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SOP > SOP > Flashcards

SOP Flashcards

1
Q

Size margins for SOPs?

A

0.75 inches

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2
Q

Font and spacing for SOP

A

Times Roman, 12 point, 1.15 spacing

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3
Q

Minimum sections in an SOP

A

Five: purpose, scope, responsibility,definitions, procedures

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4
Q

Standard review cycle for SOPs

A

Every 3 years unless otherwise stated at inception

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5
Q

What are SOPs

A

Procedural guidelines for personnel to follow

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6
Q

When are R&Rs reviewed

A

Every 3 years in January

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7
Q

When is a program appraisal report done

A

Every January

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8
Q

What is a subpoena

A

written order to compel an individual to give testimony on a subject

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9
Q

Who do you send a mandatory subpoena to

A

Office manager

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10
Q

Who do you send a standby subpoena and witness info letter to

A

EMS administrative aid

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11
Q

Once served by a process server for non-state attorney subpoenas, who should the employee send it to

A

Office manager and administrative aid

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12
Q

Who is responsible for format and content of the Probies performance training program

A

Training bureau

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13
Q

Who is responsible for the format, content, or testing process for paramedic training

A

Training bureau and EMS bureau

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14
Q

Who is responsible for monitoring Probies overall shift reports

A

Shift AC

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15
Q

Passing score on Probies tests

A

80%

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16
Q

What is phase 1 medic sign off

A

EMS training before shift assignment

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17
Q

What is phase 2 medic training

A

Field ride times with FTO

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18
Q

What is phase 3 sign off process

A

Testing phase

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19
Q

Who decides if candidate can retest or is terminated

A

Fire Chief

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20
Q

Who decides if a tenured employee can retest or must restart the program

A

Fire Chief

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21
Q

When must a captain complete a probationary FF evaluation form

A

by 0730

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22
Q

Who coordinates attendance of multi-company drills

A

Operations division and BC

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23
Q

What is a training facility

A

A training ground approved by ISO that when utilized in H.O.T. satisfies ISO criteria

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24
Q

NFPA 1002

A

Fire apparatus Driver/operator professional qualifications

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25
Q

Who oversees the DE performance check-off program

A

BC of training

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26
Q

Candidates must have what to qualify for DE performance check-off program

A

2 or more years at FLFR, completed the DE sign-offs for current list, successfully passed written and practical test for DE

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27
Q

NFPA 1403

A

Live fire training evolutions

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28
Q

Who can function as instructor in charge or safety officer for live fire training scenarios

A

LFTI

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29
Q

When is the pre/post live fire training sign in form destroyed

A

48 hours after training completed

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30
Q

What two issues need to be addressed when determining the training to be conducted

A
  1. condition of building

2. skills to be taught

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31
Q

What should be considered when training with an acquired structure

A

Objectives, participants, taxing of in service units

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32
Q

Efforts should be made to limit training to what duration

A

4 hours

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33
Q

In what direction are sides of a structure identified

A

Clockwise fashion

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34
Q

Primary and secondary egress points ____ be used for room ventilation on training burns

A

MUST NOT

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35
Q

All conditions that may create a hazard on live burns must be

A

removed, repaired, or neutralized

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36
Q

When are roof openings made for training burns

A

During room/building prep not actual fire

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37
Q

For a training burn, a person cannot be

A

Used as a victim

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38
Q

For a training burn, manikins cannot be dressed in

A

Bunker gear

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39
Q

Instructors for a live fire can be assigned to

A

IIC, Safety officer, LFTI (or adjunct) RIT (just not DE)

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40
Q

What is the desired student to LFTI ratio for live fire burns

A

5:1

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41
Q

What positions on a live fire can be a non instructor

A

RIT, REHAB, DE

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42
Q

What is a TCC

A

Training center coordinator

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43
Q

True or False, lead instructors must be aligned with FLFR AHA TC

A

True

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44
Q

What is the sole reference point for all AHA matters

A

Program Administration Manual (PAM)

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45
Q

When will AHA cards be administered in relation to the class

A

Same day unless under extreme circumstances, must be within 20 days

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46
Q

When must you notify the TCC via email that an outside AHA class is going to be taken

