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FSIAS1W42LIELFB > SOP’s 200 > Flashcards

SOP’s 200 Flashcards

1
Q

201.01A

The term for “ a forward staging position located just outside the immediate hazard zone, safely distanced from the entrance of a tactical position/Sector”

A

On Deck

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2
Q

201.01A

What information should be exchanged when an on deck crew does a face to face?

A

-Sector Conditions
-Routing to work area/obstructions
-Sector Objectives
-Tools/Resources Needed

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3
Q

201.01A

The term for “a timely and efficient means of air replacement and rehydration of companies while maintaining their sector assignments”?

A

Recycling

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4
Q

201.01A

Who is responsible for the completion of tactical objectives?

A

The Incident Commander

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5
Q

201.01

What are the tactical objectives in order of priority?

A
  1. Remove endangered occupants and treat the injured
  2. Stabilize the incident and provide for life safety
  3. Conserve property
  4. Provide for the safety, accountability and welfare of personnel (ongoing throughout incident)
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6
Q

201.01

The term for “standard activities that are performed by the incident commander to achieve the tactical objectives”?

A

The Functions of Command

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7
Q

201.01

What are the eight functions of command?

A
  1. Assume, confirm, position command
  2. Situation evaluation “size up”
  3. Initiate, maintain and control communications process
  4. Deployment Management
  5. Identity strategy/Develop incident action plan
  6. Incident organization
  7. Review, evaluation and revision
  8. Continuing, transferring and terminating command
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8
Q

201.01

What are the three modes command can be in?

A
  1. Investigative
  2. Fast-Action
  3. Command (Stationary)
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9
Q

201.01

Who should assume the role of Senior advisor when arriving on scene?

A

First arriving shift commander (preferable from the same city the incident is in)

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10
Q

201.01

Who assists setting up the command van and moving command to CV?

A

The second arriving shift commander

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11
Q

201.01

When is an Incident Management Team put into play?

A

When an incident becomes so large that state and/or federal resources are needed. A delegation of authority must be signed by both the JHA and IMT

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12
Q

201.01

When the alarm room gives instructions to callers and dispatching a response they are starting what process?

A

The Incident Command System

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13
Q

201.01

What are the three primary roles of a command team?

A
  1. Incident Commander
  2. Support Officer
  3. Senior Advisor
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14
Q

201.01

Who is the highest ranking member of the Command Team?

A

Senior Advisor

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15
Q

201.01

The command level which has objectives assigned to sectors

A

Tactical Level

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16
Q

201.01

How many units is appropriate for the span of control?

A

5 (Offensive)
7(Defensive)

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17
Q

201.01

When should separate radio channel be used on large incidents

A

When branches are created to be responsible for multiple sectors

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18
Q

201.01

Branch officers add a command level called what?

A

Coordination Level

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19
Q

201.01

This level of command involves Sector officers being responsible for the tactical deployment of assigned resources, evaluation, and communication with the IC

A

Tactical Level

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20
Q

201.01

This level of command involves activities necessary for overall operational control, considering critical fire ground factors and risk management plan to determine the strategy and develop and IAP, establishing objectives, managing a strategy, setting priorities, allocating resources and thinking ahead?

A

Strategic Level

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21
Q

201.01

This level of command involves work being performed by assigned companies and resources.

A

Task Level

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22
Q

201.01

What are the three command levels?

A

Strategic Level (ICT)
- Coordination Level (Branches)
Tactical Level (Sectors)
Task Level (Individual Companies)

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23
Q

201.01

Section responsible for:
-Providing Rehab
-Managing Staging
-Supplies/Equipment
-Communications Equipment
-Food
-Fuel and Repairs
-COLLECT info for After-Action-Review

A

Logistics Section

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24
Q

201.01

Section responsible for:
-Information Gathering
-Gather information for IC
-Evaluate Strategy and plan with IC
-Evaluate organization and span of control
-Evaluate future resource needs
-Critical factors and safety

A

Planning Section

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25
Q

201.01

Section responsible for:
-Tactical priorities and accountability
-Safety and welfare of personnel
-Give sectors/branches tactical priorities
-Assign units to Sectors/Branches
-Located WITH IC in command post

A

Operations Section

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26
Q

201.01

Section responsible for:
-Financial requirements
-Procurement of services and supplies
-Document all finical costs and cost recovery
-Liaison between city officials and regulatory agencies (EPA, OSHA, DOT, FBI)
-Obtain ALL needed incident documentation

A

Administration Section

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27
Q

201.02B

What are the two types of power outages?

A
  1. Local Outage (down poles and wires)
  2. Feeder Outage ( damage to substations and distribution lines)
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28
Q

201.02B

Local outage affects how many residences (SRP and APS)

A

SRP = 10 residences
APS = 35-800 residences

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29
Q

201.02B

Feeder outages affect how many residences? (SRP and APS)

A

SRP = 200 residences
APS = 2,000 residences

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30
Q

201.02B

The Emergency Power Outage Plan (EOP) can be activated by who?

A

Duty Chief or ANY senior staff/Command Officer

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31
Q

201.02B

The Emergency Power Outage Plan (EOP) can be implemented when heat/stress factor (temp & humidity) exceeds ____ on hot days and is below ____ on cold days?

A

Hot temperatures above 105
Cold temperatures below 34

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32
Q

201.02

____ is to be used in the EOC and is identified as the nationwide approach for Federal, State, Local and Tribal governments to work effectively and efficiently together?

A

NIMS

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33
Q

201.02

Possible uses for Emergency Operations Center?

