Soft tissue and bone Flashcards

1
Q

This 71-year-old female had a fall at home and fractured her left neck of femur. She was admitted to hospital, where she underwent an operation to fix the fracture. She developed a postoperative pneumonia and died a few days later. A few months earlier she had been admitted to hospital with a fractured humerus, which was put in a sling for stabilisation. On post-mortem examination she was also found to have a vertebral collapse fracture and a healing fracture of the humerus was confirmed (see specimen).

What is the most likely underlying condition rendering this patient susceptible to multiple fractures

A

osteoporosis

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2
Q

How would you diagnose osteoporosis during life?

A

Radiological assessment of bone mineral density. Osteoporosis is defined as a bone mineral density measurement of two standard deviations below the mean value for young adults of the same sex.

Osteoporosis is clinically asymptomatic until it presents with fractures and deformity.

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3
Q

Where are the common sites for osteoporosis fractures?

A
  • vertebral crush (collapse) fractures, which may result in loss of height and a stooping deformity
  • fractures of the neck of the femur
  • distal radius (Colle’s fracture).
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4
Q

What’s the term for a fracture in the distal radius?

A

Colles fracture

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5
Q

Risk factors for osteoporosis

A
  • elderly women (oestrogen deficiency is a key association)
  • steroid therapy and Cushing’s syndrome
  • immobility
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6
Q

Prevention of osteoporosis

A
  • oestrogen treatment in post-menopausal females (hormone replacement therapy)
  • bisphosphonates reduce bone reabsorption
  • regular exercise
  • dietary calcium also have beneficial effects
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7
Q

What is a pathological fracture ? Do you know any other (apart from osteoporosis) conditions predisposing to fractures?

A

A pathological fracture is a fracture of bone weakened by disease and may occur after relatively little trauma or even spontaneously.

  • tumours (e.g. metastatic bone deposits)
  • osteoporosis
  • osteomalacia
  • Paget’s disease.
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8
Q

What would cause moth-eaten areas in the cortex of the bone?

A

Inflammation causing bony destruction

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9
Q

What causes osteomyelitis?

A

Local infection:

  • penetrating trauma
  • open fracture
  • adjacent infection
  • post surgery)

Haematogenous spread of bacteria

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10
Q

What are the complications of osteomyelitis?

A

It can result in haematogenous spread of bacteria to other sites or local spread of infection, e.g. to include the joint cavity and cause a septic arthritis.

  • Septicaemia
  • septic arthritis
  • alteration in growth rate (particularly in infants with damage to the epiphyseal growth plate, and chronic osteomyelitis)
  • in adults, acute osteomyelitis may become chronic and very difficult to treat. There may be infectious exacerbations with abscesses and discharging sinuses. There may be secondary amyloidosis and occasionally a squamous cell carcinoma may arise from a chronic sinus..
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11
Q

What’s the most common causitive organism of osteomyelitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Patients with sickle cell disease are predisposed to develop Salmonella osteomyelitis.

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12
Q

What are the presenting features of acute osteomyelitis?

A

Typically the patient is unwell with a raised temperature and complains of severe pain and tenderness aggravated by any movement.

However, immunosuppressed patients frequently have few symptoms and signs.

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13
Q

How do you treat osteomyelitis?

A

If acute osteomyelitis is suspected blood cultures should be taken and large doses of intravenous antibiotics given immediately to avoid septicaemia. X-ray changes do not appear for several days and magnetic resonance imaging shows abnormal signal much earlier.

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14
Q

Which part of the bone does haematogenous osteomyelitis typically involve?

A

Typically the metaphysis of long bones is involved where dilated vascular sinusoids with sluggish blood flow provide an ideal site for multiplying bacteria. They pass into the marrow spaces and cause an acute inflammatory response. Pus spreads through the medullary cavity and the cortex. It may elevate the periosteum and form a subperiosteal abscess. It may tract into surrounding tissues and eventually reach the skin surface forming a chronic discharging sinus. Vascular thrombosis or compression leads to bone necrosis. Necrotic bone in osteomyelitis is known as sequestrum. Meanwhile cytokines activate osteoclasts causing bone destruction. Eventually, subperiosteal new bone may form an incomplete shell (involucrum) around the dead bone..

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15
Q

Where’s the metaphysis?

A

The metaphysis is the narrow portion of a long bone between the epiphysis and the diaphysis. It contains the growth plate, the part of the bone that grows during childhood and as it grows, it ossifies near the diaphysis and the epiphyses

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16
Q

Who gets osteomyelitis?

A

Acute haematogenous osteomyelitis classically affects children and adolescents. The primary focus may be a minor lesion elsewhere (e.g. a boil) but frequently no source is found.

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17
Q

What might a paget’s disease scull bone look like?

A

Marked thickening and prominent vascular grooves on the inner surface. The latter are due to enlarged blood vessels caused by an attempt to supply the large volume of very metabolically active bone, which is continuously remodelling.

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18
Q

What is the underlying pathology of Paget’s disease?

A

Paget’s disease is characterised by excessive turnover of bone with resulting disorganisation of the bony architecture. It may affect part or all of a bone, several or many bones.

The aetiology is uncertain.
There is a genetic predisposition and rarely single gene mutations may be causative (e.g. in the sequestosome 1 gene SQSTM1, which is also called P62).

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19
Q

Whic bones are most frequently affected by Paget’s disease?

A
  • vertebrae
  • pelvis
  • skull
  • femur
  • tibia
  • humerus
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20
Q

What are the clinical features of Paget’s disease?

A

A large number of patients with Paget’s disease may have no symptoms and the diagnosis is made incidentally on radiological imaging.

The most common complaints are bone pain and deformity. Even though the bone is thickened, it is structurally weak and may lead to bowing of long bones.
There may be frontal bossing due to thickening of the skull.

Pathological fractures may result from weakened bone:

  • Osteoarthritis may result from abnormal stresses across joints due to bone deformity.
  • Skull thickening may cause a narrowed exit foramen of the 8th cranial nerve and cause deafness.
  • Enlargement or collapse of vertebrae may manifest with spinal cord compression.
  • Rarely, patient’s with extensive Paget’s disease may develop high cardiac output failure due to increased blood flow through the affected bones.
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21
Q

Serious complication of Paget’s disease

A

Approximately 1% of patients develop a sarcoma arising in one of the bones affected, usually an osteosarcoma or a high grade undifferentiated sarcoma.

Common sites are the femur and humerus.

The prognosis is poor and many patients develop early pulmonary metastases.

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22
Q

What’s the diagnosis?

A humerus, the superior aspect of which is expanded by a tan / grey crumbly tumour. There is extensive infiltration of the central marrow cavity. Where the tumour bulges out it has destroyed some of the bone and extends into the overlying soft tissue.

A

osteosarcoma

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23
Q

What cell type forms an osteosarcoma?

A

malignant osteoid producing cells

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24
Q

What’s the most common malignant primary bone tumour?

A
  1. Myeloma

2. Osteosarcoma

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25
Q

Presentation of osteosarcoma

A
  • Most present in young patients between the ages of 5 to 25
  • persistent deep pain within a long bone
  • may be a palpable mass

In older patients, osteosarcomas are often secondary to Paget’s disease or previously irradiated bone.

They may be seen in patients with Li Fraumeni (P53 mutations) and familial retinoblastoma syndrome (RB mutations).They are highly malignant tumours showing rapid haematogenous dissemination, particularly to the lungs.

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26
Q

Treatment of osteosarcoma

A

Treatment involves surgery combined with pre- and postoperative chemotherapy.

Many patients are nowadays treated with local resection and insertion of prosthetic replacements as opposed to amputation (limb-sparing surgery).

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27
Q

Prognosis for patients with osteosarcoma

A

With modern chemotherapy 65% of patients survive for 5 years.

Osteosarcoma in Paget’s disease has a worse prognosis.

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28
Q

Randomly distributed well demarcated bright orange lesions in the spine

A

deposits composed of malignant plasma cells as part of multiple myeloma

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29
Q

Characteristic feature of MM on X ray

A

lytic lesions where bone has been destroyed

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30
Q

What’s a pepperpot skull?

A

Multiple lytic lesions in the skull (MM) viewed on X ray.

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31
Q

What are the clinical features of myeloma?

A
  • older patients (the mean age is 68)
  • symptoms may be grouped according to the three mechanisms by which myeloma affects the patient.

Firstly, there is bony destruction caused by the lesions, especially affecting the vertebral column, ribs and skull. This manifests in pain, pathological fractures and vertebral collapse.

Secondly, there is replacement of the bone marrow by tumour, which results in pancytopaenia and consequent immunosuppression, thrombocytopaenia and anaemia.

Thirdly, the neoplastic cells may secrete protein products (immunoglobulins), just likey their non-neoplastic counterparts. In almost all cases serum or urine monoclonal gammablobulin, the M component or paraprotein, can be detected (the majority is IgG). Monoclonal immunoglobulin light chain (Bence-Jones protein) is detectable in the urine in 75% of cases. If significantly raised it may precipitate in the renal tubules causing acute renal failure. In some cases the protein may precipitate in the tissues as AL amyloid causing so-called primary (AL) amyloidosis. Hyperviscosity syndromes may also occur.

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32
Q

What is AL amyloid?

A

Amyloid light-chain (AL) amyloidosis

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33
Q

Prognosis of MM

A

Despite treatment the prognosis of multiple myeloma is poor with a typical survival of 3-4 years from diagnosis.

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34
Q

What is a solitary plasmacytoma?

A

Solitary plasmacytoma refers to a tumour, which histologically is identical to myeloma in its composition of malignant plasma cells.

However, it is a solitary lesion and may occur in bone or at extraosseous sites. Radiotherapy can be curative in a significant proportion of patients. There is a risk of progression to myeloma in 50% of patients within 10 years of initial presentation.

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35
Q

Treatment of benign bone tumours

A

curettage

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36
Q

Treatment of malignant bone tumours

A

Resection and pre-operative chemo

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37
Q

Trabeculation associated with

A

benign tumours

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38
Q

Which cancers metastasise to bone?

A
Breast
Bronchus
Kidney
Thyroid
Prostate
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39
Q

Osteoblastic/osteosclerotic tumour that metastasises to the bone

A

Prostate

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40
Q

Osteolytic tumours

A

Bronchus, thyroid, kidney, myeloma

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41
Q

Benign bone tumours

A
Osteochondroma (35%)
Giant cell tumour (23%)
Chondroma/enchondroma (13%)
Osteoid osteoma (13%)
Chondroblastoma (5%)
Haemangioma (4%)
Osteoblastoma (3%)
42
Q

Malignant bone tumours

A
Myeloma (44%)
Osteosarcoma (20%)
Chondrosarcoma (12%)
Lymphoma (8%)
Ewing's sarcoma (6%)
43
Q

Benign tumour composed of mature (lamellar bone), occurring in skull and facial bones

A

Osteoma

44
Q

Presentation of osteoma

A
  • middle age

- multiple in Gardener’s syndrome (APC mutation and GI polyps)

45
Q

What’s the apendicular skeleton?

A

six major regions: Pectoral girdles (4 bones) - Left and right clavicle (2) and scapula (2). Arms and forearms (6 bones) - Left and right humerus (2) (arm), ulna (2) and radius (2) (forearm).

46
Q

Children and young adults, nocturnal pain relieved by aspirin

A

Osteoid osteoma

Excess PGE2 1000x

47
Q

Children and young adults, well circumscribed nidus <2cm with central lucency, cortex of bones (50% in femur/tibia)

A

Osteoid osteoma

48
Q

Children and young adults, well circumscribed nidus >2cm with central lucency, occurs in spine, unresponsive to aspirin

A

Osteoblastoma

49
Q

Bimodal age distribution, risk factors: Paget’s disease, radiotherapy, bone infarction, usually located at metaphyses particularly around knee.

A

Osteosarcoma

50
Q

Age distribution of osteosarcoma

A

60% occur <25 years

30% occur >40 years

51
Q

Subtypes of osteosarcoma

A

Osteoblastic
Chondroblastic
Fibroblastic

52
Q

Prognosis of osteosarcoma

A

Local tumours: 5 yr survival approx 70%
Metastatic: 5 yr survival 15-30%

Key prognostic factor is response to pre-operative chemo
> 90% necrosis of tumour= good prognosis
< 90% necrosis of tumour = bad prognosis

53
Q

Associated with p53 and RB1 gene abnormalities

A

Osteosarcoma

54
Q

What age group is Paget’s disease rarely seen in?

A

People under 40

55
Q

What bone disorder has the symptoms of deep achy bone pain that is sometimes worse at night?

A

Paget’s disease

56
Q

What disease develops in boys aged 10-15 from repetitive, excessive pulling of pateller ligament on tibial tuberosity

A

Osgood Schlatter’s disease

57
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Fragile bone disorder of impaired collagen synthesis

58
Q

What disease happens commonly to boys aged 5-10 caused by poor blood supply to the upper growth plate of the femur?

A

Legg Calve Perthes disease

59
Q

What minerals does vitamin D help the body to absorb?

A

Calcium and phosphorus

60
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Vitamin D deficiency in adults

61
Q

What is the first sign of calcium deficiency in infants and children?

A

Muscle spasm

62
Q

What causes senile osteoporosis?

A

Age related calcium/vitamin D deficiency

63
Q

What is the common first symptom of osteoporosis?

A

Fracture or bone collapse

64
Q

What causes a dowager’s hump?

A

Abnormal curvature of the spine due to crushed vertebra

65
Q

What age do bones stop increasing in density?

A

30

66
Q

What bone disorder has the symptoms of persistent back pain not relieved by movement, rest, heat applications or analgesics?

A

Osteomylitis of the spine

67
Q

What is a plasmacytoma?

A

Myeloma that only affects one bone

68
Q

What bone cancer affects males 10-20 years of age

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

69
Q

What primary symptoms does Ewing’s sarcoma present with?

A

Pain, warm, enlarging swelling

70
Q

What tumor of long bones affects near the ends of them?

A

Chondromyxoid fibromas

71
Q

What tumour is relieved by anti inflammatories and can cause muscle atrophy?

A

Osteiod osteoma

72
Q

Where do you commonly find osteiod osteomas?

A

Apendicular skeleton (50% in femur/tibia)

73
Q

What age group do chondromyxoid fibromas commonly affect?

A

Under 30s

74
Q

Chondromas affect what part of the bone?

A

Center of bone

75
Q

Most common benign bone tumour

A

Osteochondroma

76
Q

First 3 decades, can present after trauma, occur on bone surface located typically in the metaphyseal region of the distal femur, proximal fibula and tibia and proximal humerus

A

Osteochondroma

77
Q

Medullary bone lined by a cap of cartilage

A

osteochondroma

78
Q

2nd-4th decade of life, located in medullary bone, 50% occuring in the small bones of the hands and feet

A

Chondroma/enchondroma

79
Q

Palpable swelling +/- pain, < 3cm, lobules of hyaline cartilage in the medullary cavity

A

Chondroma/enchondroma

80
Q

Term for multiple enchondromas

A

Enchondromatosis

81
Q

Multiple enchondroms appearing in childhood with widespread skeletal involvement

A

Ollier Disease

82
Q

Combines the features of Ollier diesease with angiomas of the soft tissue. Risk of malignant transformation to low grade chondrosarcoma is 25-30%, IDH mutations

A

Maffucci syndrome

83
Q

Affects epiphyses of skeletally immature patients particularly around the knee. Often painful as associated with joint effusions

A

Chondroblastoma

84
Q

Lacy hyaline cartilage showing a chicken wire pattern of calcification. 75% involve the long bones (femur and tibia)

A

Chondroblastoma

85
Q

Rare. Young people. Metaphysis of long bones (proximal tibia and distal femur). Can be mistaken for sarcoma

A

Chondromyxoid fibroma

86
Q

Third most common primary malignancy of bone

A

Chondrosarcoma

87
Q

> 50 years, 15% transform form endochondromas, central skeleton particularly pelvis, shoulder and ribs

A

Chondrosarcoma

88
Q

Sharply demarcated radiolucency with rim of sclerosis, probably a developmental abnormality. Very common (up to 40% of children under 2 years)

A

Fibroma

89
Q

Histology Chinese letters, GNAS mutations (raised levels of cAMP), craniofacial skeleton, ribs and limbs. Severe facial abnormalities

A

Fibrous dysplasia

90
Q

Types of fibrous dysplasia

A

Monostotic- affecting single bone
Polyostotic- affecting several bones +/- endocrine abnormalities (McCune Albright syndrome: precocious puberty + fibrous dysplasia + cafe au lait spots)

91
Q

Round cell tumours

A
Ewing's sarcoma/PNET
Lymphoma/myeloma
Small cell osteosarcoma
Mesenchymal chondrosarcoma
Metastatic rhabdomyosarcoma
Metastatic neuroblastoma (< 5 yrs)
92
Q

PNET

A

Peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumour

93
Q

Bones affected in Ewing’s sarcoma

A

Diaphyseal intramedullary tumours in long bones more than pelvis and ribs

94
Q

Destructive lytic lesion with extension into surrounding soft tissue, t(11;22), diagnosed with breakapart probe FISH

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

95
Q

Prognosis of Ewing’s sarcoma

A

5 yr survival: 70% (25% if metastatic disease)

  • Anatomical location: best- distal extremities, worst pelvis/central sites
  • Tumour size: larger tumours tend to occur in unfavourable sites
96
Q

Differential diagnosis for round cell tumours in children

A

ALL
Small cell osteosarcoma
PNET
Metastatic neuroblastoma

97
Q

Differential diagnosis for round cell tumours in adults

A

Myeloma
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
Metastatic small cell ccarcinoma

98
Q

Giant cell rich tumours

A

Giant cell tumour
Aneurysmal bone cyst
Brown’s tumour of hyperparathyroidism
Giant cell rich osteosarcoma

99
Q

What should you check for giant cell rich tumours?

A

PTH levels

100
Q

Benign but locally aggressive, 20-45 years, epiphyseal, intramedullary masses comprising neoplastic mononuclear cells and tumerous reactive giant cells, high recurrence.

A

Giant cell tumour

101
Q

Benign multiloculated cystic lesion, first 2 decades of life, metaphyseal, intramedullary masses, low recurrence, soap bubbles on X ray

A

ABC Aneurysmal bone cyst

102
Q

Xray shows perioste
elevation, “Codman’s triangle”. Can be osteoblastic or chondroblastic. Histology shows atypical mitotic figures and pink lace-like osteoid.

A

Osteosarcoma