder The suspect must cause the victim’s death. What are some examples of this?

A

Passage of time, the defendant shot the victim in the neck render rendering him paralyzed, the defendant is guilty of murder even though the victim lived for five or more years before dying due to his injuries

  • Weakness of victim is no defense and example of this is if an elderly person had pre-existing conditions that caused her demise the injury caused during the robbery contributed to the death as well.
  • Fetus as a victim. Only viable fetus may be the suspect subject of murder or manslaughter. Viability is a point where the fetus is likely to survive outside the womb, or without medical support.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

What is the first- degree factor For murder?

A

Extreme trusty or cruelty. The suspect must cause a victim‘s death by method that surpasses the cruelty inherit in any homicide. For this the jury miss find the defendant to pleasure in the victim suffering, killed with a method likely to increase the victim suffering, or killed using method that was totally excessive. The victim suffering is usually the key in these crimes. However suffering is not required.

297
Q

The first degree factor of delivery premeditation what is needed for this?

A

A suspect must first have the thoughts murder and then did the act of killing. It could be a plan event over years or it could be an incident occurred and then the person went back thought about killing him and then killed him. This this is sufficient for premeditation.

298
Q

The factor of felony murder what is needed for this?

A

For felony Marl murder the malice of each accomplice must be proven. The defendant must be found guilty of murder if he knowingly participated with the intent to kill,, cause grievous bodily injury, or do an act that creates a plain and strong likelihood of death. If you cannot prove any of these things he may only be charged with involuntary manslaughter if he acted recklessly. If you simply present during the murder it lasts the required intent

299
Q

What does attempted murder fall under?

A

Chapter 265 section 16.

300
Q

For attempted murder what is needed?

A

Space on the perception that offender might perform certain acts to murder someone else not covered under assault with intent to murder. That’s section 16 penalize anyone who attempts to commit murder by “poisoning, drowning, strangling another person, or by means not constituting in assault with intent to commit murder.

301
Q

What Is a Chapter in Section that covers the use of poison with intent to kill or injure?

A

This is covered under chapter 265 section 28.

302
Q

Explain use of poison with intent to kill offense?

A

An offender may not mingle poison with any food, drink or medication with the intent to kill or injure. The penalty is state penitentiary for life or any terms of years. The right of arrest is a felony.

303
Q

What’s the definition of poison?

A

Poison means any substance introduced into the body, by any means, which is capable of causing injury or death. It is a broad term that covers both inherently dangerous substances that no reasonable person would ingest, Or substances that have beneficial uses but become poison when used improperly.

304
Q

What chapter in section covers manslaughter?

A

Manslaughters covered on a chapter 265 section 13.

305
Q

How many types of manslaughter are there?

A

There are two types. Voluntary and involuntary.

306
Q

What are the elements of voluntary manslaughter?

A

The suspect unlawfully and intentionally, uses force in circumstances where the suspect experienced reasonable provocation, which caused the death of another.

307
Q

What are the elements of involuntary manslaughter?

A

The suspect unlawfully and Unintentionally, caused the death of another person, by committing an A&B that the suspect knew or should reasonably have known, endangered human life
-or recklessly engaged in an act or failing to act in a manner that disregarded a clear risk of substantial harm.

308
Q

What’s the rate of arrest for manslaughter?

A

The right arrest is a felony. The penalty State penitentiary no more than 20 years or house of correction no more than 2 1/2 years and find it no more than $1000.

309
Q

Explain what corporation penalty of manslaughter maybe?

A

Manslaughter may be committed by a corporation. Any business organization including a corporation, association, partnership, or other legal entity can commit manslaughter. There’s a penalty of $250,000 in prohibition from bidding on government contracts.

310
Q

What is the distinction between manslaughter and murder?

A

Manslaughter is the unlawful killing another WITHOUT malice.

311
Q

Under Type 1 of voluntary manslaughter What is needed?

A

Voluntary manslaughter is an unlawful intentional killing resulting from reasonable provocation. Under this reasonable provocation produces such a state of anger or fear that a typical person may lose his capacity for restraint.

312
Q

What are some examples of adequate provocation for voluntary manslaughter?

A
  • A “sudden revelation” of infidelity
  • Excessive self-defense or defense of another (This is where as I suspect is attacked in justified in defending himself, but then uses excessive force, he may be convicted of manslaughter)
  • Injury to genitals
313
Q

What are some examples of insufficient provocation for voluntary manslaughter?

A
  • Insults
  • Threat of retaliation
  • Homosexual advances
  • Jealousy over an ex
  • Crying baby
  • Child’s misbehavior
  • Minor force(For example insufficient provocation when the victim punch the defendant in the face, especially given that the defendant was a weightlifter in outweighed the victim by 170 pounds)
314
Q

What are some important things to think of for voluntary manslaughter?

A
  • The act must result from provocation, rather than pre-existing intentions to kill or injure.
  • The killing must occur before there is an opportunity to “cool down”.
315
Q

For type two involuntary manslaughter this is when an unintentional killing results from a non-felonious assault and battery or reckless conduct. What are some examples of this?

A

An assault and battery with a likelihood of serious harm were a person, “sucker” punched a delivery person and they fell down the stairs and hit his head.
-Reckless conduct involves an act for the failure to act we are in serious harm is likely to occur. (Miss handling a firearm, landlord safety defects, illegal drug overdose, legal drug overdose, failure of parents to provide essential care, encouraging suicide).

316
Q

Explain the case of Comm. versus Hunter for involuntary manslaughter.

A

The professional drug dealer posted that his product was “fire” or “rocket fuel”. These were more than harmless exaggerations. It indicated that the dealer near the heroine he sold was unusually potent and dangerous.

317
Q

For involuntary manslaughter, explain duty to prevent harm.

A

A duty to prevent harm to others arises when one creates a dangerous situation, even by accident. For example in commonwealth versus Levette while living in abandoned warehouse they excellent deadly start a fire and fail reported. After this six Worcester firefighters died in the blaze the defendants decision not to report the fire was reckless.

318
Q

Involuntary manslaughter explain proximate cause.

A

Approximate cause is Wall-E defendants contact we not be the only cause, it must be the approximate cause of death. This means that “in a natural and continuously sequence” the defendant action or in action produce the victims death. An example of this is a suspect cause of death by giving the victim methadone tablet in money to purchase other drugs, he also delayed bringing her to the hospital. These factors with the proximate cause of her death

319
Q

CHAPTER 7
What is the chapter in section that covers kidnapping?

A

Chapter 265 section 26.

320
Q

What are the elements needed for kidnapping?

A

The elements for kidnapping are:
- Unlawful without lawful authority,
-intentional
Type 1: the suspect intentionally one forcibly or secretly confined another person against his will, or
Type 2: inveigled (pronounced in-vay) ( Meaning to Laura or enticed by false representations) another person with the intent to forcibly or secretly confine him against as will.

321
Q

What is the rate of arrest for kidnapping?

A

Felony right of arrest. The penalty State penitentiary no more than 10 years, or house of correction no more than two years define of no more than $1000.

322
Q

What are offenses that are considered aggravated offenses for kidnapping?

A
  • If the defendant committed kidnapping with intent to extort money or valuables
  • If armed with a gun
  • With armed with a gun and had intent to extort
  • If armed with a dangerous weapon and inflicted serious bodily injury or sexually assaulted the victim
  • Or if you kidnap a victim under the age of 16
323
Q

What chapter in section covers parental or relative kidnapping?

A

This falls under chapter 265 section 26A.

324
Q

What are the elements for parental relative kidnapping?for all 4 types

A

Type 1: for a child under 18, the suspect was a relative of a child and without lawful authority, held or intended to hold the child permanently or for a protracted period of time
-Took or enticed a child from his or her lawful custodian
Type 2: Child under 18 in danger or removed..
-The child was either exposed to danger by the kidnapping, or removed from the commonwealth
Type 3: Incompetent/other person
-Suspect Chuck or enticed from a lawful custody, any incompetent person or other person “interested by authority of law to custody of another person or institution”
Type 4: Incompetent/other in danger: in addition to elements and type three the incompetent or other person was exposed to danger.

325
Q

What constitutes “exposed to danger”

A

Exposed to danger is deliberately undefined by chapter 265 section 26A, so officers should apply the standard in a commonsense fashion.

326
Q

What chapter in section covers enticement for sex or violence “child” under 16?

A

Chapter 265 section 26C.

327
Q

What are the elements for enticement for six for balance for child under 16.

A
  • The suspect enticed
  • A child under 16 or someone he believed to be under 16
  • To intercom exit for remain with in any vehicle, dwelling, building, or other outdoor space
  • With the intent of the suspect or another person would violate any of the following:
  • Indecent A&B On a child under 14
  • Indecent and be on a disabled person
  • Indecent A&B on 14 or older
  • Rape
  • Forcible rape under 16
  • Statutory rape
  • Assault with intent to rape
  • Assault A child with the intent to rate Or
  • Inducing a minor prostitute, open and gross, distribution of matter harmful to minor, dissemination of obscenity to two adults, posing a child for naked representation, dissemination of a child pornography, possession of child pornography, I Natural and lascivious acts for the child, Ludens lascivious, indecent exposure, sexual conduct for a fee, or
  • Any offense is used or attempted to use of force as an element
328
Q

What’s the rate of arrest for enticement for sex or violence Of a child under 16?

A

Felony right of arrest. The penalty is state penitentiary no more than five years or house of corrections no more than 2 1/2 years and or fine no more than $5000.

329
Q

What is the word entice mean?

A

Entice means to “Lure, induce, persuade, 10th, insight, solicit, coax or invite”

330
Q

What are some of the things that can help for enticements of a child under 16?

A
  • No over action is required
  • “Sick” victim is sufficient
  • Enticement statute is not unconstitutionally vague or violation of the first amendment
  • Sufficient evidence
  • No entrapment if the person is “ready and willing”.
331
Q

What must be present in order to prove enticement

A

There must be evidence of a proposed meeting in order to prove enticement. This could include an open ended invitation and enticement may be done on behalf of a third-party.

332
Q

Does evidence that a victim initiate a sexual encounter prevent an enticement conviction ?

A

Evidence that the victim initiated the sexual encounter does not prevent an enticement conviction.

333
Q

CHAPTER 8
What chapter and section covers cruelty to animals?

A

Chapter 272 section 77.

334
Q

What are the elements of cruelty to animals?

A

The suspect did, Or cost to be done one or more of the following acts:

  • Beat- loaded, tortured, truly beach, or mutilated an animal or
  • Used as a Lure-Use an animal April or inhumane manor in a race comic game or concerns, or in training, or a law or bait for another life animal(Except fishing)
  • Abandon-Willfully abandoned or
  • Transport truly. Carrot, cause an animal To be carried, in or upon a vehicle, or otherwise in and unnecessarily cruel manner.
335
Q

What are the rights of arrest for cruelty to animals?

A

It is a solony right of arrest. First offense state penitentiary no more than seven years or house of correction no more than 2 1/2 years. Any subsequent offense of state penitentiary no more than 10 years and or a fine of no more than $10,000.

336
Q

What is a legal defense to animal cruelty?

A

A defense to criminal liability for killing a dangerous dog under chapter 140 section 156 provides there any person may kill a dog that:

  • Suddenly assaults him outside in closure of its owner of keeper
  • Is out of the enclosure of its owner, or keeper and not under immediate care, while in the act of worrying, wounding, or killing people, livestock or fouls.
  • Unless the person intended to recruit, or recklessly Disregarded the dog suffering, there is no liability. A person who wins or kills a dog shall promptly report it to the owner, an animal control officer, or a police officer.
337
Q

What is the chapter sexual contact with animals

A

Chapter 272 S 77C

338
Q

What are the elements of sexual contact with animals?

A

Suspect engaged and sexual conduct with an animal, or offered or except for the offer for sex with animal or anything there of.

339
Q

What is the definition of sexual contact with an animal?

A

ENIAC between a person an animal that involves sex organs anus of one in the mouth penis for sex organ of the other.

340
Q

What is the penalty for sexual contact with animals?

A

First offense State penitentiary no more than seven years for house of correction no more than 2 1/2 years and were fine of no more than $5000. Second or subsequent fence where than 10 years in or fine no more than $10,000.

341
Q

What is a Chapter and Section for mistreatment a Police animals?

A

Chapter 272 section 77A.

342
Q

What are the elements for mistreatment police Animals?

A

The intentional will will tormented, beat, kicked, struck, mutilated, injured, disabled or otherwise mistreated or inferred, by any action with the lawful performance of, a police dog or horse on by the police

343
Q

What is the rate of arrest for chapter 272 section 77A Mistreatment a Police animals?

A

Wireless arrest in the presents. Penalty is us a correction no more than 2 1/2 years and or if I have no less than $100 no more than $500.

344
Q

What’s a good good to know about interference sufficient for the offense of mistreatment of police animals?

A

The statue punishes willfulness treatment and an interference Cote by any action whatsoever”.

345
Q

What is the chapter and section for possess or train fighting animals?

A

Chapter 272 section 94.

346
Q

What are the elements of possess or treating fighting animals under chapter 272 section 94?

A

The suspect That’s good intent to exhibit a bird dog or fighting animal for promoted expression of fighting for transferred by loan cell or transfer any fighting animal or possessed animals for breeding so that its offspring would be used for animal fighting.

347
Q

What is the right of arrest for possess or train fighting animals?

A

270 to section 89 police officers in animal control officers may enter any place without a warrant or people are prepared for or actually engaging in an exhibition for fighting animals. A warrantless entry. All persons present are arrested and seize all animals.