A

Large catastrophic events occur that require coordinating team of department heads. These events may include:
-Large Fires (mulit-jurisdictional response)
-Mass casualty events
-Floods, tornadoes
-Microburst

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34
Q

201.02

Who opens Emergency Operations Center?

A

Emergency Manager (after conference with IC)

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35
Q

201.02

Who is authorized to activate EOC?

A

-City Manager
- Assistant City Manager
- Police Chief/Assistant Police Chief
- Fire Chief/Assistant Fire Chief
- Emergency Manager
-Police Deputy Commanders
- Fire Department Shift Commanders

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36
Q

201.02

What are the 5 functional areas of the EOC staff?

A
  1. Command Team (City Manager, Police/Fire Chief)
  2. Operations
  3. Planning
  4. Logistics
  5. Finance and Administration
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37
Q

201.03

Upon arriving on scene who is the initial accountability officer?

A

The first arriving Engineer

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38
Q

201.05B

____ is assigned under the Logistics Section Officer

A

Resource Sector

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39
Q

201.05B

When will Command System Management and Section Heads respond?

A

2nd Alarm or greater

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40
Q

201.05E

Evacuation Type: Small Number of citizens, times are typically short

A

Site Evacuation

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41
Q

201.05E

Evacuation Type: Normally affects fewer than 100 people lasts 2-4 hours

A

Intermediate Level Evacuation

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42
Q

201.05B

Evacuation Type: Thousands of citizens could be evacuated. Could last hours to many days.

A

Large Scale Evacuation

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43
Q

201.05B

Red Cross needs ____ hours to assemble personnel, equipment supplies and shelters

A

3

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44
Q

201.05F

PIO location will be marked with ____

A

Green light

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45
Q

201.07

Apparatus must be kept at least ____ to the side of a flight path of helicopters dipping Bambi Buckets

A

150ft

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46
Q

201.07

Refilling is done on what side of the aircraft?

A

Right

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47
Q

201.07

Designation for MPD helicopters?

A

Falcon

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48
Q

201.07

Designation for Phoenix FD helicopters?

A

Firebird

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49
Q

201.07

Designation for DPS Helicopter?

A

Ranger 41

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50
Q

201.07

Designation for MCSO helicopter>

A

Fox

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51
Q

201.07

What terminology is used for unsafe conditions during landing a helicopter?

A

“Go around” 3 times

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52
Q

201.07

LZ for helicopter should be _____ and flat

A

100X100

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53
Q

201.07

Keep all spectators and traffic ____ ft away from LZ

A

200ft

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54
Q

201.07

Touchdown area is _____, identify it with visual markers

A

60X60

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55
Q

201.07

Communicate with pilot from the _____(as seen by pilot)

A

Right corner

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56
Q

201.07

LZ personnel shall have ________ (5) while assisting with air operations?

A

Radio
Eye Protection
Ear Protection
Safety Vest
Helmet

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57
Q

201.07

LZ should be located ____ yards or ____ft from other activities

A

100 yards
300 ft

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58
Q

201.07

During air operations, if conditions are dry, wet down ____X____ are with a hose

A

200’ X 200’

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59
Q

201.07

A tail guard should be placed ___-___ from tail rotor to keep the area secured

A

50’-100’

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60
Q

201.07

Radio contact and LZ should be maintained for ___-___ after helicopter departure (in case of emergency)

A

2-3 minutes

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61
Q

201.07

Approach and depart the helicopter from the front at ____ degrees, crouching in the view of the pilot

A

45 degrees

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62
Q

201.07

Contract helicopters can drop approx ____ gallons and have an average flying time of ____

A

120 gallons
1.5 to 2 hours

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63
Q

201.07

Bambi buckets can hold between ____ and ____ gallons

A

67-96 gallons

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64
Q

201.07

Buoy wall tanks can hold ____ or ____ gallons

A

3,000 or 4,000 gallons

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65
Q

201.07

Buoy tank filling procedure

A

Fill tank slowly until 1 foot of water is in tank, then you can increase flow rate

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66
Q

202.02

____ is a rapid but deliberate consideration of Critical Fireground Factors based upon information feedback

A

Size up

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67
Q

202.02

The 3 Basic Information Factors are?

A
  1. Visual Factors (looking at situation from outside)
  2. Reconnaissance Factors (Initial arriving company)
  3. Preplanning and Familiarity Factors (general familiarization or CAD information)
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68
Q

202.02

BFOLARO

A

Building (construction, age, size)
Fire (Extent, size, materials involved)
Occupancy (use, fire load, open/closed)
Life Hazards (location/number of occupants)
Arrangement (access, exposures, barriers)
Resources (staffing, equipment, hydrants)
Other Factors/Conditions ( time of day, riots, terrorism, special events)

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69
Q

203.03A

Majority of FF killed at?

A

Residential Fires

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70
Q

202.02A

What are the Tactical Benchmarks?

A

–Benchmarks:
#1 - Rescue (Primary Search) (All Clear)
#2 - Fire Control (Under Control)
#3 - Loss Stopped (Loss Stopped)

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71
Q

202.02B

Strategy will based up what factors (5)?

A

1) Rescue Profile
2) Building
3) Structural Integrity of the Building
4) Fire Load
5) Fire and/or Smoke Conditions

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72
Q

202.02B

What are the 7 sides of a building?

A

-Top -Bottom -Two sides -Front -Rear -Interior

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73
Q

202.02B

What is Marginal Mode?

A

Offensive fire attack while setting up transitional attack from the exterior

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74
Q

202.02B

When should marginal conditions be abandoned?

A

Abandon Marginal conditions when:
+ Primary “all clear” is obtained
+ Roof is unsafe
+ Heavy heat and cannot locate the fire or make forward progress
+ Ineffective transitional attack
+ Heavy smoke is being forced under pressure from building

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75
Q

202.02

Any change from Offensive to Defensive requires?

A

Emergency Traffic
PAR

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76
Q

202.02

If a defensive fire is called from the ONSET command MUST notify ____ that ____ will not be completed?

A

Alarm
Primary Search

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77
Q

202.02C

A primary search MUST be followed up by a secondary search UNLESS ____

A

There is a resident ALL CLEAR

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78
Q

202.02C

Rescue efforts are made in the following order:

A

) Most severely threatened
2) Largest number (groups)
3) Remainder of fire area
4) Exposed areas

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79
Q

202.05

Thermal Imaging (PROBABLY NEEDS TO BE UPDATED )

A

Look at NEW SOP

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80
Q

202.05

ALL interior crews should be notified and EVACUATED when _____

A

Ladder Pipes go into action

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81
Q

202.05

When laddering a roof extend above roofline a minimum of ____

A

4 to 6 feet

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82
Q

202.05

When laddering roof, place ladders near ____ or ____

A

Corners or Firewalls

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83
Q

202.05

When laddering roof, you should establish at least ____ separate escape routes, preferably on opposite sides of the building

A

2

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84
Q

202.05

100’ length of unprotected steel will expand ____ when heated to ____ F

A

9”
1100

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85
Q

202.05

Methods of evacuation depend on (3)?

A

1) Immanence of the hazard
2) Type and extent of hazard
3) Perception of the area affected by the hazard

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86
Q

202.05

What size parameter should be established around building for falling debris during high rise operations?

A

200ft

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87
Q

202.05

During high-rise operations, if you are able to utilize elevator you can take it ____ floors below fire floor

A

2 floors

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88
Q

202.03A

A least one additional ______ should be immediately requested upon a report of a missing or trapped firefighter?

A

Alarm (4 engines, 2 ladders)

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89
Q

201.07

Med-Evac Helicopters can carry ____ immediate patient(s)?

A

1

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90
Q

202.03

Female side of coupling leads towards ____ while the Male side of coupling leads towards ____

A

Fire
Exit

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91
Q

202.05

Decision to remove SCBA shall be made by ____

A

Company Officer

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92
Q

202.06

Ventilation holes should be at least ____% of the roof surface of the involved area

A

10%

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93
Q

202.08A

Heat Stress Management is implemented during what months?

Or as needed if temperatures exceed?

A

May 15th - Sept 15th
105F

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94
Q

202.08A

During Heat Stress Management cardiovascular activities are limited to a max during of ____

A

30 minutes

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95
Q

202.08A

During Heat Stress Management a minimum of ___ ounces or ___quarts of fluid should be consumed during the shift

A

64 ounces
2 quarts

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96
Q

202.08A

During Heat Stress Management crews should request relief after consuming ___ bottles to maintain consistent work/rest cycles

A

2 bottles

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97
Q

202.08A

Crew shall remain in rehab for ____ and meet rehab recovery criteria

A

20 minutes

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98
Q

202.08

During summer months ALL ____ assignments will receive ____ and ____

A

3-1
Relief RIC company
Rehab

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99
Q

202.08

During summer months 1st alarm fires will receive ___ additional company and ____

A

1
Rehab

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100
Q

202.08B
What are the two levels of Decon

A
  1. Preliminary Decon
  2. Gross Decon
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101
Q

202.08B

This type of decon occurs when you leave hot zone and assigned to replenish or rehab

A

Preliminary Decon

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102
Q

202.08B

This type of decon will not occur until released from scene. Will heavily saturate turnouts with water

A

Gross Decon

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103
Q

202.08B

Decon should be done using red line at a minimus of ____ from hot zone

A

50 feet

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104
Q

202.08

Rehab location will be ____ to the Command Post and be identified with ___ tape with only 1 entry point

A

Adjacent
Blue

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105
Q

202.08

What are the 4 sections of Rehab?

A

Section A: Entry Point & Triage
Section B: Hydration and Replenishment
Section C: Medical Treatment & Transport
Section D: Reassignment

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106
Q

202.08

During Rehab what are the vital requirements to receive additional medical treatment?

1.20 minute resting HR above ___
2. Body temp above ____
3.Diastolic BP less than ____

A

100bpm
101 degrees F
BP less than 100

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107
Q

202.09

What are the 3 purposes of ventilation?

A
  1. Gain (and control) Entry
  2. Remove heated gases and smoke
  3. Make interior spaces more tenable
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108
Q

202.09

What is the most effective form of ventilation?

A

Directly over the fire

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109
Q

202.09

What is the best operating position to determine if a building requires ventilation as well as best location and timing?

A

Interior Sector

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110
Q

202.09

During marginal conditions what ladder operations cannot be completed?

A

Ladder CANNOT got to roof to ventilate due to extreme conditions

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111
Q

202.09

How should crews handle fire attack for Bowstring Truss/ Arched Roof if the fire is in the attic/truss space

A

Quick search & go defensive

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112
Q

202.09

How should crews handle fire attack for Bowstring Truss/ Arched Roof if the fire is unable to be located?

A

Quick search & go defensive

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113
Q

202.09

How should crews handle fire attack for Bowstring Truss/ Arched Roof if the fire is contained to room and contents with no signs of extension?

A

Aggressive transitional & go OFFENSIVE

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114
Q

202.09

Crews not permitted to access tile roofs, how should fire attack be attempted (3)

A
  1. Pulling bird stops
  2. Cutting small holes 3-5 feet from edge
  3. remove side attack vents
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115
Q

202.10

Standard Attack Team consists of?

A

2 Engines & 1 Ladder

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116
Q

202.11

High Rise is defined as (2)?

A

6 Elevator stops or greater
75 feet or greater

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117
Q

202.11

During High rise operations apparatus placement should be at least ____ ft away due to falling debris or structural collapse

A

200ft

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118
Q

202.11

During High Rise operations crews must bring of minimum of ____ spare bottle(s)

A

1

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119
Q

202.11

During High Rise operations crews should check air supply every ____ floors

A

5

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120
Q

202.11

During High Rise operations the most difficult places to communicate are (2)?

A

Fire Control Room
Elevators

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121
Q

202.12

RAT stands for what and is kept in place for a minimum of ____?

A

Remote Activation Terminal
12 hours

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122
Q

202.12

Post fire inspection interval are?

A

2…4…8 hours

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123
Q

202.12

During post fire inspection it is appropriate to have _____ for the first 2 hours post incident

A

PD drive by for inspection

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124
Q

202.12C

Customer Service Sector reports to _____ UNLESS a Loss Control Branch/Section is assigned

A

Command

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125
Q

202.12

PPV fans should be positioned ____ feet back from entry point

A

7 feet

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126
Q

202.12

Placing fans in ____ is more effective than placing them side by side

A

Tandem

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127
Q

202.12

PPV should not be used if

A

Common attic is shared

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128
Q

202.12E

First in units should lay in their own water supply, what would be an exception?

A

Critical rescue

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129
Q

202.12E

How much water can 500 foot 4 inch supply line provide from an unpumped hydrant?

A

800 gpm

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130
Q

202.12E

A 1-3/4 attack line is used for most small fired (How many rooms)

A

1-2 rooms

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131
Q

202.12E

What is necessary to have ready before putting water on a basement fire?

A

Ventilation Control

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132
Q

202.12F

Who do we call for stray animal?
Injured?

A

Stray - Mesa Alarm
Injured - Mesa animal control, humane society or AZ society for the prevention of cruelty to animals

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133
Q

202.12F

Who responds for dangerous animals?

A

Animal Control with PD

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134
Q

202.15

A brush truck with the pump and roll capabilities is a type what engine?

A

Type 6 engine

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135
Q

202.12E

A transitional attack should last about ____to____ and be deflected off the ceiling whenever possible

A

15-20 seconds

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136
Q

202.12E

During defensive operations, the ladders turntable should be lined up with the ____ to be protected

A

wall

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137
Q

202.12E

During defensive operations, the ladders turntable should be lined up with the ____ to be protected

A

wall

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137
Q

202.12E

A transitional attack should last about ____to____ and be deflected off the ceiling whenever possible

A

15-20 seconds

138
Q

202.12

The cost of treatment for an animal is passed on to owner, if the owner cannot be identified who covers the cost?

A

ASPCA (NO COST TO FD)

139
Q

2012.15

Wildland fire is declared at how many acres?

A

50 acres

140
Q

2012.15

In regards to wildland fires, winds will change ____ degrees near midday and usually become gusty in the afternoon

A

180

141
Q

202.15

Morning Winds move what direction
Afternoon Winds move what direction

A

Morning = East to West
Afternoon = West to East

142
Q

202.15

What does LCES in wildland firefighting stand for?

A

L-lookout
C-Communications
E-Escape routes
S-Safety Zones

143
Q

202.15A

How often is our wildland fire agreement with the AZ state land department reviewed?

A

Biennially

144
Q

202.15A

A wildland team must deploy within __ hours.

A

2 hours

145
Q

202.15

Three factors to woodland fires

A
  1. Weather
  2. Fuel
  3. Topography (access biggest issue)
146
Q

202.15

During woodland deployments how many firefighters are required to stay in the mop-up area during rehab?

A

2 firefighters

147
Q

202.15

When water drops will expose ground crews, they must move ____ ft off the line, uphill and perpendicular to the fire line

A

200ft

148
Q

202.12E

During defensive operations, the ladders turntable should be lined up with the ____ to be protected

A

wall

148
Q

202.12

The cost of treatment for an animal is passed on to owner, if the owner cannot be identified who covers the cost?

A

ASPCA (NO COST TO FD)

149
Q

202.12E

A transitional attack should last about ____to____ and be deflected off the ceiling whenever possible

A

15-20 seconds

149
Q

202.16

Vehicle batteries would be disconnected by disconnecting which cable first?

A

Ground Cable (Black) Negative Terminal

150
Q

202.16

Bumper assemblies have been known to travel up to ____ft?

A

25ft

151
Q

202.16

Fire condition that can exist in tightly sealed vehicle?

A

Backdraft

152
Q

202.18

The average passenger care tire has ____ gallons of oil

A

2.5 gallons

153
Q

202.18

Tire fires should be treated as _____ incidents

A

Hazmat

154
Q

202.18

What are three options for when fighting tire fires?

A
  1. Burn it
  2. Bury it
  3. Drown it
155
Q

202.18

What does calcium absorb and create when used to bury a tire fire?

A

It scrubs sulfur from the emissions, creating calcium sulfate, or gypsum

156
Q

202.18

Internal temperature of tire fires an reach ____ degrees

A

2,000 degrees F

157
Q

203.01

Multi patient incident have how many patients

A

<25 patients

158
Q

203.01

Mass casualty incidents have how many patients?

A

25-100 patients

159
Q

203.01

Disasters have how many patients?