A

10 days prior

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47
Q

Can you email a card that was acquired from an outside agency

A

No, must be in person

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48
Q

What are the three approved TC’s

A

UM simulation lab, Broward College, Palm Beach College

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49
Q

Can FLFR transport hazardous materials

A

No

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50
Q

Who is notified for pollutants in the waterway

A

Coast guard and EPA, also advise Fire Com to contact FLPD marine unit to investigate and contact appropriate parties

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51
Q

Who should be notified if pollutants enter sewers, catch basins, and storm drains

A

Utilities department

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52
Q

Who is responsible for determining the level of protection required to treat and transport pts from hazmat scenes

A

Hazmat team

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53
Q

What situations may a Bio/Chem protective kit be needed

A
  1. Assisting with decon
  2. Suspected radioactive/biological/chemical event
  3. Treatment and transport of contaminated/off gassing pt
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54
Q

Who is responsible for actions within the hazardous zones

A

Hazmat team

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55
Q

What color bag is the bio/chem protective kit in

A

Black bag with white seal

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56
Q

Once suits are used from bio chem protective kit who should they be discarded to

A

Hazmat team

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57
Q

What size threaded adapter is in the bio chem protective kit

A

40mm threaded

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58
Q

What level protection is the suit in a bio chem protective kit

A

Tychem SL with level B splash protection

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59
Q

If donning a bootie style tychem SL suit from bio chem protective kit how should the suit be taped to the boot

A

Folded 3-4 inches over the boot and taped

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60
Q

If donning an ankle style tech suit how should the leg be set

A

Elastic cuff pulled over boot at least 6-8 inches below the top of the boot and taped

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61
Q

Filters designed to remove harmful gases, vapors, and solid particles will not protect wearer against

A

Oxygen deficient atmospheres

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62
Q

What type of gloves are in the bio chem protective kit

A

4 mil silver shield to be worn over exam gloves

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63
Q

Does each layer of glove get taped when donning the tech protective suit

A

Yes

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64
Q

What thickness is the Tychem SL Jump Suit

A

10.3 mil

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65
Q

How many strips of tape should be used for sealing the tech SL suit to a mask

A

3

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66
Q

Florida DOT is responsible for spills on what roadways in its jurisdiction

A

I95, I595, Turnpike, and numerous state roads

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67
Q

What state roads are there in the city

A

84, davie, broward, sunrise, oakland, commercial, ELO, Powerline, Dixie Highway

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68
Q

When is the city of ft lauderdale responsible for pickup and disposal of hazardous spills

A

Within city limits if responsible party cannot be located

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69
Q

What info should be relayed to firebomb for a hazardous spill

A 
Exact location and if in a waterway
product identification
Approx amount
Any environmental impacts
Defensive/offensive actions taken
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70
Q

If possible determine responsible party for hazardous spills for

A

Removal and billing

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71
Q

What are mark 1 kits used for

A

Treatment of personnel exposed to nerve agents and/or organophosphates

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72
Q

What medications are in a mark 1 and doodle kit

A

2mg of Atropine

600mg of 2 Pam CL in solution

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73
Q

What angle do you hold an auto injector at

A

90 degrees

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74
Q

How long do you hold auto injector in place against the leg

A

10 seconds

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75
Q

Will an auto injector penetrate bunker gear

A

No

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76
Q

Acronym for mark 1 or doodle injectors

A 
Salivation
Lacrimentation
Urination
Defecation
GI Distress
Emesis
Miopic (pinpoint pupils)
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77
Q

Who has a rad alert 50 issued to them

A

Ladders, truck 53, squad, battalions, AC, E88 and HM88

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78
Q

when does a rad alert 50 sound

A

When radiation in a particular area exceeds 1.00 mr/hr

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79
Q

How long does a rad alert 50 take to calibrate after powering on

A

1 minute to show a reading

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80
Q

What should be done if a rad alert sounds

A

Perform a circular pattern around the site to identify the hot zone

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81
Q

Access to hot zone for non hazmat team personnel is only for

A

Rescue ops and viable patients

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82
Q

Why should officer on scene notify fire com prior to entry of a hot zone for rescue ops

A

So they can record entry times

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83
Q

When are rescue ops suspended and crews withdrawn on radiation calls

A

if 50 mr/hr or greater

84
Q

What temperature do Phase Change Liquid inserts of Cooling Vests maintain

A

58 degrees up to 3 hours

85
Q

How long should cooling vests be placed in refrigerator, freezer, or ice water if hazmat truck fridge is down

