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SOP'S Flashcards

1
Q

Inspection of the protective clothing of all members assigned to their platoon shall be conducted by and when?

A

District Chief
1st tour of January and july

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2
Q

Who shall be notified anytime 5 gallons or more of AR-AFFF is used at an incident?

A

District Chief and DEM

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3
Q

Preferred class B foam used by PFD unless situation dictates? (TB Firefighting Foam concentrate)

A

Non Flourinated Foam

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4
Q

What percent of smoke detectors troubles are false in the 1st year of operation?

A

5%

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5
Q

SOP 40 Incident Safety Officer

Who shall be the primary incident safety officer at any emergency scene?

A

Safety Battalion Chief

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6
Q

SOP 40 Incident Safety Officer

Who is a member of the incident command staff and reports directly to the IC?

A

The Incident Safety Officer

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7
Q

SOP 40 Incident Safety Officer

Who in the absence of the Safety Battalion Chief shall assume the role of the Incident Safety Officer?

A

A qualified Fire Officer

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8
Q

SOP 45 Rapid Damage Assessment

Damage assessment will be done according to routes established by?

A

Captain of each company

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9
Q

SOP 45 Rapid Damage Assessment

The initial damage assessment is conducted to evaluate four specific concerns related to each survey route they are?

A

•Access
•Flooding
•Structural Damage
•Infrastructure and other related hazards

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10
Q

SOP 45 Rapid Damage Assessment

Damage assessment shall be done on the orders of the?

A

Chief of the Dept or his designee for anticipated events (hurricanes)

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11
Q

SOP 45 Rapid Damage Assessment

Damage assessment shall be done on the orders of the?

A

Deputy Assistant Chief for unanticipated events such as a tornado or an explosion

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12
Q

SOP 45 Rapid Damage Assessment

Radio reports of major damage for anticipated events shall be reported to?

A

The District Chief or Area Command (if activated) on a channel to be designated by fire alarm

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13
Q

SOP 45 Rapid Damage Assessment

Should an incident occur without warning the DAC shall appoint?

A

Chief Officer to act as the damage assessment group leader

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14
Q

SOP 45 Rapid Damage Assessment

For anticipated disasters such as a hurricane, the officer in command of each company shall?

A

Contact all class 1 and 2 hazard occupancies in their district, 24 hours in advance of the storm and ensure that their emergency plan has been activated.

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15
Q

SOP 45 Rapid damage assessment

Companies will stop only for?

A

Immediate life threatening injuries or rapidly spreading fires

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16
Q

SOP 45 Rapid Damage Assessment

The file is to be available at all times for immediate use and is to be checked by the captain on?

A

June 1st of each year

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17
Q

SOP 45 Rapid Damage Assessment

Items to be contained in this file are as follows?

A
  1. This SOP
  2. Pre-fire assessment chart
  3. District Map
  4. Adequate number of Assessment forms
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18
Q

SOP 51 Paid Detail Procedure

When you are contacted by the detail office for future detail you have how long to respond back?

A

24 hrs

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19
Q

SOP 52 Providence Safe Station

Criteria for transport to emergency department?

A

-Heart rate <50 bpm or >130 bpm
-Systolic pressure <90mmHg or >160mmHg
-Respiratory Rate <10/min or >28/min
-SpO2 <92 at room air
-Temperature >101 degrees
-Altered Mental Status or GCS <14
-Blood Glucose by finger stick <60 or >300
-signs of trauma requiring further evaluation

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20
Q

SOP 1 Protective Clothing

What should you do with protective clothing found to be contaminated with chemical, biological, radiological or nuclear agents and who should you notify?

A

Shall be removed from service immediately and notification shall be made to the IC or district chief.

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21
Q

SOP 1 Protective Clothing

Who shall be responsible for inspection of protective clothing for contamination upon conclusion of an incident?

A

All members

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22
Q

SOP 1 Protective Clothing

Where should heavily contaminated clothing be stored?

A

In compartments to avoid cross contamination

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23
Q

SOP 1 Protective Clothing

When and who does the inspection of the protective clothing?

A

First tour of each January and July and by the district chief.

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24
Q

SOP 1 Protective Clothing

What should the district chief do when an item of protective clothing is unsafe?

A

Removed from service immediately

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25
Q

SOP 2 SCBA

When should an SCBA be used by all personnel working in areas?

A

1) the atmosphere is hazardous.
2) the atmosphere is suspected of being hazardous.
3) the atmosphere may rapidly become hazardous.
4) below ground level
5) inside any confined space

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26
Q

SOP 2 SCBA

NFPA 1500 prohibits what that interferes with the face piece seal?

A

Beard or facial hair

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27
Q

SOP 2 SCBA

Members using scba shall operate in teams of?

A

2 or more

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28
Q

SOP 2 SCBA

Who is strictly accountable for the whereabouts of the personnel assigned to their unit at all times?

A

Company officers

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29
Q

SOP 2 SCBA

When using scba, team members may be in communication with each other by means of?

A

Visual contact, audible contact, direct physical contact, electronic/radio contact, or by use of safety guide ropes

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30
Q

SOP 2 SCBA

How many should be outside the area where respiratory protection is required when members are involved in operations that require the use of SCBA and what are the duties?

A

One member at structure fires this will ordinarily be the IC although until the arrival of the chief on the scene, the pump operator may perform this function. This member shall maintain an awareness of the number and identity of personnel using SCBA, their location and function, and their approximate time of entry.

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31
Q

SOP 2 SCBA

When members are using SCBA, the incident commander shall ensure that?

A

Members equipped with SCBA are available for rescue. These members may be assigned other duties, but must be immediately available for reassignment to rescue a member or a team should the need arise.

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32
Q

SOP 3 Apparatus Safety

It is the responsibility of who of each fire dept vehicle to drive in a safe and prudent manner under all conditions?

A

The operator

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33
Q

SOP 3 Apparatus Safety

Under the direct supervision of who that the officer shall also assume the responsibility for the actions of the vehicle operator?

A

Officer

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34
Q

SOP 3 Apparatus Safety

The emergency vehicle operators first priority is?

A

The safe arrival of the fire dept vehicle and the safety of the personnel riding on the vehicle.

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35
Q

SOP 3 Apparatus Safety

When should spotters be used?

A

Where vehicles must negotiate forward turns with restrictive side clearances and where height clearances are uncertain.

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36
Q

SOP 3 Apparatus Safety

Vehicle operators shall not move fire dept vehicles until?

A

All persons in the vehicle are seated and secured with seat belts in approved riding positions.

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37
Q

SOP 3 Apparatus Safety

Emergency warning lights may be used in the following situations to increase visibility?

A

1) when an apparatus is backing in or out of a space where other vehicles or pedestrian traffic exists.

2) when operating under conditions of reduced visibility, such as fog, rain and snow.

3) when operating on a limited access highway and unable to maintain speed comparable to the flow of traffic.

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38
Q

SOP 3 Apparatus Safety

Fire dept vehicles are authorized to exceed posted speed limits by a maximum of?

A

10 mph only when responding to an emergency under favorable conditions.

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39
Q

SOP 3 Apparatus Safety

During an emergency response, operators of fire dept vehicles shall bring the vehicle to a complete stop for any of the following?

A

1) Red traffic lights.
2) stop signs.
3) negative right of way intersections.
4) blind intersections.
5) when unable to account for all lanes of traffic in an intersection.
6) when directed by a law enforcement officer.
7) when encountering a stopped school bus with flashing warning lights on.

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40
Q

SOP 3 Apparatus Safety

All engine, transmission and driveline retarders shall not be used when?

A

Roads are wet and/ or slippery, with the exception of telma retarders, which may be used under any conditions.

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41
Q

SOP 3 Apparatus Safety

All tools, equipment or SCBA carried within an enclosed seating area shall?

A

Be secured by a positive mechanical means.

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42
Q

SOP 4 Emergency Traffic Warble Tone

The emergency traffic signal warble tone shall be used in the following situations?

A

1) whenever a building evacuation is ordered.
2) whenever a mayday message has been received.
3) whenever there is an increase in accountability level.
4) whenever there is a change in operational mode from offensive to defensive.
5) whenever the incident commander requests emergency traffic.

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43
Q

SOP 4 Emergency Traffic Warble Tone

How many seconds after does fire alarm activate the emergency traffic warble tone if the IC does not acknowledge the mayday message?

A

5 seconds and also the warble tone is sounded for a duration of 5 seconds as well.

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44
Q

SOP 4 Emergency Traffic Warble Tone

The emergency traffic warble tone shall be tested by fire alarm at?

A

0800 hrs and 1800 hrs

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45
Q

SOP 4 Emergency Traffic Warble Tone

A message given by or for a member who is need of immediate assistance due to a fall, collapse, being lost, trapped, stuck, having an SCBA emergency, medical emergency or any other reason you feel your life or another members life may be in danger?

A

Mayday message

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46
Q

SOP 4 Emergency Traffic Warble Tone

A steady series of short blasts on apparatus air horns lasting approximately 30 seconds?

A

Air Horn Evacuation Signal

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47
Q

SOP 5 Response to Gas Emergencies

Level 1 gas emergency?

A

• Residential structure of 3 units or less.
• A small unattached commercial structure.
• Propane grill incidents outside residential structures.

Response for Level 1 gas emergency: 1 engine, 1 ladder, Chief officer and special hazards

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48
Q

SOP 5 Response to Gas Emergencies

Level 2 Gas Emergency?

A

• Residential structures of 4 units or more.
• High occupancy structures.
• High hazard structures.
• High pressure leak either from below ground or above.
• An incident in the downtown commercial district.

The response for a level 2 gas emergency shall be 3 engines, 2 ladders, 1 chief officer, 1 rescue, and special hazards.

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49
Q

SOP 5 Response to Gas Emergencies

If at anytime members feel that there is a threat to their safety?

A

They should not proceed farther regardless of any reading on any meter.

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50
Q

SOP 5 Response to Gas Emergencies

If at anytime a CGI reads 10% of the LEL or higher, the area?

A

Should be evacuated immediately

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51
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

Marine 1?

A

•39’ Metal Craft Marine Fire Boat.
•may be deployed for marine related emergencies involving search and rescue, dive operations, shipboard firefighting, assistance to land based firefighting units, hazardous material incidents and environmental emergency incidents.
• minimum crew for marine 1 is two qualified operators.

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52
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

Marine 2?

A

• 14’ Achilles SG 140 assigned to E2
• powered by a 25 horsepower outboard engine
• can be used on any inland pond or inland body of water as well as the Seekonk river, upper providence river and the port of providence provided a GAR score of less than 20 is calculated.

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53
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

Marine 3?

A

• 14’ Achilles SG 140 assigned to E11
• powered by a 25 horsepower outboard engine.
• minimum crew of 2 and maximum crew or 3

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54
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

Special hazards has 2 boats which are?

A

The first small boat is a 10’ Achilles rigid hull inflatable powered by a 5 horse power outboard engine. The second boat is a 10’ Avon inflatable dingy. Either boat shall be operated by two crew members.

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55
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

GAR?

A

Green (low risk) score: 10 and 20
Amber (caution) score: 30 and 40
Red (high risk) score: 50 and 60

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56
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

For marine 1 responses?

A

The district chief and the most qualified marine 1 operator shall consult the GAR model for determining responses capabilities of the assembled crew.

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57
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

For small boat responses?

A

The district chief and company officer in charge of the small boat shall consult the GAR model for determining the response capabilities of the assembled crew.

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58
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

What type of flotation device shall be worn at all times by members operating in boats, except for members in survival suits?

A

United States Coast Guard Approved Type 3 Personal Flotation Devices.

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59
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

When should survival suits be used by all members operating in the small boat assets?

A

From October 15th to May 15th and any other time water temperature is below 60 degrees Fahrenheit.

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60
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

What shall not be worn while in small boats?

A

Protective ensembles for structural firefighting.

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61
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

What shall be worn by members operating on the deck of Marine 1 when actively involved in firefighting operations?

A

Structural Firefighting Personal Protective Equipment including SCBA

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62
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

Who and what when crew members of Marine 1 are operating in full structural firefighting personal protective equipment including SCBA

A

The IC shall designate a port of providence marine strike team asset to be assigned the role of water side RIT.

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63
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

What is the role of the water side RIT?

A

To rescue members if an AWI occurs.

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64
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

What message should be said if an AWI occurs involving crews from either shore or the deck of a marine asset?

A

Mayday, Mayday, Mayday man overboard.

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65
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

Whenever any boat is used, whether for training or an emergency, the officer in command shall inform fire alarm of the following information?

A

1) That the boat is underway.
2) Officer in Commands name
3) Crew Size
4) Purpose/Location

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66
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

For incidents requiring Marine 1, that occur within city limits, fire alarm will dispatch?

A

Division 1 with the safety operations battalion to the vicinity on shore of the reported incident location.

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67
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

For emergencies on any inland pond or inland body of water who responds?

A

1 engine, 1 engine with a trailered small boat, 1 ladder, special hazards, 1 district chief, and 1 rescue.

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68
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

When a small boat is to be deployed at an emergency incident?

A

Division 1 and safety operation battalion shall be dispatched.

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69
Q

SOP 6 Marine Operations

No small boat is to be deployed for training or detail without the authority of a?

A

District chief and safety operations battalion

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70
Q

SOP 7 Infection Control

What is the most important infection control procedure?

A

Hand washing

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71
Q

SOP 7 Infection Control

Hand washing with soap and water shall be performed for a minimum of?

A

10 to 15 seconds

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72
Q

SOP 7 Infection Control

Structural firefighting gloves will be worn over medical gloves in situations where?

A

Sharp or rough edges are likely to be encountered.

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73
Q

SOP 7 Infection Control

Medical gloves should be changed between?

A

Patients in multiple casualty situations

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74
Q

SOP 7 Infection Control

What may be used for handling, cleaning, decontaminating or disinfecting potentially contaminated patient care equipment

A

Heavy duty utility gloves

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75
Q

SOP 7 Infection Control

Who shall ensure that their vehicles have adequate stock of personal protective equipment and infection control at all times?

A

Captains

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76
Q

SOP 7 Infection Control

Who is responsible for the supply, repair and replacement of personal protective equipment and infection control equipment?

A

The Department

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77
Q

SOP 7 Infection Control

All bins, pails, cans and similar receptacles intended for reuse shall be inspected and decontaminated on the?

A

1st day back of each cycle and upon visible contamination

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78
Q

SOP 7 Infection Control

The most common blood exposure occur when?

A

Needles are being recapped

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79
Q

SOP 7 Infection Control

Any member having an occupational communicable disease exposure including but not limited to TB exposure or needle stick exposure will immediately report the exposure or needle stick to?

A

The BOC will then notify the appropriate district chief.

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80
Q

SOP 7 Infection Control

Copies of all exposure reports, doctors reports and medical records pertaining to the exposure shall be placed in the members medical file and maintained for at least?

A

30 years after the members employment is terminated.

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81
Q

SOP 7 Infection Control

Members must ensure that the treating physician is directed to forward copies of the doctors reports and medical records to?

A

Headquarters

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82
Q

SOP 7 Infection Control

Hepatitis B vaccinations shall be offered periodically by the Department and within?

A

10 days of the initial assignment of a member to emergencies duties.

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83
Q

SOP 8 Operations at Incident Involving Asbestos

When an ACM becomes old?

A

It often becomes crumbly and flaky. In this state, it is said to be friable.

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84
Q

SOP 8 Operations at Incident Involving Asbestos

Members shall not enter known asbestos contaminated areas to investigate accidental or defective fire alarm devices without authorization of a?

A

District chief

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85
Q

SOP 8 Operations at Incidents Involving Asbestos

For incidents at unregulated sites, contact who?

A

DEM as soon as possible

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86
Q

SOP 8 Operations at Incidents Involving Asbestos

Who shall be notified of any operations involving possible exposure to asbestos?

A

The safety operations battalion

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87
Q

SOP 8 Operations at Incidents Involving Asbestos

Any item that cannot be appropriately decontaminated shall be turned over to an appropriate disposal company after consultation with?

A

DEM and or the Dept of Health

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88
Q

SOP 8 Operations at Incidents Involving Asbestos

Fires involving asbestos covered boilers or piping shall not be?

A

Overhauled. Fog lines may be used from a distance to cool smoldering insulation. As light a fog spray as possible should be used to minimize disturbing the insulation.

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89
Q

SOP 9 Search and Rescue

What are the strategic objectives?

A

A. Firefighter Safety
B. Civilian Removal
C. Fire Control
1. Life Exposure
2. Exterior Exposure
3. Interior Exposure

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90
Q

SOP 9 Search and Rescue

What are the Tactical Objectives?

A

Ladder Companies / special hazards
A. Ladder Rescues
B. Search
C. Ventilation

Engine Companies
A. Search
B. Fire Control

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91
Q

SOP 9 Search and Rescue

What are the order of victim priorities?

A
  1. Severely Exposed: person in imminent danger of death or severe injury due to fire exposure. Those persons on the fire floor or the floor above the fire.
  2. Moderately Exposed: Those persons on the fire floor or floor above the fire who are conscious, ambulatory and need only direction.
  3. Slightly Exposed: persons remote from the fire area who are in no immediate danger and need no immediate assistance to evacuate the building.
  4. Body Recovery: firefighters shall not be exposed to unnecessary danger in order to perform body recovery.
    A. Human remains shall at all times be treated with the utmost dignity and respect and shall be covered and protected until arrival of the medical examiner.
    B. Victim Removal: victims shall be removed in the following order of preferences:
  5. Self (unassisted) using normal exits.
  6. Fire Department assisted via normal exits.
  7. Fire Department assisted via aerial devices and ground ladder.
  8. Fire department search and rescue operations.
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92
Q

SOP 9 Search and Rescue

Primary search?

A

A rapid search of all involved and exposed areas affected by fire that can safely be entered. It’s purpose is to verify the removal and/or safety of all occupants. A primary search shall be conducted on all offensive structural firefighting operations as a matter of course.

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93
Q

SOP 9 Search and Rescue

Secondary Search?

A

A complete, thorough search of the interior of the fire area after completing fire control, ventilation and other required support activities.It is essential a search for all bodies that may not have been located during the primary search. If possible, a secondary search should be conducted by members other than those who conducted the primary search.

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94
Q

SOP 9 Search and Rescue

NFPA statistics on fire deaths indicate the largest group of fire victims are?

A
  1. Elderly
  2. Infants
  3. Small children
  4. Intoxicated
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95
Q

SOP 9 Search and Rescue

Causes of victims being trapped?

A
  1. Victims cut off from their means of escape.
  2. Victims overcome while trying to escape.
  3. Victims asleep at the outbreak of fire.
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96
Q

SOP 9 Search and Rescue

How do you search?

A

Members shall enter a room and maintain contact with a wall using a hand or leg. Search in a clockwise or counter clockwise direction while probing the middle of the floor with a tool or extended leg.

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97
Q

SOP 9 Search and Rescue

The first arriving engine company officer shall order a hose line advanced with the following tactical objectives?

A
  1. Protection of firefighters
  2. Protection of victims
  3. Protection of means of egress
  4. Fire control
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98
Q

SOP 9 Search and Rescue

Company officers shall notify command of?

A
  1. Victims Located
  2. Completion of search
  3. Areas unable to be searched
  4. Fire extension
  5. Location of fire
  6. Progress of hoseline
    a. Company advancing
    b. Company holding
    c. Company retreating
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99
Q

SOP 10 Emergency Building Evacuation

The IC shall determine how the roll call is to be conducted?

A

a. Conducting a face to face roll call
b. Conducting a full roll call via department radio.
c. Conducting a limited roll call via department radio.
d. Having fire alarm conduct a full or limited roll call.

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100
Q

SOP 10 Emergency Building Evacuation

A steady series of short blasts on apparatus air horns lasting approximately 30 seconds?

A

Air Horn Evacuation Signal

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101
Q

SOP 10 Emergency Building Evacuation

A term used by the company officer to communicate that a company roll call has been conducted and all members are accounted for?

A

Personnel Accountability Report (PAR)

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102
Q

SOP 10 Emergency Building Evacuation

The accounting for the whereabouts and safety of members at emergency incidents. Roll calls take place in 2 phases, first by the company officer accounting for members operating under their direct supervision, second by the IC or Fire Alarm accounting for units operating at an emergency incident.

A

Roll Call

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103
Q

SOP 11 Accountability Procedure

Upon reporting for duty, it shall be the responsibility of each member to?

A

Print their name on the accountability form and cross off the name of the off going member.

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104
Q

SOP 11 Accountability Procedure

At what time each day, the company officer shall ensure that the accountability form has been prepared and the accountability form from the previous tour has been removed from the apparatus.

A

0800

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105
Q

SOP 11 Accountability Procedure

Who shall maintain an ongoing awareness of the location and condition of all company members under their command and shall be responsible for their actions?

A

Company Officers

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106
Q

SOP 11 Accountability Procedure

In the event company members must separate for any reason, they shall operate in teams of?

A

2 or more

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107
Q

SOP 11 Accountability Procedures

Level 1 accountability?

A

• initial operations at structure fires in residential occupancies of 3 units or less.
• Level 1 gas emergencies
• Carbon monoxide investigations
• Emergencies or potential emergencies that involve an IDLH atmosphere.
• Mass Casualty Incidents

Under Level 1 accountability members may separate into teams of 2 or more:
a. All aspects of two in and two out requirements are met.
b. The company officer maintains an awareness of the location and condition of all members assigned to the company, including those not in their immediate location.
c. Roof teams shall report to the IC when they are clear of the roof.
d. Officers and companies operating in teams of firefighters are to notify the IC of their location and any time they change their location.

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108
Q

SOP 11 Accountability Procedures

Level 2 accountability?

