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Cessna 208B > SOP COM Exam Compilation > Flashcards

SOP COM Exam Compilation Flashcards

SOP COM Exam refresher

1
Q

Documents to be carried on board the aircraft?

A

Cof airworthiness, Cof registration, current weight & balance, insurance papers

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2
Q

standard passenger’s weights as stated in the latest C.O.M.

A

adult male - 75kg
adult female - 60kg
child (2-11 years) - 30kg
infant (<2 years) - 10kg

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3
Q

When refueling from drums stored on their side, they will have to be turned upright and stand upright for at least

A

6 hours

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4
Q

A passenger complains about insufficient or incorrect handling at either a company office or airport, how should you handle the passenger?

A

Advise the passenger to write a letter of complaint to the company’s management

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5
Q

8 hour break is provided, your maximum duty time in a 24 hour period can be extended to:

A

15 hours

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6
Q

Who is the first officer responsible to?

A

Responsible to the Pilot in Command during flight operations, Chief Pilot or his delegate at all other times

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7
Q

Can you fly an aircraft with un-serviceable BlueSky equipment?

A

Yes special procedures apply

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8
Q

Duty time for flights is defined to

A

Start 40 minutes before the first scheduled departure and ends 20 minutes after the shutdown of the last aircraft engine

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9
Q

IFR charts required on board

A

INDOAVIS Indonesian IFR enroute chart, JEPPESEN IFR approach plates, VFR charts, for airports with no JEPPESEN approach plate coverage, INDOAVIS or DGCA APPROVED COMPANY plates may be used

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10
Q

Following the duty time, the crew member shall be provided an uninterrupted rest period in suitable accommodation, for a minimum of:

A

9hours

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11
Q

When should the shoulder harness be fastened?

A

During take-off and landing, except if the crew member cannot perform a required duty with the shoulder harness fastened

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12
Q

What is the flight time limit for two crew operations in a fixed wing aircraft?

Daily

Extended daily

Weekly Limit

Extended Weekly

Monthly

Extended Monthly

Yearly

No extended yearly

A

9 hours

10 hours

40 hours

50 hours

100 hours

125 hours

1050 hours

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13
Q

When can a required flight crew member leave his/her assigned seat?

A

If the aircraft is flying above 10,000 feet, or in steady cruise flight, with the autopilot engaged

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14
Q

What does Minimum En-Route Altitude (MEA) guarantee?

A

1000’ (2000’ in mountainous terrain) terrain clearance + reception of navigational signal at any point along the airway

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15
Q

A holder of ATPL or CPL with a type rating on the aircraft to which s/he is assigned shall pass a DGCA medical examination once every? (first class medical)

A

6 months

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16
Q

Regarding Fasting:

A

No flight crew member shall perform flight duties if more than 8 hours have passed since the last meal and/or drink has been consumed

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17
Q

Are we allowed to operate IFR?

A

Yes, if the aircraft is turbine powered and carrying cargo only

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18
Q

If a flight was cancelled, the flight plan for that flight has to be properly cancelled or closed within ____ after the flight’s planned ETA or Search and Rescue procedures may be initiated.

A

1/2hour (30minutes)

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19
Q

What is the maximum duty time for a flight crewmember?

Extended flight duty time

A

12 hours

15 hours

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20
Q

How many seats may be occupied by an adult and an infant at the same time?

A

50%

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21
Q

When common carriage (commercial flight) is not involved, company aircraft may be operated under rules in CASR 91, instead of the Company Operating Manual(COM) and CASR 135, for the following flights:

A

Ferry or training flights, or transportation of guests when no charge, assessment or fee is made for the transportation

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22
Q

According to the Company Operations Manual, what is the minimum in flight separation from other aircraft?

A

¼ mile horizontally and 500’ vertically

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23
Q

As first officer, how many hours do you require to operate in Papua?

A

200 hours

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24
Q

Is night VFR flights permitted?

A

DGCA restricts night VFR flights

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25
Q

Job description of the First Officer

A

Responsible to assist the Captain during the safe conduct of company flights

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26
Q

If a missed approach is required while circling to land, you should:

A

Make a climbing turn in the shortest direction towards the runway to intercept the missed approach course corresponding to the instrument approach procedure just flown

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27
Q

For an IFR flight to an airport with no reliable weather report available, the minimum fuel to be carried is?

A

Fuel to destination + alternate + 400 lbs reserve

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28
Q

Speed deviations during a stable approach are within:

A

Vref +20 knots, Vref -5 knots

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29
Q

As per SOPs, what is the configuration and minimum speed for holding?

A

Clean configuration and 100kts

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30
Q

Final approach checks are

A
  1. Flaps —————— B ——- 30/As Req’d
  2. Prop ——————- PM —————- Max
  3. Inertial Sep ———- PM ———– Bypass
  4. Ignition ————— PM —————– On
  5. YD ———————- PM —————— Off
  6. Airspeed / GS —— PM ————– Read
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31
Q

If using Cat A minimums during circling approach when can you initiate your turn to downwind?