A

20-30 minutes

86
Q

What information is important for incoming hazmat unit on underground natural gas/propane gas emergencies

A

Size of line
Polypropylene or steel
Wind direction

87
Q

What actions should be taken for first arriving engine company on an underground natural/propane gas emergency

A

Request gas company and hazmat team, deploy 1 3/4 line only flow if gas needs redirection, do not fill hole

88
Q

Extreme caution should be taken when determining if “go” is the action for a water rescue especially when ____

A

Lateral Currents are present

89
Q

What should be developed for surface rescue operations

A

Action plan

90
Q

Types of surface rescue

A

Reach, throw, row, go

91
Q

Personal safety in surface rescue rests with

A

The rescuer

92
Q

Safety of the incident rests with

A

IC

93
Q

It is the water rescuers responsibility and duty to

A

Refuse to go if unsafe/under trained

94
Q

What are the two types of “go” for surface rescue

A

Paddle Board, landline shore assisted water rescue

95
Q

All support personnel within ____ of shore must wear PFDs

A

10 feet

96
Q

Surface support per rescue swimmers ration

A

1 support per 2 swimmers

97
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to request additional response of a neighboring TRT team

A

TRT Captain

98
Q

Under no circumstances must personnel enter without

A

Proper training and equipment

99
Q

When is the rescue versus recovery status for confined space rescue decided

A

Upon arrival of TRT and info transferred

100
Q

What level O2 is considered low for confined space

A

19.5%

101
Q

What percentage is enriched oxygen

A

23.5%

102
Q

At what interval must oxygen readings be for confined space rescue

A

5 minute intervals

103
Q

What must be done if a hazard is unable to be locked out, tagged out

A

Post FLFR representative to monitor

104
Q

What interval must entry and rescue personnel be rotated for confined space

A

20 minute intervals

105
Q

Entry is limited how far below grade for confined space

A

25 feet

106
Q

What width is considered a trench rescue

A

Depth is greater than width, width is 15 feet or less

107
Q

If entering a trench contact public works for what

A

A vacuum truck to respond

108
Q

What must initial crews insert for a trench rescue

A

Portable ladder at one end of the trench

109
Q

How far apart must ladders be placed for trench rescue

A

No more than 25 feet

110
Q

Smallest timber used for a trench rescue

A

4x6

111
Q

Upon determination of an elevated victim rescue who should be dispatched

A

TRT and nearest aerial

112
Q

Safety factor desired for rope rescue

A

15:1 with double rope techniques and multiple anchors

113
Q

Frontline Marine team annual dive requirements

A

12 dives a year, 6 of 12 in limited visibility

114
Q

Backup marine team annual dive requirements

A

6 dives a year, 3 of 6 in limited visibility, 5 of 6 in open water

115
Q

What is max dive time per rescuer

A

20 minutes

116
Q

Recovery dive is after how long

A

1 our of down time

117
Q

What is an Alert 1

A

Aircraft with minor difficulty

118
Q

Alert 2

A

Aircraft with major difficulty

119
Q

Alert 3

A

Aircraft crash

120
Q

Number one priority in any incident

A

Life safety

121
Q

Where should the apparatus be positioned for aircraft incidents

A

Uphill and upwind

122
Q

What should be avoided with an aircraft fire and why

A

Discharging wetting agents on the fuselage, can create a hazardous environment inside

123
Q

How far away from a hot fill should T53 park

A

100 feet upwind on the left side forward from main exit

124
Q

What is a clear zone from an airplane

A

From wing to wing and around the nose for 100 feet

125
Q

Where should hose monster on the roof for standpipe testing go

A

So it will not damage roof projections and elevator shafts, building engineer and maintenance person approves positioning before flowing water

126
Q

If it is necessary for the EN company to assist with the walk through what must be done

A

Notify BC for approval

127
Q

How soon must on call fire inspector respond to a page/call

A

within 5 minutes

128
Q

What are the 4 methods of contacting fire investigator

A

pager
cell
home phone
fire radio

129
Q

Max response time for a fire investigator

A

45 minutes

130
Q

How long does a fire investigator have to turn in the completed case files to the fire investigation supervisor

A

10 business days

131
Q

Who is responsible for the procurement of evidence post incident

A

Fire Investigator

132
Q

If a fire investigator is on scene while a major incident is occurring they will be deemed

A

Fire investigations section and acknowledge all PARS

133
Q

Who shall the fire investigator contact for buildings that have sustained structural damage

A

City’s building official

134
Q

All hazards identified by a company officer and hazard tagged are rendered

A

Unusable until repairs replacement, or removal is completed by technician/utility

135
Q

Who is appropriate paperwork for hazards forwarded to by the company officer

A

Fire Marshal

136
Q

What steps must a company officer do when a hazard is identified

A

Complete form AA-248
Remove bottom portion to forward to fire prevention
Attach tag to hazard
Call proper utility/authority to shut down power/gas

137
Q

If a hazardous condition represents a threat to life and property

A

Notify the on-call investigator

138
Q

How long do property owners have to correct fire code violations issued by a fire investigator

A

30 days

139
Q

After first re-inspection how much time does a owner have to fix a code violation

A

2 weeks

140
Q

Second re-inspection of code violation refers remaining violations to who

A

A special magistrate or code enforcement

141
Q

Fire inspector may give up to ___ days for tenant owner to comply with violation

A

90 days

142
Q

Immediate fire and/or life safety violations require

A

Immediate correction

143
Q

Who is responsible for determining the origin and cause of a fire

A

Captains, Chief Officers, and the Fire Investigator

144
Q

To be accepted at legal proceedings images must be

A

Relevant

A true and accurate representation

145
Q

What are the most efficient reminders of what was seen at a fire

A

Images

146
Q

Company officer shall seek ___ from a ___ to summon a fire investigator

A

Approval

BC

147
Q

8 reasons to call a fire investigator for a structure fire

A

Juvenile involved
Civilian and or FF injury/death
Law enforcement request
Any incendiary device fire BC determines operations personnel cannot determine cause/origin
media event
Structural fire damage greater than 15,000
Delayed response fire for an after the fact fire report

148
Q

Who must be requested for any possible terrorism acts involving explosion

A

Bomb squad, hazmat, fire investigator

149
Q

What color copy of the fire watch release form is given to the person taking responsibility

A

Yellow

150
Q

What class uniform will companies wear for public education event unless otherwise told

A

Class C

151
Q

How long are station tours designed for

A

1 hour

152
Q

What class uniform are personnel to be wearing for station tours

A

Class C

153
Q

What must be done on a station tour if a call comes in during

A

Everyone outside and accounted for before moving the vehicle

154
Q

What must be done on the fire safety trailer before turning on and plugging in the generator

A

Stabilizers down, breakers off

155
Q

What brochures are on every city vehicle

A

FLFR brochure
After the Fire brochure
Baby sleep safe

156
Q

Who is responsible for keeping brochures in stock on FLFR vehicles

A

Company officer and DE

157
Q

Who must be notified if a youth is requesting a safe place at the station

A

Dispatch and Chief Officer, request incident number

158
Q

Where must a youth wait at the station when claiming a “safe place”

A

Designated quiet area

159
Q

Who is the only party allowed to pick up a youth claiming a “safe place”

A

Lippmann Youth Shelter, they will call with the name of the staff member picking up the youth

160
Q

Who should a youth talk to if they are upset when they arrive claiming a “safe place”

A

Directly to Lippmann Youth Shelter staff member

161
Q

Are police to be called for a project safe place youth

A

No. Only if situation becomes hostile or unsafe

162
Q

When was the Safe Haven Law passed

A

2000, house bill 1901

163
Q

What is the age requirement for a “Safe Haven” baby

A

7 days old or younger

164
Q

When does a mother claiming safe haven for her baby no longer remain anonymous

A

When child abuse/neglect is suspected

165
Q

If abuse or neglect is suspected for a Safe Haven baby who should be contacted

A

Abuse hotline

166
Q

What should be done for a safe haven baby

A

Assessed and transported to closest facility, notify supervisor and do PCR

167
Q

Company officers will make daily entries into target solutions for

A

Themselves and their station

168
Q

How often are required ISO training assigned in target solutions

A

Quarterly

169
Q

Outside documentation for certifications will be emailed to what group

A

Fire training certifications

170
Q

Daily in-service training to be entered into target solutions are what

A

Officer/company meetings
FF Fitness
Wednesdays weekly apparatus maintenance

171
Q

How much time per shift should be entered into target solutions for officer/company meetings

