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Captains Class > SOGs > Flashcards

SOGs Flashcards

1
Q

If you receive a complaint via walk-in, you should tell the complainant they will hear from someone within how many days?

A

Within 1 business day.

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2
Q

Where is a Citizen Complaint to be documented?

A

In a “Citizen Complaint Form”

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3
Q

What is the 2 step process for filing a Citizen Complaint?

A
  1. Complete the Citizen Complaint Form, 2. email a copy of the completed Citizen Complaint Form to the front desk administrative assistant at Admin. within one business day.
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4
Q

Who is the Deputy Chief of Administrative Services?

A

Chief Brian Keely

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5
Q

Who is the Executive Assistant to the Fire Chief?

A

Heather Robey

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6
Q

Who are the front desk assistants at Admin?

A

Amy Taylor and Pat Yarbourough

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7
Q

What is the Citizen Complaint “Section Number”?

A

1121

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8
Q

What is the age cut off for the Safe Haven Law?

A

72 hours old

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9
Q

If you suspect the infant is older than 72 hours, who do we provide info to?

A

CPS and LE

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10
Q

Do the parents relinquishing infant have to answer any questions?

A

No, not if the the infant is <72 hours old

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11
Q

Where do we immediately transport a Safe Haven baby?

A

UMC

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12
Q

Who do we contact ASAP once a Safe Haven baby has been received?

A

The on duty BC and AZ DCS (tell them we got a Safe Haven baby and where the baby is)

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13
Q

What “referral info” can we offer the people dropping off the baby?

A

CAP Team phone numbers are the most readily available

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14
Q

What is the Safe Haven Law Section Number?

A

1104

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15
Q

Who is notified first in the event of a LODD?

A

The 3 people who will be the Family Liaison, then the family, then other members of NWFD

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16
Q

How many phases are there for LODDs?

A

4

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17
Q

An AAR is always formal

A

False. An AAR is informal, an AAR-IP (improvement plan) is formal

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18
Q

What four questions are asked at an AAR?

A

What was planned? What actually happened? Why did it happen? What can we do next time (promote strengths, correct weaknesses)?

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19
Q

Unapproved knives and tools can be carried in turnouts.

A

False. Only NWFD approved equipment/PPE can be used.

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20
Q

Can PT gear be worn under turnouts?

A

No

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21
Q

Who should be the only person who removes a Lock out Tag Out device?

A

The person who applied it

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22
Q

What are the exceptions to removing a Lock Out Tag Out device?

A

If the person who applied it has left, as verified by the supervisor. The supervisor can remove it after 1. ensuring the employee is not on site and 2. must inform the employee the device has been removed before the employee comes back on site

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23
Q

What kinds of sports can you play at public parks?

A

NON CONTACT

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24
Q

When exercising at a public park, what must you ensure about your crew?

A

That they are acting professionally, keeping a low profile, and not impeding public use

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25
Q

What hours are PT facilities available?

A

0600-2100

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26
Q

Is “1 rep max” lifting allowed?

A

No

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27
Q

Who is responsible for coordinatizing the final inspection tasks with Prevention?

A

The 1st due captains

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28
Q

What is the first objective for the final inspection?

A

Jointly (suppression and prevention) complete a risk assessment eval sheet

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29
Q

What is the second objective for the final inspection?

A

To flow the designated hydrants to verify hydrants operation, confirm adequate fire flow, and enter the hydrant into the data bank/mapping system

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30
Q

What is the third objective for the final inspection?

A

Gain familiarity with the structure/occupancy

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31
Q

What is the fourth objective for the final inspection?

A

To complete a pre plan for the structure (with Prevention provided blueprints, notes, etc)

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32
Q

What is the name of the formal Probie training document?

A

The Probationary Firefighter Manual

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33
Q

What is the tracking mechanism used by you as the Captain to ensure consistency in training NWFD-wide as well as track the probie’s performance?

A

The Company Officer’s Recruit Package (CORP)

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34
Q

How many tests do probies take?

A

Two. One at 6 mo, another at 12 mo

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35
Q

How many skill sheets are available for you to choose for the probies practical skills testing?

A

24 total

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36
Q

How many skills are under the 6 month skills exam?

A

16

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37
Q

How many skills are under the 12 month skills exam?

A

8

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38
Q

How many skills must be chosen for the 6 month skill exam?

A

4

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39
Q

How many skills are chosen for the 12 month skills exam?

A

3 from the 6month section (not previously chosen) and 3 from the 12 mo section

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40
Q

How many skills (practical) tests can a probie fail during their probation?