A

When within a 1.68 nm radius from the threshold

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32
Q

What is the requirement for a stable approach during a circling approach?

A

Wings should be level at or before 300 feet AAE when established on final (Same as VFR Approach requirement)

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33
Q

When flying a non-precision approach MDA requirements

A

MDA + 50ft, if still in IMC

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34
Q

As per SOPs, the start should be aborted when the ITT;

A

Approaches 900 degrees C and is continuing to rise

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35
Q

In an emergency situation with the Quick Position button activated, is it possible to send / receive Bluesky messages or calls?

A

No, you have to de-activate the Quick Position button by pressing it again before being able to send/ receive any messages or make/ receive calls via the Bluesky unit

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36
Q

What fuel must be carried if your flight is scheduled to arrive within 30 minutes before sunset (official night)?

A

IFR fuel requirements

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37
Q

During the landing roll the FCL is accidently moved to CUT OFF instead of LOW IDLE. What actions are to be taken?

A

It MUST be left in the CUT OFF position and under no circumstances be placed back into LOW IDLE

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38
Q

As per SOPs, what is the maximum floor loading for the cargo pod?

Maximum floor loading for the cabin is?

A

30 lbs/sq ft

200 lbs/sqft

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39
Q

Before flight fuel drains should be done by?

A

A pilot

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40
Q

Climb checklist should, according to SOP, be performed?

A

Once the aircraft has cleared terrain, traffic, and the workload has reduced, usually above 2000ft

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41
Q

Usage of Recognition (Taxi) lights
On Climb
On Approach

A

On climb, below 2000ft

On approach below 2000ft or 15Nm from the station, whichever comes first

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42
Q

When using TAWS, what does the red colour coding refer to with regards to terrain clearance?

A

Terrain is above or within 100ft below the aircraft

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43
Q

Susi Air Caravans can fly into icing conditions if:

A

Flying in icing conditions is never allowed in Susi Air caravans

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44
Q

As per SOPs what is the maximum circling speed for ‘category A’ aircraft?

A

100kts

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45
Q

How much of a difference between PF and PM’s ASI’s requires aborting the take-off?

A

10 knots or more

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46
Q

As per SOPs, what is the maximum bank angle allowed with passengers?

A

30 degrees

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47
Q

According to the SOP the air conditioning MUST be OFF for take-off and landing over:

A

5.000 ft

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48
Q

CB activity should be avoided by at least:

A

5 nm. This distance should be increased to 10 nm for any thunderstorm identified as severe

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49
Q

A pilot is on final approach to a runaway with crosswind of 24 kts;

A

A landing is allowed but ill-advised

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50
Q

When leaving the aircraft after the last flight of the day, who is responsible for securing the aircraft?

A

The PIC

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51
Q

Activating the Quick Position button will reduce position reporting interval to:

A

15 s

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52
Q

During the procedure turn and initial approach the procedure turn fix should be crossed with:

A

Flaps 10, prop full forward and below 130 KIAS

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53
Q

What is the job description for a captain?

A

Responsible for the safe conduct of company flights

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54
Q

What is company policy about formation flying?

A

It is allowed, if the crew have been properly trained and it is authorized by the DGCA, with no passengers

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55
Q

The maximum period allowed for an entry on rice pilots after a flight is;

A

No maximum time limit is published, but completing it within 7 days is recommended

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56
Q

Pilot Self‐Dispatch is defined as;

A

A system where authority and responsibility for flight release, operation and flight following have been delegated solely by the PIC

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57
Q

VOR Equipment Checks shall be carried out on all company aircraft

A

15 days (NTC) Overrides OM

30 days (OM)

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58
Q

As per Susi Air COM, how much fuel should be carried if you are flying IFR to a destination without alternates?

A

Fuel to destination + 120 min (600lbs) flying time based on cruise fuel flow

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59
Q

The DGCA weight and balance determination form is current if issued within the preceding

A

24 months

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60
Q

No crewmember shall perform flight duties within _____ hours after donating blood or after a substantial blood loss due to injury.

A

72 hours

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61
Q

No person may act or attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft within how many hours of consuming alcohol?

A

8 hours

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62
Q

A Captain is defined as;

A

A pilot qualified on an aircraft and responsible for the safe operation of that aircraft

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63
Q

The Operational flight plan is flight documentation which needs to be filed and retained for _____ after the date of the flight, along with the filled out weight & balance form and the passenger manifest.

A

3 months

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64
Q

What type of dispatch system does the company employ?

A

Pilot Self‐dispatch

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65
Q

According to the Company Operations Manual, what is the requirement for IFR alternate airport minimums?