A

1.5 hours in part structural fire related

172
Q

What are the 6 required training categories to be entered into target solutions for annual ISO hours

A 
Facility training
Company training
Hazmat training
Officer training
Lt/Captain training
Driver/operator
173
Q

Who is responsible for determining the stage of the fire and the IDLH risk

A

Initial IC

174
Q

OSHA standard is what stage of fire does not require the 2in/2out rule

A

Incipient stage

175
Q

If operating in IDLH atmosphere in the buddy system always maintain what

A

Visual or Voice contact

176
Q

What are the exceptions to the 2in/2out rule

A

Imminent or probably life threatning situation where immediate action may prevent loss of life or limb
1 or more persons may be inside the structure
Fire not in the incipient stage

177
Q

If the 2 out FF’s need to enter the structure to rescue the 2 in FF’s the company officer must what

A

Notify firebomb of the intent

178
Q

When can a RIT crew be used to provide relief for operating companies

A

When the IDLH is mitigated

179
Q

If RIT is needed/activated, IC shall immediately

A

Strike at minimum an additional alarm assignment

180
Q

What is an RGS

A

RIT Group Supervisor

181
Q

Who is the first choice for a RIT Group Supervisor

A

Safety Officer due to already being in bunker gear

182
Q

Who is the second and third options for RIT group supervisor if there is no safety officer

A

BC on scene or last option is a company officer

183
Q

What does a RIT group consist of

A

RIT Company, RIT Group Supervisor, Dedicated Rescue standing by

184
Q

IC shall assign a chief officer as ____ to continue mitigation efforts during RIT operation

A

Operations Sector Chief

185
Q

What is the preferred command structure for a RIT operation

A

AC as IC,
1st BC as operations,
2nd BC as safety

186
Q

Once RIT is activated what is declared over the radio

A

Emergency traffic only

187
Q

RGS should advise command of what when deploying the RIT team

A

Specific entrance and exit of the structure being used

188
Q

what is the rescue to trapped/missing/injured FFs ratio

A

One rescue fore each trapped/missing/injured FF

189
Q

Are helmet shields sufficient eye protection for an extrication

A

No

190
Q

How many sides of a vehicle are there to size up

A

6 sides

191
Q

When staffing is available on a vehicle extrication what should be deployed

A

1 3/4 inch hose with foam capabilities

192
Q

How should the apparatus be spotted for a vehicle extrication on fire

A

To block/divert traffic

193
Q

What railroad authorities might need to be notified for a vehicle on the train tracks

A

Brightline, FEC, CSX

194
Q

Reduces fire, water and smoke damage during and after fires

A

Salvage

195
Q

Searching for and extinguishing hidden fires, determining cause and recognizing/preserving evidence of arson for the fire investigator

A

Overhaul

196
Q

What is the most valuable asset when determining the cause of a fire or for fire salvage/overhaul ops

A

The owner/manager of property

197
Q

overhaul starts where

A

at the top and work down

198
Q

Should a scene be reconstructed without the inspector present

A

No

199
Q

What is required by IC immediately upon receipt for a maday

A

A PAR

200
Q

How often should a lost or trapped FF activate their PASS alarm

A

Intermittently 10-20 seconds

201
Q

What is a standoff area and how far is it

A

FLPD hot zone for EOD’s

300 feet unless otherwise stated by IC

202
Q

What channel are units to go arrival on for EOD response

A

Fire Main then switch to simplex for on scene communication

203
Q

How far out should units go arrival for EOD responses

A

1 1/2 miles out

204
Q

What is desired hose deployment for a EOD response/assist

A

Catch nearest hydrant outside of standoff area, 1 1/2 supply to gated wye with 100 ft of 1 3/4 highrise pack with fog nozzle to protect EOD tech

205
Q

How should the initial MRU be parked for an EOD call

A

Facing the nearest exit with nothing but a backboard on the stretcher

206
Q

Where can a dry stretch be made to on a highrise fire

A

Floor below the fire

SOP (1 decks)

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