A

• Structure fires in residential occupancies greater than 3 units.
• structure fires in commercial occupancies.
• second alarm or greater incidents
• level 2 gas emergencies
• anytime ordered by the IC.

b. Any increase in accountability level shall require fire alarm to activate the emergency traffic warble tone. Companies not together shall reunite as soon as possible.
c. Level 2 accountability requires all members of the company to remain in communication with each other through visual, audible, physical means or safety guide rope.
d. Roof teams shall follow letter C above and reunite with the company officer as soon as reasonably possible. Apparatus operators shall remain at the pump operator position.
e. Company officers are responsible for enforcement of this requirement.

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109
Q

SOP 11 Accountability Procedures

Level 3 accountability?

A

• hazardous materials incidents
• confined space incidents
• Ice Rescues
• Radiological Incidents
• Terrorism Incidents
• Active Shooter incidents
• any time ordered by the IC

c. Members entering and exiting hazardous areas or hot zones shall be documented
d. Pertinent information shall be documented including members name, SCBA cylinder level, time in and time out.
e. Strict control over entry and exit from hazardous areas shall be maintained.

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110
Q

SOP 11 Accountability Procedures

At all incidents that proceed beyond the investigation mode who shall be responsible for knowing the location and function of all companies operating at the scene?

A

IC

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111
Q

SOP 11 Accountability Procedures

What shall not be effectuated when multiple alarms or an emergency declared by the chief of dept or other authorized officer shall exist?

A

Reliefs

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112
Q

SOP 11 Accountability Procedures

IC should consider assigning who specifically to track and effectuate reliefs?

A

Accountability Officer

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113
Q

SOP 11 Accountability Procedures

Any atmosphere that exposes a member or civilian to air-born contaminants that are likely to cause death or immediate or delayed permanent adverse health effects or prevent escape from such environment?

A

Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH)

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114
Q

SOP 11 Accountability Procedures

A term used by the company officer to communicate that a company roll call has been conducted and all members are accounted for?

A

Personnel Accountability Report (PAR)

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115
Q

SOP 11 Accountability Procedures

The accounting for the whereabouts and safety of members at emergency incidents. Roll calls take place in 2 phases, first by the company officer accounting for members operating under their direct supervision, second by the IC or Fire Alarm accounting for units operating at an emergency incident?

A

Roll Call

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116
Q

SOP 12 Response to Explosive Devices

The purpose of the Fire Department response for explosive devices is to?

A

Provide a standby medical, rescue, and/or extrication team at a remote staging location.

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117
Q

SOP 12 Response to Explosive Devices

At no time will Fire Dept equipment or personnel become directly involved with?

A

The search, handling or removal of an explosive device or material.

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118
Q

SOP 12 Response to Explosive Devices

If the threat does not constitute a what, Fire Dept will not take any action other than as provided below?

A

Fire or Explosion

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119
Q

SOP 12 Response to Explosive Devices

The police dept may request the fire dept to provide what?

A

Standby assistance while they or the bomb squad disarms or removes an explosive device or material. The fire dept wil be requested only after a device or materials are discovered.

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120
Q

SOP 12 Response to Explosive Devices

Upon police request, Fire Alarm will dispatch who?

A

1 engine, 1 ladder, 1 rescue, 1 district chief, safety operations, and division 1 to assist police.

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121
Q

SOP 12 Response to Explosive Devices

A staging area will be established approximately how far from the incident scene?

A

1/4 mile. The first arriving unit will announce the staging location. In some cases, the police will designate a staging location.

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122
Q

SOP 12 Response to Explosive Devices

Who do you request to the staging area as a liaison?

A

Police Officer. If a police command post has been established, the district chief shall proceed to the command post as a liaison.

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123
Q

SOP 12 Response to Explosive Devices

Companies shall remain staged until what?

A

Police release them, or an accident occurs and medical, firefighting or extrication services are needed at the incident site.

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124
Q

SOP 12 Response to Explosive Devices

In the event of a confirmed explosion, the balance of the first alarm shall dispatch who?

A

2 engines, 1 ladder, and Special Hazards

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125
Q

SOP 12 Response to Explosive Devices

What are the four C’s

A

• Consider: explosion has taken place
• Check: 25 Ft from inside truck and 100 ft once outside the truck
• Clear: all civilians and non essential personnel from area.
• Control: the flow of arriving personnel, prevent unauthorized personnel from entering the area.

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126
Q

SOP 13 Investigating Structures Protected by Private Alarms

Procedures with responsible party on scene?

A
  1. First arriving unit shall locate a responsible party and determine the cause of the alarm.
  2. Take any appropriate action consistent with Providence Fire Dept SOP.
  3. Attempt to reset fire alarm panel.
  4. If unable to reset, instruct responsible party to have system restored as soon as possible.
  5. Make notification via department radio of the status of fire alarm system.
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127
Q

SOP 13 Investigating Structures Protected by Private Alarms

Procedures with no responsible party on scene?

A
  1. First arriving unit shall attempt to gain entry without causing damage.
    2.Take any appropriate action consistent with PFD SOP.
  2. Obtain ETA of responsible party from BOC.
  3. Ask BOC to have private alarm company attempt automatic reset if possible.
  4. If ETA is less than 30 mins one unit shall stand by.
  5. If ETA is greater than 30 mins, members shall investigate the building as thoroughly as possible before returning to service.
    7.Make notification via department radio of the ability or inability to gain access.
  6. If no entry was gained, the company whose district the structure is located in shall reinvestigate the next business day.
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128
Q

SOP 13 Investigating Structures Protected by Private Alarm

Anytime members force entry to a structure and are unable to secure the structure who should you contact?

A

The BOC shall be notified and Providence Police Dept shall respond.

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129
Q

SOP 13 Investigating Structures Protected by Private Alarms

What shall be utilized for any private fire alarms with repeated defective devices?

A

Complaint Slips

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130
Q

SOP 13 Investigating Structures Protected by Private Alarm

Any business that monitors fire alarm systems and reports the activity of such alarms to the BOC?

A

Private Alarm Company

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131
Q

SOP 13 Investigating Structures Protected by Private Alarm

A person who is accountable for the security or wellbeing of a structure?

A

Responsible Party

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132
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

In the event of a potential emergency that may require the recall of off duty personnel who shall order a recall alert?

A

Chief of Department

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133
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

Who is responsible for effectuating the recall alert notification process?

A

The on duty Chiefs

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134
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

Where do the personnel from rescue and the EMS Battalion Chief report to?

A

Branch Ave Station which will serve as the EMS Staging area.

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135
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

All engine and ladder companies will be staffed with how many?

A

One officer and 4 firefighters

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136
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

The assignment of personnel to reserve apparatus will be coordinated by?

A

Deputy Assistant Chief and the District Chief

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137
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

The dept has sufficient equipment to place how many task forces into operation?

A

7

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138
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

Each task force will consist of what?

A

2 engines, 1 ladder and a chief officer. When a ladder company is unavailable a third engine may be used.

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139
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

The chief officer assigned to a task force is designated as what?

A

Task force commander

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140
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

At least how many police cars and how many police officers shall be assigned to each rescue unit?

A

At least one police car with at least two police officers.

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141
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

As the disturbance escalates and a police staging area and police field command post is established who will be assigned to the staging area and will serve as the liaison officer?

A

Chief officer

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142
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

What is the primary mission of the national guard?

A

Is to restore order and protect firefighting personnel and equipment.

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143
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

Mutual aid units will be staffed with what?

A

One providence officer and 3 or 4 providence firefighters

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144
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

All members operating during civil disturbances will wear what?

A

Full protective clothing and equipment at all times while responding to, on duty at, and returning from fires and emergencies.

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145
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

How many are to be at the pump operators position at all times when the apparatus is pumping?

A

Two firefighters

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146
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

Who will be staged at each battalion headquarters or other designated area during advanced stages of a civil disturbance?

A

Extra personnel

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147
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

If a prolonged disturbance with serious fires is encountered who will be established and where will it be initiated and who will coordinate it?

A

Relief crews will be established, headquarters will initiate it and designated officers will coordinate it at various staging areas.

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148
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

If an apparatus becomes disabled in a critical area and must be abandoned because of extreme circumstances , personnel will what?

A

Turn off radio and remove the radio microphones before abandoning the apparatus and will leave on the other apparatus assigned to the task force.

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149
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

Hose lines should be positioned where of involved buildings as rapidly as possible to prevent extensions to exposures?

A

Rear and sides of involved buildings

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150
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

Most fires during civil disturbances originate where?

A

Main streets

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151
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

No attempt should be made to extinguish what?

A

Burning gas mains

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152
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

Box alarms sounded from habitual false alarm boxes outside the critical area will be covered by who?

A

One engine or other designated unit.

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153
Q

SOP 14 Major Civil Disturbances

Service vehicles such as gas trucks, supply trucks, trouble trucks, etc will be under the command of who?

A

Special service division to which they are normally assigned and will be available as required

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154
Q

SOP 15 Rail Operations

Amtrak operates what? Providence and Worcester railroad operates what?

A

Passenger service and freight lines

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155
Q

SOP 15 Rail Operations

What is the IC first priority when dealing with a rail incident?

A

Controlling the hazards associated with rail response.

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156
Q

SOP 15 Rail Operations

Electricity flows from the overhead wires through connections called and flows how many volts of electricity?

A

Pantographs. These lines contain 25,000 volts of electricity

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157
Q

SOP 15 Rail Operations

No member shall approach any closer than how many feet to any Acela train until electrical hazards had been eliminated?

A

20 feet

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158
Q

SOP 15 Rail Operations

The train may contain as much as how many volts of residual electricity after the power has been shut down?

A

2000 volt. It must be grounded at both ends by qualified railroad personnel before operations can proceed.

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159
Q

SOP Rail Operations

Lookouts should be equipped with portable radios and a minimum of how far from the area of operation?

A

1/2 mile

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160
Q

SOP 15 Railway Operations

The lookouts shall display the universal railroad stop signal which is?

A

Waving a light or object back and forth across the body perpendicular to the tracks.

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161
Q

SOP 15 Rail Operations

Responding agencies are to be notified of the location and nature of the incident and of the law enforcement and responding agency 800 MHz radio channel which channel is assigned?

A

Wide area 4 C bank

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162
Q

SOP Rail Operations

The BOC is to request a what coordinator from the host hospital if the incident involves a mass casualty incident?

A

On Scene

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163
Q

SOP 15 Rail Operation

For incidents involving rail incidents a what to command is required?

A

Unified approach

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164
Q

SOP 15 Rail Operation

Hazardous Materials Transported through Providence via rail?

A

• Anhydrous Ammonia: 89 cars
• Chlorine: 85 cars
• Chloroacetyl Chloride: 6 cars
• Ethanol: 2498 cars
• Ethylene Glycol: 101 cars
• Hydrochloric acid: 17 cars
• Hydrogen peroxide: 25 cars
• Potassium Hydroxide: 79 cars
• Sodium Hydroxide: 16 cars
• Sulphuric acid: 63 cars

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165
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

The first arriving officer shall assume what and give what?

