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Lt test 2015 > sog 8 airport > Flashcards

sog 8 airport Flashcards

1
Q

due to the secure nature of an airfield and the danger associated with airfield operations, all persons traveling in a vehicle shall be authorized by who

A

airport management and st lucie county fire district

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2
Q

all vehicles shall pass through gates and wait until it closes before continuing, what is the exception

A

an actual emergency on the airfield

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3
Q

if any suspicious or unauthorized personnel, activities, or vehicles are noticed, report it to who

A

the airport management and 911

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4
Q

emergency entrance to the airfield shall be via

A

knox box key switch located at gates and remotes for the ARFF station

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5
Q

local standby is what alert level

A

alert 1

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6
Q

minor difficulty such as feathered propeller and overheated engine, oil leak, etc is what alert level

A

alert 1

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7
Q

alert I requires what unit to stage in the station and monitor the call from the cab of the truck

A

ARFF 216

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8
Q

who can upgrade alert I to alert II

A

the incident commander with establishing command and informing the ATCT.

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9
Q

the IC shall request from the ATCT what information

A

type of aircraft, number of souls, quantity of fuel, nature of emergency, and anticipated runway for landing

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10
Q

an actual emergency is what alert level

A

alert II

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11
Q

full emergency alert is what alert level

A

alert II

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12
Q

engine on fire, faulty landing gear, low hydraulic pressure, loss of 40% or more of propulsive power due to engine failure is what alert level

A

alert II

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13
Q

who responds to alert II

A

ARFF 216 , engine, rescue, BC, FTO and tanker will be dispatched and respond to their pre-determined staging positions, if available an additional bc/dc will report to tower

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14
Q

once the emergency is resolved, the OIC will see what information is gathered form the pilot

A

type of problem, type of plane, owner’s name, and tail number

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15
Q

staging points-behind customs on the northeast side (tiki)

A

south

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16
Q

staging point-at delta 1, near the beginning of runway 28L

A

east

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17
Q

staging point-in the run up area near the beginning of runway 10r

A

west

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18
Q

staging point-bomb threat and hazard cargo area

A

north

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19
Q

ARFF 216 and station 4 apparatus if available will stage where

A

staging point east

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20
Q

all other units will stage where

A

point south

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21
Q

an aircraft accident or crash is which alert level

A

III

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22
Q

who will respond to a alert III aircraft crash

A

ARFF 216, and engine, rescue, tanker, BC, FTO, plus additional rescues based on information regarding patients, BC/DC will stage in the tower

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23
Q

during times of poor visibility or inclement weather, it is suggested that ARFF 216 become the lead apparatus due to the use of

A

the FLIR, this will help from accidentally hitting victims or debris near the scene

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24
Q

when possible approach the scene from the ____ side

A

windward

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25
if evacuation is in progress ARFF 216 shall position on which side of the plane
evacuation side in order to protect evacuees and rescue activities with ARFF
26
ARFF 216 shall immediately use ____ to prevent ignition and extinguish any fire on the aircraft
fire suppression agents
27
how long can residual heat in the aircraft engines can ignite fuel vapors
up to 30 minutes
28
taking into account factors such as the situation, weather conditions, and fuel containment, what should be considered
applying a preventative foam blanket
29
as soon as the scene has been determined safe by the IC, SLCFD personnel shall allow and assist who to access the site and passengers on the aircraft
SLCSO
30
when using saws, equipment, and other tools that may be an ignition source, remember to use ____ while cutting and to blanket the surrounding area
AFFF
31
how high above and around windows, doors, and marked cutting areas should you cut
6 inches
32
who is the only agency authorized to remove fatalities or wreckage
NTSB
33
when the emergency has been mitigated and the scene has been secured, IC shall be turned over to who
NTSB, FAA, or airport management
34
bomb threats, explosive ordnance disposal and special operations at the airport is what alert level
alert IV
35
during an alert IV the IC shall respond to the unified command post comprised of who
representatives of the threatened agency, airport management, SLCSO, and others
36
In addition to ARFF 216 what other units shall stage at station 4 during an alert IV
engine, rescue, tanker, DC, BC, FTO, special ops and if available the BC/DC will stage in the tower. All responding crews shall stand by at station 4 and await further orders for the IC
37
how far on an alert IV shall the fire department apparatus maintain a safe distance
500 feet from the involved area in the threat
38
radio silence includes the prohibiting the use of what devices, who determines when it is safe to break radio silence
cellular phones, pagers, and other electronic devices | SLCSO
39
if the threat involves an aircraft, it shall be directed or moved where
to the haz-mat bomb area at staging point north but may be altered on the orders of SLCSO EOD team with the cooperation and consideration of the airport management and SLCFD IC
40
who will respond to an Alert IV haz mat call
ARFF 216, engine, rescue, tanker, DC, BC, FTO, special Ops, will stage at station 4. if available an additional BC/DC will stage in the tower
41
who's responsibility is it to alert aircraft rescue, station 4, and the communications division of any emergency or potential emergency that requires the services of the fire district
air traffic control tower (ATCT)
42
how will units be notified of potential emergency at the airport
red crash phone and communications toning out the station
43
what time will the ATCT do an alert test each day and who will be notified
0830 -station 4, sheriff's hanger, coast guard, airport management, and the communications division
44
during training or non emergency responses fd vehicles and ARFF are to cross runways where
at the approach or departure ends of the runways or as directed by the ATCT
45
when responding to an emergency, you may request clearance from the ATCT to cross where
via the closest point on the runway to your position
46
given the time of day and the volume of aircraft traffic on the airfield, it may be quicker to do what
go to the approach or departure ends of the runway
47
when possible request to cross via
the most direct route on a hard surface
48
emergency lights shall be used when
within the movement area, at all times on the airfield,
49
when you are directed by the ATCT to proceed to hold bars and hold short, you shall do what
repeat back the instructions over the ground control radio to ATCT in order to confirm intentions.
50
what is the frequency for all vehicles and aircraft on the ground
119.55 MHz
51
what is the frequency for all vehicles and aircraft on the runway and aircraft in the air (tower)
128.2 MHz
52
what is the frequency for 24 hour weather and open runways (ATIS)
134.82 MHz
53
in the event that communication is lost with radios, the tower has _______ that will be used
emergency lights
54
-the tower is closed each day from what hours during this time you shall monitor what channel
21:00-07:00- 128.2 tower
55
steady green
clear to cross, proceed
56
steady red
stop where you are
57
flashing red
clear taxiways and runways
58
flashing white
return to starting point on airfield
59
alternating red/green
exercise extreme caution
60
once the incident is over, the last unit leaving the scene will contact the ATCT on the ground frequency to advise them of what
advise them off their status after clearing the airfield
61
blue lights
indicate all taxiways, Alpha thru Echo
62
green lights
indicates a threshold, beginning of all runways
63
red lights
indicate the end of all runways
64
white lights
indicate all runways 10R/28L, 14/32 10L/28R
65
how is the PCL activated
via microphone on the airport CTAF/UNL com frequency 128.2
66
what are the PCL settings
low intensity 3 clicks within 5 sec med intensity 5 clicks within 5 sec high intensity 7 clicks within 5 sec
67
what units shall respond to fuel spills within the airport operations area (AOA)
ARFF 216 and an Engine
68
what are the actions taken to mitigate fuel spills at the airport
evacuating the aircraft, removal of the aircraft from the spill area, close the ramp, taxiway, or runway
69
what size fuel spills should the BC/DC and airport management be notified of
large fuel spill greater than 10 running feet in any direction spill greater than 50 sq ft fuel spill ongoing and not contained fuel spill with runoff into ground, storm drains, sewers, or bodies of water
70
The IC shall notify EOC for what type of fuel spills
greater than 25 gallons or runoff into ground, storm drains, sewers or bodies of water.
71
if no fire is involved in a fuel leak what should be done
stop the flow of fuel, control ignition sources, contain to spill area, prevent ignition sources by using fire suppression agents.
72
if containment of a fuel spill to the ramp area is not possible direct efforts toward what
preventing fuel flow into the drainage system by using absorbent booms, etc on ARFF 216
73
in the attempt that fuel has already contaminated the drainage system, attempt to halt its progress by placing absorbent booms where
at the point where the drain empties into the canal
74
spills occurring on runways, taxiways, ramps, or roadways may be contained with the use of absorbent in situations where no fire hazard exists. If safety is compromised what can be done from the crews of ARFF
the use of water and foam
75
upon containment of a fuel spill who is responsible for clean up. who will ensure cleanup operations are facilitated in a safe and timely manner
the owner or fueling agent | ARFF personnel
76
in the event that there is a fuel fire what should be done
Purple K the AFFF to blanket the area to prevent re-ignition
77
in the event that the responsible party for the fuel spill can not be determined or unwilling or able to mitigate spill in a reasonable time period what should be done
ARFF personnel shall contain the spill and make the area safe. IC shall seek assistance from Airport Maintenance and if necessary contact EOC for third party haz mat recovery vendor
78
this is the process of refueling or de-fueling of an aircraft while the engines are still operating.
hot fueling
79
who responds to a hot fueling
ARFF 216 an engine, and rescue
80
as a rule hot fueling is prohibited unless specifically authorized by who
the IC
81
what conditions must exist to hot fuel
fuel truck/aircraft bonded together aircraft personnel in place at exits to assist with evacuation of passengers ARFF standing by at aircraft fueling may not begin until clearance from IC
82
what agents should be used for wheel fires or blown tires
dry chemical or AFFF
83
if a magnesium wheel is on fire what should be used
metal x fire extinguisher AFFF or water as a last resort
84
how should the wheel fire/blown tire be approached
from the front or rear of the assembly with the objective to prevent extension or the fire upward into the wheel wells, wings, and fuselage
85
keep in mind that fusible plugs on aircraft wheels will blow at approximately ____degrees F
300 to 400 degrees F
86
hot or overheated breaks may continue to build up heat for how long?
20 to 30 minutes
87
if there is no fire what should you let the brakes do
cool down on their own, use an exhaust fan or keep the propeller operating.
88
what should be obtained from the Pilot in Charge
aircraft type, pilot name, nature of emergency, quantity of fuel on board, and number of souls on board

Lt test 2015 (2 decks)

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