Solid Organ Transplant Flashcards

1
Q

Examples of primary and secondary lymphatic tissue

A

Primary: Bone marrow and thymus
Secondary: Spleen, and lymph nodes

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2
Q

Which organ transplant type is the most common? Which transplant type has the most people waiting for that organ?

A

Kidney is the most common transplant performed and people waiting for a kidney has the largest amount of people waiting on the list

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3
Q

Explain why people may need a transplanted kidney? Heart? or liver?

A

Kidney: ESRD
Heart: Refractory heart failure, refractory ventricular arrhythmias and refractor angina
Liver: Alcohol induced liver disease and Hep C

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4
Q

What are the general contraindications to transplantation?

A

Those with a medical condition that would limit life expectancy after transplant. Including: Active cancer, active infections or other chronic life threatening diseases. Others include, inability to follow difficult medication regimen or active alcohol/substance abuse.

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5
Q

Explain the complement cascade

A

Several proteins sequentially activate other members of the cascade ultimately resulting in lysis of the foreign cell.

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6
Q

What are the 3 APCs? Explain them

A

Dendritic cells: Mostly located in skin and mucus membranes. Their role is to ingest material from their surroundings, hydrolytic ally digest proteins and present the resulting peptide fragment as antigens to T and B cells.
Macrophages: Ingest and process pathogens, cellular debris, necrotic cells and other components and displayed as antigens on their surface. Play role in inflammation process. (secrete cytokines). Most commonly found in the lungs, skin, liver, spleen and lymphatic system.
B-lymphocytes: Born in the bone marrow but take residency in secondary lymph organs until they are activated by foreign antigen binding to b cell receptor. Once activated, they grow and differentiate into memory or plasma cells which secrete antibodies against the antigen.

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7
Q

Explain the difference between HLA (MHC) I and II

A

Proteins that make up the MHC are called HLA.
HLA I is expressed on every cell with a nucleus and is responsible for displaying self antigens which allow immune system to identify and ignore their own cells.
HLA II specializes in presenting antigens which the cell internalizes during phagocytosis. Almost exclusively expressed by the 3 APCs.

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8
Q

Explain T cell maturation

A

T cells originate in the bone marrow and migrate to the thymus gland for maturation. Here they will differentiate into cytotoxic T cells or T helper cells. They are released into circulation where they take up residency in the lymphoid tissue.

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9
Q

Explain the maturation process of T cells as it relates to positive and negative selection. How are these 2 different?

A

Because each T cell receptor is different, these processes are necessary to select viable T cells for various roles.
Negative selection: Identifies TCRs that recognizes and binds to ANY HLA molecule expressing “self” antigen. It is important these cells stay localized to the thymus gland so they don’t attack healthy tissue. Basically, negative selection prevents devastating autoimmune response.
Positive selection: TCR must be able to recognize the 3D structure of foreign antigens and the HLA peptides that make up the HLA. This process ensures the maturation of T-cells can efficiently recognize HLA proteins.

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10
Q

Explain the immune recognition by cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells

A

Cytotoxic: Recognize HLA I because it interacts with CD8.

T helper: Recognize HLA II because it interacts with CD4.

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11
Q

Explain clonal expansion

A

CD3 complex ties the TCR to respective HLA molecules which initiates a signaling cascade that replicates the T cell and leads to a large pool of identical T cell that are capable of recognizing and eliciting an immune response against the same foreign antigen. Good in a normal person, bad in someone who just had an allograft because clonal expansion may lead to destruction of allograft.

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12
Q

Explain the role of Th cells

A

T helper cells do not directly kill the pathogen. They play a role in activating B cells which generate antibodies to the same antigen the Th cell recognizes.

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13
Q

Explain the nuclear factor of activated t cells (NF-AT)

A

NF-AT is a protein that must be dephosphorylated to allow entry into the nucleus. The enzyme responsible for removing the critical phosphate residue from NF-AT is calcineurin. Inhibiting this enzyme is one of the most effective ways to precent IL-2 mediated clonal expansion of activated T cells.