A

Assume command and give a size up. This report should include the location, direction of travel, lane involved and the nature of the incident.

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166
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

Companies responding in the opposite direction will do what?

A

Will exit the highway at the first exit that allows for reversal of the direction and stage.

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167
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

Apparatus shall be positioned where on the highway?

A

Upstream between oncoming traffic and operating personnel to protect the scene from approaching vehicles. The goal is to provide a safe work area for firefighters operating at the scene.

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168
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

elevated roadway fires?

A
  1. The first arriving unit shall transmit a “Code Red for a fire on an elevated roadway”.
  2. The second and third engine companies shall team up and establish a positive water supply.
  3. The responding Tower ladder shall prepare their elevated platform to be used as standpipe or for master stream application to cool unprotected steel.
  4. For a significant fire on the I-Way Bridge, members should prepare to protect the unprotected steel truss which is subject to failure at sustained temperatures of 1200 degrees Fahrenheit.
  5. For significant fires on the I-Way Bridge, the IC shall request activation of the Port of Providence Marine Strike Team.
  6. The Marine Strike Team shall prepare for fire control and water rescue.
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169
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

The optimum location for companies to stage is what?

A

One that provides immediate access

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170
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

The ladder company’s primary function will be to act as blocking vehicle and position their apparatus approximately how many feet upstream and parked at an angle to block for operating units?

A

100 feet

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171
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

For fires and vehicle extrications, the engine company should be parked at what angle?

A

Parked at an angle to the right regardless which side of the roadway the incident is on.

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172
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

Rescue companies shall position their vehicle at which location?

A

Downstream

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173
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

At what temp is the I Way Bridge unprotected steel truss subject to failure?

A

1200 degrees Fahrenheit

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174
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

For significant fires on the I Way Bridge the IC shall request who?

A

Port Of Providence Marine Strike Team.

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175
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

Vertical drops between Jersey Barriers: the median strip on route 95, in the vicinity of Charles street, has an opening with a vertical drop of how many feet?

A

Excess of 30 feet

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176
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

Significant grade differences between one direction of travel and another; the Jersey barrier on Thurbers Ave curve on route 95 south, is approximately how high?

A

3 feet high, while the height of the wall on the northbound side is in excess of 20 feet.

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177
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

Whenever members are operating on a highway members shall wear what?

A

Full personal protective equipment and a ANSI class 2 traffic safety vest or comparable garment.

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178
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

Safety vest are not required when firefighters are what?

A

Actively engaged in fire suppression activities, or when firefighters are exposed to flame, fire, heat or hazardous materials. However when any of the above is completed firefighters shall don safety vest.

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179
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

Are defined as any thoroughfare that has received or is receiving federal funding?

A

Federal Aid Roadways

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180
Q

SOP 16 Highway Operations

Are significant fires that occur above the normal height of a roadway and require a positive water supply for an extended period of time?

A

Elevated roadway fires

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181
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

If an emergency alarm is activated accidentally how do you reset it?

A

Holding down the emergency button for approximately 3 seconds until a long audible tone is emitted.

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182
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

The new XTS 2500i portable radio is equipped with which zones and how many channels?

A

A/B/C Zone and 48 channels

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183
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

The purpose of a communications unit is to assist who?

A

The IC and command staff at any incident in which radio communications may become overwhelming.

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184
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

The communications unit will consist of what?

A

A comms unit leader, an incident dispatcher and the deployment of the mobile command post.

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185
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

The communications unit leader will be responsible to ensure what?

A

Adequate communications between the incident scene, the BOC and the emergency operations center if activated.

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186
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

When should the mobile command post be dispatched to the scene?

A

Whenever command has two or more channels to monitor or a 3rd alarm of fire is transmitted. The communications unit will be activated and an Incident dispatcher shall be designed to man the mobile command post.

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187
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

When will a communications assistant be assigned to all staff positions?

A

Whenever it becomes necessary to implement more than one radio channel.

188
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

The XTS 2500i portables have been programmed with how long of a time out timer on all channels?

A

30 seconds

189
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

When there is a high volume of message traffic and conditions become congested, the BOC may institute what?

A

Priority radio traffic only condition.

190
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

What is the role of the IC?

A

Is to ensure that the strategic and tactical objectives of the incident are met.

191
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

How do you remotely activate the VRS on your truck?

A

Put the mobile radio on channel 4 and if communication cannot be done on channel one on your portable you will then change to channel 4 on your portable and activate emergency button which will activate the vrs on your truck (approx 15 sec for remote startups).

192
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

How do you deactivate the vrs after remotely turning it on?

A

Must first put the toggle switch into the on position, wait approximately 5 to 10 seconds, then put the toggle switch into the off position.

193
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

The cities trunking system consists of what?

A

12 pairs of frequencies, 5 transmit and receive tower sites. This culminates into 95% signal saturation in and around providence.

194
Q

SOP Fireground Radio Operations

On digital talk groups how many radios can transmit at a time?

A

One

195
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

How do you hold a radio microphone?

A

Held at 45 degree angle to the mouth and approximately 2 inches in front of mouth.

196
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

What is interoperability?

A

Simply a communication component assisting the overall multi agency incident operations.

197
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

With the introduction of the trunking radio system, Pfd has been allocated how many primary operational channels?

A
  1. Even though the system capacity has been increased by 2 channels.
198
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

What channels are in zone A (providence fire main operations)?

A

•Channel 1: Pfd main dispatch channel
•Channel 2-7: Fireground/operational incident channels (channels 2,3,4 are analog Fireground).(channels 5,6,7 are digital Fireground).
•channel 8: providence police channel 3
•channel 9,10,11: mutual aid channels
•channel 12: citywide
•channel 13: north providence fire dispatch
•channel 14: north providence fire dept Fireground channel
•channel 15: providence police channel 1
•channel 16: providence fire main dispatch channel

199
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

What channels are in zone B (providence county interoperability zone)?

A

•channel 1: pfd main dispatch channel
•channel 2-6: south wide operations
•channel 7-11: north wide operations
•channel 12-15: metro wide operations
•channel 16: pfd main dispatch channel

200
Q

SOP 17 Fireground radio operations

What channels are in Zone C (RI statewide interoperability zone)?

A

•channel 1: pfd main dispatch channel
•channel 2: nationwide interoperability call channel
•channel 3-6: national interoperability tactical channels
•channel 7-15: statewide interoperability operations channel
•channel 16: pfd main dispatch channel

201
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

The fluctuation of electrical current through the airwaves that reproduces ambient noise past over a radio frequency?

A

Analog Signaling

202
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

Has a specialized task at an incident. He/she must monitor the Fireground channel that is assigned. The person assigned this function is accountable directly to the incident commander?

A

Communications Unit Leader

203
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

The transmitting of sound converted to a series of numbers and sent as burst of information to be decoded and reproduced by another receiver over radio signals?

A

Digital Signaling

204
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

Transmitting from unit to unit, portable to portable. That is to say, transmitting and receiving on the same frequency?

A

Direct

205
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

Radio component that is mounted in a mobile unit and acts as an on site repeater for an incident?

A

Digital Vehicle Repeater system

206
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

Recognized standard that requires the ability of multiple agencies to communicate together on a radio system?

A

Interoperability

207
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

Radio stations that automatically rebroadcast radio signals that are repeated?

A

Repeater

208
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

Broadcast over more than one frequency?

A

Simulcast

209
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

Group of radio frequencies used to communicate by a department or agencies?

A

Talk Group

210
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

Computer controlled radio system that groups issued radio frequencies or pairs, used by a community to manage its radio communications using multiple talk groups assigned to multiple users of the same radio frequencies?

A

Trucked Radio System

211
Q

SOP 17 Fireground Radio Operations

The placing of communications talk groups in trunking system into like tasks or areas?

A

Zone

212
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

Anytime members respond to an active shooter incident what shall be used?

A

Rescue task force

213
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incident

Battalion chief shall do what?

A
  1. Establish Unified Command with PPD
  2. Confirm Staging Area
  3. Determine nature and extent of incident from PPD, if possible.
  4. Order any additional resources as needed.
  5. Upon Division 1 assuming command, the Battalion Chief will become the Rescue Task Force Officer.
214
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

A what with the fire dept and law enforcement will be established at any incident involving an active shooter or ballistic threat?

A

Unified command

215
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

The following companies have been assigned and equipped for rescue task force response?

A

a. Engine Co. 3
b. Engine Co. 7
c. Engine Co. 8
d. Engine Co. 10
e. Engine Co. 12
f. Engine Co. 13
g. Engine Co. 14
h. Engine Co. 15

216
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

Each RTF company will be equipped at minimum with what?

A

Kevlar helmet, body armor, portable radio, exam gloves for each member, and a tactical medical kit.

217
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

Who shall immediately contact who about an active shooter response?

A

The dispatcher in charge shall immediately contact the Deputy assistant chief and provide the DAC with all pertinent information from the call. The DAC shall coordinate with the DIC a response plan for immediate dispatch. The dispatch shall include the code words “This is a rescue task force response”.

218
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

The deployment of the RTF will be at the discretion of the Fire Department officer of the unified command once law enforcement personnel have determined what?

A

That portions of the scene meet the Warm Zone criteria and may contain victims

219
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

Anytime a RTF is deployed, one RTF shall be designated as what?

A

RTF Fast

220
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incident

The first arriving engine or ladder company officer should do what?

A

Shall identify a Staging area in the cold zone and relay the information to the incoming units and the BOC. First Engine or Ladder shall liaison with PPD, gather as much information as possible and provide a size up.

221
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

The first rescue officer will be what?

A

Secondary triage officer at the casualty collection point.

222
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

The second rescue will do what?

A

Standby for transport of critically injured fire dept and police dept members only.

223
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

The third rescue will do what?

A

Will prepare to treat and transport victims.

224
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

An incident in which an armed individual is actively engaged in killing or attempting to kill other people?

A

Active shooter incident

225
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

The location to which patients are evacuated from the warm zone to be triaged. This area should be located in the cold zone and serves as a marshaling area for MCI actions to begin?

A

Casualty Collection Point

226
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

A team of law enforcement personnel assigned to advance toward the threat and initiate contact with the active shooter to prevent further injury or loss of life. The contact team performs a primary clearing of areas as they advance?

A

Contact team

227
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incident

Protection from bullets or ballistic projectiles. Example of this include large trees, concrete walls, engine block of vehicles or any other large substantial object?

A

Cover

228
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

Will hide you from view but will not stop ballistic projectiles. Examples of this include bushes, car doors or interior walls of plaster and wood in a house?

A

Concealment

229
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incident

The term used by law enforcement RTF members to signify the need to stop?

A

Halt

230
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

A group of resources deployed to provide point of wound care to victims where there is an ongoing ballistic or explosive threat. The task force treats, stabilizes, and removes injured patients in a rapid manner while wearing ballistics protective equipment and operating under the protection of members of the providence police dept?

A

Rescue task force

231
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

Each body armor vest should include?

A

a. Exam gloves
b. Trauma shears
c. White glow sticks
d. Tourniquet
e. Fluorescent colored marker
f. Door wedge

232
Q

SOP 19 Rehabilitation

When should rehabilitation commence?

A

When fire/emergency operations and/or training exercises pose a health and safety risk.

233
Q

SOP 19 Rehabilitation

Rehabilitation shall be established for what?

A

All incidents that are of large scale, long duration, physically demanding, or extreme temperatures.

234
Q

SOP 19 Rehabilitation

Rehabilitation is a function of who?

A

EMS Sector

235
Q

SOP 19 Rehabilitation

At most incidents who will establish the EMS sector on arrival and perform the duties of the rehab officer?

A

First arriving rescue

236
Q

SOP 19 Rehab

Time personnel in rehab to ensure they receive how long of rest?

A

At least 10 mins to 20 mins

237
Q

SOP 19 Rehab

All members shall be sent to rehab following the use of what?

A

Two 30 minute scba cylinders, one 45 or 60 minute scba cylinder or 40 minutes of intense work without scba.

238
Q

SOP 19 Rehab

In hot, humid conditions a minimum of how long?

A

10 minutes ( 20 minutes is preferable) of active cooling shall be applied.

239
Q

SOP 19 Rehab

Abnormal vital signs?

A

•Pulse over 100
•BP over 160/100
•Respirations less then 12 or greater than 20.
•Temp over 100.6

240
Q

SOP 20 Elevator Incidents

What is the engine’s company primary task at elevator incident?

A

Locate the elevator car in question.

241
Q

SOP 20 Elevator Incidents

What is the ladder company’s primary task?

A

Shut off power to the stalled elevator car.

242
Q

SOP 20 Elevator Incidents

Main disconnects are usually located how far from the machine room?

A

3 feet

243
Q

SOP 20 Elevator Incidents

What is the primary function of Special Hazards?

A

To enter the hoist way and extricate the passengers.

244
Q

SOP 20 Elevator Incidents

Elevators not level with the extrication floor and with the car opening for extrication less than how many inches must have the elevator car secured by struts or rail block before performing extrication?

A

Less than 36 inches

245
Q

SOP 20 Elevator Incidents

For technical rescues who should you call?

A

Safety operations battalion and division chief.

246
Q

SOP 20 Elevator Incidents

Is a motor-generator commonly found on older traction elevator installations. It’s primary purpose is to convert a buildings AC (alternating current) electricity supply into DC (direct current) for powering the DC hoisting machine and controller of the elevator?

A

DC Generator

247
Q

SOP 20 Elevator Incidents

Is a type of traction or hydraulic elevator that does not have a fixed machine on the top of the hoist way?

A

Machine Room Less Elevator

248
Q

SOP 21 Emergency Medical Services Operations

Who are responsible for the inspection and enforcement, and for the proper documentation of medications under their company’s control?

A

Company captains

249
Q

SOP 21 EMS Operations

There should be no more than how many rescue out of service for meals during the same time frame?

A

No more than 1 rescue

250
Q

SOP 21 EMS Operations

A rescue officer may put the company out of service for personal hygiene after working how many consecutive hours?

A

24 hours with the permission of the Chief of the EMS. If the Chief of EMS is unavailable, then the district chief shall be consulted.

251
Q

SOP 21 EMS Operations

No rescue company shall go out of service for personal hygiene unless there are how many rescues available?

A

There are 2 or more rescues available and no more than 1 rescue shall be out of service for personal hygiene during the same time frame.

252
Q

SOP 21 EMS Operations

Whenever how many rescue units operate at the same incident and who should you call?

A

3 or more rescues and the district chief shall be dispatched.

253
Q

SOP 21 EMS Operstions

Patient care reports not completed at the scene of the incident shall be completed and posted in the ePCR system within how long of the incident?

A

2 hours

254
Q

SOP 21 EMS Operations

The location where triage of both civilians and firefighters takes place. This sector area is chosen by the first arriving rescue officer and is set up in a location where other responding rescues can easily access. The officer shall inform the IC face to face of the location of the EMS area?

A

EMS Sector

255
Q

SOP 21 EMS Operations

The normal talking rate should be around how many words per minute?

A

60 words

256
Q

SOP 23 Life Safety Ropes

Rope dedicated solely for the purpose of constructing lines for supporting the weight of members or others during rescue, firefighting, other emergency operations, or during training evolutions?

A

Life Safety Rope

257
Q

SOP 23 Life Safety Ropes

Rope used to hoist, lower or secure firefighting equipment. Utility rope shall not be used to support the weight of any members or other persons?

A

Utility Rope

258
Q

SOP 23 Life Safety Ropes

Rope when in use?

A

Line

259
Q

SOP 23 Life Safety Ropes

Harness used to support people during fire dept operations?

A

Life safety harness

260
Q

SOP 23 Life Safety Ropes

Harness that fastens around the waist ; designed to be used for securing member to a ladder or aerial device designed for one person load?

A

Class 1 Harness

261
Q

SOP 23 Life Safety Ropes

Harness that fastens around waist and around thighs or under buttocks: designed for rescue where two person loads may be encountered?

A

Class 2 Harness

262
Q

SOP 23 SOP Life Safety Ropes

Harness that fastens around waist, around thighs or under buttocks, and over shoulders; designed for rescue where two persons loads may be encountered and inverting may occur?

A

Class 3 Harness

263
Q

SOP 23 Life Safety Ropes

Remove from service and alter in such a way that the rope cannot be mistakenly used as a life safety rope. This shall include disposal of the rope or cutting the rope into sections no longer than how many feet in length?

A

15 feet in length. This rope may then be used for training in knot tying.

264
Q

SOP 23 Life Safety Ropes

What is the name of the life safety rope, what size and what is the tensile strength?

A

5/8” Blue Water Super Line Plus, static Kernmantle rope with a minimum tensile strength of 12,500 pounds. This rope is considered a two person rope ( 300 pounds per person x 2 persons plus at least a 15:1 safety margin) Shall not be used to support more than two persons.

265
Q

SOP 23 Life Safety Ropes

Only what 2 classes of harness may be used during emergency operations and training evolutions when working with life safety rope?

A

Class 2 and Class 3

266
Q

SOP 23 Life Safety Ropes

What size life safety rope and how many does special hazards carry?

A

(2) 150-foot lengths and (1) 300 foot length. This rope is not to be used for raining evolutions or as a utility rope.

267
Q

SOP 23 Life Safety Ropes

Life Safety rope that is how old shall be removed from service and destroyed?

A

10 yrs old

268
Q

SOP 23 Life Safety Ropes

When life safety rope is placed into service the bag shall be tagged, and the following information shall be included on the tag?

A

Purchase date
Manufacturer
Rope specifications
Dates of Inspection

269
Q

SOP Life Safety Ropes

Life safety rope, life safety harness and hardware shall be inspected every how many months?

A

Every six months in April and October, and before and after any use.

270
Q

SOP 23 Life Safety Ropes

A life safety rope log shall be maintained for each training rope indicating?

A

•Purchase Date
•Manufacturer
•Specifications
•Dates of use
•Type and number of evolutions performed.
•Dates of inspection

271
Q

SOP 23 Life Safety Ropes

Training ropes shall not be stored where?

A

Apparatus

272
Q

SOP 24 FD Operations with Police Response

Who shall be dispatched to all violent incidents?

A

District Chief

273
Q

SOP 24 FD Operations with Police Response

First arriving units responding to unsecured incidents shall stage how far?

A

2 blocks away and out of sight

274
Q

SOP 24 FD Operations with Police Response

Anytime a company finds itself involved in a violent situation or is physically or verbally abused, the company officer shall notify who?

A

BOC. A district chief shall be notified and the on-duty police lieutenant from that district will be notified.

275
Q

SOP 25 Management of a Staging Area

When the IC anticipates the need for additional resource, they shall activate what?

A

The staging sector and assign a staging sector officer. If there is no assigned staging sector officer when the first unit arrives, the first arriving officer will assume the role until properly relieved.

276
Q

SOP 25 Management of a Staging Area

No unit shall leave the staging area unless deployed or release by who?

A

By the staging sector officer through the IC

277
Q

SOP 25 Management of a Staging Area

Only who will request units to and from the staging area. Who shall inform the BOC of such requests?

A

IC

278
Q

SOP 25 Management of a Staging Area

The location of a staging area should be within how long of a response time to the incident?

A

3 minutes

279
Q

SOP 25 Management of a Staging Area

The staging area should be located where with proper security for the level of the incident?

A

Cold Zone

280
Q

SOP 25 Management of a Staging Area

What are excellent choices for staging area?

A

Main Street intersections, parking lots and fire stations.

281
Q

SOP 25 Management of a Staging Area

What is the preferred method at a staging area?

A

Diagonal parking

282
Q

SOP 25 Management of a Staging Area

A crew will be a minimum of how many members?

A

4 members and a maximum of 7 members and preferred number of 5.

283
Q

SOP 26 Power Saw Operations

Full protective ensemble with hearing and vision protection shall be worn by all members operating saws, as well as those members in close proximity of how many feet danger circle to the operation?

A

20 foot danger circle

284
Q

SOP 26 Power Saw Operations

Power saws shall always be shut down when what?

A

When unattended and when moved to a distant areas of operation. When the operator is not actively cutting, the safety brake, if equipped, must be applied.

285
Q

SOP 26 Power Saw Operations

1 slap on the back means what?

A

Stop

286
Q

SOP 26 Power Saw Operations

2 slaps on the back means what?

A

Go

287
Q

SOP 26 Power Saw Operations

3 slaps on the back means what?

A

Stop saw

288
Q

SOP 26 Power Saw Operations

what distance shall be maintained between the work area and refueling area?

A

10 foot

289
Q

SOP 26 Power Saw Operations

A comparison between the risks of a situation and its benefits. It is used to calculate whether a course of action is worth taking or if the risks are too high.

A

Risk versus benefit analysis

290
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat

Potential or controlled emergency condition?

A

Level 1 hazmat

291
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat

Limited emergency condition?

A

Level 2 hazmat

292
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat

Full emergency condition?

A

Level 3 hazmat

293
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat

The purpose of implementing hazardous materials incident control zones is to what?

A

Secure the scene, establish perimeters, maintain safe and efficient control over operating personnel and prevent people, vehicles and resources equipment from entering a threatening situation.

294
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat

Is the process of removing or neutralizing contaminants that have accumulated on personnel or equipment?

A

Decontamination

295
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat

There are two methods of decontamination?

A

Wet and dry

296
Q

SOP 28 Response to Incidents Involving Carbon Monoxide

CO levels as low as how much is considered IDLH?

A

1500 ppm

297
Q

SOP 28 Response to Incidents Involving Carbon Monoxide

Concentrations above how much can be lethal in just a few breaths?

A

50,000 ppm

298
Q

SOP 28 Response to Incidents Involving CO?

Concentrations at levels above how much for extended periods of time can also produce symptoms?

A

50 ppm

299
Q

SOP 28 Response to Incidents Involving CO?

According to OSHA, the maximum concentration to which employees may be exposed to CO over the course of how many hour work day is what?

A

8 hour work day is 35ppm

300
Q

SOP 28 Response to incidents involving CO

SCBA shall be worn whenever CO levels are determined to be in excess of how much?

A

35ppm

301
Q

SOP 28 Response to Incidents Involving CO

CO readings shall be recorded by who?

A

The first arriving company officer. Forms will be forwarded to the safety operations battalion.

302
Q

SOP 28 Response to Incidents Involving CO

If at any time members feel that there is a threat to their safety?

A

They should not proceed farther regardless of meter readings.

303
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

The most significant life hazard problem existing at the time of a fire in a high rise building is?

A

Smoke spread

304
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

It was found in major cities across the US, and around the world that how many percent of all high rise fires in buildings protected with sprinklers were controlled with just one sprinkler head?

A

75% while in the remaining 25% of high rise fires only two, three, or four heads were needed to control the fire.

305
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

Estimated time allowed to climb stairs per floor is?

A

One minute

306
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

What area will be established on the same floor as the staging area, but separate from the staging area?

A

Rehabilitation

307
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

Where is the rehabilitation sector located?

A

Below the fire floor

308
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

Who shall establish command and set up a command post in the lobby or entrance to fire command center?

A

First arriving chief officer

309
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

Who when so assigned by the IC will establish a forward command post one floor below the fire floor.

A

Second arriving chief officer

310
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

Who shall designate the search and evacuation sector?

A

Third arriving chief officer

311
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

Who shall function as lobby control sector chief?

A

Fourth arriving chief officer

312
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

System provide 2 1/2 inch connections for heavy streams and are designed solely for use by trained fire suppression personnel. The hose outlets generally are located in protected areas such as stairwells and in most cases are not provided with hose?

A

Class 1 standpipe system

313
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

These systems provide outlets with only 1 1/2 inch connections and are intended for use by building occupants. They are installed complete with racks or reels, hose, and nozzles.

A

Class 2 standpipe system

314
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

Services combines the elements of class 1 and class 2 systems, providing a 1 1/2 inch hoseline as well as a separate 2 1/2 inch valve for fire dept use

A

Class 3 standpipe system

315
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

Standpipe systems usually are rated for total water supplies for 500 gpm from any one riser and 150 gpm for each additional riser at only 65 psi at the valve outlet

A

Class 1 and Class 3

316
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

Require 100 gpm per outlet at 65psi?

A

Class 2 standpipe system

317
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

Elevators are limited to how many FF’s plus their equipment in any one elevator car, unless a larger type car is being utilized?

A

6 firefighters

318
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

The normal bank of elevators only serve how many floors, therefore only 2 or 3 precautionary stops will be necessary?

A

12 to 15 floors

319
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

Criss crosses the core, thus you may be on the left side of core on odd numbered floors?

A

Scissor stairs

320
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

The same relation to the core ins maintained on all floors?

A

Return stairs

321
Q

SOP 29 High Rise Fire

Stairways within the same tenant space, usually running one to two floors?

A

Access stairs

322
Q

SOP 30 Confined Space Rescue

A permit required confined space is?

A

1) contains of has known potential to contain hazardous atmosphere.
2) contains material with the potential for engulfing an entrant.
3) Has an internal configuration such that an entrant could be trapped or asphyxiated by inwardly converging walls, or a floor which slopes downward and tapers to a smaller cross section.
4) contains any other recognized serious safety or health hazard.

323
Q

SOP 30 Confined Space Rescue

As defined by osha, is the written or printed document that is provided by the employer to allow and control entry into a permit space?

A

Entry permit

324
Q

SOP 30 Confined Space Rescue

The equipment (including a life safety rope, full body harness, wristlets (if appropriate) and a lifting device or anchor) used for the non entry, rescue of persons from confined spaces?

A

Retrieval system

325
Q

SOP 30 Confined Space Rescue

All entry personnel shall have a minimum of what class harness?

A

Class 2. Class 2 harness shall be used whenever possible.

326
Q

SOP 30 Confined Space Rescue

Two separate communication systems between the entry team and the attendant shall be in place which include what?

A

1) voice communications
2) hand signals
3) radio communications
4) rope signals
5) light signals

327
Q

SOP 30 Confined Space Rescue

Entry personnel using SCBA shall enter no further than what?

A

Than one half the amount of air in the cylinder minus 1000 p/psi

328
Q

SOP 30 Confined Space Rescue

After the incident , the completed confined space rescue incident commanders checklist shall be forwarded to who?

A

Fire department safety officer

329
Q

SOP 31 Mayday Procedures

The member in distress shall activate their PASS and attempt what?

A

Get one of the outside walls of the building.

330
Q

SOP 31 mayday

The IC shall ensure the accountability of all company members on scene as soon as reasonably possible. The IC may accomplish this by what?

A

1) conducting a face to face roll call
2) conducting a full roll call via dept radio
3) conducting a limited roll call via dept radio.
4) having a fire alarm conduct a full or limited roll call.

331
Q

SOP 31 Mayday

Upon transmission of a mayday by any member or by the IC, fire alarm shall immediately dispatch a mayday response alarm on channel 1 which consist of?

A

a. Two closest engines
b. Two closest ladder
c. Two closest rescues
d. 1 battalion chief

332
Q

SOP 31 mayday

The first engine and first ladder shall proceed where and prepare to do what?

A

Proceed to the command post with all appropriate fast equipment as described in SOP 35 and prepare to form the back up fast.

333
Q

SOP 31 Mayday

The first and second rescue shall proceed where?

A

EMS sector with all appropriate equipment to provide ALS. The officer shall position the rescue for rapid transport of members

334
Q

SOP 31 Mayday

The battalion chief will proceed where?

A

The command post with full protective ensemble and SCBA

335
Q

SOP 31 mayday

One situation that would dictate against moving toward an outside wall would be what?

A

Presence of rows of stock or machinery in commercial buildings that would make a perimeter search of the exterior walls impossible.

336
Q

SOP 31 mayday

It is important to remain calm and conserve your air supply. If you are not able to remedy your mayday situation what should you do?

A

Assume a safe position, sitting or lying down, shine a hand light upward and remain in place.

337
Q

SOP 31 mayday

Any member of any rank designated by the IC to assist in tracking the location of members, listening to communications, communicating with civilians using the command matrix or command board and being a gatekeeper for the command post?

A

Incident Command Technicians

338
Q

SOP 31 Mayday

A group of common fire service situations that have been identified by the national fire academy because it has been recognized through Line of duty death investigations that members have delayed calling a mayday with tragic results. It is important to note that time is of the essence and early recognition of these situations is critical?

A

Mayday parameters

339
Q

SOP 31 Mayday

The PASS device will sound after how many seconds of immobility?

A

20 seconds

340
Q

SOP 31 mayday

Provide additional access by creating or clearing means of egress, removing window bars and opening boarded doors or windows?

A

Softening the building

341
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

Once a second company arrives on the scene, the incident shall what?

A

No longer be in the initial stages and at least one rapid intervention team shall be required.

342
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

A rapid intervention team shall consist of how many?

A

At least 2 members and shall be available for the rescue of a member or a team if the need arises.

343
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

What are the three main areas of concern?

A

a. What do we have?
b. Where is it going?
c. How do we control it?

344
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

How much gpm does each line flow
1 3/4?
2 1/2?
Master stream?

A

1 3/4: 150 GPM
2 1/2: 250 GPM
Master Stream: 500 GPM

345
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fire

When a life or lives are endangered by a fire, the what should be placed?

A

The hose line should be placed between the fire and the victims means of egress.

346
Q

SOP 32 Operations at structure fires

What are the incident priorities?

A
  1. Life Safety
  2. Incident Stabilization
  3. Property Conservation
347
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

The preferred method of hose lay is what?

A

Reverse lay from the fire scene to the hydrant.

348
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

The most common method used by the PFD for hose lay is what?

A

Straight/forward lay

349
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

Which lay is used for narrow dead end or limited access streets?

A

Split lay

350
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

Relay pumping should always be considered as a tactical option at fires that require feeders excess of how many feet?

A

500 feet

351
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

The structural members including walls, partitions, columns, floors and roofs are of noncombustible or limited combustible materials and have fire resistance rating of between 2 and 4 hrs?

A

Type 1 Fire Resistive

352
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

All walls, partitions, and structural members are of noncombustible or limited combustible materials. However, these materials do not have to have any degree of fire resistance and may fail after a relatively brief exposure to fire conditions.

A

Type 2 Non combustible/limited combustible

353
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

Buildings in which the exterior bearing walls are masonry, with wood joisted floors and roofs. It’s principle limitation is that the maximum distance that wood joist can span without the need for supports is 25 ft?

A

Type 3 ordinary

354
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

Exterior bearing walls are of masonry with columns and beams made of heavy timber. Floors and roofs are generally made of wood. Heavy timber buildings have generally fared well over the years during fires. Many have sprinklers. Most do not have any void spaces.

A

Type 4 heavy timber

355
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

Exterior walls, bearing walls and partitions, roof and floors, including their support systems, are wholly or partly made of wood or similar combustible material. Wood frame construction is the only one of the five types that has combustible exterior walls.

A

Type 5 wood frame

356
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

That period of time in an emergency prior to the arrival of units beyond the first alarm assignment. The early stages end once all first alarm units have arrived on scene?

A

Early Stages

357
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

That period of time in an emergency incident prior to the arrival of a second unit on the scene?

A

Initial stages

358
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

Commonly encountered in the 1/2 story portion of wood frame structures and structures with peaked roofs, knee walls are interior walls that extend from the floor to as high as chest height, where they meet the ceiling directly attached to the underside of the peaked roof. Knee walls generally run parallel to the ridge line?

A

Knee wall

359
Q

SOP 32 Operations at Structure Fires

The educated art of examining a situation and making an intelligent decision regarding whether to commit firefighters to life saving and or interior operations?

A

Survivability Profile

360
Q

SOP 34 Mass Casualty Incident Operations

What is the only EMT level skill that will be denied to victims of an MCI?

A

CPR

361
Q

SOP 34 Mass Casualty Incident Operations

The 3 lifesaving skills addressed by the primary triage process, listed in the order in which conditions are seen in a large group of victims are?

A

Bleeding, airway, and rapid deterioration of vital signs due to shock.

362
Q

SOP 34 Mass Casualty Incident Operations

Victims of arterial bleeding will be treated before who?

A

Treated before victims with cardiac arrest.

363
Q

SOP 34 Mass Casualty Incident Operations

Size up will be done in accordance with the determination of the resources that can be reasonably expected to respond within how many minutes?

A

Within the first 15 mins

364
Q

SOP 34 Mass Casualty Incident Operations

0-10 victims

A

Level 1 MCI

365
Q

SOP 34 Mass Casualty Incident Operations

0-10 victims
11-30 victims
31-50 victims
51-100 victims
100 patients or more

A

Level 1 MCI
Level 2 MCI
Level 3 MCI
Level 4 MCI
Level 5 MCI

366
Q

SOP 34 Mass Casualty Incident Operations

The EMS sector officer is assigned by the IC to direct all medical operations and assign and supervise the following?