A

 Precision approach procedure: Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 statute miles
 Non-precision approach procedure: Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 statute miles (3,2 km)

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66
Q

As per SOPs, what is the go‐around pitch attitude?

A

8 degrees, Flaps 2

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67
Q

What is the SOP procedure for a TRAFFIC warning, in VMC?

A

All forward lights ON, look for traffic and do not manoeuvre unless visual

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68
Q

What is the normal climb prop RPM setting and the VIP climb prop RPM setting?

A

1850rpm for normal climb and 1750rpm for VIP climb

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69
Q

To hear incoming Bluesky calls via the headset:

A

Com 3 needs to be selected on listening watch

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70
Q

When cleared to intercept the localizer only, while flying an ILS approach using the autopilot, the crew:
.

A

May select APR mode provided the ILS is tuned and identified, the aircraft is on an inbound intercept heading, and both LOC and GS pointers are displayed

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71
Q

What is normal climb speed?

A

Normal climb airspeed is 110 to 120 knots

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72
Q

When checking the engine oil:

A

The cowling stays open until the other pilot has checked the oil cap

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73
Q

What is the difference between the IMC procedure for a CAUTION TERRAIN and a TERRAIN PULL UP warning?

A

CAUTION TERRAIN allows you to make turns to avoid the terrain. In case of a TERRAIN PULL UP warning wings MUST be level

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74
Q

As per SOPs, what is the call out by the pilot flying if the Localizer or/and Glideslope move to full scale deflection?

A

“Go‐around, set power, flaps 20”

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75
Q

If using Cat A minimums during circling approach when can you initiate your turn to downwind?

A

When within a 1.68 nm radius from the threshold

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76
Q

When the emergency phraseology “Captain you must listen” is used during flight:

A

The captain must discontinue his present course of action and follow the desired course of action, unless the captain determines that doing so would jeopardize the safety of the flight

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77
Q

As per SOPs what is the maximum circling speed for ‘category A’ aircraft?

A

100kts

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78
Q

Rate of descent should be:

A

500 fpm. 700 fpm is acceptable. During instrument approaches 900 fpm is acceptable, but only if required

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79
Q

As per OPSPEC, what instrument approach procedures are Susi Air authorized to conduct?

A

VOR, VOR‐DME, ADF and ILS CAT‐1

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80
Q

Required day off is defined as;

A

A period of time consisting of 24 consecutive hours during which time a pilot, flight attendant or flight operations officer are free from all duties or contact by the company

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81
Q

What is true regarding taxiing?

A

In tight areas it is recommended the Captain taxi

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82
Q

As per SOPs, what are the immediate action(s) for the pilot flying should there be an engine failure after takeoff airborne with flaps at 20 degrees?

A

Pitch the nose forward for 85 kts

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83
Q

As per SOPs, an immediate Go‐Around is required if an approach becomes unstable…

A

below 1000ft IMC and below 300ft VMC

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84
Q

As per SOPs, 1865ft/lbs torque will be used for takeoff when;

A

Runway length is less than 1.5 x the take off distance

Otherwise 1800RPM is used

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85
Q

Can you inhibit TAWS when flying IMC?

A

No

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86
Q

No flight crewmember shall engage in scuba diving within _____ hours before any flights.

A

24 hours

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87
Q

Flight duty time is defined as;

A

The total time elapsed from the time a crewmember is required to report for duty, to the time that crew member has completed all official duties and is released for an official crew rest.

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88
Q

According to Company Operations Manual, what is the fuel final reserve requirement for VFR Fixed wing?

A

45 min

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89
Q

Defueling shall always be accomplished;

A

In open air

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90
Q

Are passengers allowed to carry weapons in their cabin baggage?

A

No, except an authorized person performing a duty on board the aircraft, with prior permission from the pilot-in-command

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91
Q

What is the basic VFR weather minima’s for take-off and landing?

A

Ceiling 1000 feet and Visibility 3 SM

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92
Q

When your duty time is being extended by one hour, what will be the rest period required to extend the duty time?

A

Four hours

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93
Q

Flight duty time may be extended beyond the 12 hours, if;

A

One third of the flight duty time precedes the rest period

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94
Q

When assigned to act as pilot in command under IFR, he must have

A

Within the past 6 calendar months logged at least 6 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated IFR conditions, at least 3 of which were in flight in the category of aircraft involved, including at least 6 instrument approaches,
or passed an instrument competency check in the category of aircraft involved

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95
Q

The Company shall not use any person, nor may any person serve, as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers unless, if assigned to night flying duties

A

Within the preceding 90 days, made three take off and three landings during the period beginning 30 minutes after sunset and ending 30 minutes before sunrise, as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type in which that person is to serve

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96
Q

The Company shall not use any person, nor may any person serve, as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers unless;

A

Within the preceding 90 days, made three takeoff and landings as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type in which that person is to serve

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97
Q

Until reaching 100 hours PIC on type in company, a C208 Captain may not be scheduled with a Copilot who has less than ——- hours on type?