348
Q

What’s the penalty for possessing or training fighting animals ?

A

State penitentiary no more than five years in the house of correction for no more than one year and or fine no more than $1000.

349
Q

What is a related offense of possessing a training fighting animals?

A

Eating or being present at exhibition of fighting animals under chapter 272 section 95.

350
Q

An aiding or being present at exhibition fighting animals what is the definition and what is a penalty?

A

Two chapter chapter 272 section 95 prohibits to ask. One intentionally being present at any place for fighting animals, to being present and eating in or contributing to such exhibition. Maltese state penitentiary for no more than five years or house correction no more than 2 1/2 years and or find a no more than $1000. The right of arrest is a felony.

351
Q

CHAPTER 9
What is a chpt. and Section for rape?

A

Chapter 265 section 22(b)

352
Q

What are the elements needed to charge someone with rape?

A

The suspect engaged in natural or unnatural sexual intercourse, by compelling the victim to submit by force or by threat of bodily injury against his or her will.

353
Q

What is the right of arrest for rape?

A

It’s a felony right of a rest. The penalty for the first offense is State penitentiary no more than 20 years. Second or subsequent fence is State penitentiary for life or any term of years.

354
Q

What is a Chapt and section that covers aggravated rape?

A

Chapter 265 section 22(a).

355
Q

What are the elements for aggravated rape?

A

Suspect engages in intercourse, by force or threat, and with the aggravating factor of:
-Cause bodily injury
-Constituted a joint enterprise or
-Occurred during the commission or attempted commission of one of the following:
ABDW, ADW, armed robbery, unarmed robbery, kidnapping, armed B&E of dwelling, unarmed B&E, B&E with intent to commit a felony, B&E in the daytime, night entry of a dwelling, carrying a dangerous weapon.

356
Q

What is the right of arrest for aggravated rape?

A

Right of arrest is a felony. The penalty is state penitentiary for life for any term of years.

357
Q

For element one of natural or unnatural sexual intercourse what is the difference?

A

Natural intercourse- consist of insertion, no matter how slight, of the penis into the vagina.
-Unnatural intercourse : includes oral intercourse involving in mouth and a penis of another, cunnilingus between the mouth and one person‘s vagina, other intrusions into genital or anal opening. Also inserting a finger which is known as digital rape, or an object constitutes as unnatural intercourse.

358
Q

Explain the element of buy force or threat for rape?

A

Force used to commit rape does not need to be strong and may be sufficient to overcome the victims well the phrase “against the victims well” simply means “without consent”.

359
Q

What is constructive force?

A

Force in which is threatening with words or gestures. Rape occurs the victims participation is obtained by constructive force meaning the defendant lied about a police officer to a prostitute in order for her to have sex with him. She was afraid of being locked up so she submitted without physical Resistance.

360
Q

Explain constructive force maybe less with a child victim?

A

An adult in the position of authority preyed upon the phone bill day of it much younger victim. This was considered constructive force.

361
Q

Explain what lack of consent might be.

A

For this consent must be given at the time of the act. Rape is never excused, regardless of the relationship of the parties.

362
Q

Explain How refusal can be sufficient as lack of consent.

A

A refusal is sufficient , resistance Is unnecessary. Any refusal is sufficient if it demonstrates that the victims black consent was “honest and real”.

363
Q

Is it still rape if the victim request offender to wear a condom?

A

Yes the request to wear a condom is not consent.

364
Q

Explain joint enterprise in relation to rape.

A

A joint enterprise is where accomplices must rape a common victim. In the case where a female was told she was being taken to a “modeling” studio, But instead of one or two in abandoned warehouse in raped her together. They participate in each others sexual activity therefore it is a joint enterprise.

365
Q

What chapter in section covers with the rape of a child Under 16?

A

Chapter 265 section 22A.

366
Q

What are the elements of rape of a child under 16?

A

Elements of this offense identical to those Aretha under 265 section 22(b) except the victim of this crime must be under 16 years of age.

367
Q

What is the rate of arrest for rape of a child under 16?

A

How do you say Felony right of arrest. Penalties State penitentiary for life or any term of years.

368
Q

What is a Chapter and Section that covers aggravated rape of a child under 16?

A

Chapter 265 section 22B.

369
Q

What chapter in section covers statutory rape?

A

Chapter 265 section 23.

370
Q

What are the elements of statutory rape?

A

The suspect unlawfully, engaged in natural or unnatural sex, with someone under the age of 16.

371
Q

What is the rate of arrest for statutory rape?

A

Felony right of a rest. The penalty is the penitentiary for life or any term of yours, house of corrections no more than 2 1/2 years.

372
Q

What is a Chapter and Section for aggravated statutory rape?

A

Chapter 265 section 23A

373
Q

What are the elements of aggravated statutory rape?

A

The elements are intercourse with a child under 16 and also involve one of the following aggravating factors:

  • More than a five year age difference between the defend it in the victim who is under 12 years old
  • More than a 10 year age difference between the defendant in a victim was between the ages of 12 and 16 years old or
  • At the time of the intercourse the defendant was a mandated reporter of child abuse.
374
Q

What is the rate of arrest for aggravated statutory rape?

A

The right of arrest is a felony. Basic life or any term of years. Mandatory minimum of 10 years.

375
Q

What chapter in Section Commerce right by public safety personnel?

A

Chapter 265 section 22(c).

376
Q

What are the elements of raped by public safety personnel?

A

Suspect was a police officer, prosecutor, EMT, deputy sheriff, correction officer, court officer, probation or parole officer, constable, anyone in personating one of these officials and

  • Engaged in natural or a natural sexual intercourse
  • With a person in his custody or control. Also because a victim is a custody or control the official, consent is not a difference. This crime is an essence public safety statutory rape.
377
Q

What is the penalty for raped by public safety personnel?

A

Right of the rest is a felony. Penalty for the first offense of state penitentiary no more than 20 years. Second or subsequent offense is state penitentiary for life for any terms of yours.

378
Q

What is a Chapt and Section that covers drugging person for intercourse?

A

Chapter 272 section 3.

379
Q

What are the elements for drugging person for intercourse?

A

The suspect applied, administered, or taken to be taken any drug, matter or thing, with the intent to stupefy or overpower the victim synthesis suspect or another person could have natural or unnatural sexual intercourse with the victim.

380
Q

What’s the right of arrest in penalty for drugging person for intercourse ?

A

Felony right of arrest. The penalty is state penitentiary for no lesson 10 years, no more than life.

381
Q

In this case the defendant must “administer” the substance, what does this mean?

A

Administer requires some forceful action or trickery by the suspect amounting to more than merely supplying drugs or alcohol to a willing individual.

382
Q

What The chapter and section for assault with intent to commit rape?

A

Chapter 265 section 24

383
Q

What are the elements for assault with intent to commit rape?

A

The suspect committed in assault on the victim while having sex specific intent to rape victim

384
Q

What is the radius of a rest for assault with intent to commit rape?

A

Right of a rest is a Felony. The penalty for the basic fence State penitentiary no more than 20 years or house of correction no more than 2 1/2 years. For second or subsequent defense State penitentiary for life or any number of years.

385
Q

What is the chapter in section for indecent A&B ages 14 in over?

A

Chapter 265 section 13H.

386
Q

What are the elements for indecent A&B ages 14 and over?

A

Victim was at least 14 at the time of the offense, Can you suspect committed in assault battery which was “indecent”, and The victim did not consent.

387
Q

What are the The rights of arrest in the penalty for indecent A&B over 14?

A

The right of arrest is a felony. For basic offense the penalty is no more than five years or house of corrections no more than 2 1/2 years. For disabled for elderly victim penalty in state penitentiary no more than 10 years or house of correction no more than 2 1/2 years. For a subsequent defense state penitentiary no more than 20 years.

388
Q

What chapter section covers indecent A&B under age of 14?

A

Chapter 265 section 13B.

389
Q

What’s the right arrest for indecent A&B under the age of 14?

A

Felony right of arrest. Penalty for basic offenses no more than 10 years for house of correction no more than 2 1/2. Aggravated offenses will be more mandatory of 10 years, aggravated because prior fences mandatory minimum of 15 years.

390
Q

What is the definition of indecent?

A

For these charges in decent is an act fundamentally offensive. The standard is not fake because reasonable people understand.

391
Q

What is a Chpt and section that covers indecent A&B by public safety personnel?

A

Chapter 265 section 13H 1/2.

392
Q

CHAPTER 10
What’s a Chapter in Section for lewd and lascivious conduct?

A

Chapter 272 section 53.

393
Q

What are the elements of lewd and lascivious conduct?

A

The suspect committed or solicited to another person to commit

  • A sex act
  • For the purpose of arousal or offense
  • In public
394
Q

What’s the right of arrest for lewd and lascivious conduct?

A

Warrantless arrest and presents in public. The penalty of House of corrections no more than six months and or find $200. An alternative disposition chapter 272 section 57 allows the court to discharge an individual accused of this offense upon payment of a surety for his recognizance and payment of the expense of the prosecution. The AlterNet requires a defendant to conform to “good behavior“ for no less than six months and no more than two years.

395
Q

What is the chapter in section covers indecent exposure?

A

Chapter 272 section 53.

396
Q

What are the elements of indecent exposure?

A

The suspect intentionally, exposes his O’Hare Getletales to one more persons, and cause offense. At least one person was reasonably offended by the exposure

397
Q

What’s the right arrest for indecent exposure?

A

It is a warrantless arrest and presence in the public. Or in private a complaint. The penalty is house of correction no more than six months and or a fine of $200. There’s also an alternate disposition such as the same as alluding lascivious conduct.

398
Q

What is the term objectively offensive mean?

A

The suspects conduct must be objected “objectively offensive”meaning that the indecent exposure includes a requirement that the suspect’s conduct could be offensive to a reasonable person in addition to offending the victim.

399
Q

What’s a Chapter and Section for open gross lewdness?

A

Chapter 272 section 16.

400
Q

What are the elements for open in gross Lewdness?

A

The suspect intentionally, exposes genitals, butt, or breasts, To one more persons in public, intending or recklessly regarding a public exposure, in order to alarm or shock a reasonable person, and one Omar person in fact was alarm for four shocked by the suspects exposure.

401
Q

What is the right of arrest for open in gross lewdness?

A

The right of arrest is a felony and the penalty for this is state penitentiary no more than 3 years or house of corrections no more than 2 years, or fine no more than $300.

402
Q

Open gross lewdness be a police officer be “shocked”?

A

Yes under commonwealth versus Pasquarelli. The police officer encountered a slasher. Pasquarelli said excuse me lifted a sweatshirt to expose his genitals, then said can you put these in your mouth.

403
Q

CHAPTER 11
What is a Chapter and Section for prostitution?

A

Chapter 272 section 53A.

404
Q

What are the elements of sexual conduct for a fee?

A

The suspect: paid, offered, or agreed to pay to another to engage in sexual conduct,
for the
Prostitute: engaged, offered, or agreed to engage in sexual contact with another person for a fee.

405
Q

What’s the right of arrest for a sexual conduct for a fee?

A

Right of arrest warrantless arrest in presence in public. For the customer the penalties has correction where the 2 1/2 years and or fine of no less than $1000 no more than $5000. For the prostitute house of corrections no more than one year and or a fine of no more than $500.

406
Q

What is the chapter in section that covers sexual conduct for a fee, child under 18?

A

Chapter 272 section 53A.

407
Q

What are the elements for sexual conduct for a fee for child under 18?

A

The customer: Paid, offered, or agreed to pay another person with the intent to engage in sexual conduct with a child under 18, or
For the facilitator:
-Was paid, agreed to pay, or agreed that the third Person be paid in return for aiding a person who intending to engage in sexual conduct with a child under 18. The sex act does not have to occur.

408
Q

What’s the right of arrest for sexual conduct for a fee for the child under 18?

A

Is a felony right of arrest. Penalties State penitentiary no more than 10 years or state penitentiary no more than 10 years in a fine of no less than 3000 no more than 10,000, or house of corrections no more than 2 1/2 years in a fine no less than $3000, no more than $10,000.

409
Q

What chapter in section covers human trafficking?

A

Human trafficking is covered under chapter 265 section 50.

410
Q

Explain human trafficking offense.

A

Under human trafficking it outlaws recruiting, transporting, obtaining, or financially benefiting from another person who engages in prostitution, or sexually explicit performances, or production of child pornography. The penalty is state penitentiary no more than life. The right of arrest is a felony.

411
Q

What is a Chapter and Section that covers deriving support from across the toot a.k.a. a pimp?

A

Chapter 272 section 7 covers deriving support from a prostitute.

412
Q

What are the elements of deriving support from a prostitute?

A

The suspect knew that a person was a prostitute, And derived complete or partial support from the prostitutes earnings, or from money loaned, advanced or charged against her by any manager of a place where prostitution is practiced or allowed.

413
Q

What is the right of arrest for driving support from a prostitute?

A

Write a rest is a felony. The penalty in State Bennett Tannery five years mandatory minimum of two years, and fine of $5000.

414
Q

Explain deriving support.

A

The statute was enacted to punish the “pimp” which is why it’s a felony.

415
Q

CHAPTER 12
What is a Chapter and Section for posing a child for sexual photographs?

A

Chapter 272 section 29A.

416
Q

What is the purpose of the charge opposing a child for sexual photographs

A

The law outlaws using children as subjects for pornography because 1) it damages their emotional development 2) it is typically used by adult perpetrators to encourage other children to engage in sexual acts, and 3) it’s used by promoters for profit.

417
Q

What is the definition of lascivious intent?

A

Lascivious intent, is a state of mind in which the sexual gratification or arousal of any person is an objective.

418
Q

What’s the definition of visual material?

A

Visual material is broadly defined by section 31 to include “any motion picture film, picture, photograph, videotape, book, magazine, or pamphlet that contains pictures, photographs or similar visual representations or reproduction, or depiction by computer, telephone or any device is capable of electronic storage or transmission“

419
Q

What is a Chapter and Section for disseminating child pornography?

A

Chapter 272 section 29B.

420
Q

What are the elements of disseminating child pornography?

A

With lascivious intent, the suspect disseminate or possess with the intent to disseminate materials that contain the representation of a child under 18 in a state of nudity or participating in a sexual conduct, and the suspect knows or has sufficient reason to know about the contents of this visual material.

421
Q

What is the rate of arrest for disseminating child pornography?

A

It’s a felony right of arrest. State penitentiary no less than 10 years no more than 20 years. And or a larger amount between a fine of no lesson $10,000 no more than $50,000 or three times the monetary value of any economic game derive from dissemination.

422
Q

What is a Chapt and Section that covers possession of child pornography?

A

Chapter 272 section 29C.

423
Q

What are the elements of possession of child pornography?

A

Suspect purchased or possessed pornography in anyway, that depicted any child who the suspect new or recently should have known was under 18, and the suspect knew the nature or content of the pornographic material.

424
Q

What is the right of arrest for the possession of child pornography?

A

The felony ride of arrest. First offense penalty would be state penitentiary no more than five years or how is a correction know more than 2 1/2 years and or a fine of no less than 1000 no more than $10,000. Second offense state penitentiary no more than five years and or no less than a fine of $5000 or no more than $20,000. Third or subsequent offense state penitentiary no less than 10 years and or a fine of no less than 10,000 no more than $30,000.

425
Q

What is the definition of child pornography?

A

Section 29C defines pornography as a depiction of a child “actually or by simulation” engaging in the act of:

  • Sexual intercourse with person or animal
  • Masturbation
  • Lewd fondling or caressing involved in another person or animal
  • Secretion or urination with sexual context
  • Bondage for sadomasochism abuse in any sexual content
  • Proposing a child and a lude exhibition of unclosed child.
426
Q

For this chapter in section what is the definition of simulation?

A

A simulated image makes it appeared like the child is involved in sexual intercourse.

427
Q

What’s the definition of obscenity?

A

Obscene material massatisfy all three of the following requirements:

1) Prurient interest (A shameful or morbid interest in nudity, sex, or excretion, and unhealthy interest about sexual matters which is repugnant to prevailing moral standards)
2) Sexual conduct described or depicted
3) Lacks “value”. A reasonable person would find that material, taken as a whole lacks any serious literary, artistic, political or scientific value.

428
Q

What’s a Chapter in Section for incest?

A

Chapter 272 section 17.

429
Q

What are the elements for incest?

A

Sexual contact or marriage
-in a prohibited relationship specified in chapter 207 section 1 and two means those were related by blood or adoption. And example of this would be mother, grandmother, daughter, granddaughter, sister, brothers daughter niece, sisters daughter niece, father sister aunt, mother sister aunt or father, grandfather, son, grandson, brother, brother’s Son nephew, sister son nephew, fathers brother uncle, and mothers brother uncle.

430
Q

What is the right of arrest for incest?

A

It’s a felony right of arrest. The penalty is state penitentiary no more than 20 years or house of correctional more than 2 1/2 years.

431
Q

Incest does not cover those related by “affinity”. What does that mean?

A

Affinity refers to a non-blood relationship acquired through marriage.

432
Q

CHAPTER 13
For domestic violence and restraining orders what is Officer’s response and entry?

A

For the response police may broadcast and receive all relevant information pertaining to locations and suspects For domestic violence. Immediately proceed to the scene if possible. Possible the offices should not stop directly in front of the address. The building should be approached from the side, making officers less visible.
For a home entry, officers may enter onto private property to do the following: To serve a protective order, To quell an ongoing disturbance in restore the peace, at the request of someone in lawful control officers will be allowed to enter upon request.

433
Q

If both parties requested officers leave please must do so unless what?

A

Unless there’s exigency circumstances, to prevent physical harm or carry out provisions of chapter 209A.
The officers have reasonable suspicion the suspect is present. Typically officers should not except the word of a person in the door that all is well.

434
Q

What are some of the things when police should do when they make contact with people involved in domestic violence?

A

When please make contact with the parties they should do the following:

  • Explain their presence
  • Avoid movement and separate the parties as much as possible. Also control access to potential weapons.
  • Document all victim statements to include: 911 calls, statement in response to questions to secure the scene, statement and reports in response to questions by the victims medical condition.
435
Q

When you’re dealing with people involved in domestic violence what should happen during the interview?

A

Then officer should interview and observe everything. Getting detailed account of the victims demeanor injuries and statements. Talk to the children, ask the child OK and record their names and ages. Explain what is happening to the child. Take photos of injuries and physical evidence. Interview suspect. Learn about prior incidents.

436
Q

What is a Chapter and Section that deals with inducing a minor to become a prostitute?

A

Chapter 272 section 4A.

437
Q

What are the elements of the crime of inducing a minor to become a prostitute?

A

The elements of the crime is the suspect knowingly induced, or assisted a person under 18 to become a prostitute.

438
Q

What is the rate of arrest and penalty for inducing a minor to become a prostitute?

A

The felony right of arrest. Penalties State penitentiary no less than three years and no more than five years. A mandatory minimum of three years in a fine of $5000.

439
Q

What are the officers responsibilities at the scene of a 209A section 6 and EOPSS guidelines?

A

Officers are responsible for the following:
Determine the relationship of the person and abuser
-Find out if there was abuse if so what kind of abuse
-Remain on scene as long as victim is immediate physical danger without presence of police
-Assess victim in obtaining medical treatment
-Person in children to getting to a safe place to include a shelter or a family or friends home
-If officers need language services make sure they are provided
-Provide the victim the notice of rights in a persons native language and in English and make sure there’s a pre-printed copy of her rights to give them
-Provide emergency judicial response system (EJRS), If necessary uses after hours. 1) officers must call the on-call judge, 2) Record the protective order on the form, 3) Have a copy delivered to court on the next business day, 4) Inform the victim that she must appear in court the next business day.

440
Q

Under chapter 209A what is the definition of a family or household member?

A

Family or household member is defined by 209 a section 1 as people who are or were married, parents of a common child, involved in a substantiative dating or engagement relationship, related by blood or marriage, or living together. Regardless of family connection, people in the same dwelling qualify under 209 requirements. Also covered under this is Internet relationships even though there is no personal contact, related by blood or marriage in past protective relationships are covered including ex- stepchildren.

441
Q

It is important to remember that who is protected by a 209A order?

A

Men, women, adults and minors, students in elementary, high school, college or graduate school, and members of LGBTQ communities.

442
Q

What is the definition of abuse?

A

The standards of abuse is critical because it one trigger certain police responsibilities, and to justifies the courts an issue of a 209 a order. 209 a section 1 states that “abuse” occurs when a family member or household member forms one or more of the following acts:

  • Attempts are actually causes physical harm
  • Places another in fear of Imminent serious physical harm
  • Cause another to engage involuntarily And sexual relationships by force or threat.
  • Causes another to gauge involuntarily in sexual relationships by force or threat
443
Q

What is not eligible for a 209A order?

A

Harassment. However if you’re not eligible for a 209A order, consider the harassment prevention order (HPO). Under chapter 258E the HPO is a type of restraining order that does not depend on the relationship of the parties.

444
Q

What does EOPSS stand for domestic violence restraining orders?

A

EOPSS stands for the executive office of public safety and security domestic violence guidelines.

445
Q

What are the EOPSS guidelines on decisions to arrest?

A

Yo PSS guidelines list considerations that must perform in Officer’s decision to arrest. A list of considerations are of as follows:

  • Uncorroborated statements by victim me constitute probable cause to arrest
  • The arrest decision must be based on whether or not probable cause exists
  • When assessing in victims credibility, remember that infectum was under the influence of alcohol drugs, or supper from mental illness, is not inheritly unreliable,
  • One department statement that probably cause to arrest exist shall be honored by another department.
  • All officers will attempt to make a warrantless arrest within a reasonable amount of time
  • It is not proper procedure to advise a victim to seek complaint applications on his or her own
446
Q

What are arrest authority and obligations?

A

A mandatory arrest for violations of temporary or permanent orders is in effect issued by any jurisdiction

  • Arrest the “preferred response “for domestic violence incidents absent in existing order whenever the officers have probable cars at the suspect did the following:
  • Committed a felony
  • Committed an A&B on a family or household member or
  • A misdemeanor directed at a family or household member involving abuse.
447
Q

Is cooperation needed of a victims account for probable cars or convection?

A

No cooperation is not required.

448
Q

What kind of arrest for domestic violence are frowned upon?

A

Dual arrests.

449
Q

Why should duress be disfavored?

A

They trivialize the seriousness of domestic abuse and increase the danger to the victims. Officers should never threaten or suggest that all parties will be arrested in effort to discouraged request for law-enforcement and for intervention. Officer Cheryl always attempt to identify the dominant aggressor.

450
Q

Explain dominant aggressor indicators

A

Officers must consider the relationship history, the size and strength, nature of force used by the parties, the existence of offensive or defensive injuries, and any other evidence collected.

451
Q

When trying to determine the dominant aggressor what is something that you have to consider?

A

Dominant aggressor is not automatically the person who is force first, but they may still be arrested due to previous history of domestic violence. Battered women syndrome may be the reason for the victim to use force first. For example, if the victim was repeatedly involved in domestic violence, they learn to recognize a sign of impending assaults and may take action first. So keep this in mind before you make an arrest.

452
Q

What are some examples of offensive injuries typically found on a victim?

A

Punches, bruises on the back, back of legs, barracks maybe from kicks, bumps on the back of the head, bleeding from the nose, lip or shut eye, called hair, strangulation marks on neck fortune area.

453
Q

What examples of defense of wounds, typically inflicted upon the aggressor?

A

Shoving, slapping, or person as opposed to punching, scratches or bites, groin injuries or foot injuries, scratches or bites to the midsection from holding the victim, bite scratches on the forearms her hands, scratches to the victims face and neck in suspect hands and arms that may have been done during strangulation, preemptive preemptive strike from the victim by trying to object to delay the suspect an aid and victims escape.

454
Q

For law-enforcement officers involved in allegations of domestic abuse, police must not receive preferential treatment according to EOPSS. So At a minimum what should be done?

A

Dispatch must immediately notify the OIC about any allegations concerning domestic violence in law Enforcement officers, all 209A EOPSS guidelines apply equally to the accused officers. A supervisor of a higher rank than the accused officer must be summoned to the scene. The OIC must ensure the following: appropriate enforcement actions were taken. If accused officer is outside that agency, the OIC of that agency is notified as soon as possible. If the accused member is from the responding agency, the Chief is notified as soon as possible. All department issued firearms privately on weapons or surrendered for the 209A orders or department policies. Follow up Internal affairs investigation is commenced, appropriate victim services are provided.

455
Q

Can we enforce out of state orders here in Mass?

A

Yes it is mandatory to enforce out of state orders and the court will be treat the ider as if it was originated in Massachusetts.

456
Q

What chapter and section makes out-of-state enforcement mandatory?

A

209A section 5A

457
Q

What are the post-arrest procedures officers mistake when it comes to the victim?

A

Officers must make reasonable attempt to inform the victim about the abuses bail and whether or not he will be released. Also they’ll be no release for 6 hours.

458
Q

What is the Police responsibilities for incident reports and police logs?

A

Officers must file a written incident report for any situation involving abuse. 209A reports are confidential and therefore must be kept out of the police log under chapter 41 section 98F. Any information concerning reports of domestic violence, rape, sexual assault and any entry about the rest of the person for assault, A&B, or violation of a 209A order also kept out of public logs.

459
Q

What are police responsibilities for domestic abuse involving children, disabled person, or elders present at the scene of the disturbance?

A

Officers are mandated reporters and must report it to protective services ASAP!

460
Q

What are officer responsibilities for firearms and weapons control during domestic violence calls?

A

Officers should see any cancer weapons that may have been used during the instant. If guns or weapons were not used during the crime that offices should take any weapons if inhabitant requested. Request temporary custody of any weapons to alleviate threats of violence. Also the temporary removal of weapons is reasonable to a dangerous situation. If officers determine weapon or firearm cannot be seized because it’s not evidence of the crime or removal is not can send it to Tama may ask a judge to grant a surrender and suspension order. But the chief of police may revoke or suspend a gun license. This is done by advising the licensing authority that a suspect of the license is suspected of abuse.

461
Q

Review Massachusetts domestic violence orders chart

A
462
Q

What orders for domestic violence or consider more important? District in superior court orders or probate and Family Court orders?

A

Probate and family court orders supercede any district and superior court orders.

463
Q

CHAPTER 17
What is a simple approach to applying gun laws in the field even though they are or could be complicated?

A
  • the Paramount concern is Public and officer safety.
  • Once a weapon insecure, assess the situation after
  • When in doubt about an arrest, confiscate the weapon instead
  • Decide whether to pursue criminal and or administrative remedies or both after
464
Q

What is important for a gun call Field response when it comes to a suspect?

A

You must obtain adequate description of a suspect. For example if you just get a man “waving a gun” is not sufficient for reasonable suspicion of a suspect. You must have a complete description of the suspect in order to get reasonable suspicion.