A

a. Primary triage officer
b. Secondary Triage Officer
c. Treatment Officer
d. Transport Officer
e. Loading Officer

367
Q

SOP 34 Mass Casualty Incident Operations

Sorts out those victims with immediate life threatening problems with a high probability of survival if the conditions is attended to
Immediately?

A

Primary triage officer

368
Q

SOP 34 Mass Casualty Incident Operations

Determines the order of patient evacuation from the scene to the treatment area?

A

Secondary triage officer

369
Q

SOP 34 Mass Casualty Incident Operations

Will assign rescue companies and ambulance crews to transport patients and determines which hospital patients will be transported to?

A

Transport officer

370
Q

SOP 34 Mass Casualty Incident Operations

Will supervise members with the loading of patients from treatment area to the loading point and then into the rescue vehicles?

A

Loading officer

371
Q

SOP 34 Mass Casualty Incident Operations

Will give periodic progress reports to the IC as to the resources currently at the staging area?

A

Staging officer

372
Q

SOP 34 Mass Casualty Incident Operations

Category 0
Category 1
Category 2
Category 3

A

Black
Red
Yellow
Green

373
Q

SOP 35 FAST Operations at Structure Fires

In many cases the second ladder or second engine if what is used?

A

Forward lay was used, will be a good option.

374
Q

SOP 35 FAST Operations at Structure Fires

Given the specifics of a particular incident, the FAST may be located at more strategically appropriate location for better tactical deployment , with approval of who?

A

Incident commander

375
Q

SOP 35 FAST Operations at Structure Fires

Providing the member with additional breathing air, whether from a RIT, spare air pack or supplied air cart and protecting the rescue operation with adequate hand lines, may what?

A

Prolong the window of opportunity in which we have to make a successful rescue.

376
Q

SOP 35 FAST Operations at Structure Fires

That period of time in an emergency prior to the arrival of units beyond the first alarm assignment. The early stages end once all first alarm units have arrived on scene?

A

Early Stages

377
Q

SOP 35 FAST Operations at Structure Fires

The location where triage of both civilians and firefighters take place. This sector area is chosen by the first arriving rescue officer and is set up in a location where other responding rescues can easily access. The officer shall inform the IC face to face of the location of the EMS area?

A

EMS Sector

378
Q

SOP 35 FAST Operations at Structure Fires

On the Providence fire dept, FAST will consist of a providence engine company and providence ladder company fully equipped with the appropriate protective ensemble, SCBA and such other specialized equipment as are necessary given the specifics of the operation. The FAST companies will be located on the scene, immediately available for the rescue of a member or company. Once designated, FAST companies will not be deployed for other tasks.

A

FAST

379
Q

SOP 35 FAST operations at structure fires

That period of time in an emergency incident prior to the arrival of a second unit on the scene.

A

Initial stages

380
Q

SOP 35 FAST operations at structure fires

A rapid intervention team shall consist of at least 2 members who shall be available for the rescue of a member or a team if the need arises. At structure fires, rapid intervention teams shall be equipped with full protective ensemble, SCBA and hand tools?

A

RIT

381
Q

SOP 35 FAST operations at structure fires

The location where the FAST operates when deployed. The incident commander will establish this sector and assign an officer to be in command?

A

Rescue sector

382
Q

SOP 38 BDS Incident Action Plan

The BDS system samples the air every how many minutes?

A

90 minutes

383
Q

SOP 38 BDS Incident Action Plan

The hours of operation for the BDS are what?

A

1800 hours to 0100 hours daily, with increased hours of operation during peak mailings.

384
Q

SOP 38 BDS

Where is the BDS located and how many feet inside the building?

A

Located on side one to the right of the main entrance approximately 50 feet inside the building.

385
Q

SOP 38 BDS

The BDS at this time samples what and can detect up to how many different agents?

A

Samples anthrax only but can detect up to 7 different agents.

386
Q

SOP 38 BDS

Anthrax is a biological agent which once exposed to, can take how many days to develop symptoms?

A

2 to 5 days to develop symptoms. There is no reason for any personnel, with the exception of the hazmat response team, to enter the building.

387
Q

SOP 38 BDS

PVD HAZ MAT 5 E’s?

A
  1. Evaluate
  2. Evacuate
  3. Extinguish
  4. Extricate
  5. Eradicate
388
Q

SOP 38 BDS

Employees who are encountered on the exterior of the postal facility but have been inside the facility in the previous how many hours?

A

2 hours of activation of the BDS should be considered exposed.

389
Q

SOP 38 BDS

Distance for gases, liquids, and solid?

A

330 feet gases
150 feet liquids
75 feet solid

390
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

Response to ICE Rescue Incidents?

A
  1. Engine company with MARSARS Ice Rescue Shuttle and boat
  2. Additional Engine Company
  3. Ladder Company
  4. Rescue Company
  5. 2nd Rescue Company
  6. Special Hazards, with raft
  7. Chief
  8. Dive Team
    Fire alarm shall request working five team members call fire alarm. Fire Alarm shall request police response
391
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

Companies should remember that when parking their apparatus scene priority should be given to who?

A

Rescue, dive truck and ice shuttle equipment.

392
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

All members working on the ice shall wear what?

A

Cold Water Rescue Immersion Suit and be tethered by floating water rescue line to shore/boat with a minimum of 2 rescue line tenders. Rescue line tenders shall wear personal floatation devices.

393
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

Currently Providence has 3 types of Cold Water Rescue Immersion Suits which are?

A
  1. Gumby Type (claw hands)
  2. Mustang Ice Commander (boots and gloves attached)
  3. Stearns Cold Water Rescue (boots and gloves attached)
394
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

What is not a cold water rescue immersion suit?

A

The stearns anti exposure coveralls and are not to be used for on ice or in water rescue operations. It is used for shore or boat work only and may be used as personal flotation devices only.

395
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

Which line should be used for tethering rescuers or victims?

A

Floating water rescue line

396
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

All members working near the ice shall wear what?

A

Personal floatation device

397
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

Ice rescue teams shall consist of how many members and doing what?

A

A. 1 member with MARSARS Ice Rescue Shuttle System with floating water rescue line and 2 shore/boat line tenders wearing personal floatation devices

B. 1 member with cold water rescue immersion suit, with floating water rescue line and 2 shore/boat line tenders wearing personal floatation devices.

Note: ice rescue helmets shall be worn when available.

398
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

At least how many and what shall act as a FAST Company?

A

One back up team shall act as a FAST company

399
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

With the typical response to ice rescue incidents there is enough equipment and manpower to form what?

A

4 Ice Rescue Teams

400
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

Develops, executes and coordinates the rescue plan for the incident. In most cases this will be the officer of the special hazards?

A

Ice rescue sector officer

401
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

Supervises all EMS activities for the incident. Establishes an EMS staging area if necessary. Makes the provisions for transporting the victim from the shoreline to the EMS vehicle. He may request resources from the IC for this purpose?

A

EMS Sector Officer

402
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

Supervises support functions for the incident. Ensures those resources needed to support the incident are available or have been requested?

A

Logistics Officer

403
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

Supervises the actions of the on ice rescue team reports directly to the rescue sector officer?

A

Ice Rescue Team Leader

404
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

The following key words can be utilized to remember ice rescue operations?

A
  1. Reach- from shore with available equipment (ladders, poles, snare poles, aerial, charged hose line.
  2. Throw- from shore with available equipment.
  3. Row- If ice conditions permit, the use of a boat is an option.
  4. Go- onto the ice to rescue the victim. This tactic is the last resort and if possible the options “reach, throw” should be utilized first. Personnel going on the ice must wear immersion suits and be tethered by a safety line.
405
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

The following hand signals will be used?

A

•One arm held up and waving= pull in
•One arm held up and held steady= stop.
•one hand tapping on the ice or water= need assistance

406
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

The suited rescuer will bring equipment onto the ice that can be used to extend or throw to the victim or in the case of a submerged victim something to probe with. At least one of the following is recommended?

A

• Life ring
• Pole at least 8’
• Folding Ladder

407
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

When the suited rescuer nears the victim he/she should stop a short distance of what should be the first question?

A

6 or 7 feet from the victim and talk to him or her. Are you alone?

408
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

If it is determined or suspected there are multiple people what shall be transmitted and who responds?

A

2nd alarm which will include 2 engines (one shall have a boat), 1 ladder company, 1 rescue and a chief.

409
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

Triage considerations for multiple victims?

A

• Victim in most danger of submerging
• size and age of victims ( children and elderly are most vulnerable)
• hypothermia symptoms
• time in water of victim
• most viable rescue
• sufficient manpower and equipment shall be deployed to effect rescue.

410
Q

SOP 39 Ice Rescue

If victim or victims are not visible, rescuers should proceed to last seen point and wait for who?

A

Divers. Rescuers should probe water with poles with objective being to secure and remove victims from water. Rescuers should attempt to determine the depth of the water. Drowning victims first sink right to the bottom and are often found in a radius equal to the depth of the water.

411
Q

SOP 40 Incident Safety Officer

Who shall be the primary incident safety officer at any emergency scene?

A

Safety battalion chief

412
Q

SOP 40 Incident Safety Officer

Who is a member of the incident command staff and reports directly to the IC?

A

The incident safety officer

413
Q

SOP 40 Incident Safety Officer

In the absence of the safety battalion chief who shall assume role of the Incident safety chief ?

A

A qualified fire officer

414
Q

SOP 40 Incident Safety Officer

The incident safety officer shall wear what while operating at an incident?

A

Safety Vest

415
Q

SOP 43 Adverse Weather Operations

Members shall ensure there is adequate supply of food for more than how many hours?

A

24hrs. Only the Assistant Chief Of Dept of operations or the deputy assistant chief will have authority to allow operations during sustained winds greater than 65 mph.

416
Q

SOP 43 Adverse Weather Operations

Sustained winds of how fast will be the accepted threshold for field operations?

A

65mph

417
Q

SOP 43 Adverse Weather Operations

As a general rule, the PFD’s aerial devices are capable of operating safely during sustained wind speeds of how fast or lower

A

35mph

418
Q

SOP 43 Adverse Weather Operations

Do not attempt to remove occupants from vehicles in contact with wires until wires are what?

A

De-energized by the utility company or confirmation by two hot sticks that there is no un shielded AC voltage present.

419
Q

SOP 43 Adverse Weather Operations

Members may use caution tape to secure the area in question to the greatest extent possible keeping at least how many feet away from downed wires?

A

25 feet

420
Q

SOP 43 Adverse Weather Operations

Companies shall inspect all hydrants within how many hours following the end of the snowstorm to ensure all hydrants remain shoveled?

A

24 hrs

421
Q

SOP 43 Adverse Weather Operations

Who shall periodically inspect the hydrants in their district to ensure all hydrants are shoveled and clear of snow?

A

District Chiefs

422
Q

SOP 43 Adverse Weather Operations

When an aerial device has been exposed to below zero temperatures without operating for a prolonged period you should do what?

A

Engage the pto to allow fluid to circulate at low throttle for 1 minute before operating ladder or outrigger functions.

423
Q

SOP 43 Adverse Weather Operations

Apparatus shall not be driven in flooded areas if what?

A

The operator cannot account for the boundaries of the roadway.

424
Q

SOP 43 Adverse Weather Operations

Apparatus shall not be driven in flooded areas when the water is what?

A

Above the hub on their apparatus wheel.

425
Q

SOP 43 Adverse Weather Operations
Who shall be notified as soon as possible after any apparatus drives through a flooded area?

A

The automotive repair division

426
Q

SOP 43 Adverse Weather Operations

Consists of the Voc-alarm system, mobile and portable radio network, department issued cell phone calls and/or texts, department email or hard copy general orders, special orders or memorandums?

A

Department Communications Network

427
Q

SOP 43 Adverse Weather Operations

The electrical potential difference between 2 points separated by a certain distance?

A

Voltage gradient

428
Q

SOP 43 Adverse Weather Operations

A rapidly developing fire that results from prevailing winds entering a fire vented location of a structure. This pressurizes the interior, creating a deadly flow path of blowtorch-effect flames and untenable temperatures when a secondary opening is created?

A

Wind driven fire

429
Q

SOP 45 Rapid Damage Assessment

Damage assessment will be done according to routes established by who?

A

Captain of each company

430
Q

SOP 45 Rapid Damage Assessment

The initial damage assessment is conducted to evaluate 4 specific concerns related to each survey route they are?

A

• Access
• Flooding
• Structural Damage
• Infrastructure and other related hazards

431
Q

SOP 45 Rapid Damage Assessment

A file is to be maintained in the company files containing the items necessary to conduct a damage assessment. This file is available at all times for immediate use and is to be checked by who and when?

A

Captain on june 1st of each year

432
Q

SOP 45 Rapid Damage Assessment

Items to be contained in this file are as follows?

A
  1. This Sop
  2. Pre fire assessment chart
  3. District map
  4. Adequate number of assessment forms
433
Q

SOP 51 Paid Detail

When you are contacted by the detail office for a future detail you have how long to respond before given a refusal?

A

24 hrs

434
Q

SOP 52 Providence Safe Stations

When the recovery team has arrived they will be given what and collected how often?

A

Given the bottom two sheets of the intake form and collected on a bi weekly basis.

435
Q

SOP 52 Safe Station

Criteria for transport to Emergency Department?

A

• Heart rate <50 bpm or >130 bpm
•Systolic Blood Pressure <90mmHg or >160mmHg
• Respiratory Rate <10/min or >28/min
• SpO2 <92 at room air or with prescribed oxygen.
• Temp >101degrees F
• Altered Mental Status or GCS <14
• Blood Glucose by finger stick <60 or >300
• Signs of trauma requiring further evaluation.

436
Q

Sop 3 Apparatus Safety

The following call types/descriptions shall be considered a Code C/proceed with caution response?

A
  1. Lockouts/ins
  2. Water Emergencies
  3. Fast Company without confirmation of a code red.
  4. Station Relocation
  5. Stage for police
  6. Helipad stand by
  7. Auto leaking fluids
  8. Foreign odor investigation
  9. Controlled burning investigation
  10. Commercial Alarm
  11. Alarm sounding
  12. Accidental alarm
  13. Well being checks
  14. First Responder companies to hospital when accompanying a rescue.
  15. Lift Assist
  16. Station relocation (mutual aid)
437
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

What are the 5 E’s?

A
  1. Evaluating: recognizing the possible involvement a of hazmat, beginning with the initial dispatch information. Tactical objectives include rescuing viable victims, preventing rescuer casualties, and isolating and containing the incident.
  2. Evacuation: (hazard control zones) which has been proven to save the greatest amounts of lives.
  3. Extinguishing: significant fires eliminates the most dangerous threat to life safety, and aides in stabilizing an incident.
  4. Extricating: conscious patients from the hot zone, provides for their greatest chance of survival. Unconscious victims have a high mortality rate in the presence of a hazmat incident. Rescuers should not endanger themselves for non viable victims.
  5. Eradication: (decon) ensures civilian and rescuer safety, while helping to contain the hazmat incident to the area of origin.
438
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

What are the PVD hazmat 5 E’s initial action guide?

A
  1. Evaluate:
    • dispatch info
    • location and occupancy
    • placards, labels, containers
    • biological indicators
    • use your 5 senses
  2. Evacuate:
    • establish hot and cold zones
    • 330’ gases
    • 150’ liquids
    • 75’ solid
  3. Extinguish:
    • fire is the most dangerous threat to life safety.
    • defensive ops
    • run off is hazardous waste
  4. Extricate:
    • remove conscious victims
    • do not risk rescuers for bodies
    • decon victims and rescuers
  5. Eradicate:
    • emergency and gross decon
    • mass decon
    • notify hospitals
439
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

Companies should consider staging how far away from an incident if there is a potential threat to responders and there are no reported life safety concerns?

A

1/4 mile away

440
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

What are the 4 types of decon?

A
  1. Emergency Decon: The process of immediately reducing contamination of people in potentially life threatening situations.
  2. Gross Decon: a phase of the decon process where significant reduction of the amount of surface contamination takes place as soon as possible.
  3. Mass decon: Formerly known as rapid access mass (RAM) decon.
  4. Technical decon: The planned and systematic process of reducing contamination to a level that is as low as reasonably achievable
441
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Reaponse

What are the five tiers?

A
  1. Tier 1: Hazmat assessment level. Minimum of 4 HMT’s
  2. Tier 2: hazmat and decon assessment level. Minimum of 4 HMT’s, and 1 Decon response team.
  3. Tier 3: full team response. All HMRT HMT’s and one decon response team.
  4. Tier 4 (IV): two or more response teams and one or more decon response teams(s). May also include interstate mutual aid.
  5. Tier 5 (V): All state team including 6 HMRT’s and four decon response teams. May also include interstate mutual aid.
442
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

Any event requiring the response of the PFD to a potential maritime Hazmat incident shall be a joint operation between the HMRT and Marine 1. What is the minimum tier?

A

Tier 1 response shall be activated, with a minimum of 2 HMT’s aboard marine 1. The other 2 HMT’s of the tier 1 response shall operate from the shoreline, as close to the maritime operations as possible.

443
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

What are the control zones?

A
  1. Evacuation
  2. Cold Zone
  3. Decontamination
  4. Hot Zone
  5. Warm zone
444
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

Must ensure absence of what at every incident?

A

VOC’s, TIC’s, CWA’s and radiation

445
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

What is operations level responder?

A

Persons who responds to hazmat/WMD incidents for the purpose of implementing or supporting actions to protect nearby persons, animals, the environment, or property from the effects of the release.

446
Q

What is a Hazardous Materials Technician (HMT)?

A

A person who responds to hazmat/WMD incidents using a risk based response process to analyze a problem involving Hazmat/WMD, plan a response to the problem, implement the planned response, evaluate progress of the planned response and adjust accordingly, and assist in terminating the incident.

447
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

What is Hazardous Materials Response Team (HMRT)?

A

An organized group of trained response personnel operating under an emergency response plan and applicable standard operating procedures who perform hazmat technician level skills at hazmat/WMD incidents.

448
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

What is a Special Operations Team (SOT)?

A

An organized group of trained response personnel operating under an emergency response plan and applicable standard operating procedures who perform technical level skills in a specific discipline for emergencies that are high risk/low occurrence events.

449
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

What is a Hazardous Materials Response Team Leader?

A

A member of the PFD, whom is also a hazardous materials technician, appointed by the chief of dept to serve as the team leader of the HMRT.

450
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

What is a Hazardous Materials Team Director?

A

A chief officer of the PFD, who is appointed by the chief of dept and shall serve as the intermediary between the departments administration and the Hazmat team leader.

451
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

What is a Hazardous Materials Sector Officer ( also known as the Hazmat team leader)?

A

The person who is responsible for directing and coordinating all operations involving Hazmat/WMD as assigned by the IC.

452
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

What is a Incident Safety Officer?

A

The person who works within an incident command system to ensure that safe practices are followed at incidents.

453
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

What is a WMD?

A

Any weapon or device that is intended or has the capability to cause death or serious bodily injury to a significant number of people through the release, dissemination, or impact of one of the following means:

a. Toxic or poisonous chemicals
b. A disease organism
c. Radioactive or nuclear energy
d. Explosive/incendiary devices

454
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

What is a Chemical Warfare Agent (CWA)?

A

Chemical substances whose toxic properties are meant to kill, Injure, or incapacitate human beings.

455
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

What is a Toxic Industrial Chemical?

A

Chemicals other than chemical warfare agents that have harmful effects on humans.

456
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

All HMT’s that are part of the HMRT will be required to meet how many hours?

A

40 hours/year training requirement

457
Q

SOP 27 Hazmat Response

What are the 4 C’s?

A
  1. Consider: if an explosion has taken place, a secondary device may be present.
  2. Check: members should scan a 25 foot area from all riding positions around the apparatus. After dismounting, check a 100 foot area around the apparatus.
  3. Clear: all civilians and non essential personnel from the area.
  4. Control: The flow of arrival personnel, prevent unauthorized personnel from entering the area
458
Q

SOP 37 Operations at Vehicle Fires

Bumpers assemblies have been known to travel how many feet?

A

25 feet

459
Q

SOP 37 Operations at Vehicle Fires

If vapors escaping from the storage tank relief valve have ignited allow what to happen?

A

Allow the LPG/CNG to burn while protecting exposures and cooling the tank.

460
Q

SOP 37 Operations at vehicle fires

How long may it take for some electrical capacitors to fully discharge?

A

10 minutes

461
Q

SOP 37 Operations at Vehicle Fires

What efforts to protect dry wells and storm drains should be used?

A

Diversion and diking

462
Q

SOP 37 Operations at Vehicle Fires

Electric vehicles involved in fire should have a stable or reducing temperature for how long before turning the car over to a tow company?

A

One hour

463
Q

SOP 37 Operations at Vehicle Fires

Provide general guidance to towing companies and storage facilities to provide how many feet of clear space around the electric vehicle once stored and never inside a building?

A

50 feet

464
Q

SOP 37 Operations at Vehicle Fires

Any vehicle fire in a parking garage shall be upgraded to what?

A

Still box

465
Q

Sop 9 search and rescue

The first arriving ladder officer shall direct the operations of the company with the following tactical objectives?

A
  1. Position the apparatus so as to remove severely exposed victims from windows, and/or to provide roof ventilation.
  2. Examine the entire building for victims trapped at windows.
  3. Perform search and rescue operations on the fire floor or location of the most severely exposed victims.
  4. Perform search and rescue operations on the floor or floors above the fire.
  5. Perform ventilation.
466
Q

SOP 18 Active Shooter Incidents

The RTF will consist of how many personnel and consisting what?

A

5-8 personnel consisting of 3-4 firefighters and 2-4 Providence police officers

SOP's (1 decks)

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