SOBs Flashcards

1
Q

Differentiate between articles 2, 7, 15, and 31 of the UCMJ

A

Art 2: subject persons
Art 7: apprehension
Art 15: commanding officers non-judicial punishment
Art 31: no compulsory self incrimination

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2
Q

Describe the need for a separate legal system for the military

A
•	Global/deployable
•	Crimes unique to the military
o	Adultery
o	AWOL
o	Conduct unbecoming
o	Fraudulent enlistment
o	Disrespect superior
o	Disobeying superior
o	Failure to obey a lawful order
o	maltreatment
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3
Q

Identify the methods used to maintain discipline

A
•	Administrative action
o	Unfavorable info
o	Control roster
o	Reenlistment request denial
o	Demotion
o	Admin discharge
o	Performance report
o	Letter of counselling
o	Verbal counselling
•	Nonjudicial punishment [Article 15]
o	Disciplinary measure
o	Imposed by commander
	Commander serves as judge and jury
	Punishment limited
   •	No criminal record
   •	No confinement
o	More serious than administrative offense
o	Less serious than a court-martial
o	For “minor offenses” but serious misconduct
o	Servicemember can decline and go to a court martial
	Accepting Article 15 doesn’t admit guilt
o	Punishments:
	Limited by rank and member
	Enlisted:
   •	Re-motivation
   •	Reduction in grade/forfeiture of pay
   •	Reprimand, restriction, and extra duty
	Officer:
•	Forfeiture of pay
•	Reprimand
•	Arrest in quarters
•	Restriction
o	See slides for chart comparing to Court Martial
•	Courts Martial
o	Last resort
o	See chart in slides
o	Article 31 is UCMJ version of Miranda
o	Jury members have to outrank defendant
o	Right against self-incrimination
o	Right to free counsel
o	Right against unreasonable searches and seizures
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4
Q

Identify the three types of courts-martial

A
  • Summary
  • Special
  • General
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5
Q

Describe the functions of the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA)

A

o Advise and assist CC and LE

o Prosecute

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6
Q

Describe the functions of the Area Defense Counsel (ADC)

A
o	Separate defense services agency
o	Implemented by Air Force 1974
o	Advise members
o	Defend members
o	One to two each base
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7
Q

State the Department of Defense (DOD) policy on substance abuse

A

It is DOD policy to prevent and eliminate drug and alcohol abuse and dependence from the DOD.
• Specifically, the policy is to:
o deter and identify drug and alcohol abuse and dependence that exist on installations and facilities under DOD control;
o not access military personnel or hire civilian employees who are drug dependent or active drug abusers;
o periodically assess the extent of drug and alcohol abuse in the DOD;
o provide education and training on DOD policies for drug and alcohol abuse and/or dependency;
o prohibit DOD personnel from possessing, selling, or using drugs or alcohol other than in accordance with laws, regulations, and policy;
o prohibit military members and DOD civilian from possessing, selling, or using drug abuse paraphernalia;
o prohibit the possession or sale of drug abuse paraphernalia on DOD installations.

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8
Q

State the steps a supervisor should take when a subordinate’s duty performance reveals a possible substance abuse problem

A
  • counseling,
  • referral,
  • reprimand, and
  • discharge
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9
Q

State the five methods for identifying substance abusers

A
  • Arrest, Apprehension, or Investigation
  • Incident to Medical Care
  • Commander Referral
  • Drug Testing
  • Self-identification
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10
Q

Identify how the results of the four methods of urinalysis testing may or may not be used

A

Inspection Under Military Rule of Evidence
o To refer a member to life skills
o As evidence to support disciplinary action under the UCMJ or administrative discharge action
o Consideration on the issue of characterization of discharge in separation proceedings

UCMJ PC Search and Seizure: results may be used
o Refer a member to life skills
o To support/as evidence in disciplinary action under the UCMJ or administrative discharge
o A consideration on the issue of characterization of discharge in separation proceedings

Command-directed exam: results may be used
o To refer a member to life skills
o Administrative discharge
o NOT in any disciplinary action under the UCMJ or on the issue of characterization of discharge in separation proceedings