A

> 100

160
Q

203.01

When should triage tags be used on incidents?

A

When there are 3 or more immediate patients or more than 10 total patients

161
Q

203.01

What the 2 tactical priorities to be completed during any multi-patient incident

A
  1. Completion of “Triage Report”
  2. Declaration of “All Immediate Transported”
162
Q

203.01

Medical supply sector should be established at ____ alarm or greater incidents

A

3rd alarm

163
Q

203.01

No more than ____ ambos in a loading area a time

A

2 ambos

164
Q

203.01

Triage should usually take less than ___ to ___ to complete

A

4 to 6 minutes

165
Q

203.01

What sectors are needed for first alarm medical?

A

Level 2 staging

166
Q

203.01

Triage may be handled by first arriving unit up to ____ patients

A

10

167
Q

203.03

A reasonable guideline is one company per ____ patients for extrication sector for large incidents

A

4 patients

168
Q

203.04

During major incidents, one company per ____ patients should be the INITIAL objective for treatment sector

A

4 patients

169
Q

202.12E

During defensive operations, the ladders turntable should be lined up with the ____ to be protected

A

wall

169
Q

202.12E

A transitional attack should last about ____to____ and be deflected off the ceiling whenever possible

A

15-20 seconds

170
Q
A
171
Q

202.12D

PPV fans should be placed how far from the doorway?

A

7 Feet

172
Q

202.12E

First in units should lay in their own water supply, what would be an exception?

A

Critical Rescue

173
Q

202.12E

How much water can 500 foot 4 inch supply line provide from an unpumped hydrant?

A

800gpm

174
Q

202.12E

A 1-3/4 attack line is used for most small fired (How many rooms)

A

1-2 rooms

175
Q

202.12E

What is necessary to have ready before putting water on a basement fire?

A

Ventilation Control

176
Q

202.12F

Who do we call for stray animal?
Injured?

A

Stray - Mesa Alarm
Injured - Mesa animal control, humane society or AZ society for the prevention of cruelty to animals

177
Q

202.12F

Who responds for dangerous animals?

A

Animal Control with PD

178
Q

202.15

A red flag warning occurs with what?

A

Sustained winds over 20 mph and relative humidity less than 20%

179
Q

202.12E

Engine Mounted Master Streams offer large GPM with a flow rate of ____ to ____ gpm?

A

500-1,000

180
Q

202.15

What direction are morning winds? Afternoon?

A

Morning - East to west
Afternoon - West to east

181
Q

203.06

What is the THREAT acronym?

A

T-Threat suppression
H-hemorrhage control
R - rapid Extrication
A-Assessment
T-Transport

182
Q

203.06

For MCI, when calling for pt alarms coincides with what pt number if 1/3 of patients are immediate?

A

First alarm - 5-10
2nd Alarm - 11-20
forth alarm - 21-100

183
Q

203.06A

PD units responding to an active shooter incident are identified as what?

A

-Paul - patrol
-David - detective
-Sam - Sergeant
Lincoln - Lieutenant

184
Q

203.06

For decon a germicide or bleach at a ratio of ____:____ is permitted?

A

1:10 Bleach Ratio

185
Q

203.06

Training records should be maintained for ____ years from date of training

A

3 years

186
Q

203.06

Physical or mechanical processes implemented to improve efficiency and safety while decreasing exposure risk

A

Engineering Controls

187
Q

203.06B

Sharp shuttles, waterless hand cleaner and needleless systems are all examples of what?

A

Engineering controls

188
Q

203.06

The company officer from what shift is responsible for ensuring all necessary personal protective equipment and engineering controls are available?

A

C shift Company Officer

189
Q

203.06

Sharps containers are to be inspected, maintained or replaced ____ or whenever necessary to prevent over filling

A

Monthly

190
Q

203.06

Surfaces are to be cleaned and left WET with disinfectant for ____ seconds for HIV-1 and ____ minutes for HBV?

A

30 Seconds
10 Minutes

191
Q

203.06B

When are foods no longer safe to eat?

A

When they have been in the danger zone (40 - 140 degrees) for more than 2 hours (1 hour if above 90 degrees)

192
Q

204.01

The first arriving officer to a hazmat incident will evaluate effects of what 3 factors when approaching a scene?

A
  1. Wind
  2. Topography
  3. Location
193
Q

204.01

What two zones should be established during hazmat scene?

A
  1. Limited access zone (Yellow tape)
  2. Evacuation zone
194
Q

204.01A

Hazmat Levels of Evacuation (3)

A
  1. Site Evacuation
  2. Intermediate Evacuation
  3. Large Scale
195
Q

204.01A

Hazmat (Site Evacuation)

A

On site
less than 2 hours

196
Q

204.01A

Hazmat (Intermediate Evacuation)

A

Off Site
Less than 100 people 2-4 hours or more

197
Q

204.01A

Hazmat (Large Scale Evacuation)

A

Thousands of people
Hours or days long
EOC opened, documentation and tracking are important

198
Q

204.01A

Red Cross needs approximately ___ hours to set up

A

3 hours

199
Q

204.01A

Evacuations using truck include ___ horn blasts of yelp siren, evacuation instructions and should be initiated at the beginning of each block and every ____ yards

A

3 horns blasts
50 yards

200
Q

204.01A

Any time more than ____ people are evacuated, the duty chief or deputy chief advises the city manager of the situation.

A

10 people

201
Q

204.01A

The EOC liaison will report to the EOC every ____ minutes

A

30 minutes

202
Q

204.01B

Who will advise FD on proper decon procedures?

A

Poison Control

203
Q

204.01B

Run-off residue during hazmat scenes will be contained to ______

A

Hot Zone

204
Q

204.01B

What mode of transportation will not be used for patients involved in hazmat scenes?

A

Helicopter

205
Q

204.01C

Hazmat placards are only required for quantities up to ___ lbs when in transport.

A

1,000lbs

206
Q

204.01C

When cooling containers with flame impingement direct water streams where?

A

Apply heavy streams to the vaper space above the tank liquid

207
Q

204.01C

What chemical tank do we not put water on?

A

Chlorine Tanks

208
Q

204.02

What instrument is used for residential mercury releases?

A

Jerome Meter

209
Q

204.02

What type of mercury is found in BP cuffs, thermometers and in labs? What are exposure symptoms?

A

Elemental mercury. (Hg(o)) Fever, chills, dyspnea and headache.

210
Q

204.02

What type of mercury is found in scientific instruments, electrical equipment and manufacturing? What are the symptoms?

A

Inorganic mercury (HG+). Burning mouth, sore throat, nausea, vomiting, gingivitis.

211
Q

204.02

What type of mercury is found in smelting, mining or refining operations? What are the symptoms?

A

Organic Mercury (CH3Hg). Hearing defects and loss of concentration

212
Q

204.03

For Nuclear weapon fire, the initial evacuation zone should be ____ ft

A

2,000ft

213
Q

204.03

Initial attack of flammable liquids fires should be performed with?

A

AFFF/Class B Foam

214
Q

204.03

A foam seal will break down within ____ to___ minutes

A

10 to 15 minutes

215
Q

204.04

What is considered a small flammable liquid spill which can be absorbed or emulsified?

A

Less than 10 gallons of diesel or 30 gallons of unleaded fuel

216
Q

204.04

Natural gas is ___ than air

A

lighter

217
Q

204.05

What is the flammable range of natural gas?

A

4% to 15%

218
Q

204.05

CO max is ____ ppm

A

5ppm

219
Q

202.12E

Engine Mounted Master Streams offer large GPM with a flow rate of ____ to ____ gpm?

A

500-1,000

219
Q

204.06A

Members should don a SCBA if CO readings are above what?

A

35 ppm. any reading above 5 ppm is considered abnormal

220
Q

204.07

Without ventilation Clandestine Drug Labs can easily generate toxic levels of what gas?

A

Phosphine gas

221
Q

204.07

In regards to working with Clansdestine Drug labs, Command should contact who?

A

ADEQ (Arizona Department of Environmental Quality) Emergency Response Division

222
Q

204.07

Clansdestine Drug Labs will have a flame color of?

A

Bight or dark orange

223
Q

204.07

Who is responsible for the clean up of a clandestine lab

A

Law enforcement

224
Q

204.08

What is the minimum number of people need for a confined space rescue?

A

8

225
Q

204.08

When atmospheric testing for confined space rescue, the alarms should be set at what? and readings should be given every 5 mins

A

Oxygen: 19.5% - 23.5% (below 12% effect flammability readings)
CO: 35 ppm
Hydrogen Sulfide: 10 ppm
LEL: 10%

226
Q

204.08

During confined space rescue, crews should be rotated every ____ to____ minutes or 30min in winter

A

15-20 minutes

227
Q

204.08

For confined space rescue what class harness is required fro entry

A

Class II or III

228
Q

204.08

If explosion proof lighting is not available for confined space entry, what is the alternative?

A

Cyalume type lights (glow sticks)

229
Q

204.09

What depth/height defines a trench?

A

4 feet or greater

230
Q

202.12E

Engine Mounted Master Streams offer large GPM with a flow rate of ____ to ____ gpm?

A

500-1,000

231
Q

204.09

For trench rescue, the first arriving unit should stage ____ ft way at

A

50 ft

232
Q

204.09

For trench rescue, level 1 staging should be located ___ ft away

A

150 ft

233
Q

204.09

For trench rescue, divert all non-essential traffic at least _____ ft around the scene

A

300 ft

234
Q

204.09

For trench rescue, close all major streets within ____ ft of scene

A

500 ft

235
Q

204.09

For trench rescue, shut off non-essential equipment operating within ____ ft of scene

A

300 ft

236
Q

204.09

For trench rescue, ingress and egress ladders shall be no more than ____ ft apart or less

A

25 ft

237
Q

204.10

At what angle is a rope rescue technical?

A

40 to 90 degrees. greater than 60 degrees is high-angle operations .

238
Q

204.10

What is the safety factor for a rope rescue?

A

15:1

239
Q

204.10

Non-Technical Rescue is ____ degrees or less

A

40 degrees

240
Q

204.10

How many people should carry a stokes basket?

A

4 people ALL facing forward

241
Q
  1. 10

How many littler attendants used when the angle is greater than 40 degrees during High Angle Rope Rescue?

A

3

242
Q

204.10

What needs to be filled out prior to using a helicopter for rescue?

A

Load Calculation Form

243
Q

204.10

Kern Mantle Rope

A

Is rope constructed with its interior core protected by a woven exterior sheath designed to optimize strength, durability, and flexibility

244
Q

204.10

Rope for High Angle Rope Rescue is nylon kern mantle construction and contains ____ to ___ % of strength in its core?

A

75-85%

245
Q

204.10

Nylon rope used for High Angle Rope Rescue has a diameter of ____ and a strength of ___lbs

A

1.2” (12.7mm)
9,000 lbs

246
Q

204.10

Nylon rope used for HARR loses ____% of strength when wet?

A

15%

247
Q

204.10

Webbing is constructed of nylon that is ___ inches in diameter and has a strength of ____ lbs

A

1”
4,000lbs

248
Q

204.10

Rope and webbing should be washed using _____

A

Nonchlorine-based detergent and water

249
Q

204.10

Steel Carabiners strength
Aluminum Carabiners strength

A

Steel: 9,000 lbs
Aluminum: 5,500 lbs

250
Q

204.10

Pulleys sizes are either ___ or ___ and have a breaking strength of ___-___

A

2” and 4”
6,000-8,000

251
Q

204.10

Maintain at least a ___:___ safety margin when not belayed

A

15:1

252
Q

204.10

Belay loads when safety margin is less than ___:___

A

15:1

253
Q

204.10

Rescuers shall not operate with less than a ___:___ safety margin

A

10:1

254
Q

204.10

What 3 teams should be established at building collapse?

A
  1. Building Triage Team
  2. Search Team
  3. Rescue Team
255
Q

204.12

What direction should wall breaches be done in structural collapse rescue?

A

Vertically

256
Q

204.13

During tree rescue crews shall maintain a ____ radius around tree?

A

50 ft

257
Q

204.13

Where should first and second ladder be placed on a tree rescue?

A

1st: Under victim
2nd: Alongside of victim
(Ladders MUST be tied to tree)

258
Q

205.01

The minimum lever of stations to be staffed by move-ups?

A

201, 204, 206, 208, 209, 215, 219 and 220

259
Q

205.01

When will move up be provided?

A

When 2 or more adjacent fire stations will be uncovered fro more than 30 minutes

260
Q

205.01

If alarm does not receive acknowledgment within ____, the dispatcher will request acknowledgment over the radio

A

1 minute

261
Q

205.01

What channel is level 2 staging usually assigned?

A

C-deck Channels 5 or 6

262
Q

205.01

How often does alarm give time notifications?

A

Initial 10 mins, then every 5 mins

263
Q

205.01

Alarm will prompt command for a PAR after how long if it has not been done?

A

25 minutes

264
Q

205.01

What code is used when PD is needed urgently

A

906

265
Q

205.01

What happens when alarm alerts condition 2?

A

Radio traffic is restricted…essential communications only

266
Q

205.02

How are the staff vehicles identified?

A

Car 201 - Fire Chief
Car 202 -204 - Assistant Chief
Car 207 - operations chief
Car 213 - Chaplain

267
Q

205.06

Level I staging is automatically in effect for all incidents involving ____ or more companies

A

3 or more

268
Q

205.07

While parking at night traffic apparatus headlights should be turned off

A

True

269
Q

205.07

How far away should an apparatus be parked from a building?

A

30ft

270
Q

205.07A

How far away should the furthest traffic cone be placed when on the freeway?

A

150ft

271
Q

205.07A

Traffic ones should be ____ or taller

A

28 inches

272
Q

205.07A

Cones should have a ____:____ placement using 5 cones

A

10:1

273
Q

205.07A

The final cone placement shall be approximately ____ ft from rear of apparatus

A

30ft

274
Q

205.07A

If a retro-reflective, pink deployable sign is used, place it ____ paces upstream on the initial cones already deployed

A

10 paces (30ft)

275
Q

205.08A

DOC certification within ___ years from their initial hire date

A

2 Years

276
Q

205.08A

A DOC practical skills evaluation will be scheduled at least ____ days after successful completion of the probationary period

A

30 days

277
Q

205.08A

Current DOC will be notified ____ days prior to expiration of current DOC

A

90 days

278
Q

205.08A

DOC re-certification will be every ___ years

A

3 years

279
Q

205.08A

Each code 2 response is equal to ____ minutes of training

A

15 minutes

280
Q

205.08A

Complete and log a minimum of ____ hours of driver training

A

24 hours

281
Q

205.08A

At no time shall a fire department vehicle shall exceed ____ MPH over posted speed limit or a maximum of ____ MPH

A

10 MPH
65 MPH

282
Q

205.08A

One person will be positioned at least ____ feet from the rear of the apparatus prior to backing

A

10 feet

283
Q

205.08A

Oncoming traffic lanes, the maximum permissible speed of the apparatus shall be ____ MPH under the posted speed limit and a maximum of ____ within 100 feet of a four-way intersection

A

10 MPH
20 MPH

284
Q

205.08A

At least one red or red and blue light must be visible up to how many feet for code three driving?

A

500 ft

285
Q

205.08A

Manually controlled engine brakes should be turned off when?

A

When streets are wet

286
Q

205.08A

What are the buzzer signals for backing?

A

One buzz - stop
Two buzz - go

287
Q

205.09

An ARU will cover units out of service for an extended period of time…which means…

A

One hour or more for training, maintenance or emergency situations (excludes quarterly training)

288
Q

205.12

Units may stage in quarters if the call is within?

A

2 Blocks

289
Q

205.12

What is the proper response to notify alarm a unit is code 4 after hitting the emergency button?

A

“Unit designation, is code 4, apparatus vehicle number ___”

290
Q

205.12

When requesting code 4 checks from alarm, what information is needed?

A

Unit number, location and member ID number

291
Q

205.12

If PD is bringing us a pt. they are considered _____

A

Extrication Sector

292
Q

205.13

Crosswinds exceeding __ knots or a head wind exceeding __ knots can create an Alert 1 for Airports

A

20 knots
30 knots

293
Q

205.13

How far away should units stage from a runway for aircraft responses?

A

400 ft for large aircraft,
300 ft for smaller aircraft.

294
Q

205.13

What is the landing distance for aircraft?

A

1,200 ft to 6000 ft. (10,000 for large aircraft brake failures)

295
Q

205.13

When responding to a down aircraft, stay at least __ ft from the front of the engine.

A

30ft

296
Q

205.13

A jet engine can create an exhaust of up to ____ mph

A

300MPH

297
Q

205.13

Always approach a hot brake from _____

A

Front or back

298
Q

205.13

What taxiway should units stage at Mesa Gateway?

A

Kilo, short of runway (RWY 12R/30L)

299
Q

205.13

Unusual condition, Advisory only (headwind of 30 knots, crosswind of 20 knots, diversion of passenger plane)

A

Alert I

300
Q

205.13

Aircraft approaching with major difficulty. ARFF unit, one addle unit, bc dispatched

A

Alert II

301
Q

205.13

Crash on or off the airport, meet with WGA RP and be escorted to the scene . PD takes over once command is terminate

A

Alert III

302
Q

205.15

For freeway responses, what lights are recommended to be used when approaching the scene?

A

The hazard lights, instead of the code three lights

303
Q

205.15

When taking command of a scene on a freeway, your initial report should include what?

A

Traffic conditions
Fire/No fire
lanes occupied

304
Q

205.15

Attempt to clear incidents on freeway within ____ minutes

A

30 minutes

305
Q

205.20

Electrical equipment is classified as (3)?

A
  1. Energized
  2. De-Energized
  3. Dead
306
Q

205.20

Completing a circuit where you are the source to ground

A

Step Potential (More severe when ground is wet)

307
Q

205.20

Power lines tend to have ____ and may curl back on itself when down

A

Reel memory

308
Q

205.20

If power line is on vehicle instruct them to ___ NOT step out and ensure they do not touch vehicle and ground at same time, and walk away with small steps

A

Jump free

309
Q

206.01

When placing apparatus, spot vehicle approximately ____ ft past residence or before if needed

A

100ft

310
Q

206.02B

The infectious disease mitigation plan falls in line with what strategic initiative number?

A

7: reevaluate ff health and wellness programs

311
Q

206.01

How can you tell if a PD case has been assigned to your call?

A

A three digit PD number will appear in front of the med type

312
Q

206.01

When dealing with customers with ALOC as a result from alcohol/drugs or mental illness how should be approach?

A

Introduce ourselves as firefighters and that we are here for them and ask what we can do to help

313
Q

206.01

What side of the door should we stand near for safety?

A

The doorknob side

314
Q

206.01

How should you position yourself when talking with a potentially dangerous person?

A

At a partial right angle and out of arms reach

315
Q

206.02

What is the area where decontaminated equipment is pleaced?

A

The Drop Zone

316
Q

206.06

Who do you contact for recommendation for gross decon?

A

BSO 202

317
Q

206.06

When are Captains responsible for conducting monthly protective FF clothing/equipment safety review

A

First Saturday of Saturday Set

318
Q

206.06

Battalion Aids will keep PPE inspection reports for how long?

A

3 years

319
Q

206.06

As promotions occur, helmets can be purchased for $25 if older than ____ years from manufactured date

A

5 years

320
Q

206.06

BSO ____ manages PPE cleaning pickup/delivery

A

202

321
Q

206.06

Each station will have 1 turn-in date per ____ month period to allow for each set of turnouts to be cleaned

A

6 month

322
Q

206.06

How much is the leather structure boot voucher?

A

$300

323
Q

206.14

For aggressive bees stage approximately ____ mile(s) away and remain at least ____ ft away from swarm

A

1/4 mile
150 ft

324
Q

206.14

What can be used to suppress bees while using wide fog?

A

A foam mix at 3%…dry chem can also be used

325
Q

206.21

The large metal arm that connect the light rail train to the overhead wires

A

A pantograph

326
Q

206.21

How are light rail trains powered?

A

The traction powered substations (TPSS) proved DC current through the overhead lines. The tracks are the negative return (no electrical threat)

327
Q

206.21

How fast do the light rail trains travel and what is their stopping distance?

A

35 to 55 mph
190 foot stopping distance at 35 mph

328
Q

206.21
How much forces will the light rail track switches operate at?

A

1200 lbs

329
Q

206.21

How high are the overhead light rail wires, what are they tensioned at and what is their current?

A

18 feet high

750-950 DC, 2000-6000 amps (amps kill)

330
Q

206.21

What is the tension of the overhead light rail wires (top and bottom)

A

Top 5,000 lbs
Bottom 3,000 lbs

331
Q

206.21

What is the current of the overheard ligh rail wires ?

A

750-950 DC
2,000-6,0000 amps

332
Q

206.21

What disables the light rail train (engages brakes and disables the throttle)

A

Removing the key (done by the operator)

333
Q

206.21
When does the light rail train pose an electrocution risk?

A

When it has derailed and is unable to lower the pantograph (disconnect from the overhead lines)

334
Q

206.21
OSHA requires a __ foot buffer from ungrounded electrical sources (light rail)

A

10 ft

335
Q

206.21

What is the empty weight of light rail and what is the max capacity?

A

103,000 lbs empty
200 person max

336
Q

206.21

The light rail has a bumper and bar ____ inches off the track to reduce the chance of people or cars getting trapped underneath

A

3 inches

337
Q

206.21

What is the response time for the Metro vehicle designed to lift light rail during emergency

A

30-60 minutes

338
Q

209.01
What is the highest level of care for SMI patients

A

ACT - assertive community treatment

339
Q

209.01
When is the CM unit available?

A

10 am to 8:30 pm 7 days a week.

FSIAS1W42LIELFB (4 decks)

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