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14
Q

Explain the difference between direct and indirect pathways of immune response to a transplanted organ

A

Direct: Requires that the allograft is accompanied by donor APCs which have hitched a ride with transplanted tissue. Donor APCs will present donor antigens as both HLA I and II which will activate recipient Tc and Th cells which results in a full immune response against allograft.
Indirect: Recipient APCs present donor antigens in HLA type II which activate recipient Th and B cells which release antibodies against the allograft.

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15
Q

What is hyper acute rejection?

A

If the recipient has preexisting antibodies which recognize the allograft as foreign, the transplanted tissue will rapidly be attacked and can show signs of rejection within minutes. Uncommon to kidney and heart transplant and rare in liver.

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16
Q

What is acute cellular rejection?

A

Can occur anytime throughout the life of the allograft, most commonly observed within the first few months though. Occurs when activated Tc cells, recognize endothelial antigens or infiltrate the allograft and recognize the presentation of antigens within the parenchyma of the transplanted tissue.

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17
Q

What is humoral rejection?

A

Mediated by alloreactive antibodies that attacks the donor vasculature. Begins after the transplant has been completed.

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18
Q

What is chronic rejection?

A

Mimics a slow acting cellular and/or humoral response accompanied by persistent inflammation. NOT REVERSIBLE and will lead to loss of allograft. Pharmacotherapy cannot treat this type of rejection, but immunosuppressive therapy can slow this process.

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19
Q

Why is it recommended to give small doses of few medications compared to large doses of one medication?

A

Severe adverse effects and systemic toxicity. Lower doses of few drugs will have a more favorable side effect profile compared to large dose of one medication.

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20
Q

Which drugs inhibit calcineurin?

A

Cyclosporin A and tacrolimus

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21
Q

Which drugs inhibit mTOR?

A

Sirolimus, everolimus

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22
Q

Which drugs are antimetabolites?

A

Azathioprine and mycophenolate

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23
Q

Which glucocorticoids do we use to prevent allograft rejection?

A

Pred and methylpred

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24
Q

Which medication is a biologic?

A

Belatacept

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25
Q

List the 2 polyclonal antibodies

A

ATG, RATG

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26
Q

List the 3 monoclonal antibodies

A

Basiliximab, muromonab, aletuzumab

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27
Q

Explain why Neural and Sandimmune formulations of cyclosporin A are not interchangeable

A

Neural achieves slightly better but more consistent bioavailability than the sandimmune formulation.

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28
Q

Explain the effects of food on cyclosporine

A

Food decreases absorption (Both AUC and CMAX)

29
Q

What is cremaphore EL? What 2 drugs have this in its formulation and why is it problematic?

A

It is a sensitizer that can elicit severe allergic reactions. Found in both sandIMMUNE IV and tacrolimus.

30
Q

When converting IV to PO what is the appropriate ratio? For cyclosporine and tacrolimus?

A

PO cyclosporine= 3 x IV dose

PO tacrolimus= 4 x IV dose

31
Q

What is the mechanism of action and side effects of cyclosporine?

A

Binds with cyclophilin (a cytosolic protein) and acts as an adaptor which allows cyclophilin to recognize and bind calcineurin. By inhibiting calcineurin, cyclosporin prevents IL-2 mediated T cell clonal expansion.
Adverse effects include: Nephrotoxicity, electrolyte imbalances, hyperuricemia, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, impaired glucose tolerance, hepatotoxicity, neurological abnormalities, hirsutism and gingival hyperplasia.

32
Q

Explain how cyclosporine is metabolized and potential drug interactions

A

Metabolized by CYP3A4. Drugs that inhibit this enzyme can cause harmful side effects. Drugs that induce this enzyme might result in allograft rejection due to low blood levels. Cyclosporine itself is also a moderate CYP3A4 inhibitor and a substrate for pGp.

33
Q

What is the mechanism of action and side effects associated with tacrolimus?

A

Inhibits T cell activation and proliferation by interfering with calcineurin mediated activation of NF-AT. Tacrolimus does not bind cyclophilin, it binds FK binding protein 12 which prevents T cell activation. Side effects include: nephrotoxicity, electrolyte imbalances, hypertension, glucose intolerance, hepatotoxicity and neurological abnormalities.

34
Q

Explain what affect food has on tacrolimus

A

Food decreases the rate and extent of tacrolimus absorption

35
Q

Explain the metabolism and elimination and drug interactions with tacrolimus

A

Extensive 3A4 metabolism. Excreted primarily in the feces. 3A4 inhibition/induction can result in harmful side effects or allograft rejection. Tacrolimus is also a substate for pGp. Tacrolimus is also sensitive to basic pH.