A

100 hours

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98
Q

Unless actual weights are available, the pilot may use those weights declared by the passengers except if it is apparent to the pilot that the weights are in excess of those declared. What should you do?

A

Estimate the passengers weight and add 10% for error margin

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99
Q

According to COM(Company Operating manual) what is the fuel final reserve requirements for IFR Fixed wing, if no alternate aerodrome is available?

A

120 min

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100
Q

What is official day?

A

From official sunrise to official sunset

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101
Q

What type of turbine engine is fitted to the Cessna Grand Caravan?

A

Free turbine, twin shaft turbo propeller engine

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102
Q

An inertial separator system in the engine air inlet duct:

A

Prevents moisture and other particles from entering the compressor air inlet plenum when in bypass mode

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103
Q

The fuel in the aircraft is stored in

A

Two vented, integral fuel tanks (one in each wing)

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104
Q

How many landing lights are installed on the Cessna Grand Caravan?

A

2

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105
Q

The exhaust system of the Cessna Grand Caravan consists of a primary exhaust pipe

A

Attached to the right side of the engine just aft of the propeller reduction gearbox

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106
Q

When starting the engine using the airplane battery:

A

The starter shall not be engaged for more than 30 seconds, followed by a starter rest period of 60 seconds

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107
Q

When using the emergency power lever in flight, what is the minimum gas generator speed you have to maintain?

A

65%

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108
Q

A fuel filter bypass flag (red in colour) on top of the fuel filter is:

A

An indication that the filter has become blocked and is in bypass mode, airplane is grounded until further inspection

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109
Q

How many vortex generators are to be counted on EACH horizontal stabiliser?

A

18

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110
Q

When illuminated red, the voltage high CAS message indicates

A

Bus voltage is greater than 32 volts

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111
Q

Propeller RPM is measured:

A

Electronically from the propeller tachometer‐generator

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112
Q

What does the CAS message ‘STALL HEAT (AMBER)’ mean?

A

Indicates that the stall warning heater system has malfunctioned or the stall warning circuit breaker is pulled

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113
Q

If PFD1 fails, the following will occur

A

MFD will go reversionary mode, PFD2 will go reversionary mode but not displaying any engine instruments. NAV 1 and COM 1 will not be available.

114
Q

The ignition system has two positions, ON and NORMAL. The ON position is used:

A

During flight through heavy precipitation, and in the SOP, for landing and take‐off

115
Q

When the battery switch is in the OFF position:

A

Power is cut off to all busses except the battery bus

116
Q

What is NOT true about the RAIM check?

A

RAIM check must be done on both GPS1 and GPS2 receiver

117
Q

Engine compressor stall can be somewhat eliminated by use of

A

Turning on the bleed air heat

118
Q

Spoilers are mounted above the outboard ends of the flap and are moved

A

Automatically by means of push rods and spoiler travel is proportional to aileron travel for aileron deflections in excess of 5 degrees up

119
Q

DOOR UNLATCHED CAS (Crew Alert System) message indicates that:

A

Upper cargo and/ or passenger door is not latched

120
Q

What does the CAS message ‘OIL PRESS LOW (RED)’ mean?

A

Indicated engine oil pressure is less than 40 psi

121
Q

With the STARTER switch positioned to MOTOR

A

The ignition circuit is not energized

122
Q

The fireproof fuel drain can should be drained:

A

Once a day or at an interval not to exceed 6 engine shutdowns

123
Q

When using the fuel control manual override system:

A

Engine response may be more rapid than when using the power level and additional care is required to avoid engine limitations

124
Q

When the External Power Switch is in the BUS position:

A

External power is applied to the main bus and no power is available to the starter

125
Q

As per POH, what is the stall speed with flaps retracted at 8750lbs with most forward C.G

A

63kts

126
Q

Fuel flows from the wing tanks to the reservoir tank by

A

Gravity

127
Q

What is the total oil capacity in quarts?

A

14 quarts

128
Q

Fuel is injected into the combustion chamber liner of the PT6A‐114A engine by _____ simplex nozzles supplied by a dual manifold

A

14 simplex nozzles

129
Q

What is the meaning of BETA Mode relating to the control of propeller blade pitch? (POH 1‐11) Answer (correct): (·)

A

Propeller blade pitch is controlled by the power lever

130
Q

The terrain warning system as installed in the caravan is based on

A

GPS database

131
Q

Whenever passengers are carried the rate of climb must not exceed:

A

800 fpm

132
Q

When cleared to intercept the LOCALIZER only, while flying an ILS approach using the autopilot, the crew:

A

Must select NAV mode only, as APR also arms the GS

133
Q

During downwind in the traffic pattern during a normal visual approach, the SOP states that the altitude should be:

A

1000’ AAE

134
Q

When taxiing on a long, straight taxi way, maximum taxi speed can be?

A

30 knots

135
Q

When your duty time is being extended passed the usual 12 hour limit, what will be the minimum rest period required to extend the duty time?

A

Four hours

136
Q

According to regulations, a handicapped passenger shall

A

not be seated next to an aircraft door or emergency exit

137
Q

According to the SOP all the requirements for a stable approach must be fulfilled at:

A

1000 ft IMC,

300 ft VMC

138
Q

IFR flights can be conducted legally in the caravan when

A

No passengers are carried and the flight is conducted by two pilots with valid instrument ratings

139
Q

The Propeller Tachometer‐Generator produces an electric signal which is used:

A

To indicate propeller RPM

140
Q

When the PT6A‐114A engine is operating, a failure of any pneumatic signal input to the fuel control unit will result in:

A

Fuel flow decreasing to minimum idle resulting in about 48% Ng when at sea‐level

141
Q

What does the CAS message ‘ENGINE FIRE (RED)’ mean?

A

Indicates an excessive temperature condition and/or a fire has occured in the engine bay

142
Q

What is the purpose of the chip detectors installed on the PT6A‐114A engine?

A

To detect the presence of metal chips in the reduction or accessory gearbox which would indicate excessive engine wear

143
Q

The starter‐generator has the following functions:

A

As a motor for engine starting and as a generator for the airplane electrical system

144
Q

If asymmetric flap extension is noticed, the pilot must retain roll control and immediately;

A

Retract the flaps

145
Q

The propeller must not be left in beta for long periods when there is a crosswind from the right on our Caravan aircraft because;

A

the propeller slipstream is required to keep excess heat away from the cargo pod

146
Q

The rudder trim is accomplished through;

A

Nose wheel steering bungee connected to the rudder control wheel

147
Q

With regard to the alternate static source system, where is the source of the pressure taken from?

A

Inside the cabin

148
Q

What does the CAS message ‘ALTNR AMPS (AMBER)’ mean?

A

Indicates that the alternator output is less than ‐10 amps or greater than 75 amps

149
Q

If the engine oil pressure falls below 40 PSI during flight at cruise power settings:

A

Engine should be shut down or landing made as soon as possible using the minimum power required to sustain flight

150
Q

When using the G1000, engine instrumentation and monitoring is displayed:

A

On the Left hand side of the PFD during start‐up and on the Left hand side of the MFD during normal operation

151
Q

Ram air pressure and static pressure is supplied to the standby ASI and altimeter by:

A

The left pitot ‐ static system

152
Q

The Go Around button on the power lever will activate;

A

The flight director to a pre‐set position

153
Q

A trimmable servo tab is located on;

A

The right aileron

154
Q

What is the function of the power lever when in BETA range?

A

It controls engine power and propeller pitch

155
Q

If all electrical power fails in flight, the wing flaps;

A

Will remain in their current position

156
Q

According to the Pilot Operating Handbook, the maximum torque allowable during climb at 1900 RPM is:

A

1865lbs

157
Q

The battery in the C208B is;

Answer

A

A swing out tray in front of the firewall

158
Q

When using the emergency power lever in flight, what is the minimum gas generator speed you have to maintain?

A

65%

159
Q

An engine start using external power should not be attempted if the system bus is less then _____ volts.

A

20volts

160
Q

The air conditioning system is;

A

Belt operated by the engine accessory section

161
Q

What is the amount of total USABLE fuel in USG?

A

332 Gallons

162
Q

How many electrical fuel pumps does the Caravan have?

A

1

163
Q

Alcohol restrictions

A

Within 8 hours after consuming alcohol, and /or while having 0.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood

164
Q

What is the extended three monthly flight time limit?

A

375 hours

165
Q

The stall warning horn should sound _________ in all configurations.

A

5 to 10 knots above the corresponding stall airspeed

166
Q

Where is the location of the standby flap motor and standby flap motor up/down switches?

A

Both switches are located on the overhead panel between the two pilot seats

167
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude of the Cessna Grand Caravan?

A

25 000 feet

168
Q

What does ITT stand for?

A

Interstage Turbine Temperature

169
Q

State the engine model number for the Legacy and the G1000 Caravan

A

PT6A-114A

170
Q

How do you calculate useful load?

A

Ramp weight minus basic empty weight

171
Q

What does the lower limit of the white band on the airspeed indicator signify?

A

Stall speed in the landing configuration at maximum all up weight

172
Q

What terrain clearance does Route MORA guarantee?

A

1000’/2000’. Applicable within 10 nm of the route centreline and end fixes

173
Q

The SOP suggests that you initiate your circling manoeuvre by:

A

Turning left/right 45 deg from your approach course for 30 s before turning downwind

174
Q

The elevator has how many trim tabs?