Medical purposes: results may be used
o to refer a member to Life Skills
o as evidence to support disciplinary action under the UCMJ
o as evidence to support administrative discharge action
o maybe considered on the issue of characterization of discharge in separation proceedings

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11
Q

Describe the Alcohol/Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) program

A

• Primary objective:
o Promote readiness and health and wellness through treatment and prevention of substance abuse
o Minimize the negative consequences of substance abuse to individual, family, and organization
o Provide comprehensive education and treatment to individuals who experience problems attributed to substance abuse
o Return identified substance abusers to unrestricted duty status or assist in transition to civilian life
 Commanders still responsible for appropriate administrative actions such as discharge
o
• Treatment team meeting
o Non-clinical services
o Clinical services
• Program encouragement
• Transitional counselling

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12
Q

Define UPRs

A

o Any personal relationship
o Pursued on or off duty
o That detracts from authority of superiors or results in or reasonably creates the appearance of favoritism, misuse of position, or abandonment or organizational goals
o For personal interests

• Ask self:
o Is there command authority in the relationship?
o Is there supervisory authority?
o Is there rank disparity

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13
Q

Define fraternization

A

A personal relationship between an officer and enlisted member which violates the customary bounds of acceptable behavior in the Air Force and prejudices good order and discipline, discredits the armed services, or operates to the personal disgrace or dishonor of the officer involved

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14
Q

State the Air Force policy on professional relationships, UPRs and fraternization

A

• No gambling
• No sexual relationship
• No borrowing money or indebtedness
• No Shared living accommodations
• No Business ventures or soliciting sales
• Pre-existing marriage/serious relationships ok
• May have infrequent, professional social contacts with enlisted members if separation maintained
o Don’t use first names
• If unsure, just ask the commander
• Can get court-martialed UCMJ
o Art 92: violation of reg
 Lawful regulation exists
 Accused had duty to obey
 Accused failed to obey
o Art 134: fraternization (only officer can be charged)
 Accused was commissioned
 Accused fraternized
 Accused knew person was enlisted member
 Frat violated the custom of the service against frat on terms of military equality
 Prejudicial to GOAD or service discrediting
o Art 133: conduct unbecoming

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15
Q

List the elements of fraternization

A

 Accused must be an officer or warrant officer
 There must be an officer and enlisted involved
 The accused must have known the member is enlisted
 Must be specifically prohibited by the military service
 Must be service discrediting

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16
Q

State your responsibilities as a professional military officer for reporting a violation of the Law of Armed Conflict

A

• If at any time, you become aware of a violation of the Law of Armed Conflict, you are to report the violation to your immediate commander.
o The immediate commander is the lowest ranking individual with command responsibilities. This person may be different from your supervisor, who may or may not have command responsibility.
• If the commander is apparently involved in the incident, then the report should be made to the next higher person with command authority.
• The commander will then consult the Staff Judge Advocate and the proper investigative agency to deal with the violation

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17
Q

Name the two series of treaties that have the greatest influence on the Law of Armed Conflict

A
  • Hague conventions

* Geneva conventions

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18
Q

List the people who are entitled to Prisoner of War status under the Law of Armed Conflict

A

Members of armed forces
o uniformed, armed, and subject to an internal disciplinary system which includes a chain of command.
o Militia and volunteer units would also constitute part of the armed force.
o NOT mercenaries

Civilians who
o Are being invaded
o Openly carry arms
o Generally abide by the law of armed conflict

Civilians who accompany the armed forces, news correspondents, technical representatives, and supply contractors

Resistance groups where
o The force has a responsible command structure.
o The members wear a fixed distinctive insignia recognizable at a distance and they are distinguishable from the civilian population.
o The members carry their arms openly.
o The resistance must conduct its operations in accordance with the laws of armed conflict.

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19
Q

State when aircraft can attack targets located in an area densely populated with civilians

A

air forces can attack key military targets in heavily populated areas so long as the overall military gains outweigh the risks posed to the civilian population.