36
Q

Mechanism of action and side effects of sirolimus and everolimus

A

Binds to FKBP-12 and this complex interacts with mTOR which is a kinase protein involved in cell cycle progression. It prevents the transition from G1-S phase, thereby inhibiting cell growth and division. Blocks the IL-2 mediated activation pathway in the cell.
Side effects: Myelosuppression, thrombocytopenia ( >15ng/mL), leukopenia and anemia, hyperlipidemia, pneumonitis, and delayed wound healing.

37
Q

Metabolism and excretion and drug interactions with sirolimus/everolimus

A

CYP3A4 and pGp. Drugs that affect CYP3A4 and pGp can be problematic when given with sirolimus

38
Q

Therapeutic trough concentrations of cyclosporine, tacrolimus, and sirolimus

A

CSA: 100-350 ng/mL
Tacrolimus: Induction: 15-20 Maintenance: 5-12
Sirolimus: Induction: 10-15 Maintenance: 8-12

39
Q

What is the mechanism of action for the antimetabolites?

A

Prevent biosynthesis of intermediates required for cell proliferation. They interfere with nucleic acid synthesis at different stages.
Azathioprine: Incorporates a fraudulent nucleoside into the growing DNA polymer in place of guanidine, which prevents chain elongation. Blocks de novo synthesis and converts them into fraudulent nucleotides.
Mycophenolate: Metabolized into an inhibitor of guanine nucleotide synthesis which limits the supply of guanine. Blocks de novo synthesis.

40
Q

Why is mycophenolate the gold standard compared to azathioprine?

A

Mycophenolate has been found to be a more selective inhibitor of lymphocyte proliferation and has fewer side effects.

41
Q

Which immunosuppressive agents are prodrugs?

A

Azathioprine and mycophenolate

42
Q

What is the difference between de novo synthesis and salvage pathway for purine biosynthesis

A

De novo synthesis involves constructing purines from ribosomes “from scratch”.
The salvage pathway uses preformed purine bases which are leased by the breakdown of existing nucleic acids.

43
Q

Adverse effects, elimination, drug interactions and pharmacogenomics of azathioprine

A

Adverse effects include leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, N/V, alopecia, hepatotoxicity and pancreatitis. Greater risk of infection or cancer. Half life of 12 minutes and is rapidly excreted in the urine. Deactivated in the liver by xanthine oxidase followed by TPMT. 10% of the population has diminished TPMT activity due to one inactive allele which can lead to azathioprine toxicity. Allopurinol can increase azathioprine levels by fourfold.

44
Q

Explain why mycophenolate is a lymphocyte selective drug

A

Because myc only inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase enzyme involved in the de novo synthesis pathway and B and T cells only use the de novo pathway, not the salvage pathway.

45
Q

Adverse effects of mycophenolate

A

N/V/D, abdominal pain. Leukopenia and anemia. PML!!

46
Q

How is mycophenolate metabolized

A

Following oral or intravenous dosing, mycophenolate mofetil undergoes complete metabolism to MPA, the active metabolite. MPA is metabolized principally by glucuronyl transferase to form the phenolic glucuronide of MPA (MPAG). MPAG is not pharmacologically active, though it is converted back to MPA and reabsorbed via enterohepatic recirculation.

47
Q

Explain the drug interactions with mycophenolate

A

Acyclovir competes with MPAG for renal tubular secretion. AUC of both agents are increased and there is potential for additive dynamic effects like myelosuppression. Administration with Al or Mg containing antacids decrease the AUC

48
Q

Which of the steroids is a prodrug? What effect does food have on prednisone?

A

Prednisone–>prednisolone. Food slows but doesn’t affect extent of absorptions.

49
Q

What is the generic mechanism of action for the steroids in the setting of allograft rejection prevention

A

Steroids suppress the immune system by inhibiting the transcription of various proteins which normally up regulate lymphocyte activity.

50
Q

Adverse effects of steroids?

A

Increased appetite, insomnia, indigestion and mood changes, hyperglycemia.

51
Q

Explain drug interactions with steroids

A

Barbituates, phenytoin and rifampin induce metabolism of steroids which leads to decreased effectiveness and possible allograft rejection. Steroids also decrease the effectiveness of vaccines.

52
Q

What is belatacept and why can’t it be used in liver transplant?

A

It is a fusion protein of the Fc domain of a human antibody fused to extracellular domain of CTLA-4. (NOT AN ANTIBODY) which targets T-cells and prevents their activation. It shouldn’t be used in liver transplant due to increased risk of graft rejection and death.

53
Q

Explain the BBW with belatacept

A

Increased incidence of infective diseases and cancer. Increased risk for the development of lymphoproliferative disorders (especially those who are EBV seronegative, as they are at an even higher risk)

54
Q

Common adverse effects with belatacept

A

Cardiovascular, CNS (fever, HA), GI

Should never be immunized with live or attenuated vaccines.

55
Q

Explain how IV antibodies are helpful in preventing allograft rejection

A

Antibodies which have been raised against the recipients own T cells are injected into the patient. These antibodies target and kill T cells in the recipients blood, preventing them from attacking allograft tissue.

56
Q

What is the difference between polyclonal and monoclonal antibodies.

A

Polyclonal antibodies can be raised against multiple epitopes on the surface of T cells.
Monoclonal antibodies can be raised against a single epitope granting greater specificity for unique T cell derived antigens.

57
Q

What medications are approved for the treatment of acute cellular rejection in kidney transplant?

A

ATG and RATG (polyclonal antibodies)

58
Q

What are we concerned about when giving IV antibodies?

A

The patient may develop anti-ATG antibodies which can decrease the effectiveness of these medications.

59
Q

Adverse effects of polyclonal antibodies and interactions associated with their use

A

Leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia. Anaphylaxis, hypo/hypertension, tachycardia, dyspnea, rash.
giving vaccines especially live may be dangerous in this patient population.

60
Q

What is the difference between the 4 types ofantibodies

A

Murine- strictly mouse antibody
Chimeric- Human protein with the FAB region from mouse
Humanized: Spliced mouse DNA on the FAB region of human protein
Human-fully human antibody

61
Q

the triple drug regimen includes which medications?

A

Calcineurin inhibitor (CSA, tacrolimus), an antiproliferative agent (Myc, azathioprine) and a steroid (prednisone)

62
Q

What are the 3 phases of treatment?

A

Induction, maintenance and acute rejection

63
Q

What is happening during the induction phase of treatment? What treatments do we use?

A

Immunosuppressive therapy used during the first 30 days post-op. IV methylprednisolone before transplant decreasing the dose over the next 5-7 days until they can be switched to PO prednisone. CSA or tacrolimus is also started. Additionally, antibody therapy may be necessary.

64
Q

Explain the maintenance phase of allograft treatment and the regimens that go along with it

A

Starts 30 days after transplant and includes similar agents as those used in induction (Except antibodies) but at much lower doses. Immunosuppression must occur for life to prevent both acute rejection episodes and chronic rejection. Taper steroids with a goal of D/C after 6-12 months.

65
Q

Explain the acute rejection treatment phase

A

Acute rejection episodes are most common within the first 2 years but they can occur at any time. Immunosuppressive therapy will be increased to prevent irreversible injury to the allograft. Short term course of steroids followed by taper is the most common treatment

66
Q

Explain the complications of immunosuppression

A

Cardiovascular disease- hypertension (steroids, csa, tacrolimus). Treatment choice is CCB. Hyperlipidemia (steroids, sirolimus, csa and sometimes tacrolimus)-Use pravastatin or Crestor because they avoid 3A4.
Diabetes- (steroids and CSA and TAC) can worsen diabetes and precipitate new-onset diabetes.
Infections
Malignancy:
Hematologic disorders: anemia, low platelet. ESA agents may be used.

67
Q

Explain the vaccine considerations for patients who are immuncompromised

A

They can receive inactive vaccines but it is likely they will be ineffective. Live vaccines should be given 4 weeks prior to transplantation and NEVER after. All people close to the allograft recipient should be immunized to prevent spread of disease to the patient who can’t receive the vaccine.

68
Q

4 main strategies to improve compliance

A

Education, planning dosage regimens, clinic visits and communication.