A

3

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41
Q

Can a failed practical be re-taken?

A

Yes, but the re-test must be from a different skill

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42
Q

How do we report an unusable hydrant?

A

Make it known in the ArcGIS collector application by selecting OUT OF SERVICE in the status drop down so it can be seen by the water companies. Note multiple defects in the “comments” section

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43
Q

What is the SOG number for Reporting Defective Hydrants?

A

Section 5803

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44
Q

How many backers are required (at minimum) to back up Engines or Ladders?

A

Two, one 10’ in front and one 10’ back

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45
Q

Who is ultimately in charge of ensuring overall safety and compliance with the vehicle backing SOG?

A

You. The Captain.

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46
Q

Are traffic vests required when operating on or near a roadway?

A

Hell yeah they are. Are you’re responsible for making sure your crew has them on.

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47
Q

Full PPE is required for how long after a fire has been declared out?

A

At least one hour

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48
Q

Are you required, per policy, to turnout for fire alarm sounding?

A

Yes

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49
Q

What are the two EMS occasions that require Gloves, Mask, Gown, and Goggles?

A

Child Birth and spurting blood

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50
Q

What is a Code 99?

A

A radio code that communicates my crew is in danger but we are unable to speak over the radio.

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51
Q

Can you cancel a Code 99 before LE arrives?

A

Nope

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52
Q

What does the term CODE RED communicate?

A

That all members must evacuate a building immediately. Using this term is supposed to prompt Fire Alarm to initiate Emergency Traffic

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53
Q

Attack stairwell

A

Stairwell used to access and attack the fire (typically different than the evacuation stairwell)

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54
Q

Lobby Control Group

A

Position in the ICS structure that maintains accountability and coordinates with a buildings RP as to take control of the building’s systems

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55
Q

Mid-rise definition

A

Minimum of 3 stories, max of 6 story building. DOES NOT INCLUDE 3 LEVEL GARDEN STYLE APARTMENTS

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56
Q

Resource group

A

Extended operation group that is basically a “staging area” for resources

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57
Q

What are some of the problems fighting fire in a Mid-rise?

A

Access, construction complexity, and # of occupants

58
Q

What should you assume when called to a mid-rise for fire problem with “nothing showing”?

A

That the fire is concealed

59
Q

What is your initial concern when arriving at a Mid-rise fire?

A

IDing the fire floor

60
Q

Whats your 2nd concern when arriving at a Mid-rise fire?

A

Getting at least two companies to attack the fire on the fire floor

61
Q

What is your 3rd concern when arriving at a Mid-rise fire?

A

Ensuring the life safety of all people in immediate danger

62
Q

What is your 4th concern when arriving at a Mid-rise fire?

A

Providing water for the two initial attacking companies and supporting the FDC

63
Q

What is your 5th concern when arriving at a Mid-rise fire?

A

Establishing lobby control

64
Q

What is your 6th concern when arriving at a Mid-rise fire?

A

Making an accurate size-up of conditions on the fire floor and the floor directly above

65
Q

What is your 7th concern when arriving at a Mid-rise fire?

A

Establishing a ventilation group (ie getting ventilation going)

66
Q

Do you have to address those concerns in that specific order?

A

No, but you probably will

67
Q

What are your actions as first o/s of a Mid rise fire?

A

Size up as usual, have engineer hook into the FDC to support your fire fighting operations, grab a Cleveland load and start heading towards the fire floor

68
Q

Once you arrive on the fire floor, what do you do?

A

The equivalent to a 360, confirming the fire floor number, and giving a CANs report.

69
Q

What should command call the fire floor if the fire is on the 4th floor?

A

Division 4

70
Q

What equipment do you bring on initial attack of a Mid Rise?

A

SCBAs, hose, basic forcible entry tools, and an extinguisher

71
Q

How do you ventilate a mid-rise?

A

Lowest floor to highest

72
Q

How many floors below the fire floor is the Resource Group typically placed?

A

Two

73
Q

How many stairwells need to stay clear to provide escape from floors above the fire floor?

A

At least one that is not being used for fire attack by fire fighters

74
Q

When should smoke systems be shut down?

A

ASAP during fire fight, to be re-opened after the fire is under control (to assist in smoke removal)

75
Q

Who is responsible for manning the alarm and building comm systems?

A

Lobby Control

76
Q

Will our radios reliably work in a concrete mid-rise?

A

Not necessarily. You may need to be by a window or relay information via building comms to a unit outside

77
Q

Where should you evacuate people from first during a mid-rise fire? Do you have to send them to the street?

A

The fire floor, and you should move them to floor below the fire to avoid congestion with fire fighting operations.

78
Q

When is it appropriate to have residents shelter in place?

A

When they will not be directly affected by smoke or fire

79
Q

What must you do before utilizing an elevator in a mid rise fire?

A

Shine a light in the space between door frame and the elevator car to check for smoke, fire, or water. NO ELEVATOR if any are present

80
Q

If the Firemen Feature is present, what is the procedure to utilize the elevator?

A
  1. Engage the Fireman feature
  2. Take elevator two floors below the fire floor
  3. Be prepared to close the elevator door immediately by removing finger from the door control button if fire/smoke are visible on the floor
  4. Bring a dry chem extinguisher with you
81
Q

How many feet around the building during a mid rise fire is defined as a high hazard area?

A

100’

82
Q

Do you reset fire alarms that are sounding?

A

No. This is the responsibility of the building RP.

83
Q

When can you reset a commercial or municipal fire alarm?

A

If the alarm is interfering with our communications or if the alarm was set maliciously or accidently. Either way, notify the on call investigator

84
Q

Are you supposed to wear full turnouts, buttoned up, with SCBA when investigating a fire alarm sounding?

A

Yep

85
Q

What do you do when/if you encounter a fire alarm system that needs repair?

A

Contact the on call fire inspector and a building RP to inform them they need to post a Fire Watch

86
Q

Is there any reason to not assist a resident with replacing their batteries in a smoke detector?

A

No. Just do it.

87
Q

Should you call the on call investigator for an alarm in a private residence?

A

No its not necessary

88
Q

What Cubic Feet per Minute (CFM) of air do the fans on the engines put out?

A

15,000

89
Q

What Cubic Feet per Minute (CFM) of air do the fans on the ladders put out?

A

30,000

90
Q

What in the ‘negative space’ in regards to PPV Attack

A

the 12’’ space not covered by the cone of air at the top of the fan point. Here you see if smoke is coming back out, suggesting a blocked or inadequate exhaust port

91
Q

How many feet from the opening should a PPV fan be placed when the exhaust point is ready to start attack?

A

4-5’

92
Q

Will the fire intensity increase when you start PPV attack?

A

Yes, especially if the exhaust point is less than 2-3x the fan point

93
Q

What is the psi of our emergency reserve air?

A

33% of 4,500psi or 1,485 psi

94
Q

What is an SCBA/air management Immediate Action Item?

A

A continuous low air alarm. This means that the member is into their emergency reserve and need to exit the building ASAP

95
Q

What is the Rule of Air Management (ROAM)

A

“Know how much air you have in your SCBA and manage that air so you can leave the hazardous environment before your low air alarm activates.”

96
Q

How much air do FFs have to work with?

A

With a full SCBA (4500 psi) the FF has 2970 psi or 66% to work with

97
Q

How much time is 2970 psi of air, generally?

A

250psi/min, or 12 minutes (average)

98
Q

What is the low air warning?

A

An actionable item that means the FF is consuming their reserve air and must exit the IDLH. Ideally, you should’ve left before the alarm

99
Q

What is the R in a READY check?

A

Radio-turned on, charged, and on the correct channel

100
Q

What is the E in a READY check?

A

Equipment-PPE, proper tools?

101
Q

What is the A in a READY check?

A

Air-full bottle, working SCBA?

102
Q

What is the D in a READY check?

A

Duties-everyone know their job?

103
Q

What is the Y in a READY check?

A

Yes? Lets go.

104
Q

When should FFs check their bottles?

A

During “natural breaks” like going to another floor, before or after entering a room, getting a new assignment, etc.

105
Q

You relay lowest air when?

A

After any CANS report and following the benchmarks “primary all clear” and “fire under control”

106
Q

When do you relay a PAR

A

After all benchmarks (primary all clear, fire under control, loss stop)

107
Q

When should you consider a Status Change and recycle when working in an IDLH

A

When your lowest bottle is at 50% compacity (2200psi, or 6 minutes in)

108
Q

PASS alarm or a low air warning indicate what?

A

That a FF is in trouble

109
Q

How do you communicate a low air alarm activation with command?

A

Priority Traffic Notification. We will find the quickest exit and leave right now

110
Q

When is low air a MAYDAY

A

10% or 450 psi

111
Q

Below what percentage and psi is a Mayday possible?

A

20% or 900 psi

112
Q

How many people should be in an On Deck Crew?

A

At least three with an officer (preferably)

113
Q

Entry into IDLH technically requires how many members?

A

4

114
Q

When is the “Two in Two Out” Rule allowed to be broken?

A

If there is an immediate and obvious threat to a person’s life or health

115
Q

What report must be generated if the 2 in 2 out rule is broken?

A

Rescue Exception Incident Review

116
Q

What % of AFFF Foam should be used on hydrocarbons without MTBE additives, JP4, diesel, kerosene?

A

3%

117
Q

What % of AFFF should be used on gas with MTBE additives, ketones, esters, alcohol, and everything else?

A

6%

118
Q

What makes a “small” spill?

A

25 gallons or less

119
Q

And a “large” spill is?

A

More than 25 gallons. Also requires a HAZMAT response

120
Q

What can our spill kits not be used on?

A

Cyanide solutions, nitric acids, or peroxides

121
Q

What is the ratio of microblaze to spill?

A

1 to 10

122
Q

What are the tactical objectives for the first arriving unit to a Hazmat call?

A

EIIM: Evacuate, Identify, Isolate, and Manage Contaminated Victims

123
Q

What three groups should be part of an initial Hazmat response?

A

Isolation, Evacuation, and Decon groups

124
Q

What color in the ERG is consulted when the 4 digit UN number is known?

A

Yellow

125
Q

What color in the ERG is consulted when the name of the substance is known?

A

Blue

126
Q

What color contains the information you need as first arriving officer after you find the chemical in the yellow or blue pages?

A

Orange

127
Q

What does it mean if the UN Number or product name is highlighted?

A

It means you’re dealing with a Toxic Inhalation Hazard (TIH)

128
Q

What color needs to be consulted when dealing with a TIH?

A

Green

129
Q

How do we isolate Hazmat?

A

Dike, dam, divert, or retention

130
Q

The first arriving officer will need to establish what other groups, even after the first Hazmat Tech Officer has arrived?

A

Treatment, Transport, and Suppression (all as needed)

131
Q

What is the EXACT wording of our risk management model?

A

We will risk our lives a lot, in a calculated manner, in order to save SAVABLE lives. We will risk our lives a little, in a calculated manner, in order to save SAVABLE property. We will not risk our lives at all in order to save lives or property that is already lost.

132
Q

What does “in a calculated manner” mean?

A

Incident Command established, proper PPE worn, accountability established, safety procedures in place, continuous risk assessment ongoing by all members.

133
Q

When considering a survivability profile, members must consider what?

A

The conditions present in the “compartment” or area of fire involvement and other conditions affecting survival. Someone may be able to survive if isolated from fire conditions if hiding in a closet, bathroom, room with door closed. If we believe this is possible or likely we extend risk in a calculated manner to make the rescue

134
Q

What kind of risk do we take when we encounter heavy fire producing dense smoke, under pressure, that extends to the floor level throughout a building?

A

We take a calculated, cautious approach as it is unlikely that a person would survive in this environment

135
Q

Should we avoid an offensive fire fight if we encounter a well involved building?

A

Most likely yes (especially if the building is considered abandoned). In these instances survivability is unlikely and property conservation is mostly futile. An extremely cautious, well-planned recovery operation is appropriate if a victim is known to have been inside a fully involved building

136
Q

What will NWFD respond to?

A

Any EMERGENCY situation that threatens life, safety, or property.

137
Q

What are the most immediate concerns of NWFD?

A

Timely response and effective management of EMS, rescue, and fire control

138
Q

In the event of an accident or injury to a citizen involving District vehicles, personnel, or equipment, who gets a call first?

A

Your BC.

139
Q

If you are designated as an investigating officer to an injury or accident involving District vehicles, personnel, or equipment, when must you have your complete written report to the Assistant Chief?

A

Within 24 hours. It must include: cover memo including the findings, name, address, and info of all those involved, memos from all witnesses, and any evidence (photos, materials, etc) from the incident

140
Q

When must damaged property be reported to a supervisor?

A

Immediately. You (the Captain) will then inspect the damaged property, make the appropriate notifications, and switch out, repair, or take the equipment OOS if unsafe.

141
Q

Who do you then notify about the damaged equipment?

A

Your BC to advise them of your actions or to ask for direction if you’re really really really unsure

142
Q

When should a driver of a district vehicle move the vehicle after it has struck a non-vehicular object?

A

ONLY after a supervisor (either you or the BC) has completed an investigation

Captains Class (3 decks)

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