Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMS SOG 430 > SOG 430 > Flashcards

SOG 430 Flashcards

1
Q

Who are the only two people who are authorized to change the trauma alert status?

A

Medical Director or physician at receiving facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Use of an ________ is contraindicated in trauma patients.

A

Auto pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

You should use a pedi immobilizer in children weighing less than ______.

A

60 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Patients with multi system involvement may deteriorate rapidly. _______ is a priority.

A

Load and Go

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bleeding from the ____ and _____ should not be stopped.

A

Nose and ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In cases of _______________ scene time is less critical and care should be taken in performing proper spinal immobilization.

A

Isolated spinal injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

High cervical injury may cause _____

A

Apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Sucking chest wound treatment:

A
  1. Apply Vaseline type occlusive dressing to cover wound
  2. Cover the occlusive dressing with sterile 4x4s
  3. Tape the dressing on three sides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The best treatment for the patient with severe abdominal trauma is:

A

Rapid transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most important indicator of abdominal trauma?

A

Mechanism of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Abdominal trauma: transport to a trauma center when __________ and/or _________________ are present.

A

Discoloration and/or severe tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment for abdominal evisceration:

A
  • Never replace abdominal viscera
  • Cover with sterile dressing and moisten with IV fluid
  • Secure the wet dressing in place if possible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Signs and symptoms of shock may be delayed due to:

A

Increased maternal blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Immobilizing a pregnant patient greater than _______ may cause supine hypotension

A

20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Elevate trauma pregnancy patients right side ________.

A

Approximately 6 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Reduce fractures by ______________ if absence of distal pulses.

A

Axial traction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Consider ____________ for presumed femur fracture.

A

Traction splint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Who is permitted to remove taser probes?

A

Law enforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Burns are classified according to _____ and ____________.

A

Type and thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Burn trauma alert criteria (adults):

A

Partial/full thickness burns equal to or greater than 15% of the BSA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Burn trauma alert criteria (pediatric):

A

Partial/full thickness burns equal to or greater than 10% of the BSA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tx of chemical burns NOT involving Lime, carbolic acid, sulfuric acid, sodium potassium or sodium metals:

A

Irrigate with IV fluids for 20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tx of chemical burns INVOLVING lime, carbolic acid, sulfuric acid, sodium potassium or sodium metals:

A
  • Do not flush wounds with water, IV fluids, sterile water etc.
  • contact receiving physician for treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

TX of superficial burns:

A

Apply burn gel dressing(s) if needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Tx of partial thickness/full thickness burns:

A
  • Apply dry sterile dressing

- leave blisters intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

On lightning strike scenes where there are multiple patients, reverse triage shall be applied and patients in cardiac arrest shall be worked _____.

A

First

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Penetrating injury to the eye shall be considered a:

A

Trauma Alert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Eye trauma-maintain patient in ______ position to reduce leakage of fluids from the eye.

A

Supine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If blood is noted in the anterior chamber, place patient in the ___________ position.

A

Semi Fowler’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Early management of __________ can mean the difference between life and death.

A

Hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

TX for Bleeding to extremity (Life Threatening):

A

Immediately apply tourniquet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

TX of Non-Life Threatening bleeding to head neck or torso:

A
  1. Control with direct pressure to bleeding area or vessel
  2. Apply trauma dressing
  3. Apply pressure bandage on top of any previously applied dressing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Treatment of life threatening bleeding to head, neck or torso:

A
  1. Control with DP to bleeding area or vessel
  2. Apply hemostatic dressing if available. Otherwise apply trauma dressing
  3. Apply pressure bandage on top of any previously applied dressing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Assess stroke patient using the CPSS to determine the _________ of a stroke.

A

Presence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Assess stroke patient using LAMS assessment to determine the ________ of a stroke.

A

Severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Patients with Acute Heart Failure or Pulmonary Edema: place patient in:

A

Full Fowler’s position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Consider early use of the CPAP to treat _____________.

A

Pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

PT is considered to be hypertensive when BP is greater than:

A

220/120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Hypertensive pt should be placed in:

A

Semi Fowler’s position

40
Q

What should guide treatment in patients in respiratory distress?

A

Lung sounds and degree of distress

41
Q

What is not a reliable indicator of patients level of distress? (Respiratory)

A

SPO2 reading

42
Q

TX of respiratory arrest: how do you provide O2?

A

100% oxygen via BVM with an airway adjunct

43
Q

FBAO Treatment for Conscious adults

A

Mild Obstruction with good exchange: encourage coughing

Severe Obstruction: Heimlich maneuver, if patient is pregnant perform chest thrusts instead of abdominal thrusts

44
Q

FBAO Treatment for UNCONSCIOUS adults:

A

Reposition airway and remove object with magill forceps

Begin CPR as indicated

Suction as indicated

Assist ventilations w BVM and Nasopharyngeal airway***

45
Q

Many serious medical problems can cause hyperventilation. Consider ___________________.

A

Possible underlying causes

46
Q

Hyperventilation treatment: Do NOT administer what?

A

CO2 rebreathing techniques

47
Q

Abdominal/flank pain patient position:

A

Position of comfort

48
Q

Place alcohol related illness patient in what position?

A

Recovery position

49
Q

What should you anticipate in patients suffering from allergic reaction or anaphylaxis?

A

Rapid deterioration, need for intubation.

50
Q

How should you position PT with altered level of consciousness?

A

Recovery Position

51
Q

How should you position patients with a nose bleed?