A

Two trim tabs

175
Q

The fuel tank quantity indicators:

A

Measure volume and are calibrated in pounds, based on the weight of Jet A fuel on a standard day

176
Q

Fuel System Malfunction immediate action is;

A

Fuel Boost switch ON

177
Q

What does the CAS message ‘L‐R P/S HEAT (AMBER)’ mean?

A

Indicates that either both pitot / static vane heater systems (left and right) have malfunctioned or that both the left and the
right pitot heat circuit breakers are pulled

178
Q

Flight load factor limits for the Cessna Grand Caravan WITHOUT payload extender kit are:

A

+3.8g and ‐1.52g

179
Q

If the quantity of oil discharge into the oil breather can exceeds …. cc per hour of engine operation, the source of the leak should
be identified and corrected prior to further flight (Engine fitted with an air conditioner).

A

14cc

180
Q

When would you get a FUEL SELECT OFF CAS message without a warning horn?

A

If the FUEL SEL WARN circuit breaker is tripped or if the START CONT circuit breaker is pulled

181
Q

What is the meaning of BETA Mode relating to the control of propeller blade pitch?

A

Propeller blade pitch is controlled by the power lever

182
Q

The mixing air push‐pull control (cabin air heating system) should always be in the FLT position (pushed in) when the airplane is in
flight. If it is left in GRD (ground) position then…..

A

The system may overheat and cause an automatic shutdown

183
Q

In case of an electrical fire, the crews initial actions should be;

A

Stand‐by Power Off, generator switch trip, battery off

184
Q

When the PT6A‐114A engine is operating, a failure of any pneumatic signal input to the fuel control unit will result in:

A

Fuel flow decreasing to minimum idle resulting in about 48% Ng when at sea‐level

185
Q

What is the maximum loading weight within the cargo pod?

A

1090 lbs

186
Q

Vacuum is generated by;

A

Venting P3 air through an ejector

187
Q

According to the POH, when operating solely on standby power:

A

Both AVIONICS 1 and 2 switches should be OFF, to avoid feeding a possible fault into the primary power system

188
Q

Where is the oil breather drain can mounted in the C208B?

A

The can is mounted on the right lower engine mount truss, behind the exhaust pipe

189
Q

When the pilot is using the Engine Power Lever (EPL) during flight, he/she should now maintain a minimum Ng of

A

65% Ng, because the FCL does not work any more

190
Q

VNV is disabled when;

A

Parallel track or Dead reckoning mode is active

191
Q

When the FUEL CONDITION Lever is in the HIGH IDLE position, fuel supplied results in an idle RPM of ____% NG.

A

65% Ng

192
Q

If a GIA1, 2, PFD or MFD COOLING ADVISORY message is displayed on the G1000:

A

Flight is prohibited

193
Q

For maximum brake life:

A

When conditions permit, temporary hard brake application is beneficial

194
Q

Once the RSVR FUEL LOW (RED) warning light illuminates, there is only adequate fuel in the fuel reservoir for approximately ____
minutes of maximum continuous power or approximately ____ minutes at idle power.

A

RSVR FUEL Low (1/2 reservoir left)
1.5 min and 4.5min

Full reservoir
3min and 9min

195
Q

A portable fire extinguisher is located:

A

On the inside of the pilot’s entry door

196
Q

The pitot‐static heat system consists of a heating element in each pitot‐static tube. How is the element heated?

A

The element is electrically heated

197
Q

With regards to the alternate static source:

A

Only the left pitot‐static system has an alternate static source valve

198
Q

With the fuel boost pump switch positioned to NORM:

A

The fuel boost pump is armed and operates if the fuel manifold pressure drops below 4.75 psi

199
Q

The Ng Tachometer‐Generator produces an electric current which is used:

A

To indicate gas generator % RPM

200
Q

What does the CAS massage ‘FUEL SELECT OFF (RED)’ mean?

A

Indicates that left and right fuel selectors are both off at any time

201
Q

How many hours may the PT6 installed in the Cessna Grand Caravan run on pure Aviation Gasoline in one overhaul period?

A

150

202
Q

What type of propeller system is fitted to the Cessna Grand Caravan?

A

Constant speed, full‐feathering, reversible, hydraulically‐actuated system

203
Q

What does the CAS message ‘STBY PWR INOP (AMBER)’ mean?

A

Indicates electrical power is not available from the standby alternator, or just not switched on

204
Q

The propeller RPM is not responding to propeller lever movement. The likely cause is;

A

Primary prop governor failure

205
Q

While checking the correct operation of the OVERSPEED GOVERNOR, propeller RPM should be stable at:

A

1750±60RPM

206
Q

Incorporated in the C208B G1000 are three Garmin display units as follows:

A

Two Primary Flight Displays and one Multi Function Display

207
Q

The starter‐ generator functions as a generator:

A

Above 46 % Ng with the STARTER switch positioned to OFF

208
Q

A two‐position toggle switch, labelled BLEED AIR HEAT, controls:

A

The operation of the bleed air control valve allowing hot bleed air to flow to the cabin heating system

209
Q

With the propeller in feather (on the ground), what precaution must be made to avoid damaging the propeller linkage?

A

The power lever must not be moved aft of the IDLE position

210
Q

Spin recovery is done by;

A

Power to idle, aileron neutral, rudder opposite of rotation and then briskly move control wheel forward to break the stall

PARE

211
Q

The starter‐generator is a ….. volt, ….. amp engine‐driven unit.

A

28 volt; 200 amp

212
Q

What is the speed range of the green band on the airspeed indicator?

A

63kts – 175kts

213
Q

The low idle and high idle positions of the fuel condition lever control?

A

Ng at the minimum power lever settings

214
Q

If any of the cockpit doors should inadvertently open in flight, the airspeed should be slowed to ______ KIAS or less to reduce buffeting of the doors.

A

125 knots

215
Q

Vy on the caravan at sea level is;

A

104 KIAS

216
Q

When can the shaded area on the Weight & Balance form be used?

A

Only if a accurate C.G. and weight can be obtained

217
Q

If using the GPS as the sole navigation source, what checks MUST be done if flying IMC?

A

Waypoints must be checked against published coordinates and a RAIM check must be completed. The CDI sensitivity must be set to 0.3nm

218
Q

As per SOPs, what is the pilot monitoring’s call when the glide slope initially starts to move off full scale deflection?

A

“glideslope moving”

219
Q

State the shaft horsepower of the engine installed in the Legacy and G1000 Caravans.

A

675 hp

220
Q

What do the wing flap trailing edge angle and leading edge vortex generators do?

A

Decrease stall speed and enhance lateral stability

221
Q

What does the CAS message ‘STBY PWR INOP (AMBER)’ mean?

A

Indicates electrical power is not available from the standby alternator, or just not switched on

222
Q

What does the CAS massage ‘VOLTAGE LOW (RED)’ mean?

A

Indicated electrical system bus voltage is less than 24.5 volts

223
Q

The PROP RPM lever is connected:

A

through linkage to the propeller governor on top of the front section of the engine

224
Q

The propeller pitch mechanism

A

Is driven towards low pitch by oil pressure and towards high pitch by springs and counterweights

(The prop will want to feather in an event of an engine failure or oil pressure catastrophe)

225
Q

The PT6A‐114A engine incorporates ….. individual chromel‐alumel thermocouple probes connected in parallel to measure the ITT

A

8 ITT probes

226
Q

The fuel flow indicated by the fuel flow gauges is measured:

A

Downstream of the FCU before the fuel is routed to the flow divider

227
Q

What does the CAS message ‘FUEL BOOST ON (AMBER)’ mean?

A

Indicated that the auxiliary fuel pump is operating

228
Q

What does the CAS message ‘RSVR FUEL LOW (RED)’ mean?

A

Indicates that the fuel level in the reservoir tank is approximately one‐half or less

229
Q

Prior to take‐off, the FUEL CONDITION lever is moved to the _______ position.

A

HIGH IDLE

230
Q

What are the LOW and HIGH IDLE Ng settings for the fuel condition lever?

A

52%, 65%

231
Q

What is the negative load factor limit with flaps up on C208B fitted with the payload extender system?

A

‐1.34g

232
Q

What is classified as a hot start?

A

When a start or attempted start results in ITT exceeding 1090 degrees Celsius

233
Q

What is the minimum aircraft battery voltage required for an engine start using the GPU?

A

20 V

234
Q

What is the minimum stable Ng required (after engaging the starter) to continue the start process?

A

12%

235
Q

How many pitot‐static systems are there on the Cessna Grand Caravan?

A

Two independent pitot‐static systems

236
Q

When may BETA mode be used?

A

During ground operations only

237
Q

What is the function of the fuel reservoir?

A

Maintains a head of fuel around the ejector and boost pump to prevent pump cavitation when flying uncoordinated

238
Q

What is the Maximum Manoeuvring Speed at maximum all up weight without payload extender kit?

A

148 KTAS

239
Q

The Torquemeter is a hydro‐mechanical torque measuring device used to provide an accurate indication of:

A

Engine power output

240
Q

L and/ or R FUEL LOW CAS message appears when:

A

The respective wing tank has 25 gallons or less of usable fuel

241
Q

On a G1000 aircraft, the vacuum system provides suction necessary to operate:

A

The standby attitude indicator only

242
Q

The inertial separator has to be used when;

A

in visible moisture and OAT is below 5 Celsius

243
Q

In the POH, reverse power operation is limited to:

A

1 min

Susi - 30 sec

244
Q

The ITT gage indicates:

A

Gas temperature between the compressor turbine and power turbine

245
Q

The PROP RPM Lever on the control pedestal is connected to the governor mounted on top of the front section of the engine by
means of:

A

A mechanical linkage

246
Q

if you accidently turn on the STARTER switch in the cruise;

A

the generator will go off‐line

247
Q

The Cessna Grand Caravan is certified to conduct the following manoeuvres:

A

Stalls, lazy eights, steep turns not exceeding 60 degrees angle of bank, NO spins

248
Q

The AVIONICS BUS TIE switch:

A

Connects the number 1 and number 2 avionics buses

249
Q

Maximum speed of the gas generator section of the PT6A‐114A engine is 38,100rpm at ____ % Ng.

A

101.6%

250
Q

Who is responsible for the reexamination

and revalidation of a crewmembers medical certificate?

A

the crewmember

251
Q

The standby electrical system;

A

is powered by a beltdriven

alternator

252
Q

The turbine section:

A

Includes a singlestage
compressor turbine and a singlestage
power turbine

253
Q

Use of the EMERGENCY POWER Lever during normal operation of the power lever:

A

May result in engine surges, or exceeding the ITT, Ng and torque limits

254
Q

Fuel in the PT6A114A

engine is ignited by ____ spark igniters which protrude into the combustion chamber liner.

A

2

255
Q

The right pitotstatic system provides ram air and static pressure to:

A

Air Data Computer #2 only

256
Q

In the event of an audio panel failure;

A

A failsafe circuit connects the pilot’s headset directly to the COM 1 radio

257
Q

The power lever on the control pedestal is connected to the fuel control unit at the rear of the engine by means of:

A

A mechanical linkage and cam assembly

258
Q

A CDI selected to GPS is denoted by ____ coloring, and a CDI selected to a VOR frequency is denoted by ____ coloring.

A

Magenta, Green

259
Q

To avoid damage to the cargo pod the power lever should not be left in beta range for more than ____ when parked:

A

30 sec

260
Q

If the GPS fails, then

A

TAWS will not be available

261
Q

The rudder gust lock failsafe

connection automatically disengages the lock when;

A

The elevator is deflected upwards

262
Q

Why must the propeller not be left to windmill while the engine is NOT running?

A

There is no lubricating oil supplied with only the power turbine section spinning

263
Q

With a RSVR FUEL LOW CAS message, how long will the engine keep running at max continuous power?

A

90 seconds

264
Q

Sterile Cockpit” is to be implemented during:

A

During all ground operations, take‐off, landing, flight conducted below 5000’ aerodrome elevation and within 1000’ of assigned level

265
Q

Vacuum, for the vacuum system on the Cessna Grand Caravan, is obtained:

A

By passing regulated compressor outlet bleed air through a vacuum ejector

266
Q

With regards to the passenger entry door, select the correct statement below:

A

Do not use the outside key lock to lock the door prior to flight as the door could not be opened from the inside if it were needed
as an emergency exit

267
Q

For redundancy, the Garmin G1000 system has

A

Two magnetometers and two air data computers

268
Q

What does the CAS message ‘STBY PWR ON (WHITE)’ mean?

A

Indicates that the standby alternator is generating electrical power

269
Q

Cabin ventilation air enters the aircraft through;

A

Air inlets on each wing at the upper ends of the wing struts

270
Q

The Cessna Grand Caravan is equipped with what kind of electrical system?

A

28 volt, direct‐current electrical system

271
Q

Which flap position is not allowed for take‐off on the standard C208;

A

30

272
Q

If the engine oil pressure is slightly below 85 PSI during flight at cruise power settings:

A

The flight may be completed, preferably at a reduced power setting

273
Q

What is the maximum speed the aircraft may be flown with storm window on the captain‐side open?

A

175 KIAS

274
Q

The air‐conditioning system condenser is located

A

in the bottom left of the engine compartment

275
Q

When illuminated amber, the generator amps CAS message indicates

A

Generator output is less than ‐10 amps or greater then 200amps

276
Q

The governing range of the primary propeller governor is;

A

1600 RPM to 1900 RPM

277
Q

Forgetting to turn off the starter switch after having completed the start procedure will?

A

Prevent the generator from coming online

278
Q

stable approach criteria

A
  • more than 300ftlb torque
  • final check list
  • wings level
  • within 1/2 dot of CDI

Note* Fuel boost on is NOT a criteria for a stable approach

279
Q

Company Flight Times adds how much to each leg?

A

+0.10 hrs for each leg

280
Q

Supervised training can be authorized by whom in the company?

A

Operations Manager, Chief Pilot and Training Manager

281
Q

Reporting times before T/O

A

at least 30 minutes before departure

Cessna 208B (4 decks)

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