465
Q

For sufficient reasonable suspicion of criminal activity What do officers have to have?

A

Oscars must have at least one other reason why a suspect probably possessions the gun unlawfully. This is referred to the “plus”factor.

466
Q

For the plus one factor for why the suspect probably probably possesses the gun unlawfully, What are some of the factors that could be used as plus one?

A
  • Appears to be under 21
  • Is not using a holster
  • Brandished or displayed again
  • Loaded a gun in public
  • Person is in eligible for LTC
  • Fired a gun
  • Threaten someone with a gun
  • Engaged in an on-street sale
  • Possesses a gun typically used in a crime ( sawed off shotgun)
  • Possesses again connected with a crime
  • Person is impaired (no person may ever be impaired while carrying a gun)
  • Person is acting out of control and a threat to public safety
467
Q

What is one thing that works in the officers favor for possession of firearm cases?

A

Chapter 140 section 129 requires citizens to produce their license upon demand.

468
Q

When a person is asked producer license upon demand what are some things you need to know?

A
  • No Miranda is necessary when an officer what is a suspect to produce a license. Miranda warnings are not required when an officer demands “physical evidence”.
  • The burden is on the suspect to prove he has a valid license
  • The lack of gun knowledge is never a defense.
469
Q

What follows under Administrative misconduct for guns?

A

Expiration change of address or license restrictions for a (FID) fire arm IDs or (LTC) license to carry

470
Q

What is a good way to remember administrative misconduct for FIDs or LTC’s?

A

ARE

  • Address
  • Restrictions
  • Expiration
471
Q

What is the renewal exception?

A

This is where a person applied for a renewal and has not received an answer. The only time you can’t use the renewal exception is if the persons application was denied orally or in writing already. It is the suspects burden to prove that he qualifies for the renewal exception.

472
Q

What are the rules when it comes to changing an address for a license to carry or a FID card?

A

License holders must within 30 days of moving, send notice by certified mail to the following

1) The original licensing authority
2) The authority in the new community
3) And CJIS.

473
Q

What are the charges for the FID or LTC being invalid for the sole reason of failure to notify authorities of change of address?

A

This is a civil fine only, there is no arrest allowed. Make charge them only with the maximum criminal fine.

474
Q

What does LA stand for?

A

Licensing authority

475
Q

What does MIRCS stand for?

A

Massachusetts Instant Records Check System.

476
Q

What can the LA check for reasons for license action?

A

The licensing authority may check one of over a dozen listed reasons for the license action, including issuance of restraining orders or convictions of a disqualifying crime. If none of the specified reasons apply, the LTC or FID can be suspended or revoked for unsuitability. In this case this means that the LA has reliable information that an applicant or license holder presents a risk to public safety.

477
Q

If a LTC or FID is suspended for “unsuitability” what does MIRCS do?

A

Generates a letter notifying the licensee and requiring that he surrender his guns and ammunition to the police department where he resides.

478
Q

What are two standards that can revoke or suspend a LTC or FID?

A

The unsuitability standard, and the risk to public safety standard.

479
Q

If the FID suspended or revoked based on unsuitability, What is an additional step that the LA must do?

A

You must file a petition to the District Court, which is heard after the suspension or revocation commences.

480
Q

If a person fails to surrender without a delay what is an additional charge?

A

Chapter 269 section 10(i) requires immediate suspension surrender of license firearm and or ammunition. Whether or not the license holder plans to appeal is irrelevant.

481
Q

Unless serious cases what made the LA do instead of immediate confiscation?

A

They may allow the licensee to keep their guns while they were appeals are pending in district court.

482
Q

What is a ERPO?

A

It stands for an extreme risk protection order. This is where if a person refuses to allow the police to enter the home to delay confiscation, the police may order the occupants to remain outside and the police secure the home while a search warrant is applied for.

483
Q

What is the advantage of an ERPO?

A

There is no advantage, it is just a tool that we can use. It is better to go through the licensing authority because it is for far more efficient than an ERPO.

484
Q

For criminal cases of gun charges when is it OK to charge with numerous charges for the same case?

A
  • Unlawful possession and improper storage may both be charged.
  • each uninterrupted period of possession is one charge each. For example if a defendant possesses a rifle when he goes out to confront someone on the street, then goes back into the home and later comes back out again he could be properly charged with two counts of unlawful possession.
485
Q

What is constructive possession?

A

The suspect must know about the gun, intended to possess it, and had the ability to physically control it.

486
Q

What is one way to remember what you need for proof of constructive possession?

A
KIC
K - Knew about the gun
I - Intended to possess it
C - Had the ability to physically control it
-knew - intended - control it
487
Q

What are some examples of proof of constructive possession?

A
  • Suspect may possess a Hidden or discarded gun
  • Suspect me a pier with fire arm in social media posts
  • Fingerprint evidence links a gun to a suspect
488
Q

If they suspect does not have exclusive control over the gun can a suspect be charged constructive possession?

A

No the suspect does not have to exercise exclusive control in order to be charged.

489
Q

Can two people be charged with unlawful possession of the same gun?

A

Yes it is Possible. Person can be charged as an accomplice of unlawful possession if he knew the Principal had a gun, intended to use it and had control of it.

490
Q

In order to charge someone with a firearm where do they have to prove?

A

You need to have proof that It is a “working” firearm.

491
Q

What is six ways to prove that it is a “working” firearm, rifle, or shotgun?

A

1) Ballistics testimony
2) Observed firing a gun
3) Recovered gun has a “spent” cartridge
4) Police expert “dry fired” gun
- Arresting officer fired the gun
- The owner testified she fired the gun

492
Q

What are two things that you can’t do anymore to prove that again could fire?

A

In is insufficient to say that they turned it in and came back with a fired cartridge, need the report to say it was test fired.
-Gun has to be proved that it was operational at the time of the offense.

493
Q

What can a suspect be charged with for a loaded firearm?

A

The suspect may be charged with a gun, feeding device, and the ammunition is three separate charges. Or the suspect maybe charge with an enhanced penalty for a loaded gun under Chpt 269 section 10(n).

494
Q

What can’t you charge a suspect with numerous offenses of?

A

You may not charge for enhance penalty of a loaded weapon and unlawful possession of ammunition because it’s considered double Jeopardy.

495
Q

What does a police officer have to prove for chapter 269 section 10(n) violation?

A

Must prove that the suspect knew the gun was Loaded.
Please can do this by the following:
If you can see the ammunition, like in in a revolver
-The defendants fingerprints were on the magazine in the pistol
-Fire him was carried on the person
-Firearm was “ready for use”
-Firearm was used as a weapon for example placed a muzzle in a persons face
-Defendant statements show knowledge of firearms
-Or statements in response to police questions after providing Miranda

496
Q

What is ammunition defined as in Chpt 269 s 10(o)?

A

Cartridges or cartridge case, primers igniter, bullets or propellant powder designed for using any firearm, rifle, or shotgun.

497
Q

What is proof of ammunition?

A

It’s not necessary to prove that ammunition is capable of being fired, rather that the ammunition is “designed for use” in any gun.
-This is a bullet and it is designed for the use in this gun

498
Q

What is proof of knowledge for large capacity weapons?

A

They are three things to know if the gun was “large capacity”.

  • Semi automatic
  • Capable of holding more than 10 rounds or
  • More than five shotgun shells
499
Q

What are the rules under chapter 140 section 129C for possession of a gun and a home or business?

A

Citizens are required to have at least an F ID to possess a firearm in their home or their business.

500
Q

If a person does not have a LTC can they purchase a firearm?

A

Yes a dealer is allowed to sell a person a firearm if they just have an FID and a permit to purchase, provided the dealer delivers the firearm to the purchasers home or business.

501
Q

Are you allowed to have a firearm in your home or business if you don’t have a LTC?

A

Yes you are allowed to have a firearm in your home or your business that you own but you may not leave the business or home with the weapon, otherwise you will be charged.

502
Q

What is the exception for possessing a fire arm at your business?

A

You have to own the business. You cannot just bring a weapon to a place of employment that you do not own.

503
Q

What are three things you can be charged under a chapter 269 section 10(h)?

A

1) Unlawful possession of ammunition
2) Possession of a gun and home or business without an FID
3) Community gun ( felony)

504
Q

What is the definition of a firearm?

A

1) A pistol or other weapon, loaded or unloaded
2) They can discharge a shot or bullet and
3) Has barrel or barrels less than 16 inches in length or 18 inches for a shotgun as originally manufactured.

505
Q

What do you need in order to carry a firearm?

A

In public you need a LTC

  • Home or your own business LTC
  • if you’re exempt FID.
506
Q

Was Is the right of arrest if you don’t have a LTC or FID and carrying a firearm?

A

Under chapter 269 section 10(a) it is a felony all right of arrest

507
Q

What’s the definition of a large capacity firearm?

A

1) Semi automatic and
2) Capable of or readily modified to accept any detachable large capacity feeding device for more than 10 rounds of ammunition.

508
Q

What do you need to carry a large capacity firearm?

A

In public you need a LTC

Home or business you need a LTC or FID

509
Q

What is the right of arrest for carrying a large capacity firearm without LTC?

A

Under chapter 269 section 10 M it’s a felony right of arrest.
- In your home or business only charge Chpt 269 section 10(h) authorizing warrantless arrest on probable cause.

510
Q

What’s the definition of a rifle?

A

A rifle bar and barrel length equal to or greater than 16 inches, capable of discharging a shot or a bullet for each pole of the trigger.

511
Q

What do you need to carry a rifle?

A
  • In public you need a LTC, or FID exempt

- In your home or business it’s the same.

512
Q

What are the charges for carrying a rifle without a LTC or FID?

A

Say felony right arrest a new chapter 269 section 10(a). If it home or business is the same, but if no license only charge to 69 section 10(h) authorizing warrantless arrest on probable cause.

513
Q

What’s the definition of a shotgun?

A

Smoothbore in barrel length equal to or greater than 18 inches, overall length equal to or greater than 26 inches, capable of discharging a shot for each pull of the trigger.

514
Q

What do you need to carry a shotgun?

A

In public in LTC, F ID, exempt

-Home or business is the same

515
Q

What is the right arrest in charges for caring a shotgun?

A

It’s a felony right of arrest under 269 section 10 a. But if no license for home or business only charge 269 section 10(h) authorizing warrantless arrest on probable cause.

516
Q

What’s the definition of a large capacity rifle?

A

1) Semi automatic and

2) Capable of excepting any large capacity feeding device more than 10 rounds.

517
Q

What do you need to carry a large capacity rifle?

A

Public, home, or business a LTC.

518
Q

What is the red arrest for curing a large capacity rifle?

A

A felony right of arrest under chapter 269 section 10(m).

519
Q

What’s the definition of a sawed off shotgun?

A

A modified shotgun with one or more barrels less than 18 inches long, or overall length of less than 26 inches.

520
Q

What do you need to carry a sawed-off shotgun?

A

There is no justification or license for possession of a sawed off shotgun.

521
Q

What is the right of arrest for caring is sawed-off shotgun?

A

What is a felony right of arrest under chapter 269 Section 10 (c).

522
Q

What’s the definition of a machine gun?

A

Any weapon, loaded or unloaded, from which a number of bullets may be automatically discharged by one trigger activation.

523
Q

What do you need to have a machine gun?

A

Public, home, or business you need a machine gun license (MGL) only. Note: only law-enforcement instructors were special personal, or bona fide collectors are eligible to relate receive a MGL.

524
Q

What is the rate of arrest for carrying a machine gun?

A

It’s a felony right of arrest in Chpt 269 section 10 (c).

525
Q

What is the definition of a bump stock?

A

Any device for up in the increases the rate of fire achievable by using energy from the recoil of the weapon to generate reciprocating action that facilitates eight repeated activation of the trigger.

526
Q

What do you need to have a bump stock?

A

There’s no justification or license for possession of a bump stock. And the chapter 140 section 131 (o).

527
Q

What is the right of arrest for having a bump stock?

A

It is a felony right of arrest under Chpt 269 section 10(c).

528
Q

What’s the definition of a trigger crank?

A

Any device to be attached to a weapon that repeatedly activates a trigger of the weapon through the use of a lover or other part that is turned into a circular motion. Does not include any weapon initially designed manufactured to fire through the use of a crank or lever.

529
Q

What do you need to carry a trigger crank?

A

There’s no justification or license for possession of a trigger crank under chapter 140 section 131 (o).

530
Q

What is the right of arrest for having a trigger crank?

A

Felony ROA ( Rights of arrest) under chapter 269 s 10(c).

531
Q

What’s the definition of a covert weapon?

A

Under chapter 140 section 131N: any weapon capable of discharging a shot in a shape that does not resemble a handgun, rifle, or shotgun including but not limited to keychains, pens, cigarette lighters, or packages. Or not detectable by extra machines or metal detectors as a weapon.

532
Q

What’s a justification for caring a covert weapon?

A

No justification or license for possession of covert weapons.

533
Q

What is the right of arrest for a covert weapon?

A

It is a felony ROA under chapter 140 section 131N.

534
Q

What is the definition of a stun gun?

A

A stun gun is a firearm under chapter 140 section 121. It is defined as a “portable device or weapon, regardless of whether it passes in electrical shock by means of a dart or projectile beat via a wire lead, from which an electrical current, impulse, wave, or beam is designed to incapacitate temporarily, injure, or kill”.

535
Q

What do you need to carry a stun gun?

A

A LTC or exemption under chapter 140 section 29C.

536
Q

What is the ROA for having a stun gun?

A

The RO a is a felony right of arrest under chapter 269 section 10(a). Any citizen who possesses a standgun without a LTC commits an unlawful possession of a firearm. Rest is not mandatory, however given the confusion around the legal status of stung guns, some officers are wisely choosing, inappropriate cases to see is the stung gun and apply for a criminal complaint. Note to get an LTC for a stun gun the applicant does not have to take a firearm safety course.

537
Q

What is the definition of a BB, air or CO2 gun?

A

A weapon that expells a light projector isle by means of Pneumatic power or pressurized gas. “Airsoft “in paintball guns are included.

538
Q

What do you need to carry a BB, air or CO2 gun?

A

It’s caring in public a person 18 and over may possess without a license. A minor under 18 must either one be a comp company by an adult, to have a sporting license and permit from local police chief, and no one may discharge over public way.
-For private property no license is required, regardless of age, if the gun is possessed in a private place and not discharged. Under chapter 269 section 12B.

539
Q

What is a ROA for a BB, air or CO2 gun?

A

You should only confiscate and write a complaint under chapter 269 section 12B for anyone who shoots us in public or private way.

540
Q

What is the definition of a large capacity feeding device?

A

It fixed or detachable magazine, box, drum, feed strip, or device capable of accepting, or readily converted to except, more than 10 rounds of ammunition or more than five shotgun shells. )Not including a tubular device for only .22 caliber ammunition.)

541
Q

What do you need to have a large capacity feeding device?

A

In public a LTC
At home or your business, LTC, FID with permit to purchase for device related to gun and permit is sufficient under chapter 140 section 131E. There’s an exemption: LC magazines lawfully play possessed before 9/13/94 are legal.

542
Q

What’s the definition of a silencer?

A

Under chapter 269 section 10A: Any instrument or attachment for causing the firing noise of any gun to be silenced, lessons or muffled.

543
Q

What do you need to carry a silencer?

A

Possession only by federal firearms manufacturers, and mass training counsel, or law-enforcement officer acting under direct authorization of chief, designee, or Colonel.

544
Q

What is the right of arrest for carrying a silencer?

A

It is a felony ROA under chapter 269 s 10A.

545
Q

What is the definition of ammunition?

A

Cartridges or cases, primers igniter, bullets or propellant powder designed for any fire arm, rifle or shotgun.

546
Q

What do you need to carry ammunition?

A

Public, home or business you need a LTC, FID, exemption. Under commonwealth versus Truong empty cartridge case is sufficient for a convection, but do not charge for obvious collectables or souvenir.

547
Q

What is ROA for carrying ammunition?

A

Under chapter 269 section 10(h) it’s a warrantless arrest on PC.

548
Q

What is the definition of self defense spray

A

SDS which is defined as Mace, OCME, or other incapacitating substance.

549
Q

What do you need to carry a self defense spray?

A

All citizens ages 18 over me purchase and possess self-defense praise which they do not need any type of license. Under chapter 140 section 122C.

550
Q

What are the exceptions to the general rule of lawful possession of self-defense spray?

A

Citizens disqualified from receiving an S ID may not purchase or possess a self defense spray under chapter 140 section 122D. Also citizens who are ages 15, 16, or 17 my only purchase or possess self-defense spray if they have a valid FID card with parents permission.

551
Q

Under exceptions to license requirements for firearms what is the transfer to heir 180 day grace period exemption?

A

This is for a possession only provided that the recipient shall within 180 days of the transfer, obtain an F ID or LTC if not otherwise exempt. The recipient may be granted an extension by licensing authority.

552
Q

Under chapter 140 section 129C for the state exemptions of an imitation firearm what do you charge him with?

A

For firearms that are imitations and incapable of discharging a shot or a bullet, he will charge person assault with a deadly weapon charge only.

553
Q

Under chapter 140 section 121 what is the antique firearms exemption?

A

Antiques or guns that may have been designed before 1900, but they are not exempt unless they were manufactured before 1900. Even though they are exempt check whether the guns loaded, Cesar gun as evidence and avoid making rest of this a question, we search the serial numbers, and apply for a complaint or we turn the gun.

554
Q

What is the federal exemption for traveling from state to state
with firearms?

A

Federal law 18 USC section 926A, allows a person to transport a firearm in ammunition to various states, provided that the traveler is licensed to carry firearm in both states of origin in the state of destination.

555
Q

What are the exemptions under chapter 140 section 129C for non-residence possessing rifles, shotguns and ammunition in Massachusetts?

A

The nonresident must:

  • Meet the requirements of the state where he lives
  • Have a valid nonresident hunting license during hunting season
  • Be at a shooting range
  • Be traveling in or through Massachusetts with his handguns unloaded and carried in a enclosed container
  • Be at firearms display organized by an existing and collectors club
  • Or be 18 or older when acquiring a rifle or shotgun.
556
Q

Are there any exceptions for aliens that have green cards?

A

There are no exemptions for aliens. They are eligible to apply for resident LTC’s in if IDs in Massachusetts if their residence.

557
Q

What are exemptions for firearms in a chapter 140 section 129C for new residents?

A

Any resident has a 60 day grace period. Any resident absent from the state for no longer than 180 consecutive days, or resident released from active service from military, may possess, but not carry in public, firearms, rifles, shotgun, and emanation for 60 days.

558
Q

What are some things that do not follow under exemptions for firearms?

A
  • If a person is a resident more permanent than a visitor like living with a girlfriend
  • Large capacity are not covered
  • License from another state or not covered. Although I suspect has a violent firearms license from the state he only has 60 days from the time he becomes a Massachusetts resident to get an LTC here.
559
Q

What is the exemption for Fireman a chapter 146 and 131G for properly license for exhibition or hunting?

A
  • Must be a US resident And
  • Has a valid LTC from another state
  • And has if his purpose is to hunt, a license issued by the place where he intends to hunt. In lawn Forssman under section 131G. Non-resident law-enforcement officers may carry firearms in mess.
560
Q

How does an alien get an F ID card under chapter 140, and chapter 131 each?

A

They’ll be no temporary FID for firearms is available for non-residence because there are so many exemptions. Alien F ID under the shelter and Section may be issued by the Colonel for a rifle or shotgun. Colonel must notify the chief with Alien resides.

561
Q

What is a FUI?

A

It’s carrying a firearmarm while under the influence of liquor or drugs. This falls under chapter 269 section 10 H. If the person is simply unlicensed then it is a felony unlawful possession under chapter 269 section 10.

562
Q

What are the charges for discharging a firearm within 500 feet of a dwelling or building in use?

A

You are too compass key in criminal complaint Under 269 section 12E.

563
Q

What are the charges for discharging a firearm on or near a highway?

A

Under chapter 131 section 87 it’s a warrantless in presence.

564
Q

What are the charges for caring a rifle or shotgun on a public weigh and what is an example of this?

A

No person shall carry on any public way either loaded rifle or shotgun or unloaded rifle or shotgun unless it’s in an enclosed case under chapter 269 section 12 D. The ROA is warrantless in the presence, or a felony if it’s large capacity. 12 D does not apply to launch voice mint or any authorize military use, hunters validly licensed, commemorative ceremonies permitted by law, or a licensed shooting gallery. An example of caring a rifle or shotgun on a public way would be the militia Moore’s there a charge with 269 section 12 D for having the standoff on the highway.

565
Q

What are the charges for possession of a gun with the feast serial number?

A

He will confiscate the gun and write a complaint it is a $500 fine misdemeanor. Under chapter 269 section 11 see states that showing the suspect possessed again with a device serial number is without more sufficient proof of guilt. It’s a suspects burden to prove he did not know it had a defaced serial number.

566
Q

What are the charges for improper storage of any gun if someone under 18 has potential access to it

A

It is a felony under chapter 140 section 131L.

567
Q

What is considered improper storage of a firearm?

A

At all times it’s unlocked container, have a trigger guard in working order, or under the direct control of a person.

568
Q

CHAPTER 18
What is a summary of caring a dangerous weapon under Chpt 269 section 10(b)?

A

Chapter 269 section 10(b). Discovers two distinct offenses:

1) A person may not carry a purse say weapon listed in the statute or
2) A person may not carry a weapon that is not listed if he’s being arrested under a warrant, without a warrant for breach of the peace.

569
Q

What are the elements under Type 1: per se dangerous weapons?

A
  • A suspect Knowingly carried on his person or under his control in a vehicle
  • On the laundry list of weapons :
  • Knives- stilettos, daggers, devices of cases which enables a knife with a lucky blade to be drawn any luck position, ballistic knives, nice with the detachable blade capable of being propelled by any mechanism, Dirk knives, double edge knives, switch knives, knives with automatic spring and the handle that releases a blade over one and half inches
  • martial arts - nunchucks, Zubao, also known as Clacker‘s or kung fu sticks, or any similar weapon consisting of two sticks of wood, plastic, or metal connected at one end by a rope, chain or leather, a Shuriken or any other similar pointed star like object intended to injure when thrown, any leather arm band which has a metallic spike, a cystis or similar material weighted with metal or other substance in worn on the hand, a manrikigusari Or any similar length of chain having weighted ends
  • Miscellaneous- A slungshot like David and Goliath, a blowgun, blackjack, Metallic knuckles, or knuckles of any certain substance which could be put to the same use with some similar or same affect as metallic knuckles
570
Q

What are Type 2: non-per se weapon possess during an arrest?

A
  • The suspect was arrested by warrant or breach of the peace
  • At the time of rest he carried on his person or under his control in a vehicle
  • A billy club, or other dangerous weapon that is not mentioned on the otherwise punishable under chapter 269 section 10. Note this offense is inapplicable to firearms, rifles, shotguns, and all the per se weapons mentioned above.
571
Q

For chapter 269 section 10 what is the definition of a vehicle?

A

A Vehicle could include a camper that is in the bed of a truck.

572
Q

CHAPTER 19
What chapter and Section deals with explosives, WMDs, and other dangerous or hoax devices?

A

Chapter 266 sections 101 - 102D.

573
Q

The purpose and summary of explosive, WMD, and other dangerous or hoax devices is a “seven up “coverage.

A

This is a series of statutes broadened the coverage of mess laws pertaining to explosives in other dangerous devices. Seven activities, listed from least to most dangerous are prohibited are the following:

  • Possession of a hoax device
  • Possession of an explosive ingredient
  • Possession of an ingredient for weapons of mass destruction
  • Possession of an explosive, incendiary, or destructive device or substance
  • Placing an explosive, incendiary, or destructive device or substance
  • Exploding an explosive, incendiary, or destructive device or substance and
  • Possession of a WMD or delivery system.
574
Q

What is the definition of a biological weapon?

A

Any microorganism, virus, infectious substance, or biological product or any component specifically prepared in a manner to cause death, disease, or other biological malfunction in humans, other living organisms, food, water, or the environment.

575
Q

What’s the definition of black powder?

A

A compound or mixture of sulfur charcoal in alkali nitrate.

576
Q

What’s the definition of a chemical weapon?

A

Toxic chemical or substance designed cause death or bodily harm including the device designed to release it.

577
Q

What is a hoax explosive, device, or weapon?

A

Any device, article, or substance that would cause a person to reasonably believe that it is an explosive, a destructive or Incendiary device or substance, or a biological or nuclear weapon, Harmful radioactive substance, or poison capable of causing bodily injury

578
Q

What are the elements for explosives, WMD, and other dangerous or hoax devices under chapter 266 section 101 through 102D?

A

Without lawful authority a suspect possessed or placed any hoax explosive or device or chemical with the intent to cause anxiety or personal discomfort to any person or group of persons.

579
Q

What are the elements for Type 2 Explosive ingredients, covered by chapter 266 section 102 (a)

A

A suspect without lawful authority has under his control an explosive ingredient which alone or in combination could be used to make a destructive device with the intent to make the destructive device or substance.

580
Q

What are the elementa for Type 3 WMD ingredients covered under chapter 266 section 102 (a)?

A

Any suspect who possesses or head under his control without lawful authority and ingredient which alone or inombination could be used to make a chemical, biological, or nuclear weapon with the intent to make a WMD.

581
Q

What are the elements for tape for explosive devices covered under chapter 266 section 102C?

A

Any suspect possessed or had control under his control without lawful authority an explosive or destructive or incendiary device or substance. The suspect does not need to “intend” to use the device.

582
Q

Under chapter 269 section 14 explain elements for threats concerning the location of dangerous items or a hijack?

A

This is basically a bomb threat law. The suspect willfully communicated or caused to be communicated either directly or indirectly by any means to include mail, telephone, email, Internet, or fax a threat of a dangerous item (Firearm, explosive device, chemical agent, poison, radioactive substance, or any other device capable of causing death, serious bodily injury, or substantial property damage whether or not it is true, In order to hijack an aircraft, ship, or common carrier which causes anxiety, fear or personal discomfort to any person or group of persons. This is a felony right of arrest for state penitentiary no more than 20 years or has a correction no more than 2 1/2 years and or a fine of no more than $10,000. There can be aggravated offenses where either they of actuation or series disruption of a school or public transport causes serious public inconvenience or alarm. They’ll be covered under state penitentiary no less than three years a no more than 20 years or house of correction no less than six months or no more than 2 1/2 years in or fine no less than $1000 no more than $50,000. Also there is a mandatory restitution in which a person found guilty Shelby order to make restitution for any financial loss.

583
Q

Under the bomb threat law chapter 269 section 14 What do you need to know about the threat in order to charge this?

A

The threat may be explicit or implied but it must be clear. Also threats must involve a weapon that is or will be present. For example someone stated it’s a good thing I don’t have a gun because half the school would be dead because I hate them there was no probable cause to charge this because the juvenile never suggested a gun was all would be present. In fact the juvenile said he did not have a gun.

584
Q

For threats to commit a dangerous act at a location or hijack what needs to be communicated in order to be charged?

A

Threats need only to be committed communicated to a non-accomplice. If something is planned and they wanted to ask you a terrorist type attack on high school for example as long as it was communicated to a person with a threat they can be charge for 269 section 14. In Commonwealth versus Kearns, the suspect planned this event and told to students and wanted them to join, but the two students felt discomfort and was scared and told on him. He was able to be charge for this

585
Q

CHAPTER 19
What is the chapter and section covers sale or possession of fireworks?

A

Chapter 148 section 39 explains anyone suspect that possesses, exploded or possessed for sale fireworks can be charged with this for a warrantless rest in the presence. For possessing or causing to exploding me charged by confiscation and complaint under chapter 148 section 39 you will not arrest unless there are additional charges.

586
Q

How do you secure or store confiscated possessed exploded or possess for sale fireworks?

A

Must notify the fire marshal and securely store the items per their suggestion. Upon conviction they are forfeited and disposed of.

587
Q

What is the definition of a firework?

A
Section 39 defines if I work as “any article which was prepared for the purpose of producing a visible or audible affect by combustion, explosion, deflagration or detonation.“ The section goes on to name a variety of fireworks at follow under this such as: Blank cartridges
-Toy cannons
-Cherry bombs
-Silver salutes
-M 80s
-Roman candles
-Sparklers
-Rockets
-
588
Q

What does the definition of fireworks exclude as being a firework?

A

Caps used in cap guns as long as they contain 2500 screen or less of explosive compound

589
Q

Chapter 20 Narcotics
What are the five classes of a controlled substance?

A

Classes ABCD and E. They are put it in categories according to their chemical composition and affect on the human body.

590
Q

What are analogues?

A

Chemically similar substances that have the same stimulant depressant or hallucinogenic effects as classified narcotics.

591
Q

What falls under Class A Controlled substances?

A

Heroin,
-fentanyl
-Carfentanil
-morphine, -flunitrazepam,
-gamma hudroxy Butyric,Acid (GHB)
-Ketamine a.k.a. “special K”,
-any synthetic opioid defined in schedule I or II under federal law.

592
Q

What are Class B controlled substances?

A

-Cocaine
-codeine
-methadone
-OxyCotin, oxycodone and Percocet, -Amphetamines, -methamphetamines, -PCP a.k.a. angel dust, -LSD, lysergic acid diethylamide
- opium
-P to P, PCH, or PCC, -MDMA AKA ecstasy
-Phenmetrazine
-Percodone (Diethylamide)
-Dilaudid

593
Q

What is a Class C controlled substance?

A

Valium
-synthetic marijuana, -Librium
-morphine and codeine in certain amounts, -flurazepam
-prazepam, -Hallucinogenic substances including dimethoxyamphetamine (aka STP)
-Mesculine
-peyote
-psilocybin
-Bath salts (MDMC), MDPV Or variations.

594
Q

What is a class D substance?

A

Marijuana with any concentration of tetrahydrocannibal (THC), Barbital, phenobarbital.

595
Q

What are class E substances?

A

Any prescription drugs not listed in any other class, compounds with small percentages of codeine, morphine, or opium, Neurontin (gabapentin)

596
Q

For any offense involving drug possession what does a Commonwealth’s have to prove?

A

-possession of -distribution, commonwealth must -prove the class of drugs involved.
-proof of weight

597
Q

Is a certificate of analysis good for court?

A

No it is insufficient proof. The supreme court rejected a long-standing practice in Massachusetts. Prosecutor is used to prove the type, weight, and or purity of a controlled substance by presenting a certificate in court filled out by the laboratory analyst. They said certificate of analysis is no longer prove by itself do to Melendez – Diaz vs Massachusetts

598
Q

How do you prove the type of controlled substance?

A

-Laboratory testing is conclusive provided that a laboratory analyst is available to testify at trial.
-Field testing, the officer who performed the field test must testify that he was Certified to do that.

599
Q

Explain Commonwealth vs Dawson explain circumstantial evidence

A

“Proof that a substance is a particular drug, maybe made circumstantial evidence “.

600
Q

What is insufficient for proving the type of controlled substance?

A

Visual inspection or price paid, odor of substance is insufficient except from marijuana, a taste test,

601
Q

What are some things that you can use as sufficient evidence of a controlled substance?

A

-Prescription medication may be identified by sight if there is a number written on it, -Odor of marijuana, -Paraphernalia found near drugs,
-Drug secured in a scared area,
-Suspects admission, suspects response to request,
-suspect showed signs of consumption a.k.a. “high”, suspect linked to stash, roommates testimony.

602
Q

What kind of cases do you need to have sufficient proof of weight?

A

Only in trafficking cases

603
Q

How may sufficient proof of weight be proved?

A

Testimony of analyst who weighed the drugs, testimony of the officer who weighed the drugs on a scale,
-obvious amount may be inferred from the Officer testimony in actual substance,
-or the defendant admitted quantity possessed.

604
Q

How do you prove sufficient proof of purity?

A

The live testimony of a laboratory analyst.

605
Q

What is necessary to prove in virtually all drug offenses?

A

That the suspect was shown to have illegally possessed a controlled substance

606
Q

How would one prove that the suspect illegally possessed a controlled substance?

A

Momentary possession is sufficient, person must be in possession of a quantity of drugs and not simply The under the influence according to Robinson vs California.

607
Q

Explain chain of custody?

A

The chain of custody proves that the drugs present in a quart or the same as the ones taken from the defendant. Therefore the police officers must make sure they exercise extreme care and handling and storing the drugs and they must be able to account for the location of the drugs at all times.

608
Q

What must the police do to prove possession?

A

The police must show that the suspect new narcotics were present and had the intention and ability to control them. ( KIC, Knowledge, intent, control)

609
Q

What are two types of possession?

A

Direct possession and constructive possession.

610
Q

Explain direct possession

A

A person obviously possesses something if he has direct physical control or custody of the object. For example people typically possess whatever’s in their pockets or purses whether it’s keys or cocaine.

611
Q

Explain constructive possession.

A

Proof of constructive possession is more challenging because of drugs are discovered in a separate area. The law does not require that someone has physical custody of an object. For example people possessed things in their closet at their home even when they are out at work.

612
Q

Is a persons present with drugs enough to convict them for possession?

A

No in Commonwealth versus Brown a woman in an apartment where drugs were located she was not found guilty of possession. She had no keys to the apartment, no cash or drugs and her person and no belongings in the room where the drugs were found. You need to have KIC.

613
Q

In order to convict someone in the presence of drugs there must be what?

A

There must be presence “plus” an additional factor to show KIC knowledge, Intent, and control.

614
Q

What are examples of the plus additional factor for presence?

A

-Drugs in Plain view, -obvious smell of narcotics,
-air freshener in vehicle, -incriminating statements, -incriminating conduct link to drugs,
-reaction to police, -Paperwork and or personal possessions link suspect to place where drugs found, -exclusive or limited access to a vehicle or building, rent, occupies, or spends significant time at the dwelling work drugs were found.

615
Q

Is possession of unopened package containing drugs a good charge Possession?

A

Possession of an unopened package without more is insufficient proof of possession.

616
Q

Explain possession of a controlled substance elements for 94 C section 34

A

The elements are the suspect knowingly possessed some perceptible amount of controlled substance in any class or more than 2 ounces of marijuana and the suspect did not have a lawful reason to have it, did not have a prescription or other legal basis.

617
Q

What is the right of arrest for possession of a controlled substance?

A

Under chapter 94C section 41 is a warrantless arrest on probable cause.

618
Q

Explain the good “Samaritan law” under chapter 94C section 34A.

A

-This is when a person Helping a person suffering from an overdose
-By getting that person medical treatment, is immune from prosecution for drug possession.
-There is no immunity for drug distribution
-No immunity for OUI drugs
-However they may get a reduced sentence on the basis that they helped a person get treatment for a possible overdose.

619
Q

What is a no choking policy when someone swallows drugs

A

You never choke Hey suspect in order to get the drugs out of their mouth. Best practice is to get them under arrest, provide medical attention, and charge them with evidence of concealment under chapter 268 section 13 E which is a felony right of arrest.

620
Q

What is chapter 270 section 18, smelling substance with toxic vapor?

A

This is another name for huffing or inhalants. This chapter certain Section does not prohibit possessing a controlled substance but it is a related offenses penalizes a person who intentionally inhales a toxic substance to get high

621
Q

What are some examples of things that people Huff?

A

Dust off butane and spray paint.

622
Q

What is the right of arrest for huffing?

A

It’s a warrantless arrest in the presence.

623
Q

What is the definition of distribution under chapter 94 C s 1?

A

Defined as “to deliver other than by administering or dispensing a controlled substance” Therefore distribution is any non-medical delivery of drugs.

624
Q

Can you be charge for distribution for sharing drugs?

A

Sharing drugs is not distribution except when the offenders either obtain drugs together at the same time or “socially share”marijuana it is only possession.

625
Q

Is delivering drugs distribution?

A

Delivering drugs is distribution even though no money is exchanged for Comm vs Pool.

626
Q

Can you charge anyone for being an accomplice to distribution?

A

Distribution may involve an accomplice not present at the sale – the so-called “constructive transfer”. Or the drug manager.

627
Q

Explain manufacturing under chapter 94 C s 1.

A

Manufacturing encompasses **any processing ** of controlled substances.
-Specifically defines manufacturing as producing, preparing, or processing a controlled substance “either directly or indirectly by extraction of natural origin or independently by means of chemicals in synthesis, including any packaging or re-packaging of substances or labeling or relabeling or compounding of a controlled substance“.

628
Q

Are you manufacturing crack if you prepare it and cooked it for yourself?

A

No in offender is not manufacturing if she obtains powdered cocaine and then turns it into crack for his own use.

629
Q

What’s the most important factor to prove possession with the intent to distribute?

A

The quantity is the most important factor. The quantity of drugs may prove a suspects intent to distribute by itself that is why it’s so important.

630
Q

The vast majority of cases involve possession with intent to distribute. What do you need to charge them?

A

A person who “possesses” a controlled substance is not presumed to intent to distribute. Proof of a person intent is based on circumstantial evidence.

631
Q

What is a quantity required to prove intent to distribute?

A

There is no minimum “quantity” to prove intent to distribute, even a really small quantity is sufficient. For example cocaine residue.

632
Q

what is the possession with intent factors?

A

Quantity of drugs, purity, street value, cash, packaging, paraphernalia, lack of personal personal use paraphernalia, business cards, communication devices, records, drug sales area, drug dealer behavior, security measures, Stash pad, presents a firearm, hidden location, Flight or resistance, police expert testimony.

633
Q

How is paraphernalia used as a factor for possession with intent?

A

Variety of instruments are used to process drugs for sale example: Possession of cutting agent, sifter with cocaine residue, Two scales, straw with cocaine residue, razor plate, three bags containing cocaine. If a person is associates items it could be used to prove distribution.

634
Q

How can flight or resistance used against a person for distribution with intent?

A

Intense effort to avoid police apprehension characterizes a dealer.

635
Q

What is the mandatory minimum for distribution offenses?

A

There no longer mandatory minimals except for Class A substance offense.

636
Q

What is the Class A mandatory minimum offense?

A

A minimum of 3 1/2 years

637
Q

What is the definition of subsequent Offenses?

A

Under all the distribution statues class anything in a subsequent events occurs when the defendant has one or more prior convictions for distribution in Massachusetts or another state or federal jurisdiction.

638
Q

What is the penalty for Class A fentanyl 10 g or more?

A

Its a mandatory 3 1/2 years Or no more than 20 years.

639
Q

Under chapter 94C section 32 I for sale in possession with intent to sell drug paraphernalia what are the elements?

A

The suspect sold, possessed, or manufactured with the intent to sell drug paraphernalia, knowing under the circumstances suspect should’ve known paraphernalia would be used to plant, cultivate, harvest, manufacture, compound, comfort, process, Prepare, test, analyze pack repack store conceal just inhale or otherwise illegally introduced into the human body a controlled substance.

640
Q

What is the right of arrest for possession with intent to sell drug paraphernalia?

A

It is a warrantless arrest and presents million. Or if it’s sold to a buyer under 18 years old it is a felony arrest.

641
Q

What is the charge of possession of paraphernalia?

A

There’s no such crime has possession of drug paraphernalia.

642
Q

What chapter in section covered sales of hypodermic needles and syringes?

A

Chapter 94C s 27

643
Q

Discuss possession of a hypodermic needle

A

In mass it’s legal to possess a hypodermic needle and syringes without a prescription. They are no longer defined as paraphernalia under chapter 94C s 1. It was changed as a public health measure to encourage drug users to buy clean needles.

644
Q

Is it illegal to sell hypodermic needles?

A

It is illegal to sell them as a non-professional. It is also illegal to sell to a minor or failure to validate the age.

645
Q

What is the penalty for selling a hypodermic needle As a non-professional or to a minor?

A

It is warrantless arrest on probable cause under chapter 94C s 41. First defense is house of corrections no more than one year and or a fine of no more than $1000 if any prior drug law violation and 94C its house of corrections no more than two years and find of no more than $2000

646
Q

What crimes are related to hypodermic needles?

A

Assault crimes involving needles, or reckless and be with a needle.

647
Q

Explain reckless and be with the hypodermic needle

A

Under chapter 265 section 15 C reckless assault battery with a hypodermic needle under Commonwealth versus Hamilton, Officer responded to a wellness check in the bathroom. Brad Hamilton came out of the stall he saw items used to clean needles. Hamilton was holding an object as hand the officer repeatedly asked him to drop it. Hamilton did not respond Hamilton thrust a needle into stones hand with enough force to puncture his glove and Hamilton was charged with reckless A&B.

648
Q

Explain assault crimes involving needles under chapter 265 section 15C.

A

I prefer Hibbetts committing an assault or an ANB by means of hypodermic needle or any instrument adapted for the administration of controlled or other substances by injection. The penalty is state penitentiary no more than 15 years or house of correction no more than 2 1/2 years and or fine no more than $5000 with a felony right of arrest.

649
Q

What Chapter in Section does counterfeit substance fall under?

A

Chapter 94C section 32G

650
Q

What is the purpose of the counterfeit substance charge?

A

First defines counterfeit substance as one represented to be a particular drug or substance but which is in fact not that drug or substance. Counterfeit substances are legal because they are often dangerous to ingest and more importantly the offender is trying to profit from the drug trade while eliminating the risk of being caught with an actual controlled substance.

651
Q

What are the elements of counterfeit substance?

A

A suspect Knowingly, created, distributed, or dispensed or possessed with intent to distribute or dispense a counterfeit substance.

652
Q

What is the right of arrest for a counterfeit substance?

A

Chapter 94 C-section 41 is a warrantless arrest in presents. In the penalties house of correction no more than one year and or fine no less than $250 and no more than $2500.

653
Q

The drug preschool and Parkstone laws have changed under chapter 94 C-section 32J. What are the elements now?

A

A suspect violates one of the following non-possession offenses under chapter 94C. Class A, class B, class C, class D, class E, trafficking or distribution of A, B, or C to minors or 32I drug paraphernalia AND -VIOLENCE OR THREAT or threat of violence with a firearm or other weapon or induced another participant to do so during the commission of the offense OR -DIRECTED the activities of another person who committed any felony in violation of 94C or committed or attempted to commit a violation of 32S distribution of class a B or C to MINORS or section 32K INDUCING A MINOR to distribute.

654
Q

Explain the first Type 1 : School Zone drugs crimes against children.

A

Any drug crime in a school zone within 300 feet between 5 AM and midnight.

655
Q

Explain Type 2: park zone drug crimes against children.

A

Within 100 feet of a public park or playground and there are no hour limitations.

656
Q

What is the right of arrest for a school zone or Park zone drug against children right of arrest and penalty?

A

It’s a felony right of arrest. And the penalty is state penitentiary no less than 2 1/2 years no more than 15 years or house of correction no less than two years no more than 2 1/2 years in find of no less than $1000 and no more than $10,000.
There is a Mandatory 2 year sentence beginning from and after the sentence for the underlying offense.

657
Q

How do you determine the distance of a school zone or a park soon to the violation?

A
  • Straight line from the violation to the site.
  • Measuring device must be calibrated for accuracy
  • Measure to front entrance of suspects building
  • Knowledge of school or park boundary irrelevant
  • Proof of school or preschool must be approved by the officer
  • Proof of public park must be also identified by the officers
658
Q

What is a related offense to drug violations in school zones or park zones?

A

Inducing a minor to distribute drugs covered under chapter 94 C-section 32K outlaws suspect who knowingly induces a person under 18 to either:

1) distribute or possess with the intent to distribute any controlled substance
2) accept, deliver or possess money used or intended to use for the manufacture, delivery, or sale of any controlled substance.

659
Q

What is the charge and right of arrest for inducing minor to distribute drugs?

A

Chapter 94C s 32K is a mandatory five year sentence the penalty is state penitentiary no more than 15 years. It is a felony right of arrest.

660
Q

Under inducing minors to distribute drugs is it necessary to prove that the suspect knew the age of the child?

A

There’s not necessary to prove that the suspect knew the age of the child employed in the drug dealing. And there’s also no need to prove the minor was aware of illegal drug transactions. The government does not have to prove that the minor knew he was distributing or a controlled substance on the behalf of the adult.

661
Q

For those with the legitimate medical purpose explain improperly obtaining drugs from those in legal possession factors.

A

Under chapter 94 C-section 19 states for a prescription to be valid it must be “issued for a legitimate medical purpose by a practitioner acting in the usual course of his professional practice”. Section 19 specifically states that a prescription not used in the usual course of professional treatment constitutes illegal distribution.

662
Q

What are the suspicious factors of obtaining drugs and legal possession?

A

These factors may indicate no legitimate medical purpose:

  • The physician permits patient to name the drug he desires
  • The position expresses concern as to how and where a prescription will be filled in a manner that does not indicate good faith concerned for his patient
  • Repeat refills are issued over relatively short period of time
  • Failure to schedule appropriate appointments for return visits and lack of interest and follow up care
  • Conversations about non-therapeutic use drugs enforcement tactics that demonstrate the physician knew the drugs would not be used for medical purposes.
663
Q

What is the charge for fraudulently obtaining a controlled substance under chapter 94C s 33.

A

Chapter 94 C-section 33 punishes any deception to obtain a controlled substance including using a false prescription or lying.

664
Q

What are the elements of Type 1 fraudulently obtaining a controlled substance?

A

Type 1 Drug abuser fraud:
The suspect intentionally uttered a false prescription for a controlled substance, or obtain possession of a controlled substance by any fraud or deception including falsifying a prescription or not disclosing a material fact to a practitioner.

665
Q

What are the elements of type two manufacturing fraud under chapter 94 C-section 33?

A

The suspect used during the manufacture or distribution of a controlled substance a fictitious or revoked registration number

666
Q

What are the rights of arrest of type one and type two containing a controlled substance fraudulently?

A

Is a Felony right of arrest. The first defense is State penitentiary no more than four years or house correction no more than 2 1/2 years and or a fine of no more than $20,000. Is subsequent offense is a state penitentiary no more than eight years our house correction where than 2 1/2 years and or find of no more than $30,000.

667
Q

What is uttering?

A

An attempt to gain possession of a controlled substance with a false prescription. Uttering occurs at the moment the prescription is presented to the pharmacist regardless of whether it is filled

668
Q

Explain getting drugs through fraud under chapter 94C s 33.

A

Lying to get drugs. Anyone lying to get drugs is penalized including the “non-disclosure of a material fact” that results in the subject obtaining a controlled substance.

669
Q

What is a Chapter and Section for stealing a controlled substance from authorized dispenser?

A

Chapter 94 C-section 37 where the suspect stole a controlled substance from a registered manufacturer, wholesale druggist pharmacy or other authorized person to dispense or possess any controlled substance.

670
Q

What are the charges for stealing a controlled substance from a authorized dispenser under chapter 94C s 37.

A

What is a felony right of arrest. State penitentiary no more than 10 years or house of correction no more than 2 1/2 years or fine no more than $500.

671
Q

What are the four potential victims under stealing a controlled substance from an authorized dispenser?

A

Stealing from authorized dispenser such as a pharmacist, Dr., nurse, other person authorized by law to dispense or possess any drug.

  • Stealing evidence which is the theft of drug evidence from a police officer at the evidence locker.
  • Stealing from a lawful user such as a mother or other family member who is prescribed that medication. As a result for the person who steals a patient’s drugs of proper charges are possession under chapter 94 C-section 34 and they can be charged with larceny under 266 section 30 or depending on the circumstances larceny from a building.
  • Stealing contraband. Massachusetts still penalize the theft of contraband from users or dealers. For example the defendant convicted of larceny for stealing cocaine from an accomplice.
672
Q

Explain conspiracy under chapter 94C section 40.

A

A person may not conspire to violate any crime under chapter 94 seat. All that is required like any conspiracy is in agreement to commit a prohibited act. The right of arrest is a warrantless arrest on probable cause under chapter 94C s 41.

673
Q

CHAPER 21
What is the CCC?

A

The cannabis control commission which is the licensing Committees that regulate the cultivation, manufacturing, and retail sales of marijuana and marijuana products. The CCC is located in Worcester mass.

674
Q

What are the police enforcement procedures for marijuana?

A

Marijuana has not been legalized for all people and all purposes. Illegal activity dress either a civil or a criminal response under chapter 94 G section 2. A civil fine procedure for marijuana cases under chapter 94C section 32N, an officer must issue a town bylaw or city ordinance ticket, and give a copy to the offender at the time in place of the violation or male or deliver a copy within 15 days

  • Give two copies to the OIC routines one and send one to the other clerk
  • For children under 18 provide another copy to a parent or guardian
675
Q

For Offenders over 18 for marijuana regulation what happens?

A

The offender may pay the fine or request a hearing within 21 days.

676
Q

What happens to an offender under the age of 18?

A

There is an addition to the $100 civil fine. The parent/guardian of the child must file a certificate with the clerk that shows a child completed the drug education program with one within one year of the date of the offense. It is a four hour classroom instruction or group discussion in 10 hours of community service under chapter 94C section 32M the program has not been completed under chapter 94C sections 32L and 32N direct the clerk to conduct a hearing with the offender, parent or guardian, and enforcing officer, determine whether the phone should be increased to $1000.

677
Q

Where do the disposition of finds go after they are paid?

A

They go to the city or town with the offense occurred.

678
Q

What is a medical hardship cultivation registration for?

A

For any person with transportation or money hardship. Meaning they have no transportation to go get their medical marijuana or they don’t have enough money to pay for the medical marijuana so they may grow it at home.

679
Q

Per suspects not in the medical program what do officers have to do in order to charge people?

A

Officers must present evidence that the suspect did not have a medical hardship cultivation registration and either was not growing the marijuana at his primary residence, or possess more than 12 plants, or sold or possessed with the intent to sell any amount of Moana produced by these plants.

680
Q

What are the rules for marijuana plants or possession in a household?

A

No person is allowed more than six plants for one adult or 12 plants for two adults (that is the most allowed) in the residence or possess 10 ounces every 60 days from these plants.

681
Q

Who may sell marijuana in Massachusetts?

A

Only a business business in possession of a CCC issued license may sell any amount of marijuana anywhere under chapter 94C s 32C

682
Q

How much marijuana is illegal gift in criminal distribution?

A

A legal gift Is the following:

1) Age 21
2) 1 ounce or 5 g concentrate
3) For no value And
4) No advertising or promotion for example if you buy three things in a store you get marijuana.

683
Q

What happens if you sell or intend to sell paraphernalia to youth under 21 years of age? This includes pipes, Bronx, grow lamps or other devices.

A

Under chapter 94 C-section 32 I it is a Mirror Arrest enough to two years in jail and or fine up to $5000 the actual sale to a minor under 18 is a Felony up to five years in prison.

684
Q

What is the social host law?

A

Under chapter 94G section 13(i), Any person of any age may not intentionally supply, provide or allow anyone under 21 the use of marijuana products or accessories. Only exceptions are children or grandchildren on the premises owned or controlled by the suspect. Anyone who does this is going to be arrested for breach of the peace or otherwise a complaint application. Up to one year in jail and I are fine of $2000. And commonwealth versus Kneran A kid under 21 hosted a party giving other kids under 21 marijuana and the kids drove away in crashed with injuries or death involved.

685
Q

What is homemade marijuana concentrate?

A

It’s marijuana with a flammable liquid or gas to create “dabs” or any other concentrate or product. Only exception or products made with alcohol or CCC manufacturing licenses and a chapter 94G section 2 (c). If you do this it is it in a media rest and up to two years in jail and or fine up to $5000 under chapter 94C section 32C.

686
Q

Go over criminal cultivation of marijuana at any age.

A

There for legal steps to cultivation of marijuana:

1) You have to be 21
2) It Has to be at your residence
3) Maximum of 12 plants (for 1 adults living in the home, 6 plants, for 2 adults 12 plants).
4) Not allowed to sell it, for personal use only.

687
Q

Explain criminal cultivation of marijuana at any age what is not allowed.

A

Even one plant is a crime if it’s not your primary residence. It’s growing 13 amor plants at your residence it’s illegal Under chapter 94G section 7.

688
Q

What are the penalties in right of arrest for criminal cultivation of marijuana at any age?

A

Under chapter 94C section 32C, it is an immediate arrest in up to two years in jail and or fine up to $5000. Other civil Cultivation offenses are:

  • If a homegrow is visible to the naked eye from a public place it’s a $300 civil ticket in forfeiture of visible plants under chapter 94G s 13(a)
  • If there’s only one adult in a residence and you have between 7 to 12 plants then it’s $100 civil citation and forfeiture of excess plants under 94G section 13 (e).
  • If there are two adults you may never have more than 12 plants.
  • Between one to 12 plants at a residence if under 21 is $100 civil citation in an education class. If you don’t complete the class and under 17 then delinquency charge under chapter 94G section 13 (h).
689
Q

What is to furnish mean?

A

To give or allow. Allow is consciously aware.

690
Q

When may you operate under the influence of marijuana?

A

You may never be under the influence of marijuana and drive being “high” to any degree the dimensions ability to operate safely. Under chapter 90 section 24 its Amedi arrest in two years probation in education program and license suspension of at least 90 days and probably one year and fines and fees of at least $500.

691
Q

What is the charge of open container of marijuana in a vehicle and what is it?

A

Under chapter 94G section 13 D an open container is any package with marijuana or marijuana products with a sealed broken or some contents removed or consumed found within passenger compartment not in the trunk or locked glove box. This is a $500 civil citation and may be issued to the driver and or passengers of any age. Under this chapter and section, odor, smoke or visible signs of use is a sufficient way to stop the vehicle.

692
Q

What chapter & section covers possession of 2 ounces or less in a private or public place buy used under the age of 21?

A

Under chapter 94 C s 32L physical and internal possessions are covered. If 18, 19, or 20 years old is $100 civil ticket. If under 18 is $100 civil ticket and four hours of drug class in and 10 hours of community service. If you fail to complete than fine increases to $1000 in his assessed with the parents and the officer in juvenile court. That would be under chapter 94 C s 32N.

693
Q

What does criminal public possession of over 2 ounces at any age?

A

Under chapter 94C s 34 it is an immediate arrest and up to six months in jail and or a $500 fine.

694
Q

Go over criminal private possession Of marijuana.

A
  • Under 21 criminal possession also if over to ounces in private.
  • 21 and over may possess up to 10 ounces in the residence
  • 21 and over criminal possession over 10 ounces in residence that was not derived from a legal home grow. See chapter 94G section 7 (a) (2). Under chapter 94 C-section 30 for this would be immediate arrest and up to six months in jail and or a $500 fine. Other civil offenses could include over 1 ounce from any source not properly secured any luck container you can get $100 civil ticket and forfeiture of unsecured excess under chapter 94G section 13(b).
695
Q

What is possession of any amount on a elementary or secondary school property or at a school related event?

A

Under chapter 71 section 37H he can be suspended from school and the other conditions imposed by the administration. This may be in addition to any other civil or criminal penalties allowed by law.

696
Q

What is the crime of public consumption or smoking Marijuana where tobacco smoke is prohibited.

A

Unch chat under chapter 270 section 22 prohibits tobacco smoking in many public or private areas for example workplace public buildings restaurants hotels etc. may smoke in a licensed marijuana bar. This is covered under chapter 94G section 13 C it is $100 civil citation note city ordinance enacted under chapter 94 C-section 32L may authorize a rest in presence for public consumption in a $300 fine. The town bylaw may not otherwise arrest per Attorney General but may impose a $300 fine. So know what the laws are in the town you’re in.

697
Q

What is the charge of consumption of marijuana on private property after being warned by owner or person in control?

A

Chapter 266 section 120 is an arrest if you’re still in the process premises when the officer arrives. Otherwise it’s a Complaint application. This is trespassing, penalized by up to 30 days in jail and or fine up to $100.

698
Q

What is the violation of trespass 266 s32?

A

It penalizes the person who remains on another person’s organizational property after being told to leave. The ejection of a person from the property may be based on the violation of a reasonable rule. The prohibition against marijuana clearly qualifies. Penalty is 30 days in or of no more than $100. Right of a rest For 266 section 120 is a warrantless arrest in presence.

699
Q

Can a person be placed in protective custody for marijuanna use?

A

Under Ch 111E s9A, Any person incapacitated by marijuana can be PC’d. Incapacitation means because the person has become disorderly, unconscious,in the need of medical attention, or at risk to cause personal injury or property damage.

700
Q

What are the rules with marijuana use and carrying a firearm?

A

Under 269 s 10H prohibit a person with a LTC from carrying a loaded firearm while under the influence of marijuana, alcohol or narcotics. Penalty is HC NMT 2 1/2 years and/or fine NMT $5000. There is a right of arrest for breach of the peace and presence. Otherwise a complaint.

701
Q

what is a CCC?

A

Cannabis control commission.

702
Q

What does the CCC do?

A

The cannabis control commission issues “cards“ to eligible patients with debilitating medical conditions for anywhere between 15 days and 1 year under 94I s2 and s12.
-Personal caregivers who are at least 21 and agree to assist patients obtaining, using, and some case cases growing marijuana.

703
Q

What is the name of of the owners, agents, employees, and volunteers who work at a registered marijuana dispensary?

A

They are called dispensary agents. Under 94I section 2E and 10.

704
Q

What is the name of of the owners, agents, employees, and volunteers who work at a registered marijuana dispensary?

A

They are called dispensary agents. Under 94I section 2E and 10.

705
Q

What are dispensary agents who may grow marijuana on the premises in a secure space?

A

They are called cultivators. Under chapter 94I Section, 2B and 11.

706
Q

How much marijuana are marijuana allowed to have?

A

They may possess no more than a 60 day supply—which CCC has determined to be 10 ounces.

707
Q

What are rules for patients who are allowed to have marijuana?

A

-Only use marijuana for a medical purpose and never distribute or share it with anyone.
-carry their card, possessing marijuana and notify CCC within five business days of any change in information or lost or stolen card.

708
Q

What are rules for patients who are allowed to have marijuana?

A

-Only use marijuana for a medical purpose and never distribute or share it with anyone.
-carry their card, possessing marijuana and notify CCC within five business days of any change in information or lost or stolen card.

709
Q

What are personal caregivers allowed to do regarding their patients in marijuana?

A

-They are allowed to transport patients and marijuana to and from the RMD.
-They may cultivate marijuana on behalf of a patient who has obtained a hardship cultivation registration at either patient’s primary residence or caregivers primary residence, but not both. -May prepare and administer marijuana to a patient.
-May only serve one patient at a time except in the case of employee of hospice providers, nurse facility or medical facility.
- A visiting nurse, home health aid, personal health attendant, or an immediate family member of more than one registered qualifying patient.

710
Q

What are personal caregivers allowed to do regarding their patients in marijuana?

A

-They are allowed to transport patients and marijuana to and from the RMD.
-They may cultivate marijuana on behalf of a patient who has obtained a hardship cultivation registration at either patient’s primary residence or caregivers primary residence, but not both. -May prepare and administer marijuana to a patient.
-May only serve one patient at a time except in the case of employee of hospice providers, nurse facility or medical facility.
- A visiting nurse, home health aid, personal health attendant, or an immediate family member of more than one registered qualifying patient.

711
Q

What may personal caregivers not do regarding marijuana?

A

They may not receive compensation for services. Only reasonable expenses in time is not a reasonable expense. Only hospice, personal care, and medical personnel may receive conversation in the form of their regular wages.

712
Q

What is the police procedure when dealing with patients and or caregivers of marijuana cards?

A

Patients and caregivers must present the registration cards quote to any law-enforcement official who questions them regarding their use of marijuana”. Under chapter 94 section B. A patient must present the registration card as well as a second ID.

713
Q

What is a RMD regarding marijuana?

A

A registered marijuana dispensary.

714
Q

What is a RMD regarding marijuana?

A

A registered marijuana dispensary.

715
Q

What is the police procedure when dealing with the RMD?

A

They must allow access to law-enforcement personnel within their jurisdiction
-Allow CCC to inspect RMD and affiliated vehicles without prior notice
-must report any critical incident to law-enforcement and CCC within 24 hours according to 935 CMR 501.110(6)

716
Q

What are examples of critical incidents that the RMD must report to law-enforcement in CCC within 24 hours?

A

-Discrepancies in inventory or diversion, theft, or loss
-Criminal action involving RMD or dispensary
-Sale, cultivation, or distribution that might be sus
-Loss or alteration of
-alarm activation that required a response by public safety person
-The failure of any alarm expected to last longer than eight hours
-Other breach of security.

717
Q

What are examples of critical incidents that the RMD must report to law-enforcement in CCC within 24 hours?

A

-Discrepancies in inventory or diversion, theft, or loss
-Criminal action involving RMD or dispensary
-Sale, cultivation, or distribution that might be sus
-Loss or alteration of
-alarm activation that required a response by public safety person
-The failure of any alarm expected to last longer than eight hours
-Other breach of security.

718
Q

What may RMD not do?

A

-dispense, deliver or transfer marijuana to a person other than a registered patient or another RMD or a labor
-May not give away marijuana, including samples
-May not receive orders for marijuana in any manner, other than registered patients or personnel caregiving at the RMD
-Orders for marijuana anyway other than in person at the RMD or through home delivery to a patient or caregiver with a valid ID
-May not Consume marijuana on the premises unless a legitimate demonstration
-May not sell marijuana cultivation registration to his caregiver except for seeds

719
Q

What may RMD not do?

A

-dispense, deliver or transfer marijuana to a person other than a registered patient or another RMD or a labor
-May not give away marijuana, including samples
-May not receive orders for marijuana in any manner, other than registered patients or personnel caregiving at the RMD
-Orders for marijuana anyway other than in person at the RMD or through home delivery to a patient or caregiver with a valid ID
-May not Consume marijuana on the premises unless a legitimate demonstration
-May not sell marijuana cultivation registration to his caregiver except for seeds

720
Q

What is a administrative card revocation?

A

Under 935 CMR 501.425 the CCC, after a hearing may revoke a registration card to a patient, caregiver, or RMD. The grounds for revocation would be.:
-Submitting false or misleading information in the application or renewal application
-failing to notify CCC within five days of lost stolen or destroyed card
-obtaining more than allowed patient or caregiver
-Using marijuana as a quote in a manner that puts in risk of their health, safety, or wealth, or failing to take responsible precautions to avoid putting others at risk.”
-purchasing marijuana from an RMD with a hardship cult
-Engage in any other act that violates medical marijuana regulations.

721
Q

What is a administrative card revocation?

A

Under 935 CMR 501.425 the CCC, after a hearing may revoke a registration card to a patient, caregiver, or RMD. The grounds for revocation would be.:
-Submitting false or misleading information in the application or renewal application
-failing to notify CCC within five days of lost stolen or destroyed card
-obtaining more than allowed patient or caregiver
-Using marijuana as a quote in a manner that puts in risk of their health, safety, or wealth, or failing to take responsible precautions to avoid putting others at risk.”
-purchasing marijuana from an RMD with a hardship cult
-Engage in any other act that violates medical marijuana regulations.

722
Q

What is a normal police procedure for dealing with a RMD?

A

-Submit an incident report to CCC and request the subjects card be revoked pursuant to 935 CMR 501.425
-CCC may provide the subject with a written notice in a hearing if the subject request one within 21 days of the notice. 935CMR501.505.
-standard of proof is “preponderance of evidence” same one use for civil motor vehicle hearings.

723
Q

Explain summary suspension for an RMD.

A

The CCC may suspend any registration card upon finding of eminent danger to the public health, safety, or welfare. Under 935 CMR 501.450.
-If that person files a written request for a hearing within 14 days of summary suspension, they may have a hearing. The standard of proof is also preponderance of the evidence.

724
Q

What’s the definition of a tobacco product under 270 section 6 & 7.

A

Defines a Tac tobacco product as containing or derived from tobacco or nicotine and intended for human consumption. This includes cigarettes, cigars, chewing, tobacco, pipe pipe, tobacco, snuff: electronic cigarettes, cigars, pipes, and electronic nicotine delivery system (ENDS) or any other products that rely on vaporization or ateorosolization (ie. vapes.)

725
Q

What’s the definition of a tobacco product under 270 section 6 & 7.

A

Defines a Tac tobacco product as containing or derived from tobacco or nicotine and intended for human consumption. This includes cigarettes, cigars, chewing, tobacco, pipe pipe, tobacco, snuff: electronic cigarettes, cigars, pipes, and electronic nicotine delivery system (ENDS) or any other products that rely on vaporization or ateorosolization (ie. vapes.)

726
Q

What is the definition of an electronic nicotine delivery system? (ENDS)

A

Under 270 section 29 a defines an electronic nicotine delivery system to include reusable or one time devices such as electronic cigarettes, cigars, cigarillos, or pipes: vaping, pens, hookah pens, and other similar devices that rely on vaporization or arrow solarization, including the liquid or gel used device in any component necessary to use the device, even if sold separately. And ENDS does not include an FDA approved, cessation cation product or medical treatment, provided it is marketed and sold exclusively for that purpose.

727
Q

What are the two behaviors for marijuana consequences in Massachusetts for 94C section 32C?

A

Under 94C sec. 32C if you sell or intend to sell any amount of marijuana anywhere
-or if you give marijuana illegally as a gift it is considered criminal distribution. Both of these would be an immediate arrest and up to two years in jail and or a final of up to $5000.

728
Q

CHAPTER 22
What are the three types of licenses for retail of alcohol?

A

-section 12 pouring
-section 15 package store
-and section 14 special licenses

729
Q

What are the three types of licenses for retail of alcohol?

A

-section 12 pouring
-section 15 package store
-and section 14 special licenses

730
Q

What is a pouring license under section 12?

A

Retail licenses for the sale of alcoholic beverages to be drunk on the premises is called a pouring license. This falls into five types.:
-Hotels
-Restaurants
-Tavern
-club
-and general on premises

731
Q

Under chapter 20 narcotics, what are the three separate violations beyond possession of drugs that will get you in trouble?

A

1) distrib
2) manufacturing
-Possession within intent to distribute

732
Q

Under chapter 20 narcotics, what is trafficking wait for class D marijuana?

A

50 pounds or more is trafficking

733
Q

For class B cocaine what is trafficking weight?

A

18 g or more

734
Q

For class a heroin or any other opioid what is the trafficking weight?

A

18 g or more

735
Q

For class a heroin or any other opioid what is the trafficking weight?

A

18 g or more

736
Q

For class a fentanyl what is trafficking weight?

A

10 g or more

737
Q

For class a fentanyl what is trafficking weight?

A

10 g or more

738
Q

For Class A Carfentintanyl what is the amount for trafficking weight?

A

Any amount of car fentanyl qualifies for trafficking weight. Provided the offender has “specific knowledge that the mixture contains car fentanyl or any derivative of carfentanyl”