A

Sitting position with their head leaning forward.

52
Q

How do you control hemorrhage in nose bleed patients?

A

Facilitate clotting by instructing patient to hold pressure by pinching the nostrils for 20 minutes and not to sniff, blow, or manipulate the nasal passages in any way.

53
Q

What should you suspect in patients complaining of severe “Thunderclap” headache?

A

Stroke

54
Q

How do you position seizure patients?

A

Recovery position

55
Q

What do you do if a patient is actively seizing?

A

Protect patient from further injury

Look for underlying causes

56
Q

Signs of poor perfusion:

A
  • cool mottled skin
  • diminishes pulses
  • AMS
  • increased capillary refill time
  • tachycardia AND systolic BP < 90
57
Q

How do you position medical shock patients?

A

Place patient supine, legs elevated

58
Q

In shock patients, if they are febrile you should:

A

Apply cooling measures

59
Q

How do you position syncope/bear syncope patients?

A

Recovery position

60
Q

Place decompression sickness patients in what position?

A

Recovery Position (LEFT SIDE)

61
Q

How much oxygen should you administer to decompression sickness patients?

A

100% via NRB

62
Q

What should you try to retrieve if appropriate and ensure transport of with patients suffering from decompression sickness?

A
  • Dive computer

- Try to obtain depth and length of dive from PT or bystanders

63
Q

Where do you transport decompression sickness patients?

A

Closest most appropriate ER

64
Q

What can mimic several medical conditions including hypoxia, hypoglycemia, stroke, or intracranial bleeding?

A

Excited Delirium

65
Q

What should raise a red flag in combative patients?

A

Previously combative patient who suddenly becomes quiet

66
Q

Approved JFRD restraints:

A

Soft limb restraints
Stretcher straps/harnesses
Wide cloth restraints

67
Q

How often do you evaluate circulation of extremities when restraints are in use?

A

At least every 5 minutes

68
Q

What do you document in report with patients that need to be restrained?

A
  • Patients behavior necessitating use of restraints
  • Type of restraint used
  • Status of circulation distal to restraints
69
Q

Treat heat stroke:

A

Aggressively

70
Q

If reported temperature is greater than or equal to 104 degrees and ice water immersion cooling has been initiated, consider:

A

Allowing continued TX for up to an additional 10 minutes after arrival

71
Q

How do you position patients suffering from hypothermia?

A

Supine position

72
Q

How should you handle hypothermic patients?

A

Gently. The hypothermic heart is irritable.

73
Q

What is the priority I. Treating hypothermia?

A

Rewarming

74
Q

How do you rewarm hypothermic patients

A

Remove any wet clothing
Increase core temp with blankets
Increase temp in pt compartment

75
Q

How do you treat insects and spider bite and stings?

A

Remove stinger if present, cleanse with peroxide.

76
Q

How do you treat marine stings?

A

Remove clinging tentacles by salt water rinse or by using a gloved hand.

Avoid rinsing with fresh water.

Irrigate affected eye with IV fluids

77
Q

How do you treat snake bites?

A

If constricting bands in place upon arrival, remove.

Mark initial edematous area with pen and note time.

Attempt to identify type of snake.

78
Q

Abnormal SpCO values:

A

Nonsmoker: greater than 5%

Smoker: greater than 10%

79
Q

What may be falsely high in the presence of carbon monoxide?

A

SPO2 readings

80
Q

How should you administer O2 to carbon monoxide/cyanide exposure patients?

A

100% O2 via NRB

81
Q

Vaginal bleeding-place patient in:

A

Position of comfort

82
Q

How do you place a pt experiencing vaginal bleeding who is pregnant?

A

If greater than 20 weeks, recovery position (LEFT SIDE)

83
Q

How do you position patient with suspected eclampsia/pre-eclampsia?

A

If greater than 20 weeks pregnant, recovery position left side.

84
Q

Eclampsia and severe pre eclampsia can occur up to:

A

Six weeks after delivery

85
Q

Where do you apply clamps when delivering a baby?

A

Apply 2 clamps (2-3 inches apart) 7-10 inches from abdomen of the neonate.

86
Q

When do you assess APGAR score?

A

One minute and 5 minutes post delivery

87
Q

How do you suction newborns

A

Suction the mouth then the nostrils.

Suction should be done after delivery of the head but before delivery of the body.

88
Q

How often should you re-assess a newborn?

A

Every 30 seconds

89
Q

Symptoms of pediatric bradycardia:

A

Cool mottled skin, diminished pulses, altered mental status, increased capillary refill time.

90
Q

How do you position patients in pediatric shock?

A

Supine

91
Q

Signs and symptoms of pediatric respiratory distress:

A 
Increased respiratory rate
Increased work of breathing
Retractions
Nasal flaring
SPO2 less than 95%
92
Q

What are the contraindications of a king tube?

A

Intact gag reflex

Caustic ingestion

93
Q

A correctly applied tourniquet should only be removed by who?

A

The receiving hospital

94
Q

Injury due to a properly applied tourniquet is unlikely if the tourniquet is removed within:

A

1-2 hours.

95
Q

What kind of tourniquet is preferred?

A

Commercially made tourniquet

96
Q

If no tourniquet is available, what can be used as an alternative?

A

BP cuff inflates to a pressure sufficient to stop bleeding

97
Q

If you’re reading these notecards

A

Go fuck yourself. They’re all fakes.

EMS SOG 430 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions