Soft tissue surgery Flashcards

0
Q

What is laparotomy

A

Incision through muscle into abdomen, generally flank incision

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1
Q

What is celiotomy?

A

Any incision into abdominal cavity.

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2
Q

What structures can you access from a paracostal laparotomy?

A

Liver, stomach, adrenal glands.

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3
Q

How do you prevent tissues from desiccating in ventral midline coelitomy?

A

Moistened swabs, lavage saline, suction.

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4
Q

What is in the cranial quadrant of the abdomen?

A

Diaphragm, liver, gall bladder, stomach. The right gutter - right limb pancreas, kidney, adrenal, portal vein, vena cava, ureter, ovary. Left gutter - kidney, ureter, ovary, adrenal.

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5
Q

What is found in the caudal quadrant of the abdomen?

A

Colon, reproductive tract, bladder, urethra, prostate, inguinal rings. Assess colour, palpate entire length and check mesenteric lymph nodes of intestinal tract.

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6
Q

What can be found in the central abdomen?

A

Omentum, spleen, left limb of pancreas.

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7
Q

Describe Coeliotomy closure?

A

Layer 1 - linea alba - external rectus sheath - the main holding layer. simple interrupted or continuous patterns. Mono filament synthetic suture material. 7 Throws to start and finish.
Layer 2 - Subcutaneous tissues - close dead space, supports skin closure. Layer 3 - skin apposition.

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8
Q

What is an incisional hernia?

A

The abdominal organs move subcutaneously. The skin incision dehisces, causing peritonitis, evisceration and death.

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9
Q

What is peritonitis?

A

Inflammation of the peritoneum. Primary generalised peritonitis - spontaneous, no pre existing abdominal disease e.g viral peritonitis - FIP. Secondary generalised peritonitis - secondary to pre existing abdominal pathology. Examples - rupture of GIT, urine leakage, penetrating trauma, bile leakage following trauma. Infectious - bacterial in origin, leakage from GIT, often iatrogenic. Non infectious causes are urine, bile, foreign body, pancreatitis. There will be a history of intestinal surgery or foreign body, dullness, abdominal distension, abdominal pain, fluid thrill

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10
Q

What is a hernia?

A

Protrusion of a structure through a defect in the wall of its normal anatomical cavity.

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11
Q

What types of hernia are possible?

A

Umbilica, inguinal, scrotal, femoral, perineal. - often congenital or acquired degenerative.
Internal abdominal hernias, external abdominal hernias - often traumatic.

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12
Q

What is an external abdominal hernia?

A

Usually traumatic. Herniation of organ out of abdomen through a defect in the abdominal wall. e.g paracostal hernia.

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13
Q

What are internal abdominal hernias?

A

Usually traumatic lesions. Herniation of abdominal organs through a ring/defect confined within the abdomen or thorax. eg diaphragmatic hernia.

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14
Q

What is a true hernia?

A

A congenital or acquired degenerative herniia. Contents are within an outpouching of peritoneum - the hernial sac.

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15
Q

What is a false hernia?

A

Usually traumatic - contents not restrained by hernia sac.

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16
Q

Which hernias herniate through a normal body cavity opening?

A

Umbilical, internal abdominal, external abdominal - do not herniate through normal body cavity opening. Inguinal, scrotal, femoral, all herniate through a natural abdominal opening - vital structures run through these.

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17
Q

What is a prepubic hernia?

A

Avulsion of cranial (prepubic) tendon. Usually RTA. Often associated pelvic fractures.

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18
Q

What is an umbilical hernia?

A

Usually congenital. OFten closed during elective neutering. Foetal umbilical ring fails to close. a true hernia.

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19
Q

In external abdominal hernias the hernia contents may be in different health - such as;

A

reducible, non reducible, incarcerated, strangulated. Strangulated contents - the organ blood supply is compromised - distension, torsion and constriction.

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20
Q

If a repair is too difficult what may be used?

A

Surgical meshes - polypropylene mesh. Because tension free repair must be achieved. Tension leads to dehiscence, large defects lead to tension on suture line.

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21
Q

What are inguinal hernias?

A

Herniation through the inguinal canal. Contents adjacent to vaginal process. May be congenital or acquired. May be unilateral or bilateral. Sex hormones, pregnancy and obesity may play a role in acquired hernias. Do midline incision and dissect over hernia. Consider coeliotomy if cannot reduce easily. Avoid damaging external pudendal vessels. Advise neutering. Makes repair in male dogs easier.

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22
Q

What is a scrotal hernia?

A

Rare, unilateral. Organs herniate beside testicular vessels and ductus deferens into scrotum. Organ strangulation is common. Castrate - repair in a similar fashion to inguinal hernia.

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23
Q

What is a femoral hernia?

A

Usually traumatic. Herniation of organs through the femoral canal. Femoral artery, vein and nerve. Repair very difficult. Usually misdiagnosed as inguinal hernias. Refer for repair.

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24
Q

What is a perineal hernia?

A

Pelvic diaphragm degenerates. Rectum, prostate and abdominal organs herniate. Acquired degeneration of the pelvic diaphragm - levator ani muscle. Unknown aetiology - androgens, straining, neurogenic muscle atrophy. Occurs in male, entire dogs, mature. Occassionally in male neutered and female dogs. Right > left. The rectum deviates + dilates. Abdominal fat, prostate, retroflexed bladder (20%). presentation - faecal tenesmus - straining to defecate, perianal swelling, constipation. Retroflexed baldder presentation - dysuria, systemic collapse/acute renal failure. If retroflexed bladder - cystocentesis or urinary catheterisation - reduce hernia with digital pressure. Repair with simple herniorrhaphy. Internal obturator muscle transposition flap. Castration reduces risk of recurrence. Complications include rectal eversion, suture penetrating rectal mucosa, fecal incontinence, sciatic nerve injury.

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25
Q

Describe oral neoplasia?

A

Common. Lesions may be proliferative, erosive. Prognosis ay be good. clinical signs include drooling + blood. Halitosis, oral facial pain, dysphagia.

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26
Q

What is a melignant melanoma?

A

Commonest canine oral tumour. Melanotic or amelanotic. Behave aggresively. They have a high metastatic rate > 80%, high post op recurrence. poor prognosis.

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27
Q

What is a squamous cell carcinoma?

A

commonest feline tumour, low metastatic rate, high local recurrence rate, prognosis guarded due to high rate of regrowth. Rostral have a low metastatic rate and tonsillar are highly aggressive - 73% have metastasised to a distant site. Good prognosis for non metastatic lesions providing achieve wide surgical excision. Alternative therapies include radiotherapy.

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28
Q

What is a fibrosarcoma?

A

Dog - upper carnassial region, proliferative, non ulcerated. Cat - no predilection site. Complete excision - low metastatic potential. recurrence rates - 40% maxilla. Require large margins.

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29
Q

What is epulis?

A

Of periodontal origin. May be fibromatous - pedunculated or acanthomatous - bone destruction. Excellent prognosis with wide excision & radiotherapy.

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30
Q

What are ameloblastomas?

A

Benign tumours, very uncommon, originate from dental laminae, good prognosis with wide excision.

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31
Q

What are oral papillomas?

A

Seen in young dogs, viral aetiology: papillomavirus, papovavirus. Spontaneously regress.

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32
Q

What is a sialocoele or salivary mucocoele?

A

Submucosal or Subcutaneous collection of saliva, leakage of saliva from gland or duct. May be submandibular, cervical, sublingual (rannula). Most cases are idiopathic. May be caused by trauma,inflamation, neoplasia, sialolithiasis, foreign body, sublingual gland duct most common. The signs are fluctuating swelling, dysphagia, oral bleeding, hypersalivation, respiratory obstruction.

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33
Q

What is a sialogram?

A

Diagnosis for sialocoele. 2 to 3 mls of non ionic contrast agent, inserted through a lacrimal cannula or intravenous catheter.

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34
Q

What is the treatment of sialocoele?

A

Subcutaneous sialocoele - sialoadenectomy, submandibular salivary gland complex. Rannula - marsupialisation/sialoadenectomy.

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35
Q

What is an oronasal fistula?

A

May cause Chronic rhinitis, nasal regurgitation of food, aspiration pneumonia, malnutrition.May be caused by dental disease, trauma, neoplasia. Must repair surgically - high failure rates.

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36
Q

What is a cleft soft or hard palate?

A

May be acquired following trauma, which is more amenable to repair. Stabilise maxillary fractures. Close in 2 or 3 layers. Congenital: refer for repair.

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37
Q

What are the advantages of an oesophagostomy tube?

A

Well tolerated allowing early oral feeding. Bypasses the nasomaxillary area. Does not obstruct the pharynx, can be removed immediately. It is contraindicated in oesophageal disease, vomiting, neck injuries. Secure with roman sandal suture.

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38
Q

What are the complications of oesophageal surgery?

A

Leakage - mediastinits/pyothorax, cellulitis, stricture, necrosis, high complication rate.

39
Q

Where are the most common places to get an oesophageal foreign body?

A

the points of narrowing - thoracic inlet, heart base, cardia. Do radiographs of the entire length. 85% are at the heart base.

40
Q

What is a gastrotomy?

A

Incising into the stomach

41
Q

What is a gastrectomy?

A

Excising a portion of the stomach

42
Q

What is a gastrostomy?

A

Creating a stoma usually using a tube.

43
Q

What is a gastrostomy?

A

Creating a stoma usually using a tube.

44
Q

What is gastropexy?

A

Fixing stomach to body wall.

45
Q

What are the risks of gastrointestinal surgery?

A

Intra operative contamination, post operative dehiscence and leakage, peritonitis, iatrogenic blockage.

46
Q

What are stay sutures used for in gastric surgery?

A

To tent iincision up away from pool of fluid in stomach.

47
Q

What is a serosal seal?

A

Reduces risk of dehiscence. Wrapping serosa around incision site encourages an early, water tight seal.

48
Q

How can you reduce risk of dehiscence?

A

The submucosa is the holding layer. Use a swaged on cutting needle, monofilament, synthetic, absorbable, non crushing patterns. Use interrupted or continuous suture patterns. Stomach and colon - use double layered and inverting.

49
Q

What are signs of gastric disease?

A

Vomiting, haemateemesis, melaenia, dehydration, hypokalaemia, loss of appetite, weight loss.

50
Q

What is a gastrotomy?

A

Main indications are for foreign body removal, biopsy. Both gastrectomy and gastrostomy are based around the basic technique of gastrotomy

51
Q

Where should a gastrotomy be done?

A

Pick an avascular area away from the pylorus. Place stay sutures on either side of site. Tent stomach up and isolate with swabs. Stab incision no11 scalpel. Extend with scalpel or metzenbaum scissors. Close site in one or two layers. Incorporate submucosa in at least one layer of sutures.

52
Q

How can gastric distension be diagnosed with a gastric FB?

A

Radiography. Normal fundus 6 icsp - suspect pathology.

53
Q

What is gastric dilatation volvulus syndrome?

A

An acute life threatening disease characterised by rapid accumulation of gas and air in the stomach which increases pressure within the stomach resulting in malposition of the stomach and shock. Stomach distends and rotates. dyspnoea and profound shock develop rapidly. Gastric necrosis and perforation follow. Failure to eructate or to pass gas into intestine. Fills with fluid - food and gastric secretion. Transudate from mural venous congestion, blood and mucosal slough as stomach necrosis develops. Stomach rotates - usually 90 to 360 degrees - clockwise usually. Pylorus moves ventrally and to left, fundus moves to right. Spleen - displaces to right dorsal. Congestion: stretching of splenic vessels, ischaemia: infarction or ischaemia of vessels.

54
Q

What are the local effects of GDV?

A

Intra gastric pressure increases - venous then arterial compression, venous congestion, transudation of fluid, mucosal hypoxia leads to tissue ischaemia, ultimately gastric wall necrosis and perforation. Reduced venous return to heart, reduced circulating blood volume, cardiac arrhythmias. Shock - endotoxic and septic.

55
Q

What are the risk factors for GDV?

A

predominantly in large breeed dogs: gordon setter, irish setter, poodle, Great Dane, weimeraner, Saint Bernard, basset. single source diet, once daily feeding, processed dry (cereal or soya based), familial predisposition, over >7 years, previous episode - 80% recurrence rate, presentation: rapid onset persistent vomiting fluid, tympanic abdomen, collapse large breed dog

56
Q

How may the stomach be decompressed?

A

Orogastric intubation - lubricated, soft large bore tube, premeasured to last rib. or percutaneous decompression (paracentesis). Patient stabilisation - intravenous antibiotics, oxygen therapy, therapy for arrhythmias, analgesia.

57
Q

What are the aims of GVD surgery?

A

Decompress and reposition stomach, assess stomach and spleen for necrosis, prevent recurrence. 180 degree clockwise rotation most comon. Assess stomach wall for necrosis. If not viable > wall thinning; green; grey; black. Compromised; avulsed vessels, red, haemorrhagic. Viable: active haemorrhage from nick, pulse, peristalsis. Gastric wall invagination: for questionable areas. Partial gastrectomy for non viiable areas.

58
Q

How can GDV recurrence be prevented?

A

Incisional gastropexy - right sided: antrum anchored to body wall. Prevents pylorus moving, incise seromuscular layer of pylorus and transverse abdominus muscle. suture incision edges together.

59
Q

Describe intestinal foreign bodies.

A

complete high intestinal obstruction are most severe. Partial obstructions can be chronic - linear foreign bodies, other forms of obstruction such as neoplasia.

60
Q

What effects does an intestinal foreign body have?

A

Systemic - dehydration, electrolyte loss, weight loss

Local - pressure necrosis, perforation, peritonitis

61
Q

What is a linear foreign body?

A

String foreign body, lodges proximally, intestine plicates around string. Multiple adhesions and perforations can occur. Multiple enterotomies are required.

62
Q

What is intussusception?

A

Seen in young animals, spontaneous, possible link to worm burden or enteritis. Uncommon in mature animals. Usually secondary to other pathology such as masses, peritonitis. May cause complete or partial obstructions, acute or chronic presentations. Jejunocolic at ileocaecocolic junction common. Common at jejunocolic or ileocacocolic junction .

63
Q

What are the indications for colonic surgery and what special considerations are there?

A

Colonic biopsy, neoplasia, severe constipation (obstipation), foreign body removal rare. Gram negative anaerobes - highest bacterial flora. Perioperative antibiotics indicated. It has a linear blood supply, poor collateral circulation, take care not to cause colonic ischaemia.

64
Q

What is megacolon?

A

Large intestinal enlargement and hypo motility with severe constipation/obstipation. May be congenital or acquired - idiopathic, secondary to colonic obstruction, secondary to colonic inertia. Congenital - primary, or secondary (imperforate anus).

65
Q

what may cause secondary acquired megacolon?

A

Functional obstruction (acquired dysautonomias, neurological injury), intraluminal obstruction, mural obstruction, extraluminal obstruction. Intraluminal and mural may be - foreign body, neoplasia, stricture. Extraluminal may be - pelvic fracture with >50% narrowing, an intrapelvic mass such as prostatic disease, perineal neoplasia.

66
Q

What is feline idiopathic megacolon?

A

Commonest form of megacolon, an acquired disorder. uncertain aetiology - environment, stress, obesity, primary colonic inertia. Retained faeces becomes dry and impacted. Large faecoliths physically difficult to pass. Chronic stretching injury to colonic wall. Self perpetuating cycle. Prognosis for return to normal colonic function is poor. Must rehydrate and support patient. Evacuate colon. Dietary modifcation, laxatives, prokinetic agents.

67
Q

What is a colotomy?

A

of no long term benefit for megacolon. Colonic function is unlikely to return. It is an invasive short term measure that should not be recommended. Subtotal colectomy - remove 90-95% of colon. sucessful in cats. dogs do not tolerate this.

68
Q

what is large intestinal n eoplasia?

A

Common in dogs. Seen more in rectum> colon. Adenomatous polyps or adenocarcinoma.

69
Q

What are colorectal polyps?

A

Usually seen at anocutaenous junction, pedunculated, do not invade into submucosa. Local resection generally curative.

70
Q

What is colorectal adenocarcinoma?

A

Rectum commonest - form strictures. Annular (intramural) or intraluminal. May be extremely aggressive - poor prognosis. Medical treatment with piroxicam, surgical treatment - 3cm margins, rectal pull through.

71
Q

What is anal sac disease?

A

Anal sacculitis (impaction and infection) or anal sac abscess and rupture. Apocrine gland adenocarcinoma - 90% female, 50% metastasised by time of diagnosis. Cause pseudohyperparathyroidism, poor prognosis.

72
Q

What is rectal prolapse?

A

Secondary to causes of tenesmus. Should be treated as an emergency. Manual reduction or surgical management.

73
Q

What are the indications for liver surgery?

A

Hypoalbuminaemia, coagulopathy, metabolic disease e.g poor glucose metabolism, hypovolaemic.

74
Q

Why is antibiosis in liver surgery needed?

A

Anaerobic clostridial residual population may be in the liver. May proliferate in ischaemic liver tissue Perioperative antibiosis indicated.

75
Q

The portal vein supplies which organs?

A

stomach, intestines, spleen, pancreas.

76
Q

What is a portosystemic shunt?

A

Common congenital liver disease. Easily missed during evaluation of signs. Requires specialist assesment. An anomalous vessel enables portal blood to bypass the liver. Portal blood passes directly into the systemic circulation. Mostly extrahepatic in small breed dogs, intrahepatic in large breed dogs and either in cats.

77
Q

How is PSS diagnosed?

A

Signalment and clinical exam, history, liver dysfunction changes, high postprandial bile acids, ultrasound, portal venography, nuclear scintigraphy.

78
Q

What are the indications for surgery in the extrahepatic biliary tree?

A

Biliary obstruction as in pancreatitis, cholelith. Biliary trauma, proximal duodenal resections. May do cholecystectomy, choledochotomy, cholecystojejunosstomy. High morbidity and mortality, results influenced by experience.

79
Q

Why may splenic surgery be necessary?

A

For splenomegaly, splenectomy, siderotic plaques. Splenic biopsy, partial splenectomy, total splenectomy.

80
Q

Describe splenic anatomy

A

Left cranial quadrant. Parallel to greater curvature. In greater omentum. The splenic artery supplies the left limb of pancreas, splenic hilus, short gastric artery and left gastroepiploic artery.

81
Q

What must be done in a total splenectomy?

A

Double ligate, absorbable suture material, try to preserve short gastric vessels.

82
Q

What is splenic torsion?

A

Spontaneous torsion - rare, large breed dogs usually , usually present as acute abdomen. Vomiting, depression, abdominal distension, collapse. Torsion secondary to GDV - common. DDx symmetrical splenomegaly - phsyiological, infiltration, congestion.

83
Q

What are the most common splenic neoplasias?

A

Bleeding splenic masses - haemangiosarcoma, haemagioma, haematoma. Splenic haemangiosarcoma - very common, early metastases, right atrium may be involved, poor prognosis.

84
Q

What are the complications of splenic surgery?

A

Haemorrhage, arrythmias, recurrence.

85
Q

What are splenic haemangiomas and splenic haematomas?

A

Uncommon, clinically impossible to distinguish from the haemangiosarcoma. Total splenectomy advised. Haematomas are common and grossly impossible to distinguish from haemangiosarcoma. Total splenectomy advised.

86
Q

What are the common non bleeding splenic masses?

A

Haemangiosarcoma, haemangioma, haematoma, nodular hyperplasia, abscesses.

87
Q

What is a nephrectomy?

A

Uretero-nephrectomy - indications are for unilateral kidney disease, trauma to ureter or kidney. Contraindications are inadequate contralateral renal function.

88
Q

What are the congenital causes of urinary incontinence in dogs?

A

Ectopic ureters common

89
Q

What are the acquired causes of urinary incontinence in dogs?

A

Urge incontinence, sphincter mechanism incompetence, neurogenic incontinence.

90
Q

What is urge incontinence?

A

unsuppressible urination as bladder fills due to inflammation, reduced bladder volume, polyuria. May be due to cystitis, urolithiasis, neoplasia, systemic causes of polyuria.

91
Q

Describe sphincter mechanism incontinence

A

Post spay incontinence, hormone responsive incontinence, sphinter mechanism incompetence. Majority of patients are neutered female dogs. Respond to oestrogen supplementation. Many affected patients are obese. Weight control helps reduce the signs. Incidence of intrapelvic bladder is higher in dogs with SMI. Surgical re positioning of bladder neck can improve incontinence.

92
Q

What is Juvenile SMI?

A

Female entire bitches, before first oestrus, often associated with ectopic ureters, 50% resolve after first oestrus.

93
Q

What is acquired (adult onset) SMI?

A

Medium to large breed dogs, female neutered > entire, breed (OES, doberman, I stter, rottweiler), overweight, continent for most of the day, urine passively leaks when lying or sleeping, continuous dribbling of urine is uncommon. External genitalia may have urine drip/scalding. May do contrast studies to evaluate bladder and ureter positions and to exclude other causes of incontinence.

94
Q

What is the treatment of SMI?

A

Juvenile - 50% resolve after first oestrus, weight loss.
Adult - 1.medical therapy - oestrogens - oestriol (incurin) improves muscle contractility, increased a-drenergic responsiveness. a-Adrenergic agonist - phenylpropanolamine increases urethral smooth muscle tone. Weight loss and control urinary tract infection. 2. surgery - colposuspension - repositions bladder neck forwards, increases pressure at bladder neck. Anchor cranial vagina to prepubic tendon, repositions bladder neck in abdomen. Increases pressure on proximal urethra.

95
Q

What are ectopic ureters?

A

A congenital abnormality. The ureter bypasses the trigone, empties into urethra, vagina or uterus. May be unilateral or bilateral. May give hydroureter, hydronephrosis, UTI & pyelonephritis. Renal function likely to deteriorate over time. May be extramurall or intramural. Ectopic ureters can cause hypoplastic bladders, juvenile SMI + intrapelvic bladder, congenital renal anomalies. More common in females. typically incontinent since birth. Continual dribbling of urine.

96
Q

Describe ectopic ureter surgery?

A
  1. redirect urine flow into bladder. Neoureterostomy, ureteroneocystoostomy, ureteronephrectomy.