Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SocPop > SocPop > Flashcards

SocPop Flashcards

1
Q

In what 3 ways can ‘normality’ be decided?

A

Statistical basis

Optimal health

Social (normative) basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Outline the statistical basis of normality

A

Normal is the usual or average

Normal (Gaussian) distribution - 95% of population should be within 2 standard deviations of the mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Outline the optimal health basis of normality

A

Normal value is determined by what is required for optimal health

e.g. BMI

It is a change from the person’s normal values that is most reliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Outline the social normality basis of normality

A

Normality is what society finds acceptable or desirable

Influenced by culture and time - wide variety across cultures etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define disease

A

A pathological process confirmed by signs and investigations

Deviation from the biological norm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define illness

A

A subjective experience or ‘feelings’

Personal

May be experienced in the absence of pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define sickness

A

A social role adopted or assigned to people perceived to be ill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is health?

WHO

A

A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Discuss the medical model of health

A

Health is the absence of disease

Causes of ill health can be identified by signs and symptoms and diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List some limitations to the medical model of health

A

Doesn’t take into account multi-causal factors that influence biological functioning

Doesn’t explain chronic/long term condition - not as simple as ‘curing’

Places the power in the medical profession rather than individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Discuss the social model of health

A

Ill health and disease are caused by social and psychological factors

Income
Place in society
Gender 
Employment 
Education
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List some benefits of adopting a social model of health

A

Takes into account lay beliefs

Places people at the center and recognises autonomy

Recognises that a person can have a disease and still consider themselves healthy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What charge can be brought against Drs if they undertake a procedure without informed, valid consent?

A

Battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Is a written consent form proof of valid consent?

A

No - it is only supporting evidence.

A signed consent form is not valid consent if the patient lacked capacity, lacked information, or didn’t give information voluntarily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 2 types of consent?

A

Implicit

Explicit - written, verbal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What documents are available to guide Drs on consent?

A

GMC guidance on consent

DoH reference guide to consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What 3 things does valid consent require?

A

Competence/capacity

Information

Voluntariness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is a person’s capacity assessed when it comes to decision making?

A

It must be based on their ability to make a specific decision at the time it needs to be made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A person is unable to make a decision if they cannot do one or more of the following:

(Capacity)

A

Understand the information given to them

Retain the information long enough to make the decision

Weigh up the information

Communicate their decision (by any means)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why is information an important part of consent?

What should be considered when giving information?

A

Because it is a legal requirement of consent

Patients needs, wishes, existing knowledge, complexity of treatment and associated risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the voluntary aspect of consent

A

Consent should be given without coercion

Patients should be free of any outside influence when making their decisions

Explicit/implicit coercion
Patient/Dr relationship
Family pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who should take consent?

A

Should be yourself or delegate to someone who:

  • is trained and qualified
  • has knowledge of investigation, treatment, and risks
  • acts in accordance with GMC guidance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

List some potential obstacles to informed consent

A

Poor information/time pressure during information provision

Being rushed into making a decision

Being pressured into making a decision by 3rd parties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the GMC say about consent in emergency situations?

A

You can treat a patient without consent (if they are unable to consent) provided treatment is immediately necessary to save life or prevent serious deterioration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 4 principles of person-centred care?

A

Care is personalised

Care is coordinated

Care in enabling

Person is treated with dignity, compassion and respect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Personalised care involves…..

A

A whole person approach

Putting the patient’s needs and preferences, as they define them, first

Tailoring therapeutic plans and services to a patient’s needs and desires

Seeing the patient as a person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Enabling care involves…..

A

Shared decision making

Recognising the patient’s strengths in self-management

Supporting self-management

Patient and public involvement in the design and delivery of services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Coordinated care involves…..

A

Coordination across episodes over time

Integration between health and social services

Across primary, secondary and tertiary care

Through transitions e.g. child to adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which legal outline tells doctors to work in a person-centred way?

What does it outline?

A

GMC Duties of a Doctor 2013

Make the care of your patient your first concern

Treat patients as individuals and respect their dignity

Work in partnership with patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does the GMC guidance outline in terms of professional values and person centred care?

A

Listen to patients, respect their views

Discuss diagnosis, prognosis, treatment, care

Share information with patients so they can make a decision

Maximise patient’s opportunities and ability to make decisions

Respect patient’s decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

List 5 ethical principles and values to consider when providing person centred care, and through all practice

A

Respect

Autonomy

Dignity

Care

Consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Define respect

A

Due regard for the feelings, wishes, or rights of others

Recognising the moral value of a person as an autonomous being

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Define autonomy

A

Individual autonomy is an idea that is generally understood to refer to the capacity to be one’s own person, to live one’s life according to reasons and motives that are taken as one’s own and not the product of manipulative or distorting external forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define dignity

A

A state, quality or manner worthy of esteem or respect; and (by extension) self-respect. Dignity in care, therefore, means the kind of care, in any setting, which supports and promotes, and does not undermine, a person’s self-respect regardless of any difference. Or, as one person receiving care put it more briefly, ‘Being treated like I was somebody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define care

A

Beneficence

Best interests

An ethic of care

Treat the condition, care for the person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define consequences

-in terms of patient centred care

A

Best overall outcome (totalitarianism)

Likely to lead to better outcomes, fewer complaints, less risk of litigation, increased trust in the medical profession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Outline the Calgary Cambridge guide to consultations

A

Five tasks

  • commencing the consultation
  • gathering information
  • physical examination
  • explanation and planning
  • closing the consultation

Two functions

  • building the relationship
  • providing structure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is ethics?

A

How one ought to act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are facts?

A

Claims about the world that have been, or can be in principle, verified by empirical methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are values?

A

Claims about, or expressions of, things like preferences, attitudes, emotions, aesthetic appreciation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are thick concepts?

A

Claims that have both factual and evaluative content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the 3 most popular moral theories in healthcare?

A

Consequentialism/utilitarianism

Deontology

Virtue ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is consequentialism?

What is a drawback to it?

A

Theories that assess the moral values of anything in terms of that thing’s outcomes or impact upon the world

The theory only bases its worth on outcomes, not the process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is utilitarianism?

A

Aims for the best balance between benefit and harm

This makes for the most effective use of resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Consequentialist theories need provide/defend:

A

An account of the relevant good

An account and method of quantification (who counts?)

An explanation of how rightness is to be determined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is deontology?

A

Rules govern actions and we have a duty to abide by them regardless of cost

“The right is prior to the good”

Has less emphasis on outcomes (consequentialism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which moral theory seeks to respect autonomy?

A

Deontology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are virtue ethics?

A

Focuses on the character of the person, not their actions

A right act is the action a virtuous person would do in the same circumstances

Not ‘what should I do’ but ‘what kind of person should I be?’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the 3 P’s of ethical reasoning in clinical practice?

Why is this important

A

Principles

Particulars - contents, facts

Perspectives

USE THIS WHEN ANALYSING ETHICAL QUESTIONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the Refern Report?

A

Investigation following the retention of organs from deceased children in Alder Hey Hospital, kept without knowledge or consent of parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Outline the Human Tissue Act 2004

Is this the same for the whole of the UK?

A

HTAct regulates the removal, storage and use of human tissue in England, Wales and Northern Ireland

Human Tissue (Scotland) Act (2006) applies in Scotland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the 3 principle functions of the HTAct (2004)?

A

To issues Codes of Practice

To issue licences and inspect establishment

To approve living organ and bone marrow donations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which codes of practice from the HTAct (2004) are relevant to medical education?

A

Code A

Code C - anatomical examination

Code E

54
Q

What are the four principles the HTAct (2004) is founded on?

A

Consent

Dignity

Quality

Honesty and openness

55
Q

Which section of the HTAct makes it an offence to undertake scheduled activities without appropriate consent?

A

Section 5

56
Q

What does the HTAct outline about donation of bodies?

A

Donation of whole bodies for anatomical examination needs appropriate valid consent

Providing the death has been properly certified and registered

57
Q

Describe ‘appropriate consent’ in terms of body donation for anatomical examination

A

Can only be given by the individuals who choose to donate their body

Nobody else can give this consent

Must be written consent (section 3) signed in the presence of one witness

Or contained within a will of the concerned person

58
Q

What 3 things can a donated body be used for?

A

Anatomical examination - teaching to healthcare professionals

Research - scientific studies

Education and training - training of healthcare professionals e.g. surgical techniques

59
Q

Describe consent for deceased donations of tissue

A

Relatives can give consent for donation of tissue

60
Q

Describe criminal law

A

Offences against (usually) individuals brought about on behalf of the Crown

Standard of proof = beyond reasonable doubt

Remedy = punishment

61
Q

Describe civil law

A

Protects rights of individuals against each other/state

Claimant sues defendent

Standard of proof = balance of probabilities

Remedy = damages or injunction

62
Q

What are the 3 elements of any negligence action under civil law?

A

Duty of care

Breach of the duty

Breaches causes injury or loss

63
Q

What is prevalence?

A

A measure of how common a disease is

64
Q

How can prevalence be expressed?

A

Percentage

Number per n people

65
Q

List the 3 types of prevalence

A

Point prevalence

Period prevalence

Lifetime prevalence

66
Q

Describe point prevalence

A

Proportion with the condition in a single point in time

67
Q

Describe period prevalence

A

Proportion with the condition at any point within a specified time period

68
Q

Describe lifetime prevalence

A

Proportion of population with the condition at any point in their life

69
Q

Outline the use of prevalence and its limitation

A

Used to gauge the burden of disease

Prevalence can be affected by disease duration. Many people may have disease but not at that point in time, can get missed

70
Q

Define incidence

A

The rate at which new events occur in a population, over a defined period of time

71
Q

How can incidence be expressed?

A

Per n people per time period

Per n person-years

72
Q

How do you calculate person-years

A

Number of people X number of years

73
Q

How do you calculate incidence?

A

Number of new cases of disease
OVER
Total number of people X years observed

X 1000

74
Q

How do you calculate prevalence?

A

Number of people with disease
OVER
Total number of people

x100,000

75
Q

What type of disease would have high incidence and high prevalence

A

Common not brief condition

e.g. common cold

76
Q

What type of disease would have high incidence and low prevalence

A

Common very brief condition

e.g. nose bleed

77
Q

What type of disease would have low incidence and high prevalence

A

Uncommon long-term condition

e.g. T2DM

78
Q

What type of disease would have low incidence and low prevalence

A

Uncommon short-term condition

e.g. pancreatic cancer

79
Q

List some factors affecting prevalence

A

Incidence rate

Recovery rate

Death rate

Migration rate

80
Q

What is statistical inference?

A

Taking a sample of a population to study and from the results of this form a conclusion about the whole population

81
Q

What is a sampling error?

A

The difference between the sample point estimates and the truth

82
Q

How can you eliminate or reduce sampling errors?

A

Test the whole population (rarely feasible)

Test a larger sample size

83
Q

What is the standard error?

A

A numerical value that represents the sampling error

The larger the sample, the smaller the SE will be

84
Q

Where should a 95% confidence interval sit?

A

It should include all values within 1.96 standard errors of the point of the estimate

85
Q

How do you calculate confidence intervals?

A

Lower bound = point estimate - (1.96 X S.E.)

Upper bound = point estimate + (1.96 X S.E.)

86
Q

List the 3 steps to working out confidence intervals

A

Calculate point prevalence

Calculate standard errors (using the square root p formula given)

Calculate CI
PP +/- (1.96 X S.E.)

87
Q

What is demography?

A

The study of the size, structure, dispersement, and development of human populations

88
Q

Describe a population census

A

Describes households and people

ONS England in Wales.

Every 10 years

98% of population information

89
Q

What data is collected in UK census?

A

Demographic - Age, sex

Cultural characteristics -
Ethnicity, religion

Material deprivation - employment, home ownership, car access, lone parents

Health - general, long-term illness, unpaid care

Workplace and journey to work

90
Q

How would you assess the quality of health information (acronym)?

A

Completeness

Accuracy

Representativeness / relevance

Timeliness

(Accessibility)

91
Q

CART strengths of the UK census

A

Completeness - 98%

Accuracy - check of forms, coverage and quality surveys

Representative - data available for different levels (groups of 200 people to entire country)

Access - online

92
Q

CART weakness of the UK census

A

Completeness - low enumeration of some groups

Accuracy - self-reported (Jedi)

Representative - low enumeration of some groups

Timeliness - 10 years, takes time for release

Access - individual returns confidential for 100 years

93
Q

Why is data collected from the UK census of value to health workers?

A

Population size and structure - establish service needs

Base population - rates of growth

Measures of material deprivation - identify and target inequalities

94
Q

Outline the process of birth registration

A

By parents (within 42 days)

OR

Birth notification by attendant (midwife) within 36 hours

Goes to the local registrar for births, marriages and deaths

Goes to the ONS - birth statistics

95
Q

Outline 3 measures of fertility

A

Crude birth rate - live births/1000 people

General fertility rate - live births/1000 women aged 15-44yrs

Total fertility rate - number of children born per woman per lifetime in accordance with current fertility rates

96
Q

What is a limitation of crude birth rate?

A

Per 1000 people

Includes males, children, and post-menopausal women

97
Q

What is a limitation of the general fertility rate?

A

Doesn’t take into account variation of fertility with age

98
Q

What is a pro of the total fertility rate?

A

Does take into account differing fertility rates within age groups

99
Q

List 3 things the total fertility rate is affected by

A

Delay in childbearing to older ages

Lower completed family size

Population structure

100
Q

Outline the process of death registration

A

Medical certificate of cause of death issued by doctor

OR

Referral to coroner: coroner’s certificate

Goes to death registration - local registrar for births, marriages and deaths

Goes to ONS - mortality statistics

101
Q

What is the underlying cause of death?

Where is this used?

A

The disease or injury which initiated the train of morbid events leading directly to death

OR

the circumstances of the accident or violence which produced the fatal injury

Used in mortality statistics

102
Q

Using this example, what is 1a, 1b and 1c on the medical death certificate?

A patient with primary squamous cell carcinoma of the lung died from an intracerebral haemorrhage, which was caused by cerebral metastases from the primary

A

1a - intracerebral haemorrhage

1b - cerebral mets

1c - squamous cells carcinoma

103
Q

What are the 5 main broad disease groups?

A

Cancer

CV diseases

RS diseases

Mental and behavioural disorders

CNS diseases

104
Q

What was the highest cause of death in England and Wales in 2015 out of the 5 main broad disease groups?

A

Dementia and Alzheimer’s disease

105
Q

List 2 strengths of mortality data

A

Complete coverage in UK (births as well)

Important information on health of the population

106
Q

List 3 weakness of mortality data

A

Accuracy - underlying cause subject to diagnostic uncertainty, variable quality

Ethnicity not collected

Derivation of socio-economic status - posthumous inflation of status

107
Q

Give 3 uses of population estimates and projections

A

Used for planning services and resource allocation

To understand what has been happening to the population

To make sense of present activity

To predict what is going to change

108
Q

Give 2 strengths of population estimates

A

More up to date than census

More accurate than projections

109
Q

Give 3 weaknesses of population estimates

A

Less reliable with time from census

Poor information on migration

Says nothing about the future

110
Q

How is the population estimate calculated

A

Census baseline + births - deaths +/- migration

Estimation of population size between census

111
Q

What is a population projection

A

Forecast future population size and structure

112
Q

What is a strength of population projections

A

Can be used for longer term planning

113
Q

Give 2 weaknesses of population projections

A

Less accurate the further ahead

Unforseen changes of past trends can invalidate projections

114
Q

Which 3 places can morbidity data be found?

A

Cancer registration system

NHS data

Notification of infectious diseases

115
Q

Describe the cancer registration system

What are its uses?

A

NAtional Cancer registration and Analysis Services: Public health England

Cancer diagnosis triggers registration

Uses:

  • monitoring cancer rates
  • evaluation and improvement of cancer treatment
  • evaluation of screening programmes
  • aiding cancer research
116
Q

List 2 strengths of cancer registration

A

Detailed information updated over time

Record linkage to cancer deaths (ONS)

117
Q

List 2 weakness of cancer registration

A

Expensive

Access is difficult due to confidentiality

118
Q

Give 2 sources of NHS data on morbidity

A

Hospital episode statistics

Quality and outcomes framework

119
Q

What data does hospital episode statistics collect?

A

All admissions, out-patient and A&E visits to NHS hospitals in England

personal information (e.g. age, gender)

clinical information - diagnoses and operations

administrative data (e.g. date of admission, discharge)

geographical information - where treated & lives

120
Q

Who uses information from hospital episodes statistics and what do they do with it?

A

Commissioning organisations

Provider organisations

Researchers

Look at:
Trends in NHS hospital activity

Supports local service planning

Health trends over time

Fair access to healthcare

121
Q

What are the 2 main data coding systems in HES?

A

ICD-10 - conditions treated or ivestigated

OPCS-4 - details of operations

122
Q

Give 3 strengths of hospital episode statistics

A

Completeness - covers all hospital activity

Accuracy - standard codes used

Representative - routine national data

123
Q

Give 1 weakness of hospital episode statistics

A

Accessibility - to individual data

124
Q

What information does quality and outcomes framework (QOF) data collect?

A

Primary care data from GP surgeries

Works on a point system , higher score leads to higher GP income

125
Q

Does QOF lead to improvement of health?

A

Improves information recording

Has a focus on process-based indicators, clinical outcomes are unclear

126
Q

List the CART strengths of QOF

A

Completeness - almost 100% from GPs

Representative - all population, surgery, CCG, national levels

Timeliness - annually

Access - QOF online

127
Q

List the CART weaknesses of QOF

A

Completeness - some GPs not involved

Accuracy - not sure about individual GPs

Representative - only aggregated data, no sex or age breakdown

Access - aggregated data only

128
Q

How many notifiable diseases are there in England and Wales?

A

31

129
Q

What what a Dr do if they suspect a notifiable disease?

A

Notify local health protection team (part of public health England)

PHE collates and produces trends each week

130
Q

What would a lab do if they identified a notifiable organism?

A

Notify public health England

PHE collates and produces trends each week

131
Q

Give 3 strengths of notification of infectious diseases

A

Timeliness - weekly report

Representative - routine national data

Linked to other data to improve accuracy

132
Q

Give 2 weaknesses of notification of infectious diseases

A

Poor/variable completeness of some diseases e.g. food poisoning

Accuracy - ?limited. Asked to notify ‘suspected’ cases. Increasing link with lab reports

SocPop (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions