Social science Flashcards

1
Q

What is autonomy

A

The right of a competent adult to make informed decisions about their own medical care. The individual must have capacity to make the relevant decision, have sufficient information to make the decision and do so voluntarily.

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2
Q

Define patient centred care

A
  • A way of thinking and doing things that sees the people using health and social services as equal partners in planning, developing and monitoring care to make sure it meets their needs.
  • This means putting people and their families at the centre of decisions and seeing them as experts, working alongside professionals to get the best outcome.
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3
Q

When is autonomy outweighed by other considerations

A
  • Compulsory treatment is provided under mental health legislation e.g. providing food for an anorexic patient that has refused it
  • If the conditions for autonomous decision making are not met
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4
Q

How is patient centred care personalised

A

It takes into considerations people’s desires, values, family situations, social circumstances and lifestyles to come to an agreement with the patient, rather than carrying out generic treatment to them

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5
Q

How should we proceed when the conditions of autonomous decision making are not met

A
  • If someone is being coerced (or suspected to be coerced) then good practice will involve spending time alone with the patient and exploring their views to confirm that the decision is genuinely theirs
  • If patient lacks capacity, the decision must be made on their behalf (parents of children, healthcare professionals or IMCA if adult lacks capacity)
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6
Q

How can patient centred care improve quality of care

A
  • Improving the experience people have of care and helping them to feel more satisfied
  • Encouraging people to lead a more healthy lifestyle
  • Encouraging people to be more involved in decisions about their care so they get services and support that are appropriate for their needs
  • Reduce how often people use services
  • Improving how confident and satisfied professionals themselves feel about the care provided
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7
Q

What are the guidelines surrounding autonomy in children

A
  • Young person of any age can give valid consent to treatment or examination provided they are considered competent to make the decision. Gillick competence
  • At 16, there is a presumption that the patient is competent to give valid consent
  • Where the child or young person lacks capacity, a person, or a local authority, with parental responsibility can give consent on the patient’s behalf.
  • A decision by a person under 18 to refuse treatment can in some circumstances be overridden - particularly if the young person’s life is at risk.
  • Doctors may still be able to provide treatment that is in his or her best interests but legal advice should be sought.
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8
Q

What do doctors have a duty to raise concerns about?

A

Where they believe that patient safety or care is being compromised by the practise of colleagues or the systems, policies and procedures in the organisation in which they work

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9
Q

Describe how to raise an etghical or clinical concern relating to a patient

A
  • Wherever possible, you should first raise your concern with you manager or an appropriate officer of the organisation that employs you e.g. consultant or medical director/practice partner
  • If your concern is about a partner, it may be appropriate to raise it outside the practice e.g. the clinical governance lead responsible for you organisation
  • DATIX is an online database used to report unsafe acts, near misses and minor injuries
  • Lost time injuries and fatalities are reported via serious incident requiring investigations/serious untoward incident reports
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10
Q

What does a datix report involve

A

A first person account of what had happened that should then be reflected upon and discussed with an educational supervisor

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11
Q

What does a serious incident requiring investigation/serious untoward incident report involve?

A
  • Completing an incident form
  • Ensuring notes are completed accurately, be clear about when you are writing and when the events took place
  • Taking part in the debrief with the team involved
  • Discussing the event with your educational supervisor
  • If requested, writing a formal statement that should be reflective
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12
Q

What are never events

A

An event that happens that should never happen i.e. operating on the wrong patient, DKA during admission, wring organ/limb etc

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13
Q

What is the duty of candour

A
  • Duty to be open, transparent and have candour.
  • Openness - enabling concerns and complaints to be raised freely without fear and questions asked to be answered
  • Transparency - allowing information about the truth about performance and outcomes to be shared with staff, patients, the public and regulators
  • Candour - any patient harmed by a provision of a healthcare service is informed of the fact and an appropriate remedy offered, regardless of whether a complaint has been made or a question asked.
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14
Q

Ways to reduce errors

A
  • Standardise common processes and procedures
  • Routinely use checklists
  • Avoid reliance on memory
  • Review and simplify processes
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15
Q

Surgical checklist: questions to ask before the induction of anaesthesia

A
  • Has the patient confirmed his/her identity, site procedure and consent
  • Is the site marked
  • Is the anaesthesia machine and medication check complete
  • Is the pulse oximeter on the patient and functioning
  • Does the patient have a known allergy
  • Does the patient have a difficult airway or aspiration risk
  • Risk of >500ml blood loss (7ml/kg in children)
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16
Q

Surgical checklist: questions to ask before skin incision

A
  • Confirm all team members have introduced themselves by name and role
  • Confirm the patients name, procedure and where the incision will be made
  • Has antibiotic prophylaxis been given with the last 60 minutes
  • To surgeon: what are the critical or non-routine steps? How long will the case take? What is the anticipated blood loss?
  • To anaesthetist: are there any patient specific concerns?
  • To nursing team: has sterility (including indicator results) been confirmed? Are there equipment issues or any concerns?
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17
Q

Surgical checklist: before the patient leaves the operating theatre- the nurse verbally confirms

A
  • The name of the procedure
  • Completion of instrument, sponge and needle count
  • Specimen labelling (read specimen labels aloud, including patient name)
  • Whether there are any equipment problems to be addressed
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18
Q

What drugs are given as part of the alcohol withdrawal pathway (CIWA)

A

Chlordiazepoxide - relieves anxiety & agitation
Haloperidol - treat hallucinations
Pabrinex - vit B and C replacement, mainly B1
Thiamine - B1 replacement

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19
Q

What score is used to rate the severity of alcohol withdrawal

A

CIWA-AR

takes into account BP, N/V, tremor, sweats, anxiety, agitated, tactile distortion, auditory distortion, visual distortion, and clouding sensation

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20
Q

Main issues in refeeding syndrome

A

Hypophosphatemia
Hypokalaemia
Hypomagnasaemia
Also abnormal sodium and fluid balance, changes in glucose, protein, and fat metabolism, and thiamine deficiency

Mg needs to be replaced first in patients at risk of refeeding

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21
Q

What should the initial O2 treatment be for a patient with slightly reduced sats

A

Nasal cannulae at 2-6 L/min or simple face mask at 5-10 L/min

In an A->E, ask for a 15L/min non-rebreathe mask.

22
Q

Signs of CO2 retention

A

Drowsiness, headache, flushed face and flapping tremore

23
Q

Simple infection vs sepsis vs septic shock

A

Simple infection: normal, beneficial host response e.g. moderately increased HR, temp, or WC but otherwise well.

Sepsis is a dysregulated host response:- Evidence of organ dysfunction (i.e. lactate >2 or new AKI or 1+ of the high risk indicators above)

Septic shock is:
- Dysregulated host response
- With persisting hypotension OR lactate >2 despite 3 L IV fluids (or 30 mL/kg)

24
Q

NICE high risk indicators for sepsis

A
  1. Objective evidence of new altered mental state
  2. RR >= 25 or new need for oxygen
  3. HR >= 130
  4. SBP <90 or 40% below normal
  5. Urine output <0.5 mL/kg/h or anuria for 18h
  6. Ashen or mottled skin or purpuric rash
  7. Cyanosis (skin, lips, or tongue)
25
Q

Cardiovascular effects of sepsis

A
  • Vasodilatation < inflammatory mediators
  • 3rd spacing < inflammatory mediators
  • Myocardial dysfunction < inflammatory mediators
  • Impaired vasopressin production: (aka ADH) -> all of these add up to hypotension, one of the cardinal signs of sepsis.
26
Q

Why is gut absorption decreased in septic patients

A

Oedema in the gut wall impairs absorption (3rd spacing)

27
Q

What causes septic encephalopathy

A

Inflammation -> BBB compromise -> bacterial toxins and cytokines cross the BBB
Also hypoxia and hypoperfusion

28
Q

How many breaths should you give per minute with a bag-valve mask

A

10

29
Q

What can be used to wean patients off respiratory support in ICU

A

Tracheostomy

30
Q

What vital sign is the most sensitive indicator of a sick patient

A

RR

31
Q

Mirizzi syndrome

A

Common hepatic duct obstruction caused by extrinsic compression from an impacted stone in the cystic duct or infundibulum of the gallbladder

Jaundice, RUQ pain, fever

32
Q

What is a moderate increas in treatment

A

An unplanned return to surgery, unplanned readmission, a prolonged episode of care, extra time in hospital or as an outpatient, cancelling of treatment, or transfer to another treatment area (such as intensive care)

33
Q

Pre-operative examinations and investigations

A
  • Full PMH, PSH, Past anaesthetic H
  • DH and Ax
  • FH and SH

Investigations

  • Full bloods and U&Es, incl. BM
  • Crossmatch, G&S- add other bloods PRN
  • CXR if: CV/resp disease, relevant pathology, >65.
  • ECG if: >55, poor exercise tolerance, CVD, HTN, very major surgeries. In reality done most of the time.
  • Consider pregnancy tests in all females
  • Sickle cell and urinalysis may be added.
  • As with inpatients, all patients should have MRSA swabs performed.
  • Anaesthetists add an airway examination.
  • ASA, DM risk score, consider Cardio Pulmonary Exercise Testing (CPET)
34
Q

VTE risk assessment

A

If VTE risk > bleeding risk, give a LMWH e.g. dalteparin, enoxaparin (use the BNF to prescribe).

If bleeding risk > VTE risk, consider mechanical VTE prophylaxis.

  • Static systems: graduated compression stockings (or elastic stockings or anti-embolism stockings)
  • Dynamic systems: intermittent pneumatic compression and venous foot pump.
35
Q

Issues/risks around positioning the patient during surgery

A

Issues around positioning - access, available staff to move patient, available equipment to move patient
Risks - air embolism, skin injury, DVT, pressure sores (consider padding), sliding and shearing

36
Q

Step down care

A

Composite term used for supportive and rehabilitative healthcare given to a patient recuperating from an illness or intervention, who is regaining autonomy.

37
Q

Critical care outreach team

A

Offer intensive care skills to patients with, or at risk of, critical illness receiving care in locations outside the ICU - e.g. on ordinary wards. The main role of a CCOT is to ID and institute treatment in patients who are deteriorating within the hospital but outside of the ICU and either help to prevent admission to ICU or ensure that admission to a critical care bed happens in a timely manner to ensure best outcome. Other potential benefits include enabling discharges from ICU by supporting the continuing recovery of discharged patients on wards. Ward staff education is a third important role.

38
Q

Normal urine production

A

1-2 mL/kg/h; and also a patient should be urinating at least every 6h

39
Q

The basic steps of wound care

A
  • Haemostasis – stop the bleeding. Pressure, elevation, tourniquet, suturing.
  • Clean the wound – disinfect, decontaminate, debride, irrigate, abx.
  • Analgesia – local anaesthetic e.g. lidocaine, with systemic analgesia e.g. paracetamol.
  • Skin closure – skin adhesive strips, tissue adhesive glue, sutures, staples.
  • Dressing – non-adherent layer (e.g. saline-soaked gauze), then absorbent layer, then soft gauze tape. Tetanus prophylaxis.
  • Follow-up advice – seek medical attention if signs of infection, simple analgesia, keep wound dry.
  • Remove sutures/strips/dressings after about 10-14 d.
40
Q

Sterile vs aseptic

A

Sterile (complete absence of micro-organisms) vs aseptic (prevent contamination with pathogenic micro-organisms)

Sterilisation is the act of making something microorganism free
Aseptic techniques are taking precautions and doing things to maintain the sterility of
something

41
Q

Bradens score

A

Pressure score risk assessment
1. Sensory perception
2. Mobility (ability to change own position)
3. Nutrition
4. Moisture
5. Friction and shear
6. Activity
15+ = low risk | 13-14 = moderate risk | 12 or less = high risk | below 9 = severe risk
Limitations: Does not consider pre-existing or previous pressure ulceration.

42
Q

Amiodarone indications

A

V fib
Pulseless VT
Unstable VT in patients refractory to other therapies

43
Q

Adenosine indications

A

SVT and Wolff parkinson white

44
Q

Atropine indications

A

Symptomatic bradycardia
Organophosphate poisoning
VT

45
Q

Calcium chloride indications

A

Hypocalcaemic tetany, cardiac resus, arrhythmias, hypermagnesaemia, CCB overdose, and beta blocker overdose
- Calcium gluconate is an alternative

46
Q

Hydrocortisone indications

A
  1. Moderate or severe asthma
  2. Acute exacerbation of COPD
  3. Severe allergic reaction
  4. Symptomatic adrenal insufficiency
  5. Distributive shock
47
Q

Lipid emulsion indications

A

Management and treatment of local anaesthetic toxicity

48
Q

Magnesium sulphate indications

A

Vfib/Vtach with suspected hypomagnesemia
Torsades de Pointes
Digitalis toxicity
AMI w/ hypomagnesemia
Severe bronchospasm
TCA OD
Eclampsia

49
Q

Midazolam indications

A

Status epilepticus, occasionally sedation (but not as much in an emergency setting)

50
Q

Naloxene and potassium chloride indications

A

Naloxene- opioid OD/ opioid deppression
Potassium chloride- Hypokalaemia

51
Q

Sodium bicarbonate indications

A

Severe metabolic acidosis, TCA-aspirin-phenobarbital OD, and more

52
Q

Maximum potassium that can be given

A

Max 40 mmol in one liter
Max 10 mmol per hour