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20
Q

Identify the types of economic sanctions available to enforce the laws of war

A
  • Embargoes
  • boycotts
  • blockades
  • seizure of property belonging to the offending state
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21
Q

Explain Kelley’s Two-Dimensional Model of Follower Behavior

A
•	Passive/active axis and independent critical thinker/dependent uncritical thinking axis
•	Sheep:
o	Passive, dependent uncritical thinker
o	Lacks initiative
o	Does not play active role
o	Simply comply with any order given
•	Yes people: (conformist)
o	Active, dependent uncritical thinker
o	Readily carries out orders uncritically
o	Says what he thinks the boss wants to hear
•	Survivors:
o	Do just enough to get by
o	Rarely committed to work/group goals
o	Mediocre performer
o	“ROAD” – Retired on Active Duty
•	Effective follower:
o	Active, independent critical thinker
o	Work with others
o	Does not hesitate to express concerns
o	Problem solver
o	Reflects on mission goals
•	Alienated followers:
o	Passive, independent critical thinkers
o	Festering wounds
o	Criticizes but never offers constructive support
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22
Q

Identify the characteristics of the effective follower. [be able to recognize; see slides]

A
•	Exemplify AF Core Values
•	Decision Making
o	Sound thought processes
o	Achievement through teamwork
•	Communication Skills
o	Listening ability
o	 Reading comprehension
o	 Tactful feedback 
•	Commitment
o	Displays loyalty 
o	Fully supportive of the mission and leadership
o	Willing to go the “extra mile”                
•	Problem Solving
o	Wants to be challenged
o	Desires responsibility
•	Organizational Understanding
•	Flexibility
•	Competence
o	Never stops learning
o	Actions speak louder than words
o	Not afraid to share information
•	Courage
o	Stands up for what’s right
o	Knows when to speak
o	Knows when to be quiet
•	Enthusiasm
o	Passion and Excitement
o	Positive Attitude
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23
Q

State the purpose of the ACA

A

• Tell airman how he is doing
• To talk about
o Responsibility
o Accountability
o Air force culture
o Airman’s critical role in support of the mission
o Individual readiness
o Performance feedback on expectations to include information to assist the rate in achieving success
• Formal, written communication between a rater and rate to communicate
o Face to face meeting
• Learn strength and weaknesses
• Set and clarify expectations
• Discuss objectives, standards, behavior, and performance
o Written progress report before and after official evaluation is due
• Does not go into a person’s official record

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24
Q

Identify which Airmen are required to receive an ACA

A

AB - Col

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25
Q

State when ACA sessions are held for each rank

A

CMsgt/Col
* initial session within 60 days of being assigned a rater

AB - SMSgt/2d - Lt Col

  • initial session within 60 days of being assigned a rater
  • midterm session around 180 days

AB - TSgt/2d - Lt - Capt

  • initial session within 60 days of being assigned a rater
  • midterm session around 180 days
  • end-of reporting period
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26
Q

Describe the sources of rater errors

A

• Rating performance as “outstanding” when it isn’t
• Halo/Horns effect
o Where rater lets overall impression influence ratings
i. Well-liked people get favorable ratings
ii. Disliked people get unfavorable ratings
• Limited observation and poor recall
o Overlooking improvements on past performances
o Stereotypes
o Judging on most recent experiences rather than the entire period

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27
Q

Identify the ways to avoid rater errors

A

• Exhibit the right attitude: goal is to develop the individual
• Learn and practice good observation skills
• Gather and report supporting information
o Discriminate between relevant and irrelevant info
o Selective work sampling when direct observation is infrequent

28
Q

State the purpose of Enlisted Performance Reports (EPR)

A

• Provides an official record of performance as viewed by officials in the rating chain who are closest to the actual work environment
o Provides a reliable, long-term, cumulative record of performance and potential based on that performance
o Used to document performance and potential, and provide information for making promotion, retention, retirement, assignment, and other management decisions

29
Q

Identify who is required to receive an EPR

A
  • All enlisted members SrA thru CMSgt
  • A1C and below if they have 20 months or more of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS)
  • 2d - Col
30
Q

Identify when an EPR is required

A

Once a year with static closeout date by rank

31
Q

Describe the promotion methods for enlisted personnel

A

• Fully qualified:
o All must meet time in grade requirements
o E-4 senior Amn:
• Step promotion: (stripes for exceptional performers
o For those individuals whose performance and potential clearly set them far above their peers
o Very limited in numbers
o E-5 through E-7
• WAPS: (E-5 SSgt through E-7 MSgt phase 1)
o Traditional approach calculating points from various sources
• Scores from last three EPRs (250 pts)
• Specialty knowledge test score (100 pts)
• Professional development guide test (100 pts)
• Time in service (26 pts)
• Time in grade (60 pts)
• Decorations (25 pts)
• Total possible points: (536 pts)
• WAPS MSgt:
o For TSgt in top 60% of their air force specialty field, get to go on to phase II MSgt
• Special board looks at all EPRs, read them thoroughly to get central board score (450 pts)
• Whole Person Concept (SMSgt & CMSgt)
o Supervisory exam (100)
o Time in service (26)
o Time in grade (40)
o Decorations (25)
o Central board score (10 years of EPRs) (450)

32
Q

State an officer’s responsibilities to subordinates in the career progression system

A
  • Career development counselling
  • Seek out additional duties
  • Provide for self-development
  • E.g. time off to study, free lunch hour to take class
  • Correct deficiencies
  • Recognize outstanding contributions and achievements
33
Q

Describe the three steps of the evaluation process

A
  • Observation: actual observation of ratee doing job
  • Planning and prep
  • Communication
  • feedback
  • Evaluation
  • Judge observed performance
  • Predetermined standards
  • Performance of others
  • Members of the same AFSC and grade
  • Documentation
  • Record results
  • Primary method of identifying best qualified
34
Q

Describe the different types of performance reports and uses for each

A

• Airman comprehensive assessment (ACA)
• OPR
o Completed annually, no static closeout date
o AF Form 707
 2d Lt – Col
 Duty description
• 4 lines
• Bullets
• No field for special additional duties, but can go in bullets if very significant
 Performance standards same for all grades
 Factors summarized on front of form
• Boxes for “meets standards”, “does not meet standards”, “fitness exemption
o Another box on back if does not meet standards; becomes a referral OPR
 Much more significant than a referral EPR; worse consequences
 Can happen if don’t pass PT test prior to OPR completion
 Rater overall assessment box (bos)
• 6 lines, bullet format
• Items at squadron level
• Last line push statement
 Additional rater overall assessment (boss’s boss)
• 4 lines, bullet format
• Items with impact at wing level
• Last line push note
 Feedback section
 Ratee acknowledgement
• Does not constitute agreement, just awareness
o All past OPRs looked at before a promotion
o No numerical grading
• PRF
o Prepared by senior rater
o Biggest impact on promotions, top of records
o “best qualified” based on performance and Performance-Based Potential
o 9 lines comprised of bullets from other documents (OPRs, etc)
• Other
o Used for
 Promotions
 Assignments
 Investigations
 Disciplinary/legal actions
 NOT used as counseling tool
o Training report
 Training of 8 weeks or more
 Will document distinguished graduates, etc
o Letter of evaluation
 Not official, but used when rate is away from rater; written by supervisor
• Rater can copy and paste contents to OPR
o Appeal
 Rate must prove inaccuracy
 Up to 3 years

35
Q

Identify inappropriate comments for performance reports

A
•	Charges/investigations that are not completed
•	Acquittals
•	Recommendations for decorations
o	Can talk about decorations received
•	Race, gender, age, religion, etc
•	Drug/alcohol rehab programs
•	Previous ratings or reports
•	Developmental education completion or enrollment
o	CAN put recommendation for one of these programs
•	Advance academic education
o	Can put this on EPR, but not OPR
•	Promotion recommendations
36
Q

Identify the five rules of supervision

A
•	Get involved
o	Get to know your people
o	Show interest
o	Sense of mission
	Have plan
	Share the vision
•	Open channels of communication
o	Encourage discussion
o	Open door policy
o	Active listener
o	Resolve conflict
•	Give your people a chance to develop
o	Be aware of requirements and limitations
o	Match people to work
	Experience
	Education, training
o	Encourage task rotations
•	Establish standards and stick to them
o	AF standards
o	Your personal standard
•	Provide feedback
o	Constructive criticism
o	Focus on job behaviors
o	Praise in public, discipline in private
o	Immediate
37
Q

Identify tasks that shouldn’t be delegated

A
  • Conceptual planning
  • Morale issues
  • Staff problems
  • Performance reports
  • Pet projects
38
Q

Identify common mistakes made by supervisors while delegating

A
  • Improper selection of subordinates
  • Supervising too closely
  • Rushed delegation
39
Q

Explain the four steps in delegation.

A
•	Define the task
o	Planning/thinking step
o	Is it suitable for delegation?
o	Are there qualified personnel?
•	Assign task
o	Choose right person
o	Make sure task is clear and understood
•	Grant authority
o	Enough power to do the task
•	Follow-up
o	Get feedback
40
Q

Define corrective supervision

A

Process leader uses to promote individual behavior changes in a work situation

41
Q

Explain the steps of the Intervention Process Model

A
  • Make decision to intervene
  • Use supportive and assertive interaction skill
  • Involve person with problem in developing solution
  • Put issue in perspective
42
Q

Identify ways to involve the counselee in developing solutions to problems

A

• Focus on performance, not the personality
o Treat subject as adult
o Create a collaborative environment
o Separate discipline from punishment
• Agree on solution
o Sub has responsibility to change behavior
o Discuss why a change in performance and behavior must occur
• Follow up on results

43
Q

Differentiate between aggressive, assertive, and passive communication

A

• Aggressive: focused on moving against supervisee
o Win/lose situation
• Passive: focused on avoiding the situation
o Goal is to appease or avoid
• Assertive: focused on behavior and solution
o Win/Win situation; Goal is to find mutual solution
o Best change to affect positive change

44
Q

Describe the traits of a good counselor

A
  • Sincerity: interest in counselee and their problem
  • Integrity: more likely to confide in someone they trust
  • Good listener: attentively and perceptively
45
Q

Identify the three counseling approaches: directive, nondirective, and eclectic

A

• Directive:
o Counselor-centered
o Doctor/patient type relationship; diagnosis and treatment
o Traditional approach “problem solving”
o Not effective with emotions or strong attitudes
 Not emotional
• Non-directive
o Counselee-centered
o Free counselee from hindrances to normal growth
o Counselor doesn’t solve problem or mentor
o Gives counselee an opportunity to talk things out
• Eclectic
o Combination of directive and non-directive (best of both worlds)
o Cooperation/responsibility on both
o Allows most flexibility when dealing with different situations

46
Q

Explain the aspects of the three counseling skills: watching and listening, responding, and guiding

A
•	Watching and listening
o	Eye contact
o	Posture
o	Head nods
o	Facial expressions
•	Responding
o	Questioning
o	Summarizing
o	Interpreting
o	Informing
o	confronting
•	Guiding
o	Adds structure and organization
o	Helps subordinate to reach his own solution
47
Q

Identify the “ultimate” and “direct” sources of an officer’s authority

A

• Direct: POTUS
• Ultimate: Constitution
o Art II s. 2 appoint POTUS as CinC

48
Q

Identify the types of officer authority

A

• Legal:
o Spelled out in directives (rules and regs)
• Moral
o Inherent in an officer’s commission
o Officer deciding , based on her judgment of a situation, to deviate from instructions or directives

49
Q

Explain the guidelines that must be met for an order to be enforceable

A

• Must be within the limits of the authority of the issuing author
• Related to military duty, morale, or discipline
• Clear and unequivocal
• Received and understood
• [Limits
o Delegation
 Giving up parts of authority to others
o Command function
 Perform functions specific to office of CC
 May not be delegated to officers not legally appointed as CCs
 Normally only CCs may impose NJP under Art 15; subordinates recommend.
o Lawful orders
 No authority to issue unlawful orders
o Due process of law
 May not deprive subordinates of liberty or property as a punitive measure w/out due process
o Private lives
 May not deny subordinates right to pursue private life as she chooses, unless military necessity requires otherwise
o American citizens
 Hold the reigns of congress which decides how much authority officers have]

50
Q

Identify an officer’s responsibilities (in order)

A

• Enforce
o UCMJ
o customs and courtesies
o Good order and discipline
• Mission:
o Primary responsibility: only reason for the existence of the military
• Higher headquarters
o Always responsible o the next level up the chain; much better position to visualize/interpret overall mission
• Collateral units
o Orgs outside your unit who support the mission
• Unit welfare
o Maintain proper supplies/equipment for mission accomplishment
o Maintain high degree of morale
• Individuals
• Yourself
o Self-discipline: physically, mentally, and spiritually
• To act decisively
o Make timely, well-thought-out decisions
• Community
o You and your unit represent the AF to the civilian community; maintain and enforce standards of conduct and appearance

51
Q

Define each Reserve category

A

• Ready
o Units and individuals subject to be ordered to active duty to augment the active forces in time of war or national emergency
 3 numbered units
• Traditional reserves
o Once a month plus two weeks
• Air reserve tech
• Active guard reserve
o Full-time military duty for 180+ days
 3 categories
• Selective
o Designated to essential wartime mission and prepared for active duty within 72 hour notice
o Priority for training, equipment, and personnel
• Individual ready reserve
o Have served active duty or selected reserve
o Have remaining military service obligation
o Eligible
• Inactive army national guard
o Do not train with assigned unit
o Dual mission:
 State (Title 32) (Militia Clause)
• Protect life and property
• Peace and order
• State governor – state adjutants general – state air guard units
 Federal (Title 10)
• President – SECDEF – SOFA & SECAF
o Traditional and full0time
 Traditional
• Serve at unit once a month and two weeks every year
• Since 9/11, average 4 additional months beyond annual commitment
 Full-time
• Civil service
• Work under title 5
 Active Guard Reserve
• Full-time military duty with military benefit
• Standby
o Reservists who maintain military affiliation in one of two statuses (active or inactive)
o Removed fro mready researve due to circus such as civilian employment or temporary hardship
• Retired
o Personnel who reeive retirement pay (have served a combination of 20 years combined active or reserved) but have not yet reached 60

52
Q

State how the Air National Guard differs constitutionally from the USAF

A

Militias?

53
Q

Identify the four categories of Reserve accessibility

A

• Full mobilization
o Requires declaration of war
o Gives SECAF access to the full reserves
 Deploy ready reserves prior to standby or retired reserves
o Duration of conflict plus 6 mos
o USC title 10
o Last used in World War II
• Partial mobilization
o 1,000,000 members of ready reserve
o Up to 24 months
o President must declare national emergency
o Last used at 9/11
• Presidential selected reserve call-up
o Up to 270 days
o Up to 200,000 selected reserve personnel
o President must notify congress (but doesn’t have to do it ahead of time)
o Used during Persian gulf war
• Volunteers
o Provide the majority of personnel in times of war and peace
o USC tile 10

54
Q

Describe joint operations

A

• Integrated and synchronized application of all appropriate capabilities for a unified effort
• Team warfare
o synergy
• Contains two or more military services (departments)
o Marines + Navy doesn’t count as joint
• Joint Pub 1 and 3-0
o Joint ops follow joint doctrine
 Natl Security Act of 1947
 Reorganization Act of 1958
 Goldwater-Nichols Reorg Act of 1986
• Mandated joint doctrine
• Two branches of military chain of command:
o Operational
 SECDEF – Unified Combatant Commander (e.g., CENTCOM) – Components (Land, Maritime, Air, Special Ops)
o Administrative
 SECDEF – CJCS/Joint Chiefs – Forces not assigned to combatant commander

55
Q

State the range of military operations

A
  • Crisis Response (Limited contingency ops) Major Ops and Campaigns
  • Military Engagement, Security, Cooperation, and deterrence
  • Range of Military Ops: can start as one thing and turn into another
56
Q

Outline the operational joint chain of command from the President to the individual components

A
  • POTUS
  • SECDEF
  • Unified Commandant/Joint Forces
  • Land, Maritime, Air (JFACC), Special Ops
57
Q

Identify the joint warfare values

A
•	Integrity: 
o	Say what you mean, do what you say
•	Competence:
o	Those you lead deserve no less
•	Physical Courage:
o	You never know when …
•	Moral courage:
o	Always do what is right
•	Teamwork
o	Essential to joint ops
58
Q

State the definition of terrorism according to Joint Publication 3-07.2

A

• The unlawful use of violence or threat of violence to instill fear and coerce governments or societies. Terrorism is often motivated by religious, political, or other ideological beliefs and committed to the pursuit of goals that are usually political.
o Violence
o Political motivation
o Fear
• Contrast with guerilla warfare
o Targets: military, police, political opponents
o International legality: yes, if following law of armed conflict

59
Q

Describe the three typologies of terrorists and terror groups

A

• Political: force governments to change structure or policies, or to achieve radical societal change
• Religious: objectives/actions divinely guided, often tied to ethnic and nationalist identities
• Social: “special interest”
o E.g. animal rights activists

60
Q

List the six possible terrorist objectives as described in the lesson

A
  • Attract attention to a cause
  • Demonstrate group’s power
  • Show government’s lack of power
  • Exact revenge
  • Obtain logistical support
  • Cause government to overreact
61
Q

State the most common terrorist tactic

A
•	Assassination
•	Arson
•	Hostage taking (overt)
•	Kidnapping (covert)
•	Hijacking or skyjacking
•	Seizure (usually building)
•	Raids/attacks on facilities
•	Sabotage (destruction of equipment or infrastructure)
•	Threat or hoaxes
•	Use of WMD
•	Bombings
o	Improvised explosive devices (IEDs)
62
Q

State the four enduring policy principles that guide US counterterrorism strategy

A
  • Make no concessions to terrorists
  • Bring those who commit crimes to justice
  • Apply pressure to those states supporting terrorists
  • Bolster counterterrorist capabilities of those countries that work with the united states
63
Q

Identify your rights in the Military Justice system

A

You retain mainly the same legal rights you had as a civilian. The Constitution and the UCMJ guarantee and protect your legal rights.
o Right to remain silent
o Right to have an attorney

64
Q

Differentiate between Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) and Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM).

A

• MCM: to address the field of military justice as thoroughly as possible under the restrictions of a working manual. The MCM contains a wide range of materials, including the full texts of the US Constitution, UCMJ, and authority, composition, and procedures of court-martial. It also includes texts on rules of evidence applicable in courtmartial and on the punitive articles and guides for writing most charges and specifications to state an offense according to the UCMJ
o Not just a guide
o Full force and effect of law
o Binding on all personnel subject to the UCMJ
o Implemented by Executive Order
• UCMJ:
o Part of the US Code
o Modified and consolidated the following:
o Articles of War
o Articles for the Government of the Navy
o Disciplinary Laws of the Coast Guard
o Contains the Punitive Articles (77-134)

65
Q

State the reason our adversaries have been able to close the technological gap between our respective militaries

A

highly networked business practices and information technology are providing opportunities for foreign intelligence and security services, trusted insiders, hackers, and others to target and collect sensitive US national security and economic data

66
Q

State the impact of US efforts against Al-Qa’ida since 2008.

A

erode good governance, cripple the rule of law through corruption, hinder economic competitiveness, steal vast amounts of money, and traffic millions of people around the globe

67
Q

State the ways that Transnational Organized Crime (TOC) networks threaten US national interests

A

erode good governance, cripple the rule of law through corruption, hinder economic competitiveness, steal vast amounts of money, and traffic millions of people around the globe
o drug activity
o facilitating terrorist activity