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AWS Certification Exams > Solution Architect Associate 2021 > Flashcards

Solution Architect Associate 2021 Flashcards

1
Q

What are four key services for Compute?

A

EC2
Elastic Beanstalk
Lambda
Lightsail

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2
Q

What are five key services for Storage?

A 
S3
EBS
EFS
FSx
Storage Gateway
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3
Q

What are three key services for Databases?

A

DynamoDB
Redshift
RDS

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4
Q

What are five key services for Networking?

A 
API Gateway
Direct Connect
Global Accelerator
Route 53
VPCs
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5
Q

What’s a Region?

A

A physical location in the world that consists of two or more Availability Zones (AZs).

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6
Q

What’s an Availability Zone?

A

One or more discrete data centers housed in separate facilities

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7
Q

What’s an Edge Location?

A

Endpoints for caching content, usually CloudFront CDN.

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8
Q

Name the three IAM Policy Statement options

A

Effect
Action
Resource

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9
Q

How big can files in S3 be?

A

5 TB

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10
Q

What does the S3 key-value pair represent?

A

Object name - object binary

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11
Q

Name the six S3 storage classes

A 
Standard
Standard Infrequently Accessed (IA)
One-Zone IA
Glacier
Glacier Deep Archive
Intelligent Tiering
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12
Q

What is S3 Object Lock?

A

The ability to store objects with a write-once, read-many (WORM) model

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13
Q

What are the two S3 Object Lock modes?

A

Governance mode where users can’t overwrite/delete object versions or alter lock settings without special permissions

Compliance mode where nobody can overwrite/delete objects, including the root user

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14
Q

What is S3 Glacier Vault Lock?

A

A policy that locks an S3 Glacier vault’s compliance controls that can no longer be edited once set

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15
Q

How many S3 object GET requests can there be per second per prefix (folder)?

A

5500

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16
Q

What are the three S3 SSE-KMS requests/second limit quotas?

A

5500
10k
30k

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17
Q

What files sizes should and must use multipart uploads to S3?

A

100+ MB

5+ GB

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18
Q

What’s S3 Replication?

A

Automatic copying of objects from one bucket to another

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19
Q

What are the four EC2 pricing options?

A

On-Demand
Spot
Reserved
Dedicated

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20
Q

What are the three networking interface options for EC2?

A

Elastic Network Interface (ENI) for standard use

Enhanced for 10-100 Gbps throughput

Elastic Fiber Adapter (EFA) for HPC/ML

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21
Q

What are the three types of EC2 Placement Groups?

A

Cluster within an AZ for low latency, high throughput

Spread across distinct hardware for critical uptime and high availability

Partition across distinct hardware for multiple logical partitions supporting HDFS (Hadoop), HBase, or Cassandra

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22
Q

Which EC2 instance type is good for addressing special software licensing requirements?

A

Dedicated

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23
Q

What is EBS?

A

Elastic Block Store for EC2 instances

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24
Q

What’s the difference between EBS and Instance Store volumes for EC2?

A

Instance store volumes are ephemeral and data will be lost if the attached EC2 instance is stopped or terminated, while EBS volumes can persist if the attached EC2 instance is stopped or terminated.

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25
Q

How long can EC2 On-Demand and Reserved instances be hibernated?

A

60 days

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26
Q

What is EFS?

A

Elastic File System for shared storage across EC2 instances using the Network File System v4 (NFS) protocol

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27
Q

How large can EFS scale up to?

A

Terabytes

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28
Q

How many concurrent connections can EFS support?

A

Thousands

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29
Q

Where is EFS data stored within a region?

A

Across multiple AZs

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30
Q

What is the data consistency pattern for EFS?

A

Read-after-write

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31
Q

What is FSx for Windows?

A

Centralized storage for Windows-based applications like SharePoint, SQL Server, etc.

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32
Q

What is FSx for Lustre?

A

High-speed, high-capacity distributed storage for HPC, financial modeling, etc. and is stored on S3

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33
Q

What is AWS Backup?

A

For consolidating backup policies and automations across services, organizations, and accounts

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34
Q

What are the six RDS database types?

A 
Aurora
MariaDB
MySQL
Oracle
PostgreSQL
SQL Server
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35
Q

How many database read replicas are allowed per database instance?

A

5

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36
Q

What’s the difference between Multi-AZ and Read-Replica RDS configurations?

A

Multi-AZ is for disaster recovery of the primary instance while read replicas are for increased performance

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37
Q

How many copies of data does RDS Aurora store?

A

2 per AZ across 3 AZs for 6 copies total

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38
Q

What is the primary RDS Aurora Serverless use case?

A

Provides a relatively simple, cost-effective option for infrequent, intermittent, or unpredictable workloads

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39
Q

Across how many geographically distinct data centers is DynamoDB data stored?

A

3

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40
Q

What’s the difference between DynamoDB Eventually and Strongly consistent reads?

A

Eventually consistent reads can be reached within one second for better performance, while Strongly consistent reads occur when all writes have been completed

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41
Q

What are DynamoDB Transactions?

A

All-or-nothing database operations good for financial transactions for fulfilling orders

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42
Q

What are the three read consistency options in DynamoDB?

A

Eventual
Strong
Transactional

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43
Q

How may items or how much data can a DynamoDB Transaction support?

A

Up to 25 items or 4 MB of data

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44
Q

What does ACID stand for and to which AWS service does it apply?

A

Atomicity
Consistency
Isolation
Durability

Applies across one or more tables within a single DynamoDB account or region

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45
Q

Which RDS service has On-Demand Backup and Restore?

A

DynamoDB

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46
Q

What is the time range for the DynamoDB Point-In-Time-Recovery (PITR) function?

A

Between 5 minutes and 35 days

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47
Q

What is the DynamoDB feature that can be combined with Lambda functions for stored procedure-like functionality?

A

DynamoDB Streams

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48
Q

For how long can DynamoDB Streams data be stored?

A

24 hours

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49
Q

How does DynamoDB Streams chunk its data?

A

With a time-ordered sequence of shards

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50
Q

What is DynamoDB Global Tables?

A

Managed multi-master and multi-regional data replication for globally distributed applications

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51
Q

What is DynamoDB Global Tables based on?

A

DynamoDB Streams

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52
Q

What is the replication latency for DynamoDB Global Tables?

A

Under 1 second

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53
Q

What five items do VPCs consist of?

A 
Internet or Virtual Private Gateways
Route Tables
Access Control Lists (ACLs)
Subnets
Security Groups
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54
Q

In how many AZs is a subnet located?

A

1

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55
Q

What’s the throughput range of a NAT Gateway?

A

5 to 45 Gbps

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56
Q

How do you make a NAT Gateway highly available across AZs?

A

Create a NAT Gateway in each AZ and configure routing to ensure resources use the gateway in their same AZ

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57
Q

Are security groups stateful or stateless?

A

Stateful

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58
Q

What networking function do you use to block IP addresses?

A

Network ACLs

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59
Q

What does each subnet need to be associated with?

A

A Network ACL

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60
Q

How are Network ACLs evaluated?

A

By a numbered list of rules starting with lowest number first

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61
Q

Are Network ACLs stateful or stateless?

A

Stateless

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62
Q

What does Direct Connect do?

A

Establishes a dedicated network connection between on-premise data center and AWS

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63
Q

What is a VPC Endpoint?

A

When you want to connect AWS services without leaving the AWS internal network

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64
Q

What are the two types of VPC Endpoints?

A

Interface

Gateway

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65
Q

Which two AWS services do VPC Gateway Endpoints support?

A

DynamoDB

S3

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66
Q

How do you connect VPCs with one another?

A

Via Peering that works in a star configuration (no transitive peering) and between regions

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67
Q

What service do you use to peer VPCs among tens, hundreds, or thousands of customer VPCs?

A

PrivateLink

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68
Q

What two things does PrivateLink require?

A

A network load balancer on the service VPC and an ENI on the customer VPC

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69
Q

What is Transit Gateway?

A

A network transit hub that connects your VPCs and on-premises networks

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70
Q

What are the two types of network connections that Transit Gateway works with?

A

Direct Connect

VPN

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71
Q

What is the only networking service that supports IP multicast?

A

Transit Gateway

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72
Q

What is VPN CloudHub?

A

Allows you to securely communicate from one physical site to another via Virtual Private Gateways and Customer Gateways

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73
Q

In Route 53, which is preferred: Alias or CNAME?

A

Alias

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74
Q

What are the four common DNS record types?

A

A
CNAME
NS
SOA

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75
Q

What are the 7 routing policies available with Route 53?

A 
Simple
Weighted
Latency-Based
Failover
Geolocation
Geoproximity
Multivalue Answer
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76
Q

How many days can it take for a new domain name to register?

A

3

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77
Q

How does Route 53 return the IP values to the user in a Simple Routing policy?

A

Randomly

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78
Q

How does Route 53’s Weighted Routing policy direct user traffic?

A

By percentage amount of traffic to one IP address versus another in relation

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79
Q

How does Route 53’s Latency Routing policy direct user traffic?

A

To the IP with the lowest latency with the user, usually in miliseconds

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80
Q

How does Route 53’s Failover Routing policy direct user traffic?

A

In active/passive mode where traffic goes to the active IP until a failure is detected which then routes traffic to the passive IP

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81
Q

How does Route 53’s Geolocation Routing policy direct user traffic?

A

By sending users to the AWS region physically closest to them

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82
Q

How does Route 53’s Geoproximity Routing policy direct user traffic?

A

Similar to Geolocation Routing with users sent to the AWS region physically closest to them, but with an optional Bias setting to expand/shrink the size of a geographic region; and it must use Traffic Flow

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83
Q

How does Route 53’s Multivalue Answer Routing policy direct user traffic?

A

By routing users to multiple resources that have associated health checks

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84
Q

What are the 3 different types of Elastic Load Balancers and on what network layers do they apply?

A

Application (Layer 7)
Network (Layer 4)
Classic (Layer 4 and 7)

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85
Q

What is the primary limitation of an Application Load Balancer?

A

It only supports HTTP and HTTPS

86
Q

When would you use a Network Load Balancer over an Application Load Balancer?

A

When you need extreme performance at Layer 4 and other use cases where you need protocols not supported by Application Load Balancers

87
Q

With Classic Load Balancers, what HTTP error code means the gateway has timed out?

A

504

88
Q

With Classic Load Balancers, what HTTP header do you need in order to find out the IPv4 address of the end user?

A

X-Forwarded-For

89
Q

What’s a Sticky Session?

A

Where users are directed to the same resource for the duration of a session

90
Q

What does a Deregistration Delay (aka Connection Draining) on an Elastic Load Balancer do?

A

Keeps existing connections open to an EC2 instance for a set period of time after it becomes unhealthy; disable if you want the load balancer to close connections immediately

91
Q

What is the main tool for anything alarm related?

A

CloudWatch

92
Q

What service is best to monitor AWS standards?

A

Config

93
Q

What are the standard and detailed monitoring delivery intervals for CloudWatch?

A 
Standard = 5 minutes
Detailed = 1 minute
94
Q

What is the log monitoring tool that works for EC2, CloudTrail, and Route 53?

A

CloudWatch Logs

95
Q

What monitoring service allows for SQL queries?

A

CloudWatch Logs Insights

96
Q

What service is best for real-time logging?

A

Kinesis

97
Q

What’s the only service that can make use of Auto Scaling?

A

EC2

98
Q

What’s a better alternative to EC2 user data to help avoid long provisioning times during Auto Scaling?

A

Building custom AMIs

99
Q

What can you use in EC2 to allow for a situation where the failure of a legacy codebase or resource that can’t be scaled can automatically recover from failure?

A

Steady state groups

100
Q

Which database service has the most scaling options?

A

RDS

101
Q

What type of scaling is preferred for databases?

A

Horizontal

102
Q

What does DynamoDB scaling come down to?

A

Access patterns

103
Q

What two things should you check for when SQS is consistently showing duplicate messages?

A

A misconfigured visibility timeout

The developer is failing to delete the message via API call

104
Q

What do you need to set up for there to be bidirectional message queueing?

A

A second SQS queue

105
Q

For how long can SQS messages persist?

A

14 days

106
Q

What SQS setting do you need if message ordering is important?

A

First In First Out (FIFO)

107
Q

What is the default Visibility Timeout in SQS?

A

30 seconds

108
Q

What is the default Message Retention Period in SQS?

A

4 days

109
Q

What is the default Delivery Delay in SQS?

A

0 seconds

110
Q

What is the default maximum message size in SQS?

A

256 KB

111
Q

What is the default Receive Message Wait Time for a standard SQS queue?

A

0 seconds for short polling; any non-zero value sets long polling

112
Q

What is the default Enable Content-Based Deduplication setting for a FIFO SQS queue?

A

Disabled

113
Q

What is the best service for proactive notifications like email, text, or push-based?

A

Simple Notification Service (SNS)

114
Q

What service is best for getting notified of CloudWatch alarms?

A

Simple Notification Service (SNS)

115
Q

What service acts as a secure front door to external communications coming into an application environment?

A

API Gateway

116
Q

Is Redshift a suitable replacement for RDS in traditional applications?

A

No

117
Q

What kind of AZ deployments does Redshift support?

A

Single; you can create multiple clusters in different AZs, but they’re separate deployments and it’s not highly available by default

118
Q

What service does EMR reside on?

A

EC2

119
Q

What is the only service with a real-time response?

A

Kinesis

120
Q

How long can Kinesis store data when used as a queue?

A

Up to 1 year

121
Q

What service is good for serverless SQL or querying data that is stored in S3?

A

Athena

122
Q

What is Glue?

A

Serverless ETL that can help create a schema for your data when paired with Athena

123
Q

What service provides visualizing data in dashboards?

A

QuickSight

124
Q

What service when combined with Logstash and Kibana creates an ELK stack that is a common way to search over server logs?

A

Elasticsearch

125
Q

What’s the best way to enable credentials with Lamba functions?

A

Roles

126
Q

What are three common Lambda triggers?

A

S3
Kinesis
EventBridge (CloudWatch Events)

127
Q

How much RAM can a Lambda function consume?

A

Up to 10 GB

128
Q

For how long can a Lambda function run?

A

Up to 15 minutes

129
Q

What’s a better way to perform an automated action than scraping through CloudTrail logs?

A

EventBridge (CloudWatch Events) rules and Lambda functions

130
Q

What open source container management service can run in AWS and on-premises?

A

Elastic Kubernetes Service (EKS)

131
Q

What is Fargate?

A

A serverless compute engine that works with Elastic Container Service (ECS) and Elastic Kubernetes Service (EKS) that removes the need to provision and manage servers

132
Q

Which is more favored on the exam: containers or EC2?

A

Containers

133
Q

What are the four steps to implement a container?

A
  1. Create a Dockerfile
  2. Build an image
  3. Upload to a repository
  4. Run it on a host
134
Q

What are the two types of Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks?

A

Layer 4 such as SYN floods or NTP amplification

Layer 7 such as GET/POST request floods

135
Q

What three things does logging API calls with CloudTrail allow?

A

After-the-fact incident investigation

Near real-time intrusion detection

Industry/regulatory compliance auditing

136
Q

Where does CloudTrail store its logs?

A

S3

137
Q

What is Shield?

A

It protects against DDoS network Layer 3 and 4 attacks

138
Q

How much does Shield Advanced cost and what does it provide extra?

A

$3000 per month with a dedicated DDoS response team

139
Q

What are the three things the Web Application Firewall (WAF) service allows you to do?

A

Allow all requests except the ones you specify

Block all requests except the ones you specify

Count the requests that match the properties you specify

140
Q

What service blocks network Layer 7 DDoS attacks, SQL injections, and cross-site scripting?

A

Web Application Firewall (WAF)

141
Q

What service can block access to specific countries or IP addresses?

A

Web Application Firewall (WAF)

142
Q

What is GuardDuty?

A

Alerts you of any abnormal or malicious behavior in your account using AI to learn what normal behavior looks like

143
Q

What does GuardDuty do with external feeds from third parties?

A

Updates a database of known malicious domains

144
Q

What three things does GuardDuty monitor?

A

CloudTrail logs
DNS logs
VPC Flow Logs

145
Q

How can you address threats that appear in GuardDuty?

A

With EventBridge (CloudWatch Events) that can trigger Lambda functions

146
Q

What does Macie do?

A

Helps identify sensitive PII, PHI, and financial data residing in S3 using AI

147
Q

How can Macie alerts be addressed?

A

Sent to EventBridge (CloudWatch Events) and remediate with Lambda or Step Functions

148
Q

What does Inspector do?

A

Performs host and network vulnerability scans on EC2 instances and VPCs that can be run once or weekly

149
Q

What is Key Management Service (KMS)?

A

Allows you to create and control the encryption keys used to encrypt your data

150
Q

What do you need in order to start using Key Management Service (KMS)?

A

By requesting the creation of a Customer Master Key (CMK)

151
Q

What are the three ways to generate a Customer Master Key (CMK) for KMS?

A

AWS creates the CMK for you on their Hardware Security Modules (HSM)

Have the key material generated and used in a CloudHSM cluster as part of the custom key store feature in KMS

Import your own key material from your own key management infrastructure and associate it with a CMK

152
Q

What are three ways to control encryption key permissions?

A

Use the key policy

Use IAM policies in combination with the key policy

Use grants in combination with the key policy

153
Q

What are the differences between KMS and CloudHSM?

A

KMS is on shared hardware with automatic key generation and rotation

CloudHSM is on dedicated hardware with full control of users, groups, keys, etc. but with no automatic key rotation

154
Q

What is Secrets Manager?

A

Allows you to securely store application secrets such as database credentials, API keys, SSH keys, passwords, etc.

155
Q

What are the application caveats to using Secrets Manager?

A

Make sure application instances are configured to use Secrets Manager before enabling credential rotation as they rotate easily but immediately

156
Q

When should you use Parameter Store over Secrets Manager and at what threshold?

A

To minimize cost with up to 10,000 parameters

157
Q

In what three scenarios should you use Secrets Manager over Parameter Store?

A

When you need:

More than 10,000 parameters
Key rotation
The ability to generate passwords using CloudFormation

158
Q

What service feature allows you to share private files in your S3 buckets?

A

Presigned URLs

159
Q

In IAM policies, not explicitly allowed means what?

A

Implicitly denied

160
Q

In IAM policies, what supersedes all else?

A

Explicit denies

161
Q

How are IAM policies put into effect?

A

By attachment

162
Q

How are multiple IAM policies applied to an object or resource?

A

By joins

163
Q

What are the two ways IAM policies can be managed?

A

By AWS or by customer

164
Q

What service allows you to manage SSL certificates?

A

Certificate Manager

165
Q

What services does Certificate Manager support?

A

API Gateway
CloudFront
Elastic Load Balancer

166
Q

What are the three main sections of a CloudFormation script?

A

Parameters
Mappings
Resources

167
Q

What is preferred: Stateless or stateful resource architecture?

A

Stateless

168
Q

What service works well with a CloudFormation’s Mappings section to make your templates more flexible and avoid breakage?

A

Parameter Store

169
Q

What service provides a simple solution to bundle and deploy applications over CloudFormation?

A

Elastic Beanstalk

170
Q

What type of object allows you to configure the internals of an EC2 instance?

A

Automation Documents

171
Q

What is Systems Manager?

A

A centralized user interface to track and resolve operational issues across your applications and resources

172
Q

What is the only service that can add HTTPS to a static website hosted in an S3 bucket?

A

CloudFront

173
Q

Between caching and cost, which one does the exam favor more?

A

Caching

174
Q

What service provides for IP caching to reduce issues with customers caching old IP addresses?

A

Global Accelerator

175
Q

What are two in-memory databases, and which one is preferred?

A

Redis and DynamoDB, with DynamoDB being preferred

176
Q

What service offers in-memory data stores?

A

ElastiCache

177
Q

What are the two in-memory data stores supported by ElastiCache?

A

Redis and Memcached

178
Q

Which ElastiCache service offers a persistent data store?

A

Redis

179
Q

What ElastiCache service supports backups?

A

Redis

180
Q

What two services are NOT a source of truth for your data?

A

ElastiCache for Memcached and DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX)

181
Q

What is DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX)?

A

An in-memory cache for DynamoDB

182
Q

What is the only way to restrict the root user account?

A

Service Control Policies (SCPs)

183
Q

Which is preferred: centralized or decentralized logs?

A

Centralized via CloudTrail

184
Q

What is the preferred way to add more layers of security and controls: centralized or isolated workloads?

A

Isolated into separate accounts

185
Q

What are the three benefits of using Config?

A

Standardization for compliance using rules

Automated remediation using Automation Documents

Historical changelog of the entire system architecture

186
Q

What tools do you use to manage internal and external users?

A

SSO for internal and Cognito for external

187
Q

What service supports Active Directory?

A

Directory Service using Managed Microsoft AD

188
Q

What service do you use for Active Directory on-premise?

A

Directory Service using AD Connector

189
Q

What is the best way to enable cross-account access?

A

Via roles, not unnecessary IAM credentials

190
Q

What are the three ways to track costs?

A

Budgets
Cost Explorer
Tags

191
Q

How do you be proactive with potential cost problems?

A

By implementing SNS alerts when costs reach a certain threshold

192
Q

What is preferred when a cost problem is encountered: automated or manual intervention?

A

Automated

193
Q

What is Trusted Advisor?

A

Provides recommendations that help you follow AWS best practices

194
Q

What do you need in order to get the most useful checks from Trusted Advisor?

A

A Business or Enterprise support plan

195
Q

What is Trusted Advisor’s biggest limitation?

A

That it’s strictly an auditing tool. It can’t remediate issues that are found.

196
Q

What’s the best way to resolve problems found in Trusted Advisor?

A

By using EventBridge to kick off a Lambda function

197
Q

How much data is Snowball good at migrating?

A

Terabytes

198
Q

What’s the difference between Snowcone and Snowmobile?

A

Snowcone is the smallest migration device

Snowmobile is a shipping container towed by a truck

199
Q

When is it best to use Snowball for data migration?

A

Where you have slow or no Internet

200
Q

What service is good at hybridizing with on-premise storage?

A

Storage Gateway

201
Q

Which Storage Gateway option is good for when local network-attached storage is full?

A

File Gateway

202
Q

What does Storage Gateway run on?

A

A local virtual machine (VM) on-premise

203
Q

What is DataSync?

A

An agent-based solution that is good for one-time migration of file shares into AWS

204
Q

What are two viable locations for DataSync to transfer data into?

A

EFS

FSx

205
Q

What service allows you to use legacy file transfer protocols to give older applications the ability to read/write in S3?

A

Transfer Family

206
Q

What is Migration Hub?

A

An organization tool that gives you a way to organize all your migration steps, but doesn’t actually perform the migration

207
Q

What is the Database Migration Service?

A

A tool for any sort of database migration. It works for on-premise-to-cloud or between internal RDS databases

208
Q

What is the Server Migration Service?

A

A tool for migrating server instances out of the data center and into AWS

209
Q

For what five database engines does RDS support read replicas?

A 
MariaDB
MySQL
Oracle
PostgreSQL
SQL Server
210
Q

What are the two write consistency options in DynamoDB?

A

Standard

Transactional

AWS Certification Exams (1